UPSC Prelims 2017 Analysis
Subject wise MCQ distribution
- Polity and Governance: The highest weightage in the exam, with questions focusing on core constitutional concepts like democracy and rights, highlighting a return to traditional themes. Many followed the assertion-reasoning format, testing analytical abilities.
Economy: Heavily current affairs-based, covering topics such as GST, Monetary Policy Committee, and post-1991 reforms. Conceptual clarity was crucial for elimination-based questions.
Geography and Environment: Required conceptual clarity and linkages with current affairs, such as the Indian Ocean Dipole. Many questions incorporated maps for better understanding.
History: Weightage remained consistent, but factual knowledge was essential, especially for match the following and multi-statement questions.
Science & Technology: Mostly news-based, testing awareness of recent developments in biotechnology, AI, and space technology.
Government Schemes & Initiatives: A prominent focus area, covering policies related to education, health, and nutrition. Many questions were framed using the elimination technique.

Difficulty analysis
- Easy: Some Polity and Economy questions were straightforward for those who had covered NCERT and standard sources.
- Moderate: Many required linking static and dynamic aspects, such as governance and current affairs.
- Difficult: Environment, Geography, and factual History questions were particularly challenging.
- Tricky: Questions on conventions and alliances where India is not a member, along with misleadingly framed government initiative questions, posed difficulties.

Variations in Question framing
- Direct Questions: 42 direct questions, emphasizing understanding over rote memorization.
- Multi-Statement Based Questions: A significant 58 multi-statement questions, requiring a mix of static and current affairs knowledge. These took longer to solve but allowed option elimination.
- Application-Oriented Questions: Required candidates to link current events with static concepts, testing analytical abilities.
- Elimination-Based Questions: Many options were closely framed, making elimination techniques challenging.
- Deceptively Worded Questions: Designed to test deep knowledge, especially in areas like the National Investment and Infrastructure Fund.

Key learning for Future Preparation
- Strengthen Static Concepts: Read NCERTs and standard books thoroughly for a solid foundation.
- Follow a Reliable Newspaper: Sources like The Hindu, Indian Express, PIB, and PRS are essential for current affairs integration.
- Regularly Revise Government Schemes: Many questions are framed around policies from the India Year Book.
- Adopt a Balanced Approach: Expect a mix of analytical and factual questions; both require preparation.
- Use the Elimination Technique Wisely: Read questions carefully and systematically eliminate options to maximize accuracy.
- Avoid Over-Attempting: The tricky nature of the paper means reckless attempts can lead to penalties through negative marking.
- Strengthen Core Subjects: Excelling in Polity or History can help maximize scores in difficult papers.
- Solve Previous Year Papers: Recurring themes like the Trade Disputes Act and Liberalization highlight the importance of PYQs.
Subject-Wise Answer Key
QUESTION 1
In India, Judicial Review implies -
A. The power of the Judiciary to pronounce upon the constitutionality of laws and executive orders.
B. The power of the Judiciary to question the wisdom of the laws enacted by the Legislatures.
C. The power of the Judiciary to review all the legislative enactments before they are assented to by the President.
D. The power of the Judiciary to review its own judgements given earlier in similar or different cases.
QUESTION 2
One of the implications of equality in society is the absence of -
A. Privileges
B. Restraints
C. Competition
D. Ideology
QUESTION 3
Local self-government can be best explained as an exercise in -
A. Federalism
B. Democratic decentralization
C. Administrative delegation
D. Direct democracy
QUESTION 4
The mind of the makers of the Constitution of India is reflected in which of the following?
A. The Preamble
B. The Fundamental Rights
C. The Directive Principles of State Policy
D. The Fundamental Duties
QUESTION 5
Which of the following are not necessarily the consequences of the proclamation of the President’s rule in a State?
- Dissolution of the State Legislative Assembly
- Removal of the Council of Ministers in the State
- Dissolution of the local bodies
Which of the above-given statements is correct?
A. 1 and 2 only
B. 1 and 3 only
C. 2 and 3 only
D. 1, 2 and 3
QUESTION 6
Consider the following statements:
- In the election for Lok Sabha or State Assembly, the winning candidate must get at least 50 per cent of the votes polled, to be declared elected.
- According to the provisions laid down in the Constitution of India, in Lok Sabha, the Speaker’s post goes to the majority party and the Deputy Speaker’s to the Opposition. Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
A. 1 only
B. 2 only
C. Both 1 and 2
D. Neither 1 nor 2
QUESTION 7
Which principle among the following was added to the Directive Principles of State Policy by the 42nd Amendment to the Constitution?
A. Equal pay for equal work for both men and women
B. Participation of workers in management of industries
C. Right to work, education and public assistance
D. Securing living wage and human conditions of work to workers
QUESTION 8
Which of the following statements is/are true of the Fundamental Duties of an Indian citizen?
- A legislative process has been provided to enforce these duties.
- They are correlative to legal duties. Select the correct answer using the code given below:
A. 1 only
B. 2 only
C. Both 1 and 2
D. Neither 1 nor 2
QUESTION 9
Out of the following statements, choose the one that brings out the principle underlying the Cabinet form of Government:
A. An arrangement for minimizing the criticism against the Government whose responsibilities are complex and hard to carry out to the satisfaction of all.
B. A mechanism for speeding up the activities of the Government whose responsibilities are increasing day by day.
C. A mechanism of parliamentary democracy for ensuring collective responsibility of the Government to the people.
D. A device for strengthening the hands of the head of the Government whose hold over the people is in a state of decline.
QUESTION 10
The main advantage of the parliamentary form of government is that -
A. The executive and legislature work independently.
B. It provides continuity of policy and is more efficient.
C. The executive remains responsible to the legislature.
D. The head of the government cannot be changed without the election.
QUESTION 11
Which of the following are envisaged by the Right against Exploitation in the Constitution of India?
- Prohibition of traffic in human beings and forced labour
- Abolition of untouchability
- Protection of the interests of minorities
- Prohibition of employment of children in factories and mines Select the correct answer using the code given below:
A. 1, 2 and 4 only
B. 2, 3 and 4 only
C. 1 and 4 only
D. 1, 2, 3 and 4
QUESTION 12
Consider the following statements: With reference to the Constitution of India, the Directive Principles of State Policy constitute limitations upon
- Legislative function.
- Executive function. Which of the above statements is/are correct?
A. 1 only
B. 2 only
C. Both 1 and 2
D. Neither 1 nor 2
QUESTION 13
With reference to the Parliament of India, consider the following statements:
- A private member’s bill is a bill presented by a Member of Parliament who is not elected but only nominated by the President of India.
- Recently, a private member’s bill has been passed in the Parliament of India for the first time in its history. Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
A. 1 only
B. 2 only
C. Both 1 and 2
D. Neither 1 nor 2
QUESTION 14
The Parliament of India exercises control over the functions of the Council of Ministers through -
- Adjournment motion
- Question hour
- Supplementary questions Select the correct answer using the code given below:
A. 1 only
B. 2 and 3 only
C. 1 and 3 only
D. 1, 2 and 3
QUESTION 15
Which one of the following objectives is not embodied in the Preamble to the Constitution of India?
A. Liberty of thought
B. Economic liberty
C. Liberty of expression
D. Liberty of belief
QUESTION 16
Which one of the following statements is correct?
A. Rights are claims of the State against the citizens.
B. Rights are privileges which are incorporated in the Constitution of a State.
C. Rights are claims of the citizens against the State.
D. Rights are privileges of a few citizens against the many.
QUESTION 17
For election to the Lok Sabha, a nomination paper can be filed by -
A. Anyone residing in India.
B. A resident of the constituency from which the election is to be contested.
C. Any citizen of India whose name appears in the electoral roll of a constituency.
D. Any citizen of India.
QUESTION 18
Consider the following statements:
- The Election Commission of India is a five-member body.
- Union Ministry of Home Affairs decides the election schedule for the conduct of both general elections and by-elections.
- Election Commission resolves the disputes relating to splits/mergers of recognized political parties. Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
A. 1 and 2 only
B. 2 only
C. 2 and 3 only
D. 3 only
QUESTION 19
In the context of India, which one of the following is the correct relationship between Rights and Duties?
A. Rights are correlative with Duties.
B. Rights are personal and hence independent of society and Duties.
C. Rights, not Duties, are important for the advancement of the personality of the citizen.
D. Duties, not Rights, are important for the stability of the State.
QUESTION 20
Democracy’s superior virtue lies in the fact that it calls into activity
A. The intelligence and character of ordinary men and women.
B. The methods for strengthening executive leadership.
C. A superior individual with dynamism and vision.
D. A band of dedicated party workers.
QUESTION 21
Right to vote and to be elected in India is a -
A. Fundamental Right
B. Natural Right
C. Constitutional Right
D. Legal Right
QUESTION 22
Which one of the following is not a feature of Indian federalism?
A. There is an independent judiciary in India.
B. Powers have been clearly divided between the Centre and the States.
C. The federating units have been given unequal representation in the Rajya Sabha.
D. It is the result of an agreement among the federating units.