UPSC Prelims 2017 Analysis

Explanation

Statement 1 is Incorrect: Whether the owner is aware or not isn't the sole factor. A property transaction can be considered benami if -The property is transferred to one person (benamidar) for a consideration paid by another (real owner). -The transaction is conducted in a fictitious name.

Statement 2 is Correct: Properties held benami are indeed liable for confiscation by the Central Government. This discourages the practice of using benami transactions to hide ownership.

Statement 3 is Incorrect: The PBPT Act does provide for an appellate mechanism. Here's the hierarchy. The Adjudicating Authority Investigates and decides on benami transactions initially. Appellate Tribunal Parties aggrieved by the Adjudicating Authority's decision can appeal to this tribunal.

Therefore, the correct answer is 2 only.Hence, option B is the correct answer.

Explanation

The power of the Judiciary to pronounce upon the constitutionality of laws and executive orders.

Judicial Review in India refers to the power of the Judiciary to examine laws and executive actions to ensure they comply with the Constitution of India.

This power allows the courts to strike down any law or executive order that is found to be unconstitutional, thereby upholding the supremacy of the Constitution.

Judicial Review is an essential feature of the Basic Structure Doctrine, ensuring the protection of fundamental rights and the separation of powers between the legislature, executive, and judiciary.

Thus, Judicial Review acts as a safeguard against unconstitutional actions and reinforces the rule of law in India.

Explanation

Statement 1 is Correct: The Monetary Policy Committee (MPC) does decide the RBI's benchmark interest rates. This is its primary function, and it influences the cost of borrowing and lending in the economy.

Statement 2 is Incorrect: The MPC is a 6-member body, not 12. It includes the Governor of RBI and other members appointed by the government. The committee is not reconstituted every year, but members serve for specified terms.

Statement 3 is Incorrect: The MPC functions under the chairmanship of the Governor of RBI, not the Union Finance Minister.

Therefore, the correct answer is 1 only.Hence, option A is the correct answer.

Explanation

E-NAM (National Agriculture Market) is an online trading platform for agriculture produce aiming to help farmers, traders, and buyers with online trading and getting a better price through smooth marketing.

Statement 1 is Correct: Pan-India electronic trading portal (Correct) This is a core feature of NAM. It creates a unified online platform where farmers can connect with buyers from across the country, eliminating geographical restrictions and potentially increasing market access.

Statement 2 is Correct: Access to nationwide markets and better prices (Correct) NAM allows farmers to see prices prevailing in various mandis (wholesale markets) across the country. This transparency empowers them to choose the market offering the best price for their produce, potentially fetching them higher returns compared to traditional, localised markets.

Therefore, the correct answer is 1 and 2 both are correct.Hence, option C is the correct answer.

Explanation

The Global Infrastructure Facility (GIF) is a partnership between governments, multilateral development banks, private sector investors, and financiers.

The GIF provides comprehensive project support by utilizing the combined expertise of its technical and advisory partners, including commercial banks and institutional investors. This ensures that well-structured and bankable infrastructure projects are brought to market sustainably, meeting the needs of governments and service users.

The GIF partnership is overseen by a Governing Council that supervises strategic programming and funds management, as well as the development of operational policies and procedures. Additionally, the Governing Council holds the GIF's management accountable for delivering on objectives and principles. The Governing Council is composed of representatives of funding and technical partners, as well as representatives of emerging markets and developing economies. It is co-chaired by the World Bank Group and a Funding Partner.

Explanation

The unique phenomenon you described, where the seawater recedes several kilometres twice a day, exposing the seabed for walking, can be seen at Chandipur Beach in Odisha, India.

Chandipur Beach is also known as the "hide-and-seek beach" due to this fascinating tidal phenomenon. The receding water allows visitors to explore the seabed, revealing seashells and marine life during low tide.

Hence, option C is the correct answer.

Explanation

Historical records and literary references point towards Motupalli being a significant trading centre for the Kakatiya dynasty. The famous traveller Marco Polo might have even visited this port during his travels.

Explanation

M-STRIPES stands for Monitoring System for Tigers - Intensive Protection and Ecological Status. It's a software-based program launched by the Indian government's National Tiger Conservation Authority (NTCA) to -Strengthen protection efforts for Bengal tigers in Indian tiger reserves. -Enhance monitoring and patrolling activities by forest guards.

Explanation

Unnat Bharat Abhiyan is inspired by the vision of transformational change in rural development processes by leveraging knowledge institutions to help build the architecture of an Inclusive India .

The Mission of Unnat Bharat Abhiyan is to enable higher educational institutions to work with the people of rural India in identifying development challenges and evolving appropriate solutions for accelerating sustainable growth. It also aims to create a virtuous cycle between society and an inclusive academic system by providing knowledge and practices for emerging professions and to upgrade the capabilities of both the public and the private sectors in responding to the development needs of rural India.

Explanation

Statement 1 is incorrect. Vidyanjali Yojana is not focused on attracting foreign universities to set up campuses in India.

Statement 2 is correct. Vidyanjali Yojana aims to improve government schools by leveraging resources and expertise from the private sector (retired professionals, NGOs) and the community (volunteers).

Statement 3 is incorrect. While the initiative might indirectly lead to improved infrastructure due to volunteer efforts, its primary focus is not on monetary contributions for infrastructure development.

Explanation

Equality means that everyone has the same rights and opportunities, ensuring a fair and just society.

Privileges: They are the opposite of equality because they represent unearned advantages enjoyed by a select few, contradicting the principle that all individuals should have the same rights and opportunities.

Restraints: Some restrictions are necessary to maintain fairness, protect rights, and prevent harm (e.g., laws against discrimination). These restraints can coexist with equality rather than opposing it.

Competition: A society can be both competitive and equal if opportunities are fairly distributed. Competition can drive innovation and progress, but it does not inherently contradict equality.

Ideology: The impact of ideology on equality depends on its nature. Some ideologies promote social justice and equal rights, while others reinforce inequalities. However, ideology itself is not inherently opposed to equality.

Explanation

Gravitational waves are ripples in the fabric of spacetime, predicted by Einstein's theory of general relativity.

eLISA is a space-based gravitational wave observatory that can detect and study these gravitational waves.

It is a joint project of the European Space Agency (ESA) and the National Aeronautics and Space Administration (NASA). eLISA is designed to detect gravitational waves from astronomical sources such as merging black holes and neutron stars. It would use laser interferometry to measure the tiny distortions in spacetime caused by passing gravitational waves. Detecting gravitational waves would provide important insights into the nature of gravity and the evolution of the universe.

Explanation

Statement 1 is Incorrect: Share of agriculture in GDP has actually decreased since 1991, as the service sector has grown significantly.

Statement 2 is Correct: Share of India's exports in world trade has increased. India has become a more integrated part of the global economy, with a larger export footprint.

Statement 3 is Correct: FDI inflows have increased considerably. The liberalisation measures made India a more attractive destination for foreign investment.

Statement 4 is Correct: India's foreign exchange reserves have also increased enormously. This reflects India's improved ability to generate foreign currency and manage its external finances.

Therefore, the correct answer is 2, 3, and 4 only.Hence, option B is the correct answer.

Explanation

Statement 1 is correct. Genome sequencing can help identify specific genes or genetic markers associated with desirable traits like disease resistance and drought tolerance in crop plants, which can then be used for selective breeding and genetic improvement.

Statement 2 is correct. Genome sequencing can accelerate the process of developing new crop varieties by providing a better understanding of the genetic makeup and facilitating more targeted breeding programs, thereby reducing the time required for varietal development.

Statement 3 is correct. Genome sequencing can help researchers understand the genetic interactions between crop plants and their pathogens, which can aid in developing better strategies for disease management and resistance.

Therefore, all the statements regarding the use of genome sequencing in agriculture in the immediate future are correct.

Explanation

In India, section 70-B of the Information Technology Act, 2000 (the IT Act) gives the Central Government the power to appoint an agency of the government to be called the Indian Computer Emergency Response Team.

Further, it is legally mandatory for service providers, data centres and body corporates to report on cybersecurity incidents as outlined in the Information Technology (The Indian Computer Emergency Response Team and Manner of Performing Functions and Duties) Rules, 2013, which were notified under the Information Technology Act, 2000.

Explanation

In 1972, the Wild Life (Protection) Act (WPA) was enacted for the protection of wild animals, birds and plants.

It was made to prevent hunting and also to control trade in wildlife products. Wildlife laws divide species into schedules ranked from I to V.

Section 9 of WPA prohibits hunting of any wild animal specified in Schedules 1, 2, 3, and 4.

Tiger is listed in Schedule I of the act. So if a species is listed in Schedule I of the act, It enjoys the same level of protection as the tiger.

Note: The Wildlife (Protection) Act, of 1972 underwent amendments in 2022 which impacted the scheduling of wild animals.

Previously, there were six schedules. The amendment streamlined them into four schedules.

Explanation

Local self-government is a key aspect of democratic decentralization, ensuring governance at the grassroots level.

In India, local self-government refers to governing bodies operating below the state level, forming the third tier of governance in the federal structure. The 73rd and 74th Constitutional Amendments provide constitutional status and protection to Panchayati Raj Institutions (rural) and Urban Local Bodies (urban), respectively. Additionally, each state enacts its own legislation to regulate local governance.

Democratic decentralization is the foundation of local self-government, emphasizing:

• Democracy: Local citizens actively participate in governance through elected representatives, ensuring direct engagement in decision-making.
• Decentralization: Authority and responsibilities are transferred from central and state governments to local bodies, empowering communities to address region-specific issues and enhance efficient governance.

Thus, local self-government in India strengthens grassroots democracy, fosters self-reliance, and ensures better service delivery to the people.

Explanation

Sathyamangalam Wildlife Sanctuary and Tiger Reserve is a protected area and Tiger Reserve along the Western Ghats in the Indian state of Tamil Nadu.

Largest among the four tiger reserves (Kalakad-Mundanthurai, Annamalai, Mudumalai and Sathyamangalam) in Tamil Nadu, STR is a significant wildlife corridor in the Nilgiri Biosphere Reserve between the Western Ghats and the rest of the Eastern Ghats, serving as a genetic link to contiguous protected areas including the Biligiriranga Swamy Temple Wildlife Sanctuary, Sigur Plateau, Mudumalai National Park and Bandipur National Park.

Explanation

The countries bordering the Mediterranean Sea among the given options are :

• Lebanon (3)
• Syria (4)

The Mediterranean Sea is a large body of water separating Europe and Africa.

While several countries have coastlines on the Mediterranean, Jordan and Iraq are landlocked countries in Western Asia and don't border this sea. Hence, option C is the correct answer.

Explanation

The Second Round Table Conference took place in London in September 1931. It aimed to discuss constitutional reforms in India but ultimately failed to reach a consensus.

The Quit India Movement was launched by Mahatma Gandhi in August 1942, demanding an immediate end to British rule in India.

The Mutiny in Royal Indian Navy occurred in February 1946. It was a major uprising by Indian sailors against the British Raj, though it happened after the Quit India Movement. Thus correct chronology of events is 3-2-1 i.e. option 'C'.

Explanation

TRAFFIC is a joint initiative of the World Wide Fund for Nature (WWF) and the International Union for Conservation of Nature (IUCN).TRAFFIC is not a bureau under UNEP. So, statement 1 is incorrect.

TRAFFIC is a leading non-governmental organization (NGO) that works globally to monitor the trade in wild animals and plants. Its mission aligns with ensuring sustainable and legal wildlife trade that doesn't threaten conservation efforts. Hence, statement 2 is correct.

Explanation

Statement 1 is incorrect. The National Career Service is not an initiative of the Department of Personnel and Training, Government of India. It is actually implemented by the Directorate General of Employment, Ministry of Labour & Employment.

Statement 2 is incorrect. The National Career Service has indeed been launched in a Mission Mode, but it is not specifically targeted at improving the employment opportunities for uneducated youth of the country. It is a comprehensive platform providing a wide array of employment and career related services to all citizens of India, aiming to bridge the gap between jobseekers and employers, candidates seeking training and career guidance, and agencies providing training and career counselling.

Explanation

The Preamble to the Constitution of India serves as a window into the vision and intent of its makers.

Here's why:

• It is the introductory statement that lays the philosophical and ideological foundation of the Constitution, shaping the governance framework of the nation.
• It expresses the aspirations and objectives envisioned by the framers, such as securing justice, liberty, equality, and fraternity for all citizens.
• It enshrines fundamental principles like sovereignty, democracy, secularism, socialism, and a republic, which define the nature of the Indian state.

While provisions like Fundamental Rights and Directive Principles of State Policy further elaborate these ideals, the Preamble serves as a concise yet powerful expression of the framers’ intent, reflecting the essence of India's constitutional philosophy.

Explanation

Statement 1 is correct. UN-Habitat's primary mandate, as established by the UN General Assembly, is to promote the development of socially and environmentally sustainable towns and cities. This includes ensuring adequate shelter for all residents.

Statement 2 is incorrect. UN-Habitat partners with a wider range of stakeholders beyond just governments and local urban authorities. They collaborate with academic institutions, NGOs, private sector entities, and civil society organisations to achieve their goals.

Statement 3 is correct. UN-Habitat's work aligns with the broader UN objectives of poverty reduction and access to essential services.

Explanation

Statement 1 is incorrect. The production of algae-based biofuels is not limited to seas only. It can be done on land, saline water, or wastewater.

Statement 2 is correct. Setting up and engineering the algae-based biofuel production does require a high level of expertise/technology, which might be a limitation for developing countries.

Statement 3 is also correct. Economically viable production of algae-based biofuels does necessitate the setting up of large-scale facilities, which may raise ecological and social concerns.

Explanation

The best place to see Gharials in their natural habitat is the National Chambal Gharial Sanctuary.

The National Chambal Gharial Sanctuary is a tri-state protected area in northern India spread across the states of Madhya Pradesh, Rajasthan and Uttar Pradesh. It is one of the dedicated sanctuaries for Gharials, the critically endangered fish-eating crocodiles.

Explanation

When President’s Rule is imposed in a state under Article 356, the Council of Ministers is always dismissed, as the state government is suspended and the Governor takes over the executive powers on behalf of the President.

However, the dissolution of the State Legislative Assembly is not mandatory. The Assembly may either be dissolved (leading to fresh elections) or kept under suspension (placing it in a state of dormancy until further decisions are made).

The dissolution of local bodies is not a direct consequence of President’s Rule. Since municipalities and panchayats function independently under the State List (as per the 73rd and 74th Amendments), their existence remains unaffected unless the state government had already initiated their dissolution through legal provisions.

Thus, while the removal of the Council of Ministers is automatic, the dissolution of the Legislative Assembly is conditional, and local bodies remain largely unaffected.

Hence, the correct answer is option (B) 1 and 3 only.

Explanation

Statement 1 is Correct: The National Payments Corporation of India (NPCI) was established to facilitate retail payments and promote financial inclusion in India. They achieve this by

1. Developing and deploying innovative payment infrastructure like RuPay cards, UPI, etc.
2. Enabling participation of a wider range of players in the payments system, including non-bank entities.
3. Setting standards and guidelines to ensure secure and efficient electronic payments.

Statement 2 is Correct: RuPay is a domestic debit and credit card payment network launched by NPCI in India. It provides an alternative to international card networks like Visa and Mastercard. This domestic network can potentially lower transaction costs for merchants and banks compared to international schemes.

Therefore, both statement 1 and statement 2 are correct.Hence, option C is the correct answer.

Explanation

Manipuri Sankirtana is a vibrant performance art that combines singing, dancing, and drumming. Thus, statement 1 is correct.

While cymbals are used, Manipuri Sankirtana incorporates other instruments like the Pung (hand-beaten drum), Pena (string instrument), and harmonium. Thus, statement 2 is incorrect.

A core aspect of Manipuri Sankirtana is narrating stories and themes from Hinduism, particularly those related to Lord Krishna. Thus, statement 3 is correct.

Explanation

The Climate and Clean Air Coalition (CCAC) to Reduce Short-Lived Climate Pollutants was launched by a joint effort of

1. United Nations Environment Programme (UNEP)
2. Six countries Bangladesh, Canada, Ghana, Mexico, Sweden, and the United States

Statement 1 is incorrect. The Climate and Clean Air Coalition (CCAC) is not a unique initiative of the G20 group of countries. While some G20 members were involved in its launch, the CCAC has grown into a broader coalition that includes over 160 governments, intergovernmental organisations, and non-governmental organisations.

Statement 2 is correct. The CCAC's primary focus is indeed on reducing emissions of potent short-lived climate pollutants (SLCPs). These include Methane (CH4), Black Carbon (BC) and Hydrofluorocarbons (HFCs).

Explanation

The statement 1 is incorrect. In India, the winning candidate is the one who receives the highest number of votes, which is also known as the first-past-the-post system. There is no requirement for the winning candidate to secure at least 50% of the votes polled.

The statement 2 is also incorrect. The Constitution of India does not mandate that the Speaker's post goes to the majority party and the Deputy Speaker's post goes to the Opposition. The Speaker and Deputy Speaker are elected by the members of the Lok Sabha from amongst themselves.

Therefore, neither of the statements is correct.

Explanation

Unified Payments Interface (UPI) is an instant real-time payment system developed by NPCI to facilitate interbank transactions through mobile phones.

UPI allows you to pay directly from your bank account to different merchants without the hassle of typing your card details, or net banking/wallet password. Hence option 1 is correct.

UPI is a payment system that allows money transfer between any two bank accounts by using a smartphone.

Explanation

India signed a deal to develop the Chabahar port with Iran. Apart from the bilateral agreement between India and Iran, a trilateral transit and trade corridor deal was also signed by India, Iran and Afghanistan which would ensure easy movement of goods between the three countries, bypassing Pakistan.

The Chabahar port is situated in South Eastern part of Iran and on the northern coast of Gulf of Oman

It is surrounded by Afghanistan in the North, Pakistan in the North-East and India in the East.

The location of the Chabahar port is of strategic importance to India in linking trade routes from the Indian Ocean to Afghanistan, Central Asia and also to Europe; thereby avoiding a land route through Pakistan.

Explanation

The principle of Dyarchy was introduced by the Government of India Act of 1919 in the provinces of British India.

This system divided the functions of government into two categories central and provincial.

The provincial subjects were further subdivided into transferred and reserved.

Thus, the principle of Dyarchy refers to the division of the subjects delegated to the provinces into two categories.

Explanation

Statement 1 is incorrect. Sautrantika and Sammitiya were not sects of Jainism but rather were Buddhist philosophical schools. Sautrantika was a Buddhist philosophical school that relied primarily on the sutras (discourses) of the Buddha, as opposed to the Abhidharma (the Buddhist systematic philosophy). Sammitiya was a Buddhist school that held the view that the self (atman) exists, which was in contrast to the mainstream Buddhist view of anatta (non-self).

Statement 2 is correct. Sarvastivada was a major Buddhist philosophical school that held the view of "sarvam asti" or "everything exists". The Sarvastivadins believed that the constituents of phenomena (dharmas) did not merely exist in the present moment, but had a real and permanent existence in the past, present, and future. This was in contrast to the Theravada Buddhist view of momentariness, where all phenomena are considered to be constantly arising and passing away.

Explanation

Statement 1 is Correct: Small Finance Banks (SFBs) are niche banks specifically designed to cater to the underserved and unbanked sections of the population, including small businesses, marginal farmers, and micro-industries.

Statement 2 is Correct: SFBs focus on financial inclusion by providing credit facilities to small businesses and marginal farmers.

Statement 3 is Incorrect: In conclusion, While SFBs might indirectly contribute to rural development by providing credit to small businesses in rural areas, their primary objective is not explicitly to encourage young entrepreneurs to set up businesses there (option 3).

Hence, option A is the correct answer.

Explanation

Article 43A of the Indian Constitution pertains to the "Participation of workers in the management of industries" and is a part of Part IV – Directive Principles of State Policy (DPSP).

It was added by the 42nd Constitutional Amendment Act of 1976 to promote industrial democracy by ensuring that workers have a role in decision-making within industries.

This provision aligns with the broader goal of economic justice and socialistic principles, as envisioned in the Directive Principles, by advocating for worker participation in industrial management.

Thus, Article 43A emphasizes the importance of participatory management in industries to promote industrial harmony and economic democracy.

Explanation

Statement 1 is incorrect: While the Fundamental Duties listed in Part IV-A of the Indian Constitution are not directly enforceable by law, they are not entirely non-enforceable either. The legislature can enact laws to give effect to these duties, and courts may consider them while interpreting laws and constitutional provisions. Additionally, in some cases, laws have been enacted to enforce specific Fundamental Duties, such as the Prevention of Insults to National Honour Act, 1971, which penalizes disrespect to the national flag and anthem.

Statement 2 is incorrect: Fundamental Duties and legal duties are not strictly correlative. While legal duties are explicitly defined and enforceable by law, Fundamental Duties serve as moral and civic responsibilities to promote patriotism and national unity. However, courts have occasionally linked Fundamental Duties with legal obligations, reinforcing their significance in judicial interpretations.

Explanation

Statement 1 is incorrect. Learners can acquire competency certification through various learning methods under NSQF, not just formal learning. This includes.

• Formal learning (schools, colleges, training institutions)
• Non-formal learning (workshops, skill development programs)
• Informal learning (on-the-job experience, self-learning)

Statement 2 is correct. One of the key objectives of NSQF is to promote mobility between vocational and general education. The framework establishes a common standard for skills, making it easier for individuals with vocational qualifications to pursue further education or vice versa. This can create a more flexible and inclusive education system.

Explanation

The Zika virus is primarily transmitted by the Aedes aegypti mosquito, which is the same mosquito that transmits the dengue virus in tropical and subtropical regions.

While Zika virus is primarily transmitted through mosquito bites, the virus can also be transmitted from person to person through sexual contact.

Therefore, both the statements 1 and 2 are correct.

Explanation

Statement 1 is incorrect. The Nuclear Security Summits were not held under the UN. They were a series of international conferences initiated by the United States in 2010, outside of any formal international organisation. The summits brought together world leaders to discuss ways to secure nuclear materials and prevent nuclear proliferation. However, the summits haven't been held since 2016.

Statement 2 is incorrect. The International Panel on Fissile Materials (IPFM) is an independent group of arms control and non-proliferation experts. It's not an organ of the International Atomic Energy Agency (IAEA). While the IAEA might collaborate with the IPFM on some issues, it's a separate entity.

Explanation

Bioremediation is a technique that utilizes living organisms, primarily microorganisms like bacteria and fungi, to remove or neutralize contaminants from polluted environments. It essentially harnesses and accelerates natural biodegradation processes for environmental cleanup.

Statement 1 (correct): This accurately describes a key advantage of bioremediation. It leverages and accelerates natural biodegradation processes by introducing suitable microorganisms or optimizing environmental conditions.

Statement 2 (incorrect): Bioremediation can be effective for many contaminants but not all. Heavy metals like cadmium and lead are often not readily broken down or removed completely. They might be transformed or immobilized, but not necessarily eliminated.

Statement 3 (correct): Genetic engineering offers a promising approach for developing microorganisms with enhanced capabilities for bioremediation. These engineered microbes can target specific pollutants or work more efficiently in challenging environments.

Explanation

Somatic Cell Nuclear Transfer (SCNT) technology is primarily used for the purpose of reproductive cloning of animals.

SCNT can be used to create genetically identical copies of animals. This involves transferring the nucleus of a somatic (body) cell into an egg cell that has had its own nucleus removed. The egg cell is then stimulated to divide and develop into an embryo, which is then implanted into a surrogate mother to produce a cloned individual. This technique is called reproductive cloning.

Explanation

The Broad-based Trade and Investment Agreement (BTIA) is negotiated between India and the European Union (EU).

Explanation

An environment ministry's expert committee approved Kuno Palpur in Madhya Pradesh as the second home for Asiatic lions found only in Gir National Park. However, the Gujarat government will not share lions unless 33 studies as mandated by the International Wildlife Watchdog IUCN is completed.

Explanation

The Digital Single Market Strategy refers to an initiative by the European Union (EU) that aims to create a unified digital market across all member states.

Overall, the Digital Single Market Strategy aims to stimulate growth in the European digital economy by fostering innovation, competition, and consumer confidence in the online marketplace.

Explanation

The Trade Disputes Act, 1929. The main object of the Act was to make provisions for the establishment of Courts of Inquiry and Boards of Conciliation to investigate and settle trade disputes. The Act prohibited strikes or lock-outs without notice in public utility services; it also made any strike or lock-out illegal.

Explanation

Statement 1 is Correct: The Quality Council of India (QCI) is a pioneering experiment of the Government of India in setting up organisations in partnership with the Indian industry.

Quality Council of India (QCI) was set up in 1997 jointly by the Government of India and the Indian Industry represented by the three premier industry associations i.e. Associated Chambers of Commerce and Industry of India (ASSOCHAM), Confederation of Indian Industry (CII) and Federation of Indian Chambers of Commerce and Industry (FICCI), to establish and operate national accreditation structure and promote quality through National Quality Campaign.

The Department of Industrial Policy & Promotion, Ministry of Commerce & Industry, is the nodal ministry for QCI.QCI is governed by a Council of 38 members including the Chairman and Secretary General.

Statement 2 is Correct: The chairman is appointed by the Prime Minister on the recommendation of the industry to the government.

Therefore, both statement 1 and statement 2 are correct.Hence, option C is the correct answer.

Explanation

The trade facilitation decision is a multilateral deal to simplify customs procedures by reducing costs and improving their speed and efficiency.

Statement 1 is correct. India has ratified the Trade Facilitation Agreement (TFA) of the WTO. This signifies India's official acceptance and implementation of the agreement's provisions.

Statement 2 is correct. The TFA is indeed a part of the WTO's Bali Ministerial Package of 2013. This package refers to a collection of agreements reached during the Ninth Ministerial Conference of the World Trade Organization in Bali, Indonesia. The TFA was a landmark achievement within this package.

Statement 3 is incorrect. The Trade Facilitation Agreement (TFA) came into force in February 2017, not January 2016. It required ratification by two-thirds of WTO members before taking effect.

Explanation

A three-member committee headed by Harcourt Butler, appointed on December 16, 1927, aimed to examine the relations between the native states and the paramount power, and to improve the relationship between the Government of India and the Indian States. It clearly stated that paramountcy must remain paramount.

The committee fully endorsed that the viceroy should remain the Crown agent in dealing with the native states.

Explanation

The Cabinet form of Government is a fundamental feature of a parliamentary system, where the executive (Council of Ministers) is collectively responsible to the legislature. This principle is enshrined in Article 75(3) of the Indian Constitution, which states that the Council of Ministers shall be collectively responsible to the Lok Sabha.

Key Aspects of Collective Responsibility:

• Decisions of the Cabinet are binding on all ministers and even if they personally disagree, they must publicly support them.
• If Parliament passes a vote of no confidence, the entire Council of Ministers, including the Prime Minister, must resign.
• This ensures accountability, transparency, and democratic control, preventing arbitrary rule by the executive.

Hence, the correct answer is option C.

Explanation

Statement 1 is Incorrect: Tax revenue as a percentage of GDP in India has not steadily increased over the last decade (2007-2017). There have been fluctuations in tax revenue as a percentage of GDP during this period, influenced by various economic factors and government policies.

Statement 2 is Incorrect: Similarly, the fiscal deficit as a percentage of GDP in India has not steadily increased over the last decade (2007-2017). While there have been periods of increase, there have also been efforts by the government to reduce the fiscal deficit through fiscal consolidation measures. Therefore, neither statement is correct.

Hence, option D is the correct answer.

Explanation

Statement 1 is correct: The GCCA was established by the European Union to enhance climate cooperation with developing nations, particularly Least Developed Countries (LDCs) and Small Island Developing States (SIDS).

Statement 2 is correct: A core objective of the GCCA is to provide technical and financial assistance to developing countries, helping them integrate climate change adaptation and mitigation into their national policies, development strategies, and budgets.

Statement 3 is incorrect: The GCCA is coordinated by the European Commission through its established political dialogue and cooperation mechanisms. It is not managed by the World Resources Institute (WRI) or the World Business Council for Sustainable Development (WBCSD).

Explanation

If you travel by road from Kohima (Nagaland) to Kottayam (Kerala), you would need to travel through a minimum of 7 states within India:

• Nagaland (Origin - Kohima)
• Assam
• West Bengal
• Odisha
• Andhra Pradesh (or)
• Tamil Nadu (depending on the chosen route)
• Kerala (Destination - Kottayam)

Hence, option B is the correct answer.

Explanation

Sumatra is the geographically closest island to Great Nicobar. Great Nicobar is part of the Nicobar Islands of India, located north of Sumatra (Indonesia).

Borneo is a much larger island further east in Southeast Asia.

Java is another large island in Indonesia, but further west compared to Sumatra.

Sri Lanka is a separate island nation south of India, significantly farther away than Sumatra.

Therefore, the answer is (A) Sumatra.

Explanation

The Recognition of Prior Learning Scheme (RPL) is often mentioned in the news with reference to skill development initiatives in India.

Target Audience RPL focuses on individuals who possess skills and knowledge gained through work experience, informal training, or other non-formal learning avenues. These skills might not be formally documented through traditional educational certificates. Process and Benefits RPL provides a process for assessing the existing skills and knowledge of individuals. If their skills match the requirements of a specific job role or qualification, they can receive a formal certification without necessarily undergoing the entire formal training program.

RPL under Pradhan Mantri Kaushal Vikas Yojana (PMKVY)

Explanation

Statement 1 is Incorrect: The Teesta River originates from the Pahunri (or Teesta Kangse) glacier and flows southward through the Sikkim Himalaya. where the Rangpo River joins, and where it forms the border between Sikkim and West Bengal up to Teesta Bazaar.

Statement 2 is correct: Just before the Teesta Bridge, where the roads from Kalimpong and Darjeeling join, the river is met by its main tributary, the Rangeet River. Hence Statement 2 is correct.

Statement 3 is Incorrect: It changes course southwards, flowing into West Bengal. The river then merges up with the Brahmaputra River after it bifurcates the city of Jalpaiguri and flows just touching Cooch Behar district at Mekhliganj and moves to Fulchori in Bangladesh. Thus it does not flow directly into the Bay of Bengal. Hence statement 3 is not correct.

Hence, option B is the correct answer.

Explanation

Aravalli: Located in Andhra Pradesh, India, Arasavalli houses the Surya Narayana Temple, a 7th-century Sun temple known for its intricate carvings and architectural style.

Amarkantak: This place in Madhya Pradesh, India, is known as the source of the Narmada River. While there are temples here, there aren't any significant Sun temples.

Omkareshwar: This holy island town on the Narmada River in Madhya Pradesh is famous for its Shiva temples, not Sun temples.

Explanation

An organic light-emitting diode (OLED) is a light-emitting diode (LED) in which the emissive electroluminescent layer is a film of organic compound that emits light in response to an electric current.

One of the key advantages of OLED technology is that the organic light-emitting materials can be deposited on flexible plastic or metal foil substrates, enabling the creation of flexible and foldable displays.

The flexibility of OLED displays allows for the creation of roll-up or rollable displays, which can be integrated into clothing and other flexible surfaces.

OLED display technology can be used to create transparent displays, where the light-emitting pixels can be made semi-transparent, allowing the display to be integrated into various surfaces and objects.

Therefore, all three statements are correct.

Explanation

Statement 1 is Correct: Goods and Service Tax (GST) replaces multiple indirect taxes levied by central and state governments, creating a unified market. This can simplify tax compliance and potentially reduce the cost of goods and services for consumers. Hence, statement 1 is correct.

Statement 2 is Incorrect: While GST can improve efficiency in tax collection, it's not a direct solution to the current account deficit, which is influenced by factors like trade balance and foreign investment.

Statement 3 is Incorrect: The impact of GST on economic growth is complex and depends on various other factors. It's unlikely to solely propel India's economy to overtake China's in the near future. Therefore, the most likely advantage of GST is 1 only.

Hence, option A is the correct answer.

Explanation

The main advantage of a parliamentary form of government is that c) the executive remains responsible to the legislature. [Article 75(c)]

Here's why the other options are not the main advantage

a) The executive and legislature actually work closely together in a parliamentary system, as the executive is drawn from the legislature. b) Continuity of policy can be a benefit, but it's not the main advantage. Parliamentary systems can still be efficient in passing laws. d) The head of government (Prime Minister) can be changed through a vote of no confidence in the legislature.

Explanation

The Right against Exploitation under the Indian Constitution aims to protect individuals from forced labor, human trafficking, and child exploitation.

It specifically includes:

• Prohibition of human trafficking and forced labor (Article 23): This article bans begar (forced, unpaid labor), bonded labor, and human trafficking in any form. It also prohibits the state and private entities from compelling people to work without fair wages.
• Prohibition of child labor in hazardous occupations (Article 24): This article prohibits the employment of children below the age of 14 in factories, mines, or other hazardous occupations to ensure their safety and well-being.

While other rights are crucial, they are not part of the Right against Exploitation:

• Abolition of untouchability (Article 17) falls under the Right to Equality and prohibits the practice of untouchability in any form.
• Protection of the interests of minorities is covered under Articles 25-30 and primarily falls under the Right to Freedom of Religion and Cultural & Educational Rights.

Thus, the Right against Exploitation focuses specifically on preventing forced labor, human trafficking, and child labor, ensuring dignity and freedom from exploitation

Therefore, the correct option is (C) 1 and 4 only.

Explanation

The Directive Principles of State Policy (DPSP), enshrined in Part IV (Articles 36-51) of the Indian Constitution, are non-justiciable, meaning they cannot be enforced by courts like Fundamental Rights. However, they serve as guiding principles for the government in policy-making and law-making, aiming to establish social and economic justice and promote the welfare of the people.

While DPSPs do not directly limit the legislative or executive functions, they act as constitutional directives that governments must consider when framing laws and policies. The Supreme Court has often harmonized Fundamental Rights and DPSPs to ensure a balanced constitutional interpretation, recognizing that DPSPs are fundamental to the governance of the country.

Hence, the correct answer is option (D) neither 1 nor 2.

Explanation

Statement 1 is correct: Reduced or zero tillage of the land minimises soil disturbance, promoting better water retention. Less disturbed soil creates a more compact surface that reduces evaporation and allows rainwater to infiltrate deeper into the ground.

Statement 2 is incorrect: Applying gypsum before irrigating the field Gypsum (calcium sulfate) is a soil amendment that can improve soil structure and drainage in some situations. However, it doesn't directly conserve water. In some cases, excessive gypsum application might even increase the leaching of nutrients and salts.

Statement 3 is correct: Allowing crop residue to remain in the field Leaving crop residue on the soil surface acts like a mulch. This mulch helps suppress weeds, reduces soil erosion, and minimises water evaporation from the soil surface.

Explanation

Statement 1 is incorrect: Private member’s bills are introduced by Members of Parliament (MPs) who are not ministers i.e., they do not hold any position in the government. These bills allow non-ministerial MPs to propose legislative changes, reflecting their views or those of their political parties on important issues.

Statement 2 is incorrect: While the passage rate of private member’s bills is very low, it is not true that no such bill has ever been passed in recent times. Since 1952, a total of 14 private member’s bills have been passed by Parliament. One of the most notable examples is the Supreme Court (Enlargement of Criminal Appellate Jurisdiction) Bill, 1970, which was successfully enacted. However, the majority of private member’s bills fail to become law due to a lack of government backing, time constraints, or procedural hurdles.

Hence, the correct answer is option (D) neither 1 nor 2.

Explanation

The Parliament of India exercises control over the Council of Ministers through various parliamentary mechanisms, ensuring accountability and transparency in governance. These include:

Adjournment Motion: This motion is used to discuss a specific and urgent matter of public importance. If admitted, it compels the government to respond and can lead to debate, criticism, or even censure, putting the ruling party in a difficult position.

Question Hour: Held at the beginning of a parliamentary sitting, MPs can question ministers on government policies, decisions, and administrative matters. This provides a structured way to scrutinize the executive’s performance.

Supplementary Questions: After a minister responds to a question during Question Hour, MPs can ask follow-up questions to seek further clarification or probe deeper into the issue, enhancing ministerial accountability.

Hence, the correct answer is option (D) 1, 2 and 3.

Explanation

The Preamble of the Indian Constitution guarantees justice, liberty, equality, and fraternity, but economic liberty is not explicitly mentioned. It specifically ensures liberty of thought, expression, belief, faith, and worship, but does not directly state economic freedom.

However, various constitutional provisions, such as those related to Fundamental Rights (Part III) and Directive Principles of State Policy (Part IV), promote economic activities and social justice, indirectly contributing to economic freedom. Yet, since economic liberty is not explicitly stated in the Preamble, it is not one of the guaranteed liberties under it.

Explanation

Option A is incorrect: The state does not claim rights against citizens; rather, it is responsible for enforcing and upholding them. Rights are meant to protect individuals from arbitrary state action and ensure their freedoms.

Option B is incorrect: While some rights are enshrined in the Constitution, privileges and rights are not the same. Rights are fundamental entitlements guaranteed to all citizens, whereas privileges are special advantages that can be granted or revoked by the state.

Option C is Correct: Rights are claims of citizens against the State. They empower individuals to expect specific actions or non-actions from the state, ensuring protection of freedoms and access to essential services. The state has a duty to respect, protect, and fulfill these rights.

Option D is incorrect: Rights are not privileges granted to a few but universal entitlements that apply to all citizens. The idea that rights belong only to a select group contradicts the fundamental principle of equality enshrined in the Indian Constitution.

Explanation

The Ryotwari system was a land revenue system in British India, introduced by Sir Thomas Munro in 1820 based on system administered by Captain Alexander Reid in the Baramahal district.

It allowed the government to deal directly with the peasant (ryot) for revenue collection and gave the peasant freedom to give up or acquire new land for cultivation.

The peasant was assessed for only the lands he was cultivating.

Explanation

Statement 1 is correct: Butterflies are vital pollinators for many flowering plants. A decline in their population can lead to reduced pollination success, affecting fruit and seed production. This, in turn, can disrupt plant communities that rely on butterflies for pollination, potentially impacting entire ecosystems.

Statement 2 is incorrect: While some butterfly species may interact with fungi, a decline in butterfly populations is unlikely to cause a drastic increase in fungal infections on cultivated plants. Factors like humidity, temperature, plant health, and fungicide use play a far more significant role in the spread of fungal diseases than butterfly populations.

Statement 3 is correct: Butterflies are an essential part of the food web, serving as prey for wasps, spiders, birds, and other insectivorous species. A sharp decline in butterfly populations could negatively impact these predators, disrupting the ecological balance and potentially leading to cascading effects on biodiversity.

Explanation

Statement 1 is Incorrect: The Himalayas stretch across several states in northern and northeastern India, including Jammu & Kashmir, Himachal Pradesh, Uttarakhand, Sikkim, Arunachal Pradesh, and parts of Assam and West Bengal.

Statement 2 is Incorrect: The Western Ghats encompass six states in western India Kerala, Tamil Nadu, Karnataka, Goa, Maharashtra, and Gujarat.

Statement 3 is Correct: Pulicat Lake, the second largest brackish water lake in India, straddles the border of Andhra Pradesh and Tamil Nadu, with a larger portion (around 60%) lying in Tamil Nadu.

Hence, option B is the correct answer.

Explanation

To contest elections for the Lok Sabha, a candidate must fulfill the following constitutional requirements:

• Must be a citizen of India.
• Must be at least 25 years old.
• Must be a registered voter in any parliamentary constituency.

Explanation

Out of the listed statements about the Soil Health Card Scheme :

Statement 1 is Incorrect: Expanding the cultivable area under irrigation is not a primary objective of the scheme.

Statement 2 is Incorrect: Banks don't directly use soil cards to assess loan quantum. Loan approvals depend on various factors like land ownership, crop type, and credit history.

Statement 3 is Correct: A key objective of the scheme is to promote the judicious use of fertilisers. By informing farmers about their soil's nutrient status, the scheme encourages them to apply only the required amount of fertilisers, reducing overuse and potential environmental damage.

Therefore, the correct answer is 3 only (checking the overuse of fertilisers in farmlands).Hence, option B is the correct answer.

Explanation

Lead is a heavy metal that has been found in some lipstick formulations, which is concerning due to its potential toxic effects.

Brominated vegetable oils Brominated vegetable oils (BVOs) are a type of food additive used in some soft drinks to help distribute flavours. BVOs have been controversial and banned in many countries due to potential health concerns.

Monosodium glutamate Monosodium glutamate (MSG) is a flavour enhancer commonly used in Chinese and other Asian cuisines, including fast food. There have been concerns about the potential side effects of MSG consumption.

Therefore, all three pairs are correctly matched.

Explanation

All three options (1, 2, and 3) can be potential sites for carbon sequestration

Abandoned and uneconomic coal seams These underground coal mines already have existing rock formations suitable for storing carbon dioxide. Since they are no longer operational, they can be repurposed for CO2 storage, potentially with the added benefit of enhancing methane capture from abandoned mines.

Depleted oil and gas reservoirs Once oil and gas reserves are depleted, they still have porous rock structures that can trap injected carbon dioxide. Repurposing these reservoirs for carbon storage leverages existing infrastructure and reduces the need for drilling new wells.

Subterranean deep saline formations Deep saline formations are layers of rock saturated with briny water, far below freshwater resources. Their geological properties allow for the storage of large volumes of carbon dioxide with minimal risk of leakage or contamination of freshwater sources.

Explanation

A scheme was launched by the Reserve Bank of India (RBI) on 13 June 2016, named Scheme for Sustainable Structuring of Stressed Assets (S4A Scheme) for addressing the large stressed assets of the corporate sector with banks.

The S4A Scheme aims at the deep financial restructuring of big debted projects by allowing lenders (banks) to acquire equity of the stressed project.

In this context, the scheme makes the financial restructuring of large projects at the same time helping the lender's ability to deal with such stressed assets. It is intended to restore the flow of credit to critical sectors including infrastructure.

Hence, option B is the correct answer.

Explanation

Statement 1 is incorrect: The Smart India Hackathon (SIH) is not a scheme for developing Smart Cities. Instead, it is a nationwide initiative aimed at identifying innovative digital technology solutions to solve real-world challenges across various sectors.

Statement 2 is correct: The Government of India launched the Smart India Hackathon to encourage students and professionals to develop innovative digital solutions for challenges in agriculture, health, education, energy, environment, and other domains. It serves as a platform for young minds to engage in problem-solving and contribute to technological advancements.

Statement 3 is incorrect: While the hackathon focuses on digital technology innovations, it is not specifically centered on digital financial transactions. Instead, it covers a wide range of sectors where technology can drive efficiency and innovation.

Hence, correct answer is option (B).

Explanation

Chalio / Chaliho also called Chaliho Sahib is a forty-day-long festival celebrated by Hindu Sindhi community.

Nanda Raj Jaat Yatra - While the Nanda Devi Raj Jaat Yatra is a festival celebrated in Uttarakhand, it's not primarily associated with the Gond community. The Gonds are an indigenous tribe spread across central India.

Wari-Warkari - The Wari-Warkari tradition and pilgrimage are associated with the Marathi community of Maharashtra, particularly devotees of the Hindu god Vitthal. The Santhals are an indigenous tribe inhabiting parts of eastern India.

Explanation

Statement 1 is Correct: The National IPR Policy does reiterate India's commitment to the Doha Development Agenda and the Agreement on Trade-Related Aspects of Intellectual Property Rights (TRIPS Agreement). The Doha Development Agenda aimed to clarify and improve specific aspects of the TRIPS Agreement, particularly focusing on flexibilities for developing countries. India, as a developing nation, is entitled to certain flexibilities in implementing the TRIPS Agreement, such as using compulsory licensing to ensure access to affordable medicines.

Statement 2 is Correct: The Department for Promotion of Industry and Internal Trade (DPIIT) under the Ministry of Commerce and Industry is the nodal agency for the development and implementation of IPR policy in India, earlier its name was the Department of Industrial Policy and Promotion.

Hence, option C is the correct answer.

Explanation

Statement 1 is incorrect: The Election Commission of India (ECI) is not a five-member body. It is a three-member body, consisting of the Chief Election Commissioner (CEC) and two Election Commissioners (ECs). However, it originally started as a single-member body in 1950 and became a multi-member commission in 1993.

Statement 2 is incorrect: The Union Ministry of Home Affairs (MHA) does not decide the election schedule. The Election Commission of India (ECI) is solely responsible for determining the schedule of general elections and bye-elections. It exercises this power under Article 324 of the Constitution, ensuring free and fair elections in the country.

Statement 3 is correct: The Election Commission of India has the authority to resolve disputes related to splits and mergers of recognized political parties. It decides which faction of a party is the legitimate one and, if necessary, allocates party symbols accordingly, based on precedents and internal party strength.

Hence, the correct answer is option (D) 3 only.

Explanation

Statement 1 is Incorrect: The IOD phenomenon is characterised by a difference in sea surface temperature between the tropical Western Indian Ocean and the tropical Eastern Indian Ocean, not the Eastern Pacific Ocean. During a positive IOD, the western Indian Ocean is warmer than the eastern Indian Ocean, and vice versa for a negative IOD.

Statement 2 is Correct: The IOD phenomenon can indeed influence El Nio's impact on the Indian monsoon. El Nio itself is a climate pattern in the Pacific Ocean, but it can interact with the IOD. Depending on the phases of both phenomena (positive/negative IOD and El Nino/La Nina), the overall impact on the Indian monsoon rainfall can be amplified or weakened.

Hence, option B is the correct answer.

Explanation

Statement 1 is correct. Warfare Evidence suggests the Rigvedic Aryans used protective gear like coats of mail and helmets in battle, while there's no clear indication of similar armour usage by the Indus Valley civilization.

Statement 2 is incorrect. Both Rigvedic Aryans and Indus Valley people were familiar with gold, silver, and copper. Iron usage has been limited to Vedic Aryan culture while Harappans were unaware of Iron.

Statement 3 is correct. Horse Domestication The Rigveda contains numerous references to horses, suggesting they were well-known and likely domesticated by the Rigvedic Aryans. There's no clear evidence of horse domestication or use in the Indus Valley civilization.

Explanation

The terms 'Event Horizon', 'Singularity', 'String Theory' and 'Standard Model' are associated with the observation and understanding of the Universe, particularly in the field of cosmology and astrophysics.

Event Horizon refers to the boundary around a black hole, beyond which nothing, not even light, can escape the black hole's gravitational pull.

Singularity refers to a point in spacetime where the gravitational field becomes infinite, such as at the center of a black hole, where the laws of physics as we know them break down.

String Theory is a theoretical framework in particle physics that attempts to unify all the fundamental forces of nature, including gravity, into a single coherent model.

Standard Model is the most comprehensive and well-tested theory in particle physics, which describes the fundamental particles and their interactions, except for gravity.

Explanation

The painting of Bodhisattva Padmapani is one of the most famous and oft-illustrated works of art found in the Ajanta Caves.

These caves, located in Maharashtra, India, are renowned for their collection of exquisitely preserved murals and sculptures depicting Buddhist themes. The Padmapani painting, housed in Cave 1, is particularly celebrated for its beauty, technical mastery, and its portrayal of the compassionate Bodhisattva. This image has been admired and reproduced for centuries, serving as a testament to the artistic legacy of Ajanta.

Badami is famous for its rock-cut temples (6th–8th century CE), built by the Chalukyas.

Bagh Caves (Madhya Pradesh): Madhyapradesh. These are associated with the Buddhism. These Buddhist rock-cut caves have paintings similar to Ajanta.

Ellora is famous for its rock-cut Hindu, Buddhist, and Jain temples (6th–10th century CE). The most famous structure here is the Kailasa Temple (Cave 16), a massive monolithic rock-cut temple dedicated to Lord Shiva.

Explanation

APMCHUD is an intergovernmental mechanism for collaboration and cooperation in the field of housing and development among Asia Pacific countries.

Statement 1 is incorrect. The 1st APMCHUD was held in New Delhi, India from 13th-16th December 2006 on the theme of A Vision for Sustainable Urbanization in the Asia-Pacific by 2020.

Statement 2 is also incorrect. The Conference of APMCHUD is a biennial event . This event is hosted by one of the member countries whose offer is consented to by the members in the previous conference of the APMCHUD.

Explanation

In the Indian context, Rights and Duties are correlative, meaning they are interdependent and go hand in hand. The Indian Constitution provides for both:

• Fundamental Rights (Articles 12-35) ensure individual freedoms and protect citizens from arbitrary state action.
• Fundamental Duties (Article 51A) outline the moral and civic responsibilities of citizens toward the nation and society.

Interrelation Between Rights and Duties:

• Rights cannot be exercised in isolation; they must be balanced with duties. For example, the Right to Freedom of Speech (Article 19) is linked to the duty to respect the dignity and rights of others (Article 51A(e): Duty to promote harmony and spirit of brotherhood).

Explanation

The National Nutrition Mission, also known as Poshan Abhiyaan, has several objectives.

• The first objective is to create awareness relating to malnutrition among pregnant women and lactating mothers.
• The second objective is to reduce the incidence of anaemia among young children, adolescent girls and women. These two objectives are clearly stated in the mission's goals. Hence, statements 1 & 2 are correct.

However, the promotion of the consumption of millets, coarse cereals and unpolished rice, and the promotion of the consumption of poultry eggs are not explicitly stated as objectives of the mission. Hence, statement 3 & 4 are incorrect.

Explanation

Statement 1 is incorrect. The Factories Act of 1881 did not address worker wages or the formation of trade unions. Its primary focus was on improving working conditions, especially for children. It limited working hours for children, prohibited child labour under a certain age, and mandated breaks during the workday.

Statement 2 is correct. N.M. Lokhande is indeed considered a pioneer of the labour movement in British India. He actively campaigned for better working conditions and worker rights.

Explanation

The superior virtue of democracy lies in "the intelligence and character of ordinary men and women."

Democracy is built on citizen participation, where people are not just passive subjects but active contributors to governance. It assumes that the collective wisdom of the people (when informed and engaged) can lead to better decision-making and promote the welfare of society.

While strong leadership and dedicated party workers play a role, democracy fundamentally empowers the citizenry, ensuring that governance is shaped by the will and values of the people rather than a select few.

Thus, the true strength of democracy lies in the intelligence, awareness, and character of its citizens, who drive the system through participation and informed choices.

Explanation

The Central Government introduced the National Pension System (NPS) with effect from January 1, 2004 (except for armed forces). Subsequently, various State Governments adopted this architecture and implemented NPS with effect from different dates.

Eligibility to join

• Any citizen of India, whether resident or non-resident, subject to the following conditions.
• Individuals who are aged between 18 60 years, including NRIs.
• After attaining 60 years of age, you will not be permitted to make further contributions to the NPS accounts

Explanation

Gharial Listed in Schedule I of the Act. Schedule I includes species with the highest protection, prohibiting hunting entirely except under exceptional circumstances like disease control or to prevent human attacks. Therefore, hunting Gharial is illegal.

Indian wild ass Listed in Schedule I of the Act. Similar to Gharial, hunting the Indian wild ass is also prohibited.

Wild Buffalo listed in Schedule I of the Indian WildLife (Protection) Act, 1972. So, Wild Buffalo cannot be hunted.

Note: The Wildlife (Protection) Act, of 1972 underwent amendments in 2022 which impacted the scheduling of wild animals. Previously, there were six schedules. The amendment streamlined them into four schedules.

Explanation

Domestic Content Requirement (DCR) is a policy tool used by governments to encourage local industries to grow and reduce dependence on imports. In the context of solar power production, DCR mandates that a certain percentage of solar equipment used in the production process must be domestically produced. This policy is aimed at promoting indigenous manufacturing and reducing dependence on imports.

Explanation

Biological Oxygen Demand (BOD) is a standard criterion for assessing the quality of water.

Microbial activity BOD measures the amount of dissolved oxygen used by microorganisms (like bacteria) as they decompose organic matter in water.

Pollution indicator Higher BOD indicates a greater presence of organic matter, often suggesting pollution from sources like sewage, animal waste, or decaying plants.

Aquatic life impact Excessive organic matter decomposition can deplete oxygen levels in water, harming aquatic life that depends on dissolved oxygen for survival.

Therefore, BOD serves as a valuable tool for monitoring water quality and identifying potential pollution issues.

Explanation

Statement 1 is Incorrect: National Investment and Infrastructure Fund (NIIF) is India's first sovereign wealth fund that was set up by the Government of India in February 2015. The objective behind creating this fund was to maximise economic impact mainly through infrastructure investment in commercially viable projects, both Greenfield and Brownfield.

Statement 2 is Incorrect: In the Union Budget 2015-16, India's Finance Minister, Arun Jaitley announced the creation of the National Investment and Infrastructure Fund. It was proposed to be established as an Alternative Investment Fund to provide long-term capital for infrastructure projects with an inflow of Rs. 20,000 crore from the Government of India. NIIF was approved in August 2015 by the Department of Economic Affairs. The first meeting of its governing council was held in December 2015 further to which it was registered with SEBI as Category II Alternative Investment Fund.

Hence, option D is the correct answer.

Explanation

Statement 1 is Correct: The Bureau of Indian Standards (BIS) is the National Standards Body of India working under the aegis of Ministry of Consumer Affairs, Food & Public Distribution, Government of India. The Bureau of Indian Standards (BIS) Standard Mark is indeed mandatory for automotive tyres and tubes.

Statement 2 is Incorrect: AGMARK is a quality Certification Mark issued by the Directorate of Marketing and Inspection (DMI), an agency of the Government of India, and not by the Food and Agriculture Organization (FAO). The FAO is an international organisation that promotes food security and agricultural development.

Hence, option A is the correct answer.

Explanation

The right to vote and to be elected in India is a constitutional right, enshrined in Article 326 of the Indian Constitution.

Article 326 grants the right to vote to every Indian citizen based on universal adult suffrage, ensuring that elections to the Parliament and State Legislatures are conducted democratically.

The Constitution (Sixty-first Amendment) Act, 1988, reduced the minimum voting age for elections to the Lok Sabha and State Legislative Assemblies from 21 years to 18 years. This amendment aimed to enhance youth participation in the electoral process and strengthen democratic representation.

While the right to vote is a constitutional right, it is subject to reasonable restrictions based on factors such as non-residence, unsoundness of mind, crime, or corrupt practices as prescribed by law.

Explanation

The Global Gender Gap Index is an annual report published by the World Economic Forum (WEF). It benchmarks progress towards gender parity by measuring the gap between women and men across four dimensions

• Economic Participation and Opportunity
• Educational Attainment
• Health and Survival
• Political Empowerment

Explanation

Statement 1 is incorrect. The inaugural IONS was held in February 2008 in New Delhi, India. The Indian Navy served as the Chair for the first two years (2008-2010).

Statement 2 is correct. IONS is indeed a voluntary initiative that aims to promote maritime cooperation among the navies of countries bordering the Indian Ocean. It provides a platform for discussions on regional maritime security issues and fosters friendly relationships between participating nations.

Explanation

Pair 1 is correctly matched. The British Indian Association was established in October 1851. The President of the first committee of this organisation was Raja Radhakanta Deb, while Debendranath Tagore was its secretary. The newspaper of this society was Hindu patriot which adopted a strongly critical political tone. It was formed by the amalgamation of the Landholders? Society and the Bengal British India Society.

Pair 2 is incorrectly matched. The first organisation in the Madras Presidency to agitate for the rights of Indians was the Madras Native Association which was established by publicist Gazulu Lakshminarasu Chetty in 1852. This organisation did not survive for long and was eventually disbanded. In May 1884, M. Veeraraghavachariar, G. Subramania Iyer and P. Anandacharlu established the Madras Mahajana Sabha.

Pair 3 is correctly matched. The Indian National Association, also known as the Indian Association, was the first avowed nationalist organisation founded in British India by Surendranath Banerjee and Ananda Mohan Bose in 1876. The objectives of this Association were "promoting by every legitimate means the political, intellectual and material advancement of the people".

Explanation

Indian federalism is characterized by key features such as an independent judiciary, a clear division of powers between the Centre and the States, and unequal representation of States in the Rajya Sabha, all of which are enshrined in the Indian Constitution.

However, unlike classical federations like the United States, Indian federalism is not the outcome of an agreement among the federating units. The Indian Constitution, which lays down the framework for India's federal structure, was not created through an agreement among the federating units but was adopted by the Constituent Assembly of India.