UPSC Prelims 2023 Analysis

Explanation

• While it is true that the equator receives more direct sunlight compared to the poles, the actual difference in insolation is not as large as ten times. The difference in insolation between the equator and poles is primarily due to the curvature of the Earth and the tilt of its axis, resulting in varying angles at which sunlight reaches different latitudes.

• Insolation includes various wavelengths, such as visible light, ultraviolet rays, and infrared rays, but infrared rays do not constitute two-thirds of it.

• Water vapour is a greenhouse gas that absorbs infrared radiation emitted by the Earth's surface. This absorption contributes to the greenhouse effect and helps regulate the Earth's temperature. Hence, this is the correct statement.

• Infrared waves are not part of the visible spectrum; they have longer wavelengths than visible light.

Explanation

• Successful Coups There have been several military coups in these countries in recent years - Chad (2021) - Guinea (2021) - Mali (2020, 2021) - Sudan (2019) 

• Military coups often lead to political instability, international concern about human rights, and potential disruption to trade and regional security.

Explanation

The Wolbachia method is a biological method that utilises the Wolbachia bacteria to control the spread of mosquito-borne diseases, particularly dengue fever. Method

• Wolbachia naturally infects some insect species, but not Aedes aegypti mosquitoes, the primary vector for dengue fever transmission. Scientists introduce Wolbachia into Aedes aegypti populations.  Wolbachia reduces the ability of these mosquitoes to transmit dengue virus. 

• As Wolbachia spreads through the mosquito population, it can significantly reduce the incidence of dengue fever. 

• This method offers a natural and sustainable approach to controlling dengue fever, a major public health concern in tropical and subtropical regions.

Explanation

• The honey bee dance, also known as the waggle dance, is a form of communication performed by worker honey bees to other members of the honey bee colony. The waggle dance was famously decoded by Austrian scientist, Karl von Frisch.

• The direction the bee moves in relation to the hive indicates direction; if it moves vertically, the direction to the source is directly towards the Sun. 

• The duration of the waggle part of the dance signifies the distance.Hence, option (C) is the correct answer.

Explanation

• The 44th Chess Olympiad, held in 2022, was indeed the first time that the event was hosted in India. Thus, statement 1 is correct.

• The official mascot of the 44th Chess Olympiad was named 'Champion'. Thus, statement 2 is incorrect. 

• The Vera Menchik Cup is indeed awarded to the winning team in the open section of the Chess Olympiad. Thus, statement 1 is correct.

• The trophy for the winning team in the women's section of the Chess Olympiad is the Nona Gaprindashvili Cup. Thus, statement 4 is incorrect.

Explanation

• Statement 1 is incorrect: The East-West Corridor is a part of the National Highways Development Project (NHDP) in India, which aims to connect Silchar in Assam to Porbandar in Gujarat. It does not connect Dibrugarh in Assam and Surat in Gujarat. 

• Statement 2 is incorrect:  The Trilateral Highway is a connectivity project that aims to connect Moreh in Manipur, India, with Mae Sot in Thailand via Myanmar. It is an important infrastructure project to enhance trade, connectivity, and people-to-people ties among the three countries.

Statement 3 is incorrect:  The Bangladesh-China-India-Myanmar Economic Corridor (BCIM) is a proposed economic corridor that aims to connect Kunming in China with Kolkata in India, passing through Myanmar and Bangladesh. Varanasi in Uttar Pradesh is not directly connected to this corridor.Thus, none of the statements are correct

Explanation

• The soil in tropical rainforests is not rich in nutrients. The heavy rainfall in these regions washes away the nutrients from the soil, preventing them from accumulating.

• In tropical rainforests, high temperature and humidity help dead plants and animals decompose quickly. The warmth and moisture create the perfect conditions for bacteria and fungi, which are tiny organisms that break down dead material. These decomposers work faster in such an environment, turning dead matter into nutrients that go back into the soil to support new plant growth.

           Therefore, Statement-I is incorrect but Statement-II is correct.

Explanation

• Carbon fibres are highly valued for their unique properties like strength, lightness, and stiffness. They are widely used in the manufacturing of various components in automobiles and aircraft to reduce weight and improve performance. 

• Carbon Fiber Recycling: While traditional carbon fibre recycling methods were limited, advancements are being made in this field. Here are some possibilities 

1. Mechanical recycling - This process breaks down carbon fibres into smaller pieces for use in applications where their original form is not necessary. 

2. Chemical recycling -This method dissolves the resin holding the fibres together, potentially allowing the extraction of reusable carbon fibres. 

3. Thermal recycling- High temperatures are used to convert the resin into usable materials while recovering the carbon fibres. 

• These recycling technologies are still evolving, but they offer a more sustainable approach to using carbon fibres. Hence, statement 2 is incorrect.

Explanation

National Sports Awards are given every year to recognize and reward excellence in sports.

• Major Dhyan Chand Khel Ratna Award is given for the spectacular and most outstanding performance over the previous four years. Hence, pair 1 is correctly matched.

• Arjuna Award for outstanding performance in Sports and Games is given for good performance over the previous four years and showing qualities of leadership, sportsmanship and a sense of discipline. Hence, pair 2 is not correctly matched.

• Dronacharya Award is given to coaches for doing outstanding and meritorious work consistently and enabling sportspersons to excel in International events.  Hence, pair 3 is correctly matched.

• Dhyan Chand Award for Lifetime Achievement in Sports and Games is given to honour sportspersons who have contributed to sports through their performance and continue to contribute to the promotion of sports events after their retirement.

• Rashtriya Khel Protsahan Puruskar is given to corporate entities (both in the private and public sector), sports control boards, and NGOs including sports bodies at the state and national level who have played a visible role in the area of sports promotion and development. Hence, pair 4 is not correctly matched.

Explanation

• The ruler of medieval Gujarat who surrendered Diu to the Portuguese was Sultan Bahadur Shah. Diu was an important port city strategically located on the western coast of India, and its surrender to the Portuguese in 1535 marked a significant event in the history of Portuguese colonial expansion in India.

• This was done to seek Portuguese military assistance against his rival Humayun, the Mughal emperor. As a result, the Portuguese established a strong foothold in Diu, turning it into a significant strategic and trading post.

Explanation

• Vattakirutal' as mentioned in Sangam's poems is best explained by a king defeated in a battle who commits ritual suicide by starving himself to death.

• Sangam poems reflect a strong warrior culture in ancient Tamil society. Kings and warriors were expected to display courage and honour.

• Defeat in battle was considered a significant dishonour. Hence, Vattakirutal allowed a defeated king to avoid the humiliation of capture by the enemy.

• This form of suicide through starving was a ritualistic act, demonstrating the king's commitment to his honour and his unwillingness to compromise his dignity.

Explanation

• Statement I: This statement is incorrect. It says that the temperature difference between land and oceans is greater in summer than in winter, which is actually the opposite. In winter, land cools down faster than the ocean, and the ocean stays warmer, creating a bigger temperature difference between land and water. In summer, land heats up faster than the ocean, so the temperature difference is smaller.

• Statement II: This statement is correct. Water has a higher specific heat capacity than land, meaning it takes more heat to raise the temperature of water by the same amount compared to land. This is why the ocean heats up and cools down more slowly than land.

Explanation

 * Satellite navigation is based on the use of range measurements between navigational satellites and the user. Information about the satellite's coordinates is given to the user through a navigation signal. Range measurements are based on the calculation of the receiving signal time delay compared with the signals generated by the user equipment.

• Currently, there are four global systems viz., GPS from the USA, GLONASS from Russia, Galileo from the European Union, and BeiDou from China. In addition, there are two regional systems viz., NavIC from India and QZSS from Japan.

• Global navigation system caters to the users in the entire world, whereas the regional navigation system caters to the users in the limited service area.

Hence option (d) is the correct answer.

Explanation

• Option A is correct: Natural Justice implies fairness, reasonableness, equity and equality. Natural Justice is a concept of Common Law, and it is the Common Law world counterpart of the American concept of ‘procedural due process’. Natural Justice represents higher procedural principles developed by judges which every administrative agency must follow in taking any decision adversely affecting the rights of a private individual.

• The principles of natural justice are firmly grounded under various Articles of the Constitution. With the introduction of the concept of substantive and procedural due process in Article – 21 of the Constitution all that fairness which is included in the principles of natural justice can be read into Article – 21 when a person is deprived of his life and personal liberty.

Explanation

Out of the four listed assets, three are considered intangible investments

• Brand recognition (Intangible) This is an intangible asset as it's not a physical good but represents the value associated with a brand's reputation and customer recognition.

• Intellectual property (Intangible) This encompasses intangible assets like patents, copyrights, trademarks, and trade secrets. It represents intellectual creations that provide a competitive advantage.

• Mailing list of clients (Intangible) This is a customer relationship asset that holds value because it allows you to connect with potential and existing customers.

• Inventory (Tangible) Inventory refers to the stock of physical goods that a company holds for sale. It's a tangible asset with a physical form.

Explanation

• The Donbas is a historical, cultural, and economic region in eastern Ukraine. It has two heavily industrialised regions of Donetsk and Luhansk which were occupied by Russian forces last year. Hence, pair 1 is not correctly matched.

• Kachin State is the northernmost state of Myanmar. In 2022, Myanmar military air

• strikes reportedly killed dozens of people including civilians at a concert in Kachin State. Hence, pair 2 is not correctly matched.

• Tigray is Ethiopia's northernmost region. The region is at the centre of an ongoing civil conflict involving ethno-regional militias, the federal government, and the Eritrean military that has attracted the concern of humanitarian groups and external actors since November 2020. In October 2022, the first formal African Union-led peace talks between an Ethiopian government team and Tigray forces happened in South Africa. Hence, pair 3 is not correctly matched.

Explanation

• Statement 1 is incorrect: So far only 163 countries have adopted the Global Compact for Safe, Orderly and Regular Migration (GCM), the United States, Hungary, Israel, Czech Republic and Poland are some of the countries that voted against the compact.

• Statement 2 is incorrect: The GCM is not legally binding on UN member countries. It's a non-legally binding framework for cooperation. 

• Statement 3 is incorrect: The GCM primarily focuses on international migration, not internal displacement.

Explanation

• The hoisting/use/display of the Indian National Flag is governed by the Prevention of Insults to National Honour Act, 1971, and the Flag Code of India, 2002.The flag code states that the tricolour can be of nine standard dimensions: So, the first statement is incorrect. 

• The National Flag shall be rectangular in shape and the ratio of the length to the height (width) of the Flag shall be 32. Hence Statement 2 is correct.

Explanation

• The Nagoya Protocol is an international agreement that addresses the fair and equitable sharing of benefits arising from the utilisation of genetic resources. It is a supplementary agreement to the Convention on Biological Diversity (CBD) and specifically focuses on access to genetic resources and the fair and equitable sharing of benefits derived from their utilisation.

• In India, the Biodiversity Management Committees (BMCs) are indeed key to the realisation of the objectives of the Nagoya Protocol. The Nagoya Protocol aims at sharing the benefits arising from the utilisation of genetic resources in a fair and equitable way. BMCs play a crucial role in this by ensuring that local communities have a say in the access to and use of these resources.

• The Biodiversity Management Committees also have important functions in determining access and benefit sharing. They have the power to levy collection fees on the access of biological resources within their jurisdiction. This is part of their role in managing and conserving biodiversity, and ensuring that the benefits derived from the use of these resources are shared equitably.Therefore, both statements are correct.

Explanation

• Pair 1 is correctly matched: The Official Secrets Act, 1923 prohibits a person from using or wearing, without lawful authority, any naval, military, air force, police, or other official uniform, or any uniform so nearly resembling the same as to be calculated to deceive, or falsely represents himself to be a person who is or has been entitled to use or wear any such uniform 

• Pair 2 is incorrectly matched: It is under The Official Secrets Act, 1923, that no person in the vicinity of any prohibited place shall obstruct, knowingly mislead, or otherwise interfere with or impede, any police officer, or any member of 21 [the Armed Forces of the Union] engaged on guard, sentry, patrol or other similar duty in relation to the prohibited place. 

• Pair 3 is correctly matched: The Arms Act Amendment of 2019 adds news offenses such as forcefully taking a firearm from police or armed forces and using firearms in a celebratory gunfire which endangers human life or the personal safety of others.

Explanation

• Statement 1 is incorrect NABARD began promoting self-help groups in 1991-1992. And it served as the actual launch pad for the SHG movement. The Reserve Bank of India additionally permitted SHGs to open savings bank accounts in 1993. 

• Statement 2 is correct The Banks provide the loan to the Self-Help Group as a whole and it is the collective responsibility of the SHG to repay that loan. Hence all members of a group take responsibility for a loan that an individual member takes. Further, the SHG may decide to not provide any share in further loans to the defaulter member. 

Statement 3 is correct. The Financial Inclusion Fund scheme to support Scheduled Commercial Banks (SCBs) and Regional Rural Banks (RRBs) for enabling Dual Authentication options in the micro ATMs for SHG transactions is being launched to provide an enabling eco-system for the SHGs to seamlessly operate at Business Correspondent points with the proposed Dual Authentication feature. Thus, it can be said that SCBs and RRBs support the SHGs in availing the credits as per their needs.

Explanation

• Carbon markets, which include mechanisms like cap-and-trade systems and carbon offsets, are increasingly being used as a tool to incentivize emissions reductions and help in the fight against climate change. So, statement 1 is true.

• Carbon markets typically work by transferring resources from emitters (usually in the private sector) to entities that can reduce or remove greenhouse gas emissions, which can be either private entities or the government. So, statement 2 can also be true.

Explanation

• Statement I Incorrect : Earlier, InvITs offered some tax benefits to investors. However, the budget in 2023 changed the taxation structure. Currently, all income distributed by InvITs, including interest income, dividend income, and rental income, is taxable in the hands of the unitholders according to their income tax slab.

Statement II Correct : InvITs are indeed recognized as borrowers under the Securitization and Reconstruction of Financial Assets and Enforcement of Security Interest Act, 2002 (SARFAESI Act). This Act allows InvITs to access various financing options and enforce security interests in case of defaults.

Explanation

• The Rann of Kutch, located in the Thar Desert of Gujarat, India, is a vast seasonal salt marsh. 

• Geological evidence suggests it was once a shallow extension of the Arabian Sea. 

• Over time, due to a combination of factors like tectonic plate movement and climatic changes, the sea level receded repeatedly, leaving behind saline deposits and creating the marshland we see today. 

• During the monsoon season, the Rann fills with water, transforming into a shallow lake, but dries up again in the summer, leaving behind a vast expanse of cracked white salt flats.

• Bhitarkanika Mangroves: Located in Odisha, Bhitarkanika Mangroves is a protected wetland area and a UNESCO Ramsar site. It is home to saltwater crocodiles, migratory birds, and various plant species. The mangroves provide coastal protection and support local fishing communities.

• Marakkanam Salt Pans: Marakkanam, in Tamil Nadu, is one of India's largest salt-producing regions. The salt pans are a major source of salt production, and the area also attracts migratory birds, including flamingos.

• Naupada Swamp: Located in Andhra Pradesh, is an important wetland for migratory birds and aquatic life. The swamp supports a wide variety of wildlife, including endangered species like the smooth-coated otter.

Explanation

Out of the above substances, hydrofluorocarbons (HFCs) are used in the making of: 

1. Aerosols HFCs were historically used as propellants in aerosol cans, but their use is being phased out due to environmental concerns.

2. Foam agents Some types of fire-fighting foam agents use HFCs.

3. Fire retardant HFCs can be a component in some fire retardant formulations.

4. Lubricants typically do not contain HFCs. They use different chemical formulations to achieve lubricating properties.

Explanation

• The beta value of a stock measures how much its price moves compared to the overall market:

• Beta > 1: Stock is more volatile than the market (moves more).

• Beta < 1: Stock is less volatile than the market (moves less).

• Beta = 1: Stock moves in line with the market.

Explanation

The Prisons Act 1894 is one of the oldest pieces of legislation in India dealing with laws enacted in relation to prisons in India. 

• Statement 1 is correct: Prison is a State subject under List-II of the Seventh Schedule in the Constitution. States have the primary role, responsibility, and power to change the current prison laws, rules, and regulations. Hence it is true that prisons are managed by the state governments with their own rules and regulations. 

• Statement 2 is correct: The management and administration of Prisons falls exclusively in the domain of the State Governments and is governed by the Prisons Act, of 1894 and the Prison Manuals of the respective State Governments. 

• Hence it is true that the Prisons Act of 1894 kept the subject of prisons in the Provincial government (State governments) and this explains why State governments have the power to frame their own rules and regulations regarding prison management.

Explanation

• The concept of 'Small Farmer Large Field' is a participatory collective action model that aims to improve the livelihood of small and marginal farmers in India by achieving economies of scale and bargaining power in the supply chain. 

• It was adapted from the Large Field Model of Vietnam and was piloted to address the key challenges faced by millions of small and marginal farmers in India. The model allows small farmers to benefit from achieving economies of scale by organizing themselves into groups. 

• Option (b) Small Farmers Large Field (SFLF) is an agri model to overcome the disadvantages faced by millions of small and marginal farmers due to diseconomies of scale and lack of bargaining power in the supply chain.

Explanation

• Statement 1 is correct: As per Article 244(1) of the Constitution's Fifth Schedule, Scheduled Areas are areas that the President may declare to be such by order after consultation with the Governor of that State. 

• Statement 2 is correct: District is considered as the largest administrative unit which forms the Scheduled Area while the lowest administrative unit is the cluster of villages in the Block. 

• Statement 3 is incorrect: The Fifth Schedule to the Constitution of India states in para 3 that the Governor of each State having Scheduled Areas therein shall annually, or whenever so required by the President, make a report to the President regarding the administration of the Scheduled Areas in that State and the executive power of the Union shall extend to the giving of directions to the State as to the Administration of the said areas.

Explanation

All three activities mentioned are indeed methods often considered and discussed for carbon capture and sequestration.

• Spreading finely ground basalt rock on farmlands extensively is known as enhanced weathering. The basalt reacts with carbon dioxide in the atmosphere and forms stable carbonates, effectively storing the carbon dioxide and preventing it from contributing to global warming.

• Increasing the alkalinity of oceans by adding lime can help absorb more carbon dioxide from the atmosphere. The increased alkalinity enhances the ocean's capacity to act as a carbon sink.

• Capturing carbon dioxide released by various industries and pumping it into abandoned subterranean mines in the form of carbonated waters is a direct method of carbon capture and sequestration where carbon dioxide is captured at its source and then stored in a way that prevents it from being released into the atmosphere.

Explanation

• The Charter Act of 1833 was the final step towards centralisation in British India.

• It made the Governor-General of Bengal as the Governor-General of India and vested in him all civil and military powers. The act created, for the first time, the Government of India having authority over the entire territorial area possessed by the British in India.

• Lord William Bentick was the first Governor-General of India.

• It deprived the Governor of Bombay and Madras of their legislative powers. The Governor-General of India was given exclusive legislative powers for the entire British India.Hence option (d) is the correct answer.

Explanation

• Statement 1 is correct. According to the United Nations World Water Development Report 2022, with an estimated 251 km3 annual withdrawal from an estimated 20 million wells and tube wells, India is the world's greatest groundwater user. This accounts for more than a quarter of the total groundwater extracted internationally.

• Statement 2 is incorrect. India uses about 89% of this groundwater for irrigation. Major share of total groundwater extracted by India is utilised for irrigation purposes and not for drinking and sanitation purposes.

Explanation

• The Finance Bill is a part of the Union Budget, stipulating all the legal amendments required for the changes in taxation proposed by the finance minister. As per Article 110 of the Constitution of India, the Finance Bill is a Money Bill.

• Statement 1 is correct: Though the finance bill shares certain similarities with the money bill, it can be rejected or amended by the Rajya Sabha.

• Statement 2 is correct: It is true that Money bills cannot be amended or rejected by the Rajya Sabha. The Rajya Sabha should return the bill with or without recommendations, which may be accepted or rejected by the Lok Sabha

• Statement 3 is incorrect: In case of disagreements, a joint sitting may be summoned by the President (becomes necessary is incorrect).

Explanation

• The Congo Basin is a vast region in Central Africa that encompasses several countries. It is the sedimentary basin of the Congo River and is located in a region known as West Equatorial Africa. 

• The Congo Basin spans across mainly six countries Cameroon, Central African Republic, Democratic Republic of the Congo, Republic of the Congo, Equatorial Guinea, and Gabon.

Thus, Option A is correct.

Explanation

• Role of Biofilters in Recirculating Aquaculture System (RAS): Biofilters provide waste treatment by removing uneaten fish feed. Biofilters in a RAS help in waste treatment by removing uneaten fish feed and other organic matter from the water. The biofilter media provide a surface for beneficial bacteria to grow, which help in breaking down and removing these wastes. So, statement 1 is correct.

• Biofilters convert ammonia present in fish waste to nitrate. One of the primary functions of biofilters in a RAS is to convert toxic ammonia (produced from fish waste) into less harmful nitrate. Beneficial bacteria in the biofilter media perform nitrification, a process where ammonia is first converted to nitrite and then further converted to nitrate.  So, statement 2 is correct.

• Biofilters do not increase phosphorus as a nutrient for fish in the water. Their primary role is to remove wastes and convert ammonia to nitrate. Phosphorus levels in the water are managed through other means, such as fish feed formulation and water quality management. **So, statement 3 is not correct.**Therefore, option (b) is the correct answer.

Explanation

• Somalia has been experiencing civil war and instability since the early 1990s. This ongoing conflict has severely disrupted agricultural production, trade, and basic services, leading to food insecurity.

• Somalia is one of the countries most vulnerable to food insecurity due to a combination of factors like drought, conflict, and poverty.

• Somalia has faced several severe famines in recent decades, with the most recent one occurring in 2020-2021. The UN warned it was on the brink of "famine of unparalleled proportions" due to a perfect storm of drought, locust infestations, and economic hardship.

Explanation

• Option 1 is incorrect:  Jackfruit, (Artocarpus heterophyllus) is a tropical evergreen tree (family Moraceae) native to tropical Asia and widely grown throughout the wetland tropics for its large fruits and durable wood. The greenish unripe fruit is cooked as a vegetable, and the brown ripened fruit is eaten fresh for the sweetly acidic but insipid pulp surrounding the seeds. 

• Option 2 and 3 are correct:  The Moist deciduous forests are more pronounced in the regions which record rainfall between 100-200 cm. These forests are found in the northeastern states along the foothills of Himalayas, eastern slopes of the Western Ghats and Odisha. Teak, sal, shisham, hurra, mahua, amla, semul, kusum, and sandalwood etc. are the main species of these forests.

Explanation

• Cobalt has emerged as a vital ingredient of the shift to a lower-carbon energy system, but reserves of the metal are concentrated heavily in just a single country.

• The Democratic Republic of Congo (DRC) is home to half of the world's known resources and currently accounts for around 70% of global production. 

• The metals used in electronic goods, particularly the rechargeable batteries used in electric vehicles and other forms of energy storage means interest in it is growing as the electrification of the global energy system continues to gather pace.

• Cobalt is used in batteries, superalloys, catalysts, magnets, and pigments for various industries like electronics, aviation, and manufacturing.

• Democratic Republic of Congo (I), Indonesia (II), Russia (III), Australia (IV), and Madagascar (V) are the top 5 Cobalt-producing countries in the world.

• Small deposits of Cobalt are known to exist in Odisha & Jharkhand in India.

Cobalt is a rare earth element and has also been classified as a critical mineral by the Government of India.

Explanation

• Ilmenite (FeTiO3) and Rutile (TiO2) are both minerals that contain high concentrations of titanium. 

• Titanium is a strong and lightweight metal known for its excellent corrosion resistance and high strength-to-weight ratio. It is widely used in various industries, including aerospace, automotive, medical, and construction. 

• In India, certain coastal tracts are known for their significant ilmenite and rutile deposits. Hence these minerals are also called beach sand minerals. These minerals are commonly found in beach sand deposits and are extracted through beach sand mining operations. The extracted ilmenite and rutile are processed to obtain titanium dioxide (TiO2), which is then further refined to produce metallic titanium. 

• Beach sand is rich in seven heavy minerals—ilmenite, leucoxene, rutile, zircon, sillimanite, garnet and monazite.

Explanation

• Lion-tailed Macaque: This is a diurnal animal, meaning it's active during the day.

• Malabar Civet: This is a nocturnal animal, primarily active at night.

• Sambar Deer: These are crepuscular animals, most active during dawn and dusk.

Therefore, only one (1) of the fauna is generally nocturnal or most active after sunset (Malabar Civet).

Explanation

• The Stability and Growth Pact (SGP) is an agreement, among all of the 27 member states of the European Union, to facilitate and maintain the economic stability of the EU countries.The European Commission and the Council of the European Union, monitors the fiscal condition of EU member countries from time to time to ensure their fiscal stability. 

• Statement 1 is correct: It is true that SGP aims to level the budget deficits of European countries. The corrective arm of the Stability and Growth Pact ensures that Member States adopt appropriate policy responses to correct excessive deficits (and/or debts) by implementing the Excessive Deficit Procedure (EDP). Also the SGP requires the EU Member States to lay out their fiscal plans for the next three years to limit their budget deficits. 

• Statement 2 and 3 are incorrect: The SGP treaty does not require its members to share their infrastructure facilities nor their technologies with other countries. The purpose of the SGP was to ensure that fiscal discipline would be maintained and enforced in the European Union.

Explanation

• Statement 1 is correct: The Jhelum, an important tributary of the Indus, rises from a spring at Verinag situated at the foot of the Pir Panjal in the southeastern part of the valley of Kashmir. It flows through Srinagar and the Wular Lake before entering Pakistan through a deep narrow gorge. It joins the Chenab near Jhang in Pakistan.

• Statement 2 is incorrect: The Kolleru lake serves as a natural flood-balancing reservoir for two rivers. The lake is fed directly by water from the seasonal Budameru and Tammileru streams. It is connected to the Krishna (but not directly feeds) and Godavari systems by over 68 inflowing drains and channels.

• Statement 3 is incorrect: Once a haven for migratory birds, the Kanwar Lake in Bihar, Asia’s largest freshwater oxbow lake, is today a dying wetland ecosystem. It is a residual oxbow lake, formed due to the meandering of Budi Gandak river, a tributary of Ganga and not the Gandak river.

Explanation

• The Constitution contains the basic principles and laws of a nation that determine the powers and duties of the government. A constitution serves multiple purposes. It provides a legitimate legal and political basis for the Government to propose and enact laws, organising public service and settling disputes. 

• Although the Constitution determines the objectives (DPSP) for the making of necessary laws and aims to promote social, economic and political democracy, its chief purpose is to limit the power of government. In fact the Constitutional government is by definition limited government.

Explanation

• Statement I- correct In the aftermath of the COVID-19 pandemic, many central banks around the world observed rising inflation. To combat this inflation, they resorted to raising interest rates. This is a well-established monetary policy tool to curb inflation by making borrowing more expensive and encouraging saving, thereby reducing the money supply in circulation. 

• Statement II- correct Central banks are entrusted with maintaining price stability and managing inflation. Raising interest rates is one of the primary instruments they use to achieve this objective. While other factors can influence inflation, central banks do have the ability to significantly impact it through monetary policy measures. 

• Therefore, both statements accurately reflect the role of central banks and their use of interest rates to manage inflation and statement 2 is the correct explanation for statement 1.

Explanation

Besnagar (Bhilsa or Vidisha) in Madhya Pradesh, is not particularly well-known for a Shaivite cave shrine. Archaeological excavations revealed remains of Buddhist, Jain, and Hindu temples, but the site is more famous for the Heliodorus Pillar, an ancient Garuda pillar dedicated to Lord Vishnu. Hence,** statement 1 is incorrectly matched.** Bhaja Caves (near Pune, Maharashtra) are a group of 22 rock-cut caves built during the 2nd century BC and are well known for their Buddhist architecture and sculptures. Sittanavasal (Pudukottai district, Tamil Nadu) is a village known for its Jain cave shrine, considered to be among the oldest Jain monuments in India.

Explanation

• Community reserves in India are terms denoting protected areas of India which typically act as buffer zones to or connectors and migration corridors between established national parks, wildlife sanctuaries and reserved and protected forests of India.

• Statement 1 is incorrect: As per the Section 36 D of the WildLife Protection Act (WLPA): The State Government shall constitute a Community Reserve management committee, which shall be the authority responsible for conserving, maintaining and managing the community reserve. The committee shall elect a Chairman who shall also be the Honorary WildLife Warden on the community reserve.

• Statement 2 is correct: After a forest has been made into a community reserve, people are not allowed to hunt there, thus hunting is prohibited in community reserves.

• Statement 3 is correct: People of such areas are allowed to collect non-timber forest produce.

• Statement 4 is incorrect: After a forest has been made into a community reserve, people are also not allowed to use it for agricultural practices such as shifting (jhum) cultivation.

Explanation

• Both statements about the G-20 are correct 

• Statement 1 is correct The G-20 originated as a forum for Finance Ministers and Central Bank Governors to address global economic and financial issues. It has since expanded its focus to other areas of international cooperation. 

• Statement 2 is correct. India, as the chair of the G-20 in 2023, prioritised digital public infrastructure as one of its key areas of focus. This included discussions on promoting responsible use of artificial intelligence, bridging the digital divide, and fostering inclusive growth through digitalization.

Explanation

• Statement I Correct : India has domestic uranium reserves, but they are not enough to meet the country's nuclear power generation needs. Additionally, some nuclear reactors in India use imported uranium. Coal remains the dominant source of electricity production in India, although its share is gradually decreasing. 

• The major uranium deposits of the country occur in geological basins of the Singhbhum shear zone (Jharkhand), Cuddapah basin (Andhra Pradesh and Telangana), Mahadek basin (Meghalaya), Delhi Supergroup of rocks (Rajasthan) and Bhima basin (Karnataka).

Statement II Incorrect : Nuclear power plants can utilise uranium enriched to varying degrees. India primarily uses Pressurised Heavy Water Reactors (PHWRs) that can function efficiently with low-enriched uranium (around 2-5% enrichment).

Explanation

• Statement 1 is correct: Pyrolobus fumarii, an archaeon living at 113 C in Atlantic hydrothermal vents.Pyrococcus furiosus, an archaeon which thrives at 100C, first discovered in Italy near a volcanic vent. 

• Statement 2 is correct: Psychrophiles or cryophiles (adj. psychrophilic or cryophilic) are extremophilic organisms that are capable of growth and reproduction in low temperatures, ranging from 20 C to 20 C. 

• Statement 3 is correct: Acidophiles are microorganisms that show optimal growth in highly acidic environments. These are of two types. The extreme acidophiles dwell in environments with a pH value < 3, and moderate acidophiles grow optimally in conditions having pH values ranging between 3 and 5.

Explanation

 All four statements are correct. 

• Medicinal mushrooms: Certain mushroom species have been used in traditional medicine for centuries and are still being studied for their potential health benefits. Examples include reishi mushrooms (Ganoderma lucidum) for immune system support and lion's mane mushrooms (Hericium erinaceus) for cognitive function.

• Psychoactive mushrooms: Some mushrooms contain psilocybin, a naturally occurring psychoactive compound that can induce hallucinations. These are commonly referred to as "magic mushrooms" or psilocybin mushrooms.

• Insecticidal mushrooms: Some mushroom species produce natural compounds that can repel or even kill insects. These compounds act as a defence mechanism for the mushrooms against insect pests.

• Bioluminescent mushrooms: A less common but fascinating property, bioluminescence, is found in some mushroom species. These mushrooms can produce and emit light, creating a glowing effect.

Explanation

• Neither of the statements about ballistic missiles and cruise missiles is accurate.

• Ballistic missiles: These are rocket-powered weapons that follow a high, arcing trajectory after a brief powered ascent. They travel at supersonic speeds throughout most of their flight due to inertia.

• Cruise missiles: These are jet-propelled weapons that fly at relatively low altitudes and can manoeuvre throughout their flight path. They can be subsonic, supersonic, or hypersonic depending on the design.

• Agni-V: This is a long-range intercontinental ballistic missile (ICBM) developed by India. It is not a medium-range cruise missile.

• BrahMos: This is a supersonic cruise missile jointly developed by India and Russia. It is not a solid-fueled ICBM. BrahMos uses a ramjet engine for sustained supersonic flight after a booster rocket launch.

Explanation

• Marsupials, which are a type of mammal characterised by the presence of a pouch (marsupium) for carrying their young, are not naturally found in India. Marsupials are primarily native to the Americas and Australia. 

• Marsupials can thrive in a variety of habitats, not just montane grasslands without predators. Many marsupial species are found in a wide range of ecosystems, including forests, savannas, and even urban areas, and can coexist with a variety of predators. Therefore, the correct answer is Statement-I is correct, and Statement II is incorrect.

Explanation

• The First Amendment Act, of 1951, added the fourth clause to Article 15 that empowered the government to make any law for the upliftment of socially and educationally backward classes of citizens or the Scheduled Castes and Scheduled

• Tribes. The added clause elucidates that in case such special provisions are introduced, they cannot be said to be breaching Article 15 and Article 29(2) of the Constitution.

• The need to insert this clause was felt after the decision of the Supreme Court in the State of Madras v. Srimathi Champakam (1951). According to the facts of this case, the Madras government issued an Order that provided reservation on the grounds of religion, race, and caste. This Order was contended to be in breach of Article 15(1) of the Indian Constitution. The Court also gave a literal interpretation to the constitutional provisions and held that reserving seats in public institutions for backward classes violates Articles 15(1) and 29(2). Therefore, to nullify the effect of similar judicial pronouncements, Article 15 was amended.

• Similarly, Article 19(1)(a) grants the right to free speech and expression to Indian citizens. This right is considered an essential feature of democracy. However, Article 19(2) specifies the restrictions that can curtail this freedom. The First Amendment to the Indian Constitution altered these restrictions by widening their ambit. The second change, via the Amendment Act of 1951, was made to Clause 6 of Article 19.Though, the UPSC deleted this question when the final answer key was issued.

Explanation

Statement 1 is correct: According to Article 355 of the Indian Constitution, it shall be the duty of the Union to protect every State against external aggression and internal disturbance and to ensure that the government of every State is carried on in accordance with the provisions of this Constitution.

• Statement 2 is correct: Article 22(3)(b) mentions that individuals detained under preventive detention laws are not initially entitled to consult or be defended by a legal practitioner until the grounds of detention are disclosed to them. Although the constitution allows for exceptions in preventive detention cases, it does not prohibit state governments from providing legal counsel to the detained person. The state has the discretion to offer legal assistance if it wishes.

• Statement 3 is incorrect: Section 32(1) of POTA 2002 allows confessions made to a police officer of at least Superintendent rank, overriding certain provisions of the Code of Criminal Procedure and the Indian Evidence Act. Hence statement 3 is incorrect.

Explanation

• Devichandraguptam is attributed to Vishakhadatta, a Sanskrit playwright. Bilhana was a poet who lived much later. 

• Hammira-Mahakavya was written by Nayachandra Suri, a Jain scholar and poet.

• Milinda-Panha is a dialogue between Buddhist philosopher Nagasena and Indo-Greek King Milinda, focusing on Buddhist concepts like non-self (anatta) and nirvana. Nagasena belonged to the Hinayana tradition, while Nagarjuna, often confused with him, was a Mahayana scholar. For clarity in UPSC, refer to the Milinda-Panha philosopher as Nagasena.

• Nitivakyamrita was written by Somadeva Suri.

            Thus, statements 2 and 4 are correct.

Explanation

• Pair 1 is correct Kamarajar Port, located on the Coromandel Coast about 24 km north of Chennai Port, Chennai, is the 12th major port of India, and the first port in India which is a public company. The Kamarajar Port is the only corporatized major port and is registered as a company. Today, the landlord port is the dominant port model in larger and medium-sized ports. 

• Pair 2 is correct Mundra Port is the largest private port in India. The port of Mundra is located on the north shores of the Gulf of Kutch near Mundra, Kutch district, in the state of Gujarat. Mundra is a major hub for containers and bulk cargo. It is run by Adani Ports and SEZ Limited (APSEZ) and began operations in 2001. Mundra Airport is undergoing major developments to convert it into an international airport for air cargo. 

• Pair 3 is incorrect Jawaharlal Nehru Port Trust Nhava Sheva (JNPT) is the largest container port in India and one of the most essential subcontinent harbours on the Western coast.

Explanation

• Statement 1 is incorrect: Amarkantak (NLK Amarakaaka) is a pilgrim town in Anuppur, Madhya Pradesh, India. Amarkantak Hills is the meeting point of the Vindhya, Satpura, and Maikal Ranges. It is also the origin of the Narmada, Son, and Johilla Rivers.

• Statement 2 is incorrect: The Billigirirangan Hills, also known as Biligiriranga Hills or BR Hills, are not a part of the Satpura range. The Biligirirangana Hills or Biligirirangan Hills is a hill range situated in south-western Karnataka, at its border with Tamil Nadu (Erode District) in South India. The area is called Biligiri Ranganatha Swamy Temple Wildlife Sanctuary or simply BRT Wildlife Sanctuary.

• Statement 3 is incorrect: The Seshachalam Hills, also known as Tirumala Hills, are not a part of the Western Ghats. Seshachalam Hills are hilly ranges part of the Eastern Ghats in southern Andhra Pradesh state, in southeastern India. The Seshachalam hill ranges are predominantly present in Tirupati district of the Rayalaseema region in Andhra Pradesh, India.

Thus, None of the Statements are correct.

Explanation

None of the pairs (1, 2, or 3) are correctly matched. Let's break it down: 

1. North Kivu and Ituri: This region in the Democratic Republic of Congo experiences conflict, but is not related to the war between Armenia and Azerbaijan. 

2. Nagorno-Karabakh: This enclave is disputed between Armenia and Azerbaijan, but the insurgency is happening in Mozambique. 

3. Kherson and Zaporizhzhia: These are currently under heavy fighting in the Russia-Ukraine war, not a dispute between Israel and Lebanon.

Explanation

• Statement 1 is correct The National Handloom Day is observed annually on 7th August to honour the handloom weavers in the country and also highlight India's handloom industry. The first National Handloom Day was held on 7th August 2015. On this day, the handloom weaving community is honoured and the contribution of this sector in the socio-economic development of this country is highlighted.

• Statement 2 is correct August 7 was chosen as the National Handloom Day to commemorate the Swadeshi Movement which was launched on August 7 in 1905 in Calcutta Town Hall to protest against the partition of Bengal by the British Government. The Swadeshi movement had aimed at reviving domestic products and production processes. 

Hence Statement 2 is the correct explanation of Statement 1.

Explanation

• Squirrels are generally small to medium-size rodents, but there are a few species

• that are giant in size like the Malabar giant squirrel and Malayan giant squirrel. Giant tree squirrels are the members of the squirrel family. They are arboreal species and live mostly on trees in the forest, but now also have adapted to human environments. Hence, statement 1 is not correct. 

• To prepare for colder months, squirrels cactch food during the spring and summer by gathering extra nuts. They bury the surplus in the area surrounding their nests, splitting it into different underground pantries to save for later. Hence, statement 2 is correct. 

• While nuts and fruits make up a majority of its diet, the Indian sun squirrel will also eat insects, other smaller mammals, and reptiles. Hence, statement 3 is correct.

Explanation

• Transactions without US Dollar or SWIFT : Traditional digital payments often rely on the US dollar as a reserve currency and might involve the SWIFT system for international settlements.

• A central bank digital currency (CBDC) is the digital form of a country's fiat currency. CBDCs have the potential to bypass these traditional channels. Transactions between countries using their own CBDCs could happen directly, reducing reliance on the US dollar and potentially making cross-border payments faster and cheaper.

• Programmable Money with CBDCs : CBDCs can be programmed with certain features.  A central bank could issue a CBDC with a built-in spending time frame, for example, vouchers for specific purposes like public transport subsidies. These would expire after a certain period, ensuring the funds are used for the intended purpose. 

• Therefore, CBDCs offer unique functionalities compared to traditional digital currencies. They can potentially streamline international payments and introduce programmable features for targeted uses.

Explanation

Based on principles of need, equity and performance, overall devolution formula is as given in the chart:

Explanation

• Janani Suraksha Yojana (JSY) is a safe motherhood intervention under the National Rural Health Mission (NRHM). JSY is a 100% centrally sponsored scheme. So, statement 1 is not correct. 

• It is being implemented with the objective of reducing maternal and neonatal mortality by promoting institutional delivery among poor pregnant women. So, statements 2 and 3 are correct. 

• Under the Janani Shishu Suraksha Karyakram scheme (and not under JSY), all pregnant women and infants will get free treatment benefits at public health institutions including zero expenses delivery. So, statement 4 is not correct.

Explanation

• Bulgaria does not share a land border with Ukraine. It is located to the south of Romania and is separated from Ukraine by Romania.

• The Czech Republic is located to the west of Ukraine and does not share a land border with it.

• Hungary shares a land border with Ukraine to the west.

• Latvia is located to the north of Ukraine and does not share a land border with it.

• Lithuania is located to the north of Ukraine and does not share a land border with it.

• Romania shares a land border with Ukraine to the south.

• Only two of the above-mentioned countries (Hungary and Romania) share a land border with Ukraine.

Explanation

• Metagenomics (also referred to as environmental and community genomics) is the genomic analysis of microorganisms by direct extraction and cloning of DNA from an assemblage of microorganisms. It involves:  

  • Isolating DNA from an environmental sample, 

  • Cloning the DNA into a suitable vector, 

  • Transforming the clones into a host bacterium, 

  • And screening the resulting transformants.

• Such an approach helps in sampling an entire habitat at one go. Researchers have shown that environmental DNA (e-DNA) can potentially identify and monitor terrestrial animals. Animals shed DNA through their breath, saliva, fur, or faeces into the environment. These samples are called e-DNA.

Hence, Statement A is correct.

Explanation

• Statement 1 is incorrect: Home Guards are raised under the Home Guards Act and Rules of the States/Union Territories (not the central Government). They are recruited from all classes of people and walks of life, who give their spare time to the organisation for the betterment of the community.

• Statement 2 is correct: The role of Home Guards is to serve as an auxiliary force to the Police in the maintenance of internal security situations, help the community in any kind of emergency such as an air raid, fire, cyclone, earthquake, epidemic, etc., help in the maintenance of essential services, promote communal harmony and assist the administration in protecting weaker sections, participate in socio-economic and welfare activities and perform Civil Defence duties.

• Statement 3 is correct: Fifteen Border Wing Home Guards (BWHG) Battalions have been raised in the border States viz. Punjab (6 Bns.), Rajasthan ( 4 Bns.), Gujarat (2 Bns.), and one each Battalion for Meghalaya, Tripura, and West Bengal to serve as an auxiliary to Border Security Force for preventing infiltration on the international border/coastal areas, guarding of VA/VPs and lines of communication in the vulnerable area at the time of external aggression.

Therefore, only two statements are correct.

Explanation

Capital markets are financial markets where long-term securities, such as stocks and bonds, are traded. They provide a platform for raising capital for businesses and governments. 

On the other hand, Money markets are financial markets where short-term securities such as T-Bill, C-Paper, Cash Management Bills, Ways and Means advances, etc are traded. 

• Statement 1 is correct- Government bonds are long-term debt securities issued by governments to finance their activities. The government bond market is a part of the capital market as it involves the trading of long-term debt securities. 

• Statement 2 is incorrect- The call money market is a short-term market where funds are borrowed and lent for very short durations, usually overnight. It deals with short-term funds, and its transactions are not classified as part of the capital market.

• Statement 3 is incorrect- Treasury bills are short-term debt instruments issued by governments to finance their short-term cash flow requirements. The treasury bill market, similar to the call money market, deals with short-term instruments and is not considered part of the capital market. 

• Statement 4 is correct- The stock market, also known as the equity market or share market, is where shares or stocks of publicly listed companies are bought and sold. The stock market is a part of the capital market as it involves the trading of ownership interests (equity securities) in companies.

Explanation

• Statement I is correct: It has frequently been argued that reservation is contrary to efficiency and merit. Even the Supreme Court of India appeared to have agreed with this argument in some of its judgments, holding that Article 335 mention of the term efficiency of administration will limit the scope of Article 16(4) provision for reservation in services. 

• Statement II is incorrect: Article 335 of the Constitution of India states that the claims of the members of the Scheduled Castes and the Scheduled Tribes shall be taken into consideration, consistently with the maintenance of efficiency of administration, in the making of appointments to services and posts in connection with the affairs of the Union or of a State. 

• Article 335 of the Indian Constitution only mentions the efficiency of administration and does not define the same.

Explanation

• Statement 1 is incorrect: The Mundra Thermal Power Plant employs a closed-cycle induced draft circulating cooling water system that utilises seawater. Seawater is drawn from the Gulf of Kutch through robust glass reinforced pipes of significant diameter. In addition, purified seawater from a reverse osmosis plant is utilised by various supplementary systems.

• Statement 2 is incorrect:  According to recent research by WRI (World Resources Institute), 40 percent of India's thermal power plants are situated in regions experiencing significant water stress. This poses a challenge as these plants rely on water for cooling purposes. The scarcity of water is already causing disruptions in electricity generation in these areas, with 14 out of India's 20 largest thermal utilities having experienced at least one shutdown between 2013 and 2016 due to water shortages.

• Statement 3 is incorrect:  India has a total of 269 Thermal Power Plants, with 138 of them being owned by the public sector and the remaining 131 owned by the private sector.

Explanation

• The statement "Souls are not only the property of animal and plant life, but also of rocks, running water and many other natural objects not looked on as living by other religious sects" reflects a core belief of Jainism.

• Jainism and Anekantavada Jainism emphasises the principle of Anekantavada, which means "many-sidedness" or "multiplicity of viewpoints." This philosophy acknowledges the existence of souls (jivas) in all living beings and even some non-living things.

• By emphasizing on the principle of respect for all life, Jains believe in ahimsa (non-violence) and strive to minimise harm to all living beings, including even microorganisms and plants. Extending this principle to seemingly inanimate objects reflects their reverence for all existence.

• While other religions in India might believe in the interconnectedness of nature, Jainism takes a unique stance by attributing a rudimentary form of soul to a wider range of entities.

Explanation

Let's analyse each of the organisations/bodies mentioned in the question to determine their status as constitutional bodies:

• The National Commission for Backward Classes (NCBC): This body is a constitutional body. It was given constitutional status by the 102nd Constitutional Amendment Act, 2018, which inserted Article 338B into the Indian Constitution.

• The National Human Rights Commission (NHRC): This body is not a constitutional body. It is a statutory body established under the Protection of Human Rights Act, 1993.

• The National Law Commission: This body is not a constitutional body. It is an executive body established by an executive order of the Government of India.

• The National Consumer Disputes Redressal Commission (NCDRC): This body is not a constitutional body. It is a statutory body set up under the Consumer Protection Act of 1986 (replaced by the Consumer Protection Act 2019).

Based on the analysis, only the National Commission for Backward Classes is a constitutional body.

Explanation

• Microsatellite DNA, also known as short tandem repeats (STRs), are highly polymorphic DNA sequences that are widely used in the case of studying the evolutionary relationships among various species of fauna. 

• Microsatellite DNA analysis is a powerful tool for studying genetic diversity, population structure, and evolutionary relationships among different species of animals. 

• The variations in the number of repeated DNA sequences in microsatellites can provide insights into the genetic similarities and differences between species, which can be used to infer their evolutionary relationships.

Explanation

• Statement I India's public healthcare system prioritises curative care, which focuses on treating existing illnesses. Preventive, promotive, and rehabilitative care, which aims to prevent diseases, promote good health, and help people recover from illness, receive less emphasis.

• Statement II India's healthcare system follows a decentralised approach. The central government sets policies and provides financial assistance, but individual states are responsible for organising and delivering health services to their populations. This allows for flexibility based on local needs and contexts. Therefore, the answer is Both Statement I and Statement II are correct.

Explanation

• Statement 1 is incorrect: As per the Micro, Small and Medium Enterprises Development (MSMED) Act, 2006, Medium Enterprises are those for which the investments in Plant and Machinery are not more than Rs. 50 crore of and turnover not more than Rs. 250 crore.

• Statement 2 is correct: All bank loans to MSMEs that meet the criteria outlined in the Master Direction on “Priority Sector Lending (PSL) – Targets and Classification” dated September 4, 2020 are eligible to be classified as priority sector lending.

Explanation

• Cepheids are actually stars that brighten and dim periodically, not giant clouds of dust and gas. 

• Nebulae are giant clouds of dust and gas in space, not stars that brighten and dim periodically.Thus, the first two pairs are reversed. 

• Pulsars are rapidly rotating neutron stars that are formed when massive stars exhaust their fuel and collapse. 

• So out of the 3 pairs given, only 1 pair (pair 3) is correctly matched.

Explanation

• The Invasive Species Specialist Group (ISSG) is a global network of scientific and policy experts on invasive species, organised under the auspices of the Species Survival Commission (SSC) of the International Union for Conservation of Nature (IUCN). Hence option (a) is the correct answer.

Explanation

• Statement 1 is incorrect Stupa is a pre-Buddhist tumuli in which ramaas were buried in a seated position called chaitya. The term stupa comes from the Sanskrit word stupa, which means heap or pile. Originally, stupas were simple mounds of earth or stones that served as commemorative markers for important events or burial sites.

• Statement 2 is correct One of the primary functions of a stupa is to serve as a repository of relics. Relics are objects associated with the Buddha, such as his physical remains, personal belongings, or items used by him. They are considered sacred and hold great spiritual significance in Buddhism.

• Statement 3 is correct Stupas are also associated with votive and commemorative purposes. Stupas are often built as acts of devotion and as offerings to the Buddha or other enlightened beings. Stupas are also constructed to commemorate significant events, individuals, or historical sites. For example, stupas might be built to mark the birthplace, the enlightenment site, or the site of the Buddha's parinirvana (passing away).

Explanation

• Green hydrogen is any hydrogen that is produced from renewable energy. 

• Green hydrogen can be used as a direct fuel for internal combustion engines, replacing conventional fuels like gasoline or diesel.

• Green hydrogen can be blended with natural gas and used as a fuel for various applications like heating, power generation, and industrial processes.

• Green hydrogen can be used in hydrogen fuel cells to power electric vehicles, providing a clean and efficient alternative to traditional fossil fuel-powered vehicles.Therefore, all three statements regarding the uses of green hydrogen are correct.

Explanation

• Dhanyakataka was an ancient city situated in the region of South India (Andhra Pradesh). 

• It was a significant Buddhist centre, particularly associated with the Mahasanghika sect of Buddhism during ancient times. 

The Mahasanghika sect (considered to be the origin of Mahayana Sect) was one of the early Buddhist schools that emerged in India, and Dhanyakataka played a crucial role in its development and propagation.

Explanation

• Statement I is correct In 2021, Switzerland exported $86.7B in Gold, making it the 1st largest exporter of Gold in the world. Switzerland is consistently the world's leading gold-exporting country based on value. (Please note: The list is dynamic & keeps varying yearly)

• Statement II is not correct. The United States is way out in front as the country with the largest gold reserves in the world at 8,000 tonnes (as of 2024).

• In India, the largest resources of gold ore (primary) are located in Bihar (44%) followed by Rajasthan (25%), Karnataka (21%), West Bengal (3%), Andhra Pradesh (3% ), Jharkhand (2 %). The remaining 2% resources of ore are located in Chhattisgarh, Madhya Pradesh, Kerala, Maharashtra and Tamil Nadu. (PIB 2021)

• India is one of the largest gold importers, sourcing 800-1,000 tons annually, mainly from Switzerland, the UAE, and South Africa. Imports are driven by high domestic demand for jewelry and investment. Gold exports, primarily in jewelry, target the US, UAE, and Hong Kong, supporting India's trade through its jewelry manufacturing sector.

Explanation

• Devaraya I, around 1410 A.D., got a barrage constructed across the Tungabhadra river and commissioned a 24 km long aqueduct from the Tungabhadra river to the capital. 

• The account provided by Nuniz gives details of the projects undertaken by Deva Raya I that brought prosperity to the Kingdom. Hence option (a) is the correct answer.

Explanation

• Korkai, Poompuhar, and Muchiri were well-known ancient port cities in South India. These cities were prominent centres of trade and maritime activities during ancient times, particularly during the Sangam period (300 BCE to 300 CE).

• Please Note: In the Sangam Literature - the word ‘Puhar’ referred to harbour towns.

Explanation

• None of the listed dynasties established their kingdoms in the early eighth century AD (701-800 AD). 

1. Hoysala 1006 AD 

2. Gahadavala 1026 AD 

3. Kakatiya 1000 AD (established as a sub-feudatory, declared independence around the 10th century) 

4. Yadava 850 AD (although some sources suggest a later date) 

• Even the earliest of these estimates (Yadava dynasty) falls outside the early eighth-century range.

• Please note: early eighth century AD refers to the beginning of the medieval period. At that time, there were 3 major dynasties that established their empires in India - Palas, Pratiharas, Rashtrakutas.

Explanation

• Alexander Rea, A. H. Longhurst, Robert Sewell, James Burgess, and Walter Elliot were all prominent figures in the field of archaeology in India during the colonial period.

• Alexander Rea (1858-1924) was a British archaeologist who worked mainly in South British India. He is known for unearthing a sarcophagus from the hillocks of Pallavaram in Tamil Nadu.

• Albert Henry Longhurst (1876-1955) was a British archaeologist and art historian, working in India and Ceylon. From 1927 to 1931 he was in-charge of the systematic digging of Nagarjunakonda.

• Robert Sewell (1845-1925) worked in the civil service of the Madras Presidency during the period of colonial rule in India. Sewell undertook archaeological work at the Buddhist stupa at Amaravati, which had already been largely destroyed prior to his arrival. The site had previously been surveyed by Colin Mackenzie and Walter Elliot (1803-1887)

• James Burgess (1832-1916), was the founder of the Indian Antiquary in 1872 and an important archaeologist of British India in the 19th century. From 1886-89 he was Director General, Archaeological Survey of India.

Explanation

• Statement 1 is incorrect: The elected members of the Upper and Lower Houses of Parliament that is the Rajya Sabha and the Lok Sabha as well as the elected Members of the Legislative Assemblies of States and Union Territories (MLAs) comprise the electoral college for the Presidential Election in India. 

• Statement 2 is incorrect: The value of the vote of each MLA depends on the ratio of the States population and the number of MLAs in its legislative Assembly. By dividing the States population by the number of MLAs in its legislative Assembly, and then further dividing the quotient achieved by 1000, one may calculate the value of each MLAs vote. Based on a calculation that takes into account each States population about the number of members in its legislative Assembly, each MLAs vote value varies from State to State. According to the Constitution (Eighty-fourth Amendment) Act of 2001, the population of the States is currently calculated using data from the 1971 Census. 

• Statement 3 is incorrect: The vote value of each MLA of Madhya Pradesh is less than that of the vote value of each MLA of Kerala as the ratio of total population to total elective seats in Kerala is greater relative to that in Madhya Pradesh. 

• Statement 4 is correct: The vote value of each MLA of Puducherry is higher than that of Arunachal Pradesh as the ratio of total population to total elective seats in Puducherry is greater relative to that in Arunachal Pradesh. In the 2022 Presidential election, the vote value of each MLA from Puducherry was 16 whereas the vote value of each MLA from Arunachal Pradesh came out to be 8.

Explanation

• Sustainable Investments in Infrastructure and Innovation (S3)In March 2020, Sustainable Investments in Infrastructure and Innovation (S3i) was formally established as a stand-alone business unit in the UNOPS governance structure, making UNOPS the first United Nations organisation able to make direct investments from its own balance sheet.

• In line with the UNOPS Strategic Plan, 2022-2025, the S3i office will seek to enhance and accelerate the effort of engaging public and private sector investors to work collectively to scale up infrastructure investments and consider co-creating innovative financing options. The UNOPS S3i will continue rolling out the initiative across its three focus-areas- affordable housing- renewable energy- health infrastructure

SK Tip__: Just think of the option - Rapid Mass Transport. If we generally think, rapid mass transport is not a need or even a necessity while considering sustainable aspects. Had it been mass transport, we would have still given it a thought. But not rapid mass transport.

Explanation

• Orangutans are known for their intelligence and tool-use capabilities. They have been observed using sticks in various ways, including scraping insects from holes in trees and logs, extracting honey from beehives, and even using leaves as utensils.

Explanation

• Statement I is correct: Several Arab states, including Egypt, Jordan, United Arab Emirates, Bahrain, Morocco, and Sudan, have established diplomatic relations with Israel.

• Statement II is incorrect: The Arab Peace Initiative, mediated by Saudi Arabia, was endorsed by the Arab League but not signed by Israel. It outlines a path towards peace in exchange for Israeli concessions, but Israel has not formally accepted all its terms.

Explanation

• Green hydrogen is the hydrogen produced through electrolysis of water using electricity from renewable sources.

• Green hydrogen is expected to play a significant role in decarbonizing all three of the mentioned heavy industries.

• Green hydrogen can be used in the production of ammonia, which is a key component for many fertilizers. Fertilizer production is energy-intensive and often relies on fossil fuels, particularly natural gas. By using green hydrogen as a clean energy source, the carbon emissions from this industry can be significantly reduced

• Green hydrogen can be used in oil refineries to process crude oil into various products, including gasoline, diesel, and jet fuel. This can help to reduce the carbon emissions from the refining process.

• The steel industry is one of the largest industrial emitters of carbon dioxide. Green hydrogen can be used in place of coal in the steelmaking process, significantly reducing the industry's carbon emissions.

Explanation

• According to data from the Food and Agriculture Organization (FAO) and other agricultural databases, India does have more arable land than China. As of recent data, India's arable land is approximately 157 million hectares, whereas China's arable land is around 119 million hectares. Hence, Statement 1 is correct.

• While India has a substantial amount of irrigated land, China has implemented extensive irrigation projects and has a higher proportion of its arable land irrigated. As a percentage of arable land, China's irrigated land is higher than that of India.Therefore, statement 2 is incorrect.

• China has a higher average agricultural productivity per hectare compared to India. This is due to several factors, including technological advancements, better infrastructure, and more effective agricultural practices in China. Hence, statement 3 is also incorrect.

Explanation

• Sterilisation refers to the actions taken by a central bank to offset the impact of its foreign exchange operations on the domestic money supply. 

• When a central bank intervenes in the foreign exchange market by buying or selling foreign currencies, it affects the domestic money supply. 

• Open Market Operations (OMO) is one of the primary tools used by central banks, including the Reserve Bank of India (RBI), to conduct monetary policy. 

• In OMO, the central bank buys or sells government securities (bonds) in the open market to influence the liquidity in the economy. When the RBI conducts OMO, it impacts the money supply in the economy. If the RBI buys government securities, it injects money into the system, increasing the money supply. To prevent this injection of money from creating inflationary pressures, the RBI engages in sterilisation. 

• Sterilisation involves the simultaneous sale or purchase of other securities, typically treasury bills, to offset the impact of the initial open market operation.

Explanation

• The Government of India provides Minimum Support Price (MSP) for niger seeds to support farmers and ensure a baseline return on their crops. This is especially important for crops like niger which might have volatile market prices. 

• Niger is primarily cultivated as a Kharif crop in India. Kharif refers to the monsoon season in India, typically from June to September. Niger thrives in these rainy conditions. 

• Niger seed oil has various uses, and some tribal communities in India traditionally use it for cooking purposes. The oil has a nutty flavour and can be used as a substitute for other cooking oils.

Explanation

• Statement 1 is correct: Trade and Technology Council was launched by the the United States of America and the European Union during the EU-US Summit on 15 June 2021 in Brussels. 

• Statement 2 is incorrect: Trade and Technology council, the USA and EU does not aim to bring technological progress and physical productivity under their control. Rather the initiative intends to promote pooling of digital resources such as AI models and computing power, and make them available to partner countries to address challenges in areas such as climate change and extreme weather, healthcare or smart agriculture.

Explanation

• Statement 1 is incorrect: Prophylactic Iron Folic Acid supplementation (not Prophylactic calcium) given to children, adolescents, women of reproductive age and pregnant women, irrespective of anaemia is a key continued intervention.

• Statement 2 is correct: Promotion and monitoring of delayed clamping of the umbilical cord for at least 3 minutes (or until cord pulsations cease) for newborns across all health facilities will be carried out for improving the infants iron reserves up to 6 months after birth. Simultaneously, all birth attendants should make an effort to ensure early initiation of breastfeeding within 1 hour of birth.

• Statement 3 is correct: The Anaemia Mukt Bharat, also integrates deworming of women of reproductive age and for pregnant women as part of the NDD strategy. Bi-annual mass deworming for children in the age groups between 1-19 years is carried out on designated dates 10th February and 10th August every year under National Deworming Day (NDD) programme.

• Statement 4 is correct: The Anaemia Mukt Bharat strategy attempts to intensify awareness and integrate screening and treatment for non-nutritional causes of anaemia with special focus on malaria, haemoglobinopathies and fluorosis.

Explanation

• The President is elected indirectly by the electoral college consisting of elected members of both houses of Parliament, elected members of the State Legislative Assembly, and elected members of the legislative assemblies of the Union Territories of Delhi and Puducherry. 

• Statement 1 is incorrect: If the election of a person as President is declared void by the Supreme Court, acts done by him before the date of such declaration of the Supreme Court are not invalidated and continue to remain in force. 

• Statement 2 is incorrect: The Supreme Court in 1974 held that the dissolution of the state legislative assembly would not be a ground for preventing the holding of the election on the expiry of the term of the President. Nor can it be grounds to suggest that the election to the office of the President could be held only after the election to the state is held, where the Legislative Assembly of a State is dissolved. 

• Statement 3 is incorrect: The Constitution of India does not prescribe any time limit within which the President has to decide concerning a bill presented to him/her for his/her assent. Thus the President of India can simply keep the bills pending for an indefinite period.

Explanation

In a seismograph, P wavesare recorded earlier than S waves. This is true because P waves, also known as Primary waves, are the first to be recorded by a seismograph during an earthquake. They are faster and hence, reach the recording instrument before the S waves.

P waves are longitudinal or compressional waves, which means the particles in these waves vibrate in the same direction as the wave propagation. On the other hand, S waves, or Secondary waves, are transverse waves, where the particle motion is perpendicular to the direction of wave propagation. Therefore, both statements are correct.

Explanation

• Car Crash Detection and Airbag Deployment: Modern cars use accelerometers as part of a complex system to detect rapid deceleration that can indicate a crash. The accelerometer data, along with other sensors, triggers the airbag deployment almost instantaneously. 

• Laptop Fall Detection and Hard Drive Shut Off: Some laptops use accelerometers to detect a sudden fall or impact. This can trigger the hard drive heads to retract or park, protecting the drive from potential damage. 

• Smartphone Tilt Detection and Display Rotation: Accelerometers are widely used in smartphones to detect orientation changes (tilt). This allows the device to automatically switch the display between portrait and landscape mode depending on how you hold the phone. 

• In all these scenarios, the accelerometer detects changes in acceleration or tilt, which is then used by the system to perform the specific action.

Therefore, all three statements are correct.

Explanation

• Statement 1 is correct: Gold mining is poisoning Amazon forests with mercury. To separate the gold, miners mix liquid mercury into the sediment, which forms a coating around the gold.

• Statement 2 is correct: Fly ash generated by TPPs is one of the ways mercury is released into the environment. Fly ash is usually disposed of in ash ponds in the form of ash slurry, forming an aquatic ecosystem of its own. Coal-based TPPs are the major source of mercury – the ninth most toxic element found on earth — emissions into the environment. Mercury contributed over 80 percent of emissions released by the TPPs, according to 2016 estimates by the Delhi-based think-tank Centre for Science and Environment.

• Statement 3 is incorrect: While high levels of mercury exposure can be harmful, there are established safe levels of exposure to mercury for various scenarios. As per different reports currently, mercury vapour concentrations greater than 0.01 mg/m3 are considered unsafe.

Explanation

• Statement 1 is correct: In India, the Constitution Day is celebrated in India on 26 November every year to commemorate the adoption of the Constitution of India and also it was celebrated to promote constitutional values among the citizens of India.

• Statement 2 is incorrect: On 29 August 1947, the Constituent Assembly set up a Drafting Committee under the Chairmanship of Dr. B.R. Ambedkar, to prepare a Draft Constitution for India. On 26 November 1949, the Constituent Assembly of India adopted the Constitution of India, and it came into effect on 26 January 1950.

Explanation

Statement I is incorrect India�s share in global merchandise trade is only 1.8% and 4% in global services. India plans to increase its export share in global trade from 2.1% to 3% by 2027 and 10% by 2047.

Statement II is correct The PLI scheme is open to both domestic and international manufacturers. Samsung as well as Indian firms such as Dixon Technologies, UTL, Neolyncs, Lava International, Optiemus Electronics and Micromax are also expanding their factories to take advantage of the PLI scheme.