UPSC Prelims 2018 Analysis

Explanation

The correct answer is Yemen and South Sudan.

Yemen and South Sudan are two countries in which lakhs of people suffered from acute famine/malnutrition and died due to starvation caused by war or conflicts. These countries are facing a humanitarian crisis due to famine and civil war.

Explanation

The United Nations Framework Convention on Climate Change (UNFCCC) Secretariat launched the Climate Neutral Now initiative in 2015 to encourage individuals, businesses, and governments to take voluntary action towards climate neutrality.

In 2016, the Secretariat introduced a new pillar under its "Momentum for Change" initiative, focusing on Climate Neutral Now as part of broader efforts to highlight and promote successful climate action worldwide.

Climate neutrality is a three-step process, which requires individuals, companies, and governments to:

1. Measure their climate footprint (greenhouse gas emissions).
2. Reduce emissions as much as possible through sustainable practices and efficiency improvements.
3. Offset unavoidable emissions using UN-certified emission reductions (CERs).

This initiative aligns with global efforts to meet the Paris Agreement goals, fostering greater accountability and proactive engagement in combating climate change.

Explanation

The scenario described involves various devices (smartphone, geyser, smart mirror, refrigerator, car, etc.) communicating with each other and with the user, and automatically performing tasks based on certain triggers. This is characteristic of the Internet of Things (IoT).

Internet of Things (IoT) is a system of interrelated computing devices, mechanical and digital machines, objects, animals or people that are provided with unique identifiers (UIDs) and the ability to transfer data over a network without requiring human-to-human or human-to-computer interaction.

Border Gateway Protocol is a protocol used to exchange routing information across the internet and is not relevant to the scenario described.

Internet Protocol is a set of rules for sending and receiving messages at the Internet address level, but it doesn't cover the broad range of device intercommunication described in the scenario.

A Virtual Private Network is a technology for using the internet or another intermediate network to connect computers to isolated remote computer networks that would otherwise be inaccessible, which also doesn't fit the scenario.

Explanation

The Champaran Satyagraha of 1917 was the first Satyagraha movement inspired by Gandhi and a major revolt in the Indian Independence Movement. It was a farmer's uprising that took place in the Champaran district of Bihar, India during the British colonial period. The farmers were protesting against growing indigo with barely any payment for it.

Explanation

The Aral Sea was once one of the world's largest inland lakes, but due to extensive water diversion for irrigation projects, particularly from the Amu Darya and Syr Darya rivers, it has shrunk by over 75% since the 1960s. This has led to severe environmental, economic, and social consequences, including increased salinity, loss of marine life, and desertification.

Black Sea: While the Black Sea faces environmental challenges such as pollution, biodiversity loss, and reduced oxygen levels in deep waters, it has not experienced significant drying like the Aral Sea.

Lake Baikal: Lake Baikal in Russia is the deepest and oldest freshwater lake in the world, containing about 20% of the world's unfrozen freshwater supply. Although it experiences natural fluctuations in water levels, it has not undergone severe drying like the Aral Sea.

Thus, the correct answer is option (d).

Explanation

Air India was nationalised in 1953. The Government of India passed the Air Corporation Act in 1953 and purchased a majority stake in the carrier from Tata Sons.

Imperial Bank of India was nationalised in 1955, with RBI taking a 60 per cent stake, and its name was changed to SBI.

The first democratically elected communist party government was formed in a state in India in 1957. In the first general election held to the Kerala state legislative assembly in 1957, the Communist Party of India won 60 seats out of 126.

Goa became an independent state of India on 18 Dec 1961, and Goa was freed from the Portuguese. On Dec 18 1961, Operation Vijay was launched by the Indian Government to bring back Goa into India.

Therefore correct chronological sequence is 3-2-1-4

Explanation

The Committee on Subordinate Legislation (CSL) is specifically tasked with scrutinizing and reporting on the exercise of delegated powers by the executive branch. They ensure the government is acting within the legal boundaries set by Parliament when creating rules, regulations, etc.

Committee on Government Assurances (A) focuses on tracking the implementation of assurances, and promises made by the government in Parliament.

Rules Committee (C) deals with framing rules for the smooth functioning of the Houses of Parliament (Lok Sabha and Rajya Sabha).

Business Advisory Committee (D) allocates time for different kinds of legislative and other business of the House.

Therefore, only the Committee on Subordinate Legislation directly addresses the scrutiny of delegated powers.

Explanation

Statement 1 is incorrect: In 2013, NFSA was enacted to provide food security to 67% of the population in the form of highly subsidized food grains at Rs. 2 and 3 per Kg for wheat and rice respectively. Beneficiaries are identified using Socio-economic Caste Census (SECC) methodology so even non-BPL will also benefit.

Statement 2 is correct: Under the NFSA, to issue ration cards the eldest woman of a household aged 18 years or above would be considered as head. Hence, this statement is correct.

Statement 3 is correct: Pregnant women and lactating mothers are entitled to a nutritious take home ration of 600 Calories and a maternity benefit of at least Rs 6,000 for six months, says the official act.

Explanation

List of Tax-exempted Goods are;

• Several food items have been exempted from any of the tax slabs. Fresh meat, fish, chicken, eggs, milk, buttermilk, curd, natural honey, fresh fruits and vegetables, flour, besan, bread, all kinds of salt, jaggery and hulled cereal grains have been kept out of the taxation system.

• Bindi, sindoor, kajal, Palmyra, human hair and bangles also do not attract any tax under GST.

• Drawing or colouring books alongside stamps, judicial papers, printed books, newspapers also fall under this category.

Explanation

Capital formation : This refers to the net increase in the capital stock of a country, which includes physical capital (machinery, buildings) and human capital (skills, education).

High savings : A high savings economy implies people are saving a significant portion of their income. Ideally, these savings are then invested to create new capital.

Capital-output ratio (COR) : This ratio measures the amount of additional capital needed to produce one unit of additional output (GDP). A high COR indicates that even with high savings and investment, the increase in output might be low.

Hence , option D is the Correct Answer.

Explanation

3D printing, also known as additive manufacturing, is a process of making three dimensional solid objects from a digital file. It is used in a wide range of industries and has various applications.

It can be used to create intricate and customized shapes in confectionery items like chocolates, candies, and other desserts.

It has been used to create customized bionic ears for people with hearing impairments.

It is used in the automotive industry for rapid prototyping, manufacturing of customized parts, and even some production of vehicle components.

It is used in reconstructive surgeries to create patient-specific implants, prosthetics, and surgical guides.

It can be used to create specialized components and parts for data processing technologies, such as computer hardware.

Therefore, all the five statements are correct.

Explanation

Statement 1 is incorrect: As per the RTE Act, the minimum qualification for teachers is set by the National Council for Teacher Education (NCTE), not the state council.

Statement 2 is correct: The RTE Act mandates that candidates must pass the Teacher Eligibility Test (TET) to qualify for teaching primary classes. The NCTE sets the guidelines for conducting this test.

Statement 3 is incorrect: According to the All India Survey on Higher Education (AISHE) 2019-20, approximately 67% of teacher education institutions in India are privately managed, while only around 33% are government-run.

Hence, the correct answer is option (b) 2 only.

Explanation

Charter Act of 1813 ordered the East India Company to spend 1 lakh on Education of Indians.

General Committee of Public Instruction, 1823 was formed to give effect to grant sanction in the 1813 Charter Act.

Orientalist and Anglicist Controversy were also related to the spread of education in India. This debate led to the introduction of English education in India by 1834's Macaulay Minutes.

Explanation

Incorrect (1) Most of Thyagaraja's kritis (compositions) are devotional songs in praise of Lord Rama, not Krishna.

Correct (2) Tyagaraja is credited with creating several new ragas (melodic scales) in Carnatic music.

Incorrect (3) Annamacharya and Tyagaraja were not contemporaries. Annamacharya lived in the 15th century, while Tyagaraja lived in the 18th-19th century.

Correct (4) Annamacharya's kirtanas (devotional songs) are indeed known for praising Lord Venkateshwara, a form of Vishnu.

Explanation

According to Einstein's General Theory of Relativity, gravity can bend light. This phenomenon is known as gravitational lensing.

The General Theory of Relativity led to the prediction of an expanding universe, which has been confirmed by observational evidence.

According to the General Theory of Relativity, the presence of matter and energy warps the fabric of space and time around it, which is the underlying cause of the gravitational force.

So, all three statements are correct.

Explanation

Statement 1 is Incorrect. The Ministry of Skill Development and Entrepreneurship (MSDE) is responsible for PMKVY, not the Ministry of Labour and Employment.

Statement 2 is Correct. PMKVY goes beyond technical skills training and incorporates soft skills, entrepreneurship, financial literacy, and digital literacy to make participants more employable.

Statement 3 is Correct. A core objective of PMKVY is to bridge the gap between the skills of the unregulated workforce and industry requirements by aligning them with the National Skill Qualification Framework (NSQF). This standardization helps ensure a minimum level of competency and improves employment opportunities.

Explanation

Human capital formation refers to the process of increasing the stock of knowledge, skills, and experiences that people in a country possess. This intangible wealth is what makes a workforce productive and adaptable. Therefore, statement 2 and 4 are correct.

Explanation

The Pakhui Wildlife Sanctuary, located in Arunachal Pradesh, is part of the Kameng Elephant Reserve and is contiguous with the Pakke Tiger Reserve. It is known for its rich biodiversity and dense forests, making it a critical habitat for various wildlife species. The Bhareli (Pakke) and Bamadi rivers flow through the sanctuary, supporting its diverse ecosystem. Several indigenous tribes, including the Nyishi and Apatani, reside in the region, coexisting with the forest and its resources.

Explanation

• Santhals were the agricultural people settled in Rajmahal Hills of Bihar.
• They are native to the Indian states of predominantly Jharkhand, West Bengal and Odisha.

Creation of Santhal Paraganas A separate administrative unit called the Santhal Paraganas was established in 1855. This aimed to isolate the Santhal community from the rest of the population and potentially prevent further uprisings.

Restriction on Land Transfer The Santhal Parganas Tenancy Act was passed in 1876. This act made it illegal for a Santhal to sell or transfer land to a non-Santhal. This aimed to protect the Santhal community's economic interests and prevent further exploitation by outsiders called 'Dikus'.

Explanation

All of the listed factors - birds, dust blowing, rain, and wind blowing - can contribute to the spread of plant diseases

Birds can act as vectors, carrying and spreading plant pathogens from one location to another through their feathers, feet, or droppings.

Dust and soil particles blown by the wind can carry and spread plant diseases, especially fungal spores and bacterial cells.

Rain can splash and disperse plant pathogens, such as fungi and bacteria, from the soil or infected plant parts to uninfected plants.

Wind can transport and spread airborne plant pathogens, such as fungal spores and bacterial cells, over long distances.

Explanation

Statement 1 is correct: The value of the vote of each MLA varies from State to State. The value of an MLA's vote is based on the population of their state relative to the number of MLAs in the state assembly. States with larger populations have a higher value per MLA vote.

Statement 2 is incorrect: Both MPs (Lok Sabha and Rajya Sabha) have the same value for their vote in the presidential election.

Hence, the correct answer is option (c) 1 only.

Explanation

The correct answer is 3 only.

The Digital India plan focuses on bridging the digital divide and increasing access to technology, which aligns with option 3 of connecting villages, schools, and public spaces to the internet.

Option 1 is not a core aim of the plan, though it may indirectly encourage domestic companies. Option 2 goes against the Digital India vision of empowering citizens and potentially raises privacy concerns.

Explanation

The National Payments Corporation of India (NPCI)

The NPCI operates the National Financial Switch (NFS), which is the largest network connecting ATMs across various banks in India. This network facilitates inter-bank transactions and allows users to withdraw cash from ATMs even if they don't belong to the bank that owns the ATM.

Explanation

The Cabinet Committee on Economic Affairs (CCEA) announces the Minimum Support Price (MSP) for certain staple crops and some key commercial crops.

Barley, Finger millet, Groundnut, and Sesamum are crops for which MSP is typically announced by the government. These are important food or oilseed crops and support farmer income.

Areca nut and Coffee are considered cash crops and MSP is generally not announced for them. Turmeric can be classified as a spice crop, and MSP announcements for spices is not very common,

Therefore, the most options for which CCEA announces MSP are 2, 4, 5 and 6.

Explanation

Catalonia

• It is located in Spain.
• It is bordered by France and Andorra in the north, the Mediterranean Sea to the east, the autonomous community of Valencia to the south, and the autonomous community of Aragon to the west.

The Republic of Crimea

• Officially part of Ukraine, lies on a peninsula stretching from the south of Ukraine between the Black Sea and the Sea of Azov.
• It is separated from Russia by the narrow Kerch Strait.

Mindanao

• It is an island located in the Philippines.
• It is surrounded by the Bohol, Philippine, Celebes, and Sulu seas.

Oromia

• It is a regional state of Ethiopia.
• Ethiopia is a landlocked country located in Eastern Africa.

Explanation

The term "sixth mass extinction" is used in the context of discussions about the current rapid decline in biodiversity and the potential for it to be as significant as the five major extinction events in Earth's history.

Mass extinction events: Throughout Earth's history, there have been five major extinction events where a large percentage of species (estimated at 75% or more) disappeared in a geologically short period. Examples include the Cretaceous-Paleogene extinction event that wiped out non-avian dinosaurs.

Sixth mass extinction: Scientists are concerned that human activities like habitat destruction, climate change, pollution, and overexploitation of resources are causing a mass extinction event that could be as severe as the previous ones.

Thus, the correct answer is 'D'.

Explanation

In the NSSO 70th Round survey, Rajasthan had the highest percentage of rural agricultural households at 78.4%, followed by Uttar Pradesh at 74.8% and Madhya Pradesh at 70.8%.

Among agricultural households, 45% were from Other Backward Classes (OBC), 16% from Scheduled Castes (SC), and 13% from Scheduled Tribes (ST).

In most major states, agricultural activities were the primary income source, except in Kerala, where 61% earned more from non-agricultural sources.

Explanation

India signed the Additional Protocol to the IAEA safeguards agreement on May 15, 2009.

An additional protocol to the Safeguards Agreement between the Government of India and the IAEA for the Application of Safeguards to Civilian Nuclear Facilities entered into force on 25 July 2014. Hence option 1 is correct.

Explanation

In the federation established by the Government of India Act of 1935, the residuary power was given to the Governor General.

This means that the Governor General had the authority to deal with any legislative matters that weren't explicitly assigned to either the federal legislature or the provincial legislatures. This gave the Governor General significant control over the legislative process.

Explanation

Statement 1 is correct. The Earth's magnetic field does reverse polarity every few hundred thousand years, on average.

Statement 2 is incorrect. The early Earth's atmosphere did not have significant oxygen and likely had a lot of carbon dioxide and other greenhouse gases.

Statement 3 is correct. The rise of photosynthetic organisms like cyanobacteria significantly increased the amount of oxygen in the atmosphere over time.

Therefore, the correct answer is (c) 1 and 3 only.

Explanation

The availability of open APIs for Aadhaar means that the Aadhaar system can be easily integrated into various electronic devices, such as smartphones, laptops, point-of-sale terminals, etc. This allows these devices to leverage the Aadhaar platform for authentication and other services.

The Aadhaar APIs provide the capability to perform online authentication using biometric modalities like fingerprint and iris scans. This allows for secure identity verification and authentication through electronic devices and applications.

Therefore, both statements 1 and 2 are correct.

Explanation

Sanskrit College at Benaras: This college was established by Jonathan Duncan in 1791, not William Jones.

Calcutta Madrasa: Warren Hastings established the Calcutta Madrasa in 1781 for the study of Islamic subjects like Arabic and Persian.

Fort William College: This college was founded by Lord Wellesley in 1800, primarily to train British civil servants in Indian languages and customs.

Explanation

"Bani Thani" is a famous painting associated with the Kishangarh school of painting, which flourished in the princely state of Kishangarh in Rajasthan during the 18th century. This painting is particularly renowned for its elegance and depiction of Indian beauty. Some famous paintings from the other three schools:

Bundi School

• Ragamala Series – A set of paintings depicting various Indian musical modes (ragas).
• Chaugan Players – A painting showing women playing Polo, reflecting royal leisure.

Jaipur School

• Gita Govinda Series – Paintings depicting the love story of Radha and Krishna.
• Ganesh Stuti – A painting of Lord Ganesha, often seen in Jaipur miniatures.

Kangra School

• Gita Govinda Paintings – Like Jaipur, Kangra also depicted Radha-Krishna love stories, but with soft, delicate features.
• Nayika Bheda – A series showing different moods of a heroine (nayika) in love.

Explanation

Statement 1 is incorrect: India does not feature among the top three global manufacturers of silicon wafers used in photovoltaic (PV) units or solar cells. The top three manufacturers of silicon wafers for PV applications are China, Taiwan, and South Korea.

Statement 2 is incorrect: The Solar Energy Corporation of India (SECI) is a government-owned company that facilitates the implementation of solar energy projects in the country, but it does not determine the solar power tariffs. The solar power tariffs in India are determined through a competitive bidding process conducted by various agencies.

Hence, the correct answer is option (d) Neither 1 nor 2.

Explanation

Statement 1 is correct. Capital Adequacy Ratio (CAR): This is a crucial regulatory tool used by central banks to ensure banks have sufficient capital reserves to absorb potential financial losses. It acts as a buffer to protect depositors' funds in case of loan defaults or other financial risks.

Statement 2 is Incorrect. CAR is not decided by individual banks. The CAR is mandated and regulated by the central bank of a country, in India's case, the Reserve Bank of India (RBI). The RBI sets a minimum CAR that all banks operating in the country must adhere to. This ensures a level playing field and safeguards the financial system's stability.

Explanation

The future Buddha, yet to come to save the world according to Buddhist tradition, is referred to as Maitreya. Avalokiteshvara (Lokesvara/Padmapani) are all forms of the compassionate bodhisattva but are not future Buddhas.

Explanation

Delhi and Bengaluru are located almost on the same longitude.

• Longitude of Delhi- 77.1025 E
• Longitude of Bengaluru- 77.5946 E
• Longitude of Hyderabad- 78.4867 E
• Longitude of Nagpur- 79.0882 E
• Llongitude of Pune- 73.8567 E

Explanation

The Aadhaar Act explicitly states that Aadhaar is meant only for identity and residence verification. It does not grant, confirm, or serve as proof of citizenship or domicile status.

While deactivation is temporary, the Unique Identification Authority of India (UIDAI) can deactivate an Aadhaar number under certain conditions. In specific cases, Aadhaar numbers can even be permanently omitted from the database.

Hence, the correct answer is option (d).

Explanation

Aleppo is a city in Syria , serving as the capital of the Aleppo Governorate, the most populous Syrian governorate.

Kirkuk is a city in Iraq , serving as the capital of the Kirkuk Governorate, located 238 kilometres north of Baghdad.

Mosul is a major city in northern Iraq situated on the west bank of the Tigris, opposite the ancient Assyrian city of Nineveh on the east bank.

Mazar-e Sharif, the city is in Afghanistan , 35 miles south of the border with Uzbekistan. Hence, B is the correct option.

Explanation

The correct answer is B, to secure a fixed income for the Company. The main focus was on military and political control rather than securing a fixed income for the Company. The system aimed at ensuring British dominance and security. It was also introduced to safeguard Indian states from perceived threat from Napoleon

Explanation

Statement 1 is correct. Domestic production of edible oil in 2018 was around 100 Lakh Metric tons (LMT) while import was around 150 LMT.

Statement 2 is incorrect. The Government of India does impose customs duties on imported edible oils. The rates of these duties may vary depending on various factors, including the type of edible oil, international market conditions, and government policies aimed at promoting domestic production or protecting domestic producers.

Explanation

Right to Privacy and Article 21: Article 21 of the Indian Constitution guarantees the right to life and personal liberty. In the landmark 2017 judgment of K.S. Puttaswamy (Retd.) vs. Union of India, the Supreme Court of India unanimously held that the right to privacy is an intrinsic part of Article 21. This ruling reinforced privacy as a fundamental right, ensuring protection against unwarranted state and private intrusions.

Part III of the Constitution covers Fundamental Rights, which include:

• Article 19: Right to freedom of speech and expression, freedom of movement, and other essential liberties.
• Article 21: Right to life and personal liberty, which now includes privacy after the Puttaswamy judgment.

Article 14: Ensures equality before the law, but does not explicitly deal with privacy.

Article 17: Abolishes untouchability. Directive Principles of State Policy (DPSPs) are non-enforceable guidelines, not fundamental rights.

Article 24: Prohibits child labor but has no relation to privacy.

Thus, the right to privacy is most closely linked to Article 21 and the freedoms guaranteed in Part III of the Indian Constitution. Hence the correct answer is option (c).

Explanation

The Two-State Solution is used in the context of the Israel-Palestine issue.

It envisages an independent State of Palestine alongside the State of Israel west of the Jordan River.

Explanation

Statement 1 is correct: Bharat Interface for Money (BHIM) is a payment app that lets you make simple, easy, and quick transactions using Unified Payments Interface (UPI). You can make direct bank payments to anyone on UPI using their UPI ID or scanning their QR with the BHIM app. You can also request money through the app from a UPI ID.

Statement 2 is not correct: From a consumer point of view, three levels of authentication are required in this app.

1. The device ID and mobile number,
2. The bank account which you are linking to this app, and
3. The UPI Pin which is needed to complete the transaction.

There are three factors of authentication versus a normal net banking app or a chip-in debit card which will only have two factors of authentication.

Explanation

The Belle II experiment is a particle physics experiment designed to study the properties of B mesons. It is not related to artificial intelligence.

Blockchain technology is the underlying technology behind cryptocurrencies like Bitcoin. It is a distributed ledger technology that ensures secure and transparent transactions.

CRISPR-Cas9 is a gene-editing technology used in the field of molecular biology to edit genes. It is not related to particle physics.

Therefore, only pair 2 is correctly matched.

Explanation

The Hind Mazdoor Sabha (HMS) wasn't founded by a single person, but by a group of socialists, Forward Bloc followers, and independent unionists in 1948.

Here's a list of some key figures involved

• Basawon Singh (Sinha)
• Ashok Mehta
• R.S. Ruikar
• Maniben Kara
• Shibnath Banerjee
• R.A. Khedgikar
• T.S. Ramanujam
• V.S. Mathur
• G.G. Mehta

It's important to note that R.S. Ruikar was elected as the first President and Ashok Mehta became the General Secretary of the HMS.

Explanation

Statement 1 is correct. The Fiscal Responsibility and Budget Management (FRBM) Review Committee Report indeed recommended a debt-to-GDP ratio of 60% for the general (combined) government by 2023, with 40% for the Central Government and 20% for the State Governments. This recommendation aimed to ensure fiscal discipline and sustainability.

Statement 2 is not correct. The Central Government has domestic liabilities of 46.1% of GDP (2016-17) and as a percentage of GDP, States liabilities increased to 23.2 per cent at end-March 2016.

Statement 3 is correct. The Constitution of India empowers State Governments to borrow only from domestic sources (Article 293(1)). Further, as long as a State has outstanding borrowings from the Central Government, it is required to obtain the Central Government's prior approval before incurring debt (Article 293 (3)).

Explanation

The terms 'WannaCry, Petya and EternalBlue' are all related to cyber attacks.

'WannaCry' is a ransomware that locks users' devices and prevents them from accessing data and software until a certain ransom is paid to its creator.

'Petya' is another type of ransomware that spreads rapidly through networks that use Microsoft Windows.

The Petya and WannaCry cyber-attacks in May and June 2017 are two of the biggest in history and impacted the finances of companies throughout the globe.

'EternalBlue' is a cyber exploit developed by the U.S. National Security Agency (NSA). It was used in the 2017 WannaCry ransomware attack and exploits a vulnerability in the Microsoft implementation of the Server Message Block (SMB) Protocol.

Explanation

Statement 1 is incorrect: The National Green Tribunal (NGT) was established under the National Green Tribunal Act, 2010, passed by Parliament, making it a statutory body. Similarly, the Central Pollution Control Board (CPCB) was constituted under the Water (Prevention and Control of Pollution) Act, 1974 and is also a statutory body. It plays a key role in environmental regulation in India.

Statement 2 is correct: The NGT’s primary role is to ensure the expeditious disposal of environmental cases related to forest conservation, natural resource protection, and pollution control, thereby reducing the burden on higher courts.

The CPCB, functioning under the Ministry of Environment, Forest and Climate Change (MoEFCC), is responsible for monitoring water and air quality, implementing pollution control measures, and enforcing environmental laws to promote a cleaner environment.

Thus, while both bodies deal with environmental protection, the NGT focuses on adjudication, whereas the CPCB handles regulatory and enforcement functions. Therefore, the correct answer is option (b) 2 only.

Explanation

The World Trade Organization (WTO) has an agreement called the Agreement on Trade-Related Aspects of Intellectual Property Rights (TRIPS).

TRIPS requires member countries to protect Geographical Indications (GIs). GIs identify a product as originating from a specific geographical location where its qualities or reputation are essentially due to that origin.

India enacted the Geographical Indications of Goods (Registration and Protection) Act, 1999 to comply with its obligations under the TRIPS agreement of the WTO.

Explanation

Option A is incorrect: When President's Rule is imposed, the State Assembly is not automatically dissolved. It can either be kept in suspended animation or dissolved later through a separate proclamation.

Option B is correct: Under President’s Rule, the legislative powers of the state legislature are transferred to Parliament, which can make laws for the state during this period. This is in line with Article 356, which allows the President to assume state functions when the constitutional machinery breaks down.

Option C is incorrect: Article 19, which guarantees fundamental rights such as freedom of speech, movement, and profession, is not automatically suspended under President’s Rule. Fundamental rights are only suspended during a national emergency under Article 352, not under Article 356.

Option D is incorrect: The President does not directly make laws for the state under Article 356. Instead, Parliament exercises legislative powers on behalf of the state during President’s Rule.

Explanation

The correct statement is 1 only.

Statement 1 is correct. Barren Island is the only confirmed active volcano in India and lies in the Andaman and Nicobar Islands.

Statement 2 is incorrect. Great Nicobar is north of Barren Island, not east. The distance is also more than 140 km.

Statement 3 is incorrect. Barren Island has erupted multiple times after 1991, including eruptions in 1995, 2005, and 2017.

Explanation

ASEAN has five free trade agreements (FTAs) with six Dialogue Partners, namely China, Japan, the Republic of Korea, India, and Australia and New Zealand. All Parties have ratified the FTA Agreements.

USA is not a dialogue partner of ASEAN. So, they don't share a free trade agreement.

Explanation

Statement 1 is correct: The Ninth Schedule was introduced through the First Constitutional Amendment (1951) to protect certain laws from judicial review, even if they violated Fundamental Rights (Part III of the Constitution).

Statement 2 is incorrect: The protection under the Ninth Schedule is not absolute. As per the Kesavananda Bharati case (1973) and reaffirmed in the I.R. Coelho case (2007), laws placed in the Ninth Schedule after April 24, 1973, can still be challenged if they violate the "Basic Structure" of the Constitution.

Thus, while the Ninth Schedule provides a degree of protection, the Supreme Court retains the power to review laws that undermine the Constitution’s core principles.

Hence, the correct answer is option (a) 1 only.

Explanation

Statement 1 (access to latest nuclear technology) is a consequence of NSG membership. NSG members can trade nuclear materials, equipment, and technology for peaceful purposes. This access can be crucial for a country's nuclear energy program or medical isotope production.

Statement 2 (automatic NPT membership) is incorrect. Becoming an NSG member doesn't automatically qualify a country for NPT membership. NPT is a separate treaty focusing on nuclear non-proliferation, and membership has different requirements.

The correct answer is 1 only.

Explanation

The Sthanakvasi sect is a subsect of Jainism. It is known for its emphasis on ascetic practices and the abandonment of idol worship.

Members of the Sthanakvasi sect believe in the concept of Sthanak or a place for meditation, hence the name "Sthanakvasi," which translates to "those who dwell in a place for meditation."

Explanation

Statement 1 is incorrect. In the first Lok Sabha, the single largest party in the opposition was not the Swatantra Party but the Communist Party of India.

Statement 2 is correct. In the Lok Sabha, a "Leader of the Opposition" was indeed recognized for the first time in 1969.

Statement 3 is incorrect. In the Lok Sabha, if a party does not have a minimum of 75 members, its leader cannot be recognized as the Leader of the Opposition. The requirement is not 75 members but 10% of the total strength of the house, which is 55 members. So, only statement 2 is correct.

Explanation

IRNSS is an independent regional navigation satellite system being developed by India.

The Indian Regional Navigation Satellite System (IRNSS) indeed has three satellites in geostationary orbits and four satellites in geosynchronous orbits.

It is designed to provide accurate position information service to users in India as well as the region extending up to 1500 km from its boundary, which is its primary service area. An Extended Service Area lies between primary service area and area enclosed by the rectangle from Latitude 30 deg South to 50 deg North, Longitude 30 deg East to 130 deg East.

While India has been working on enhancing the coverage of its navigation system, as of the given timeframe (2019), it does not have full global coverage. The system is primarily regional, although there are plans for augmentation and expansion.

Explanation

Opportunity cost: It refers to the potential benefit an individual or entity gives up when choosing one option over another. In simpler terms, it's what you miss out on by making a specific choice.

Free commodity by the government: When the government provides a good or service for free, it doesn't eliminate the opportunity cost. The resources used to provide that free good could have been used for something else.

Taxpayers bear the burden: The resources for "free" public goods come from somewhere, usually taxpayer money. So, the opportunity cost isn't eliminated, it's simply shifted. Taxpayers give up the potential use of those resources in exchange for a free good or service.

In essence, while the individual consumer might not directly pay for the good, the cost is still there and borne by the tax-paying public.

Explanation

The most appropriate statement is: If there are no laws, there is no liberty.

Laws provide the foundation for liberty. Without laws, there would be no structured protection of individual rights, leading to a state of anarchy where the strong dominate the weak.

Liberty is meaningful only when protected by law. Laws define acceptable behavior, prevent exploitation, and ensure that one person's freedom does not infringe upon another's.

Explanation

Prosopis juliflora, commonly known as mesquite or thorn mimosa, frequently appears in discussions about invasive species due to its significant impact on ecosystems and biodiversity.

Originally native to Central and South America, Prosopis juliflora was introduced to various parts of Africa, Asia, and Australia for purposes like afforestation, erosion control, and fuelwood supply.

However, due to its rapid growth rate, tolerance for harsh conditions, and prolific seed production, it can become invasive.

It can outcompete native plants, disrupt ecological balances, and form dense thickets that hinder other vegetation growth.

In states like Tamil Nadu, Prosopis juliflora has been labelled an invasive species causing ecological damage. Efforts are underway to remove it from certain areas to restore native ecosystems.

Explanation

In 1920, the All India Home Rule League changed its name to Swarajya Sabha. This marked a significant shift towards the goal of achieving Swaraj (self-rule).

Hindu Mahasabha: Founded by Madan Mohan Malaviya and others, it focused on issues related to Hindu identity and rights.

South Indian Liberal Federation: Also known as the Justice Party, it was founded to represent the interests of non-Brahmins in Tamil Nadu.

The Servants of India Society: Founded by Gopal Krishna Gokhale, it focused on social reform, education, and service to the nation.

Explanation

Legal tender refers to money that is legally recognized for the payment of debts. This means that if a creditor offers you legal tender to settle a debt, you are legally obligated to accept it. Hence, option 'B' is the correct answer.

Explanation

Lala Lajpat Rai was a prolific writer and wrote several books and articles on various topics. He wrote biographies of Mazzini, Garibaldi, Shivaji, and Shrikrishna . His writings were influential in shaping the nationalist movement in India. Lala Lajpat Rai was an active member of the Indian National Congress .

Lala Lajpat Rai visited America in 1914 for a lecture tour organized by the Indian Home Rule League.

He was elected to the Central Legislative Assembly in 1923 and even served as its president in 1925.

Explanation

Statement 1 is correct: The Speaker of the Legislative Assembly shall vacate their office if they cease to be a member of the Assembly. This is explicitly provided under Article 179 of the Indian Constitution.

Statement 2 is incorrect: It is incorrect to say that the Speaker vacates office immediately upon the dissolution of the Legislative Assembly.

When the Assembly is dissolved, the Speaker does not vacate office immediately. Instead, the Speaker continues in office until the newly elected Assembly convenes for the first time and elects a new Speaker. This ensures continuity in the legislative process and prevents a vacuum in constitutional functions. So, only the first statement is correct.

Explanation

GPS, or Global Positioning System, is a satellite-based navigation system that provides geolocation and time information to a GPS receiver anywhere on or near the Earth. It has a wide range of applications.

Statement 1 is correct. GPS is used in mobile phones for various purposes such as location tracking, navigation, and location-based services.

Statement 2 is correct. GPS is used in banking operations for ATM location services and for time-stamping transactions, which is crucial for maintaining accurate records.

Statement 3 is correct. GPS is used for time-stamping power system measurements, which is vital for grid stability and synchronization. Therefore, GPS technology can be used in all the three areas mentioned.

Explanation

Under Article 361 of the Indian Constitution, a Governor enjoys immunity from criminal proceedings while in office. No court can initiate proceedings against a Governor during their tenure for acts done in the exercise of their official duties. This provision ensures that the Governor can perform their constitutional responsibilities without fear of legal harassment. However, civil proceedings can be initiated with a two-month prior notice..

As per Article 158, the salary and allowances of a Governor are determined by law and cannot be reduced during their tenure. This provision guarantees the Governor's financial independence, preventing any undue influence on their functioning.

Hence, the correct answer is option (c) Both 1 and 2.

Explanation

The main aim of the colonisation of India by the Britishers was the economic exploitation of India. The commercialisation of Agriculture was an outcome of colonial exploitation. Various cash crops such as Indigo, Tea, and Cotton were forced on Indian farmers to meet the needs for raw materials for the Industrial Revolution in England.

On the other hand, the Handicraft of India was ruined thus exports decreased. Ruralisation of India led to a decrease in factories in the 19th century.

Explanation

The World Justice Project (WJP) is the organization responsible for publishing the Rule of Law Index. This index evaluates and ranks countries based on their adherence to the rule of law in practice, rather than just in theory.

Explanation

Statement 1 is correct. PSLV (Polar Satellite Launch Vehicle) is primarily used to launch Earth observation/monitoring satellites, while GSLV (Geosynchronous Satellite Launch Vehicle) is designed to launch communication satellites into geosynchronous transfer orbits.

Statement 2 is incorrect. Satellites launched by PSLV are typically placed in polar or sun-synchronous orbits, which are not geosynchronous. These satellites appear to move across the sky as viewed from a particular location on Earth.

Statement 3 is incorrect. The GSLV Mk III is a three-stage launch vehicle, not a four-stage one. The first stage uses solid rocket motors, the second stage uses liquid rocket engines, and the third stage uses a cryogenic rocket engine.

Explanation

During the period 1780-1860, India transitioned from an exporter of processed goods, paid for in bullion, to an exporter of raw materials and a buyer of manufactured goods.

• In the 1750s, fine cotton and silk were exported from India to markets in Europe, Asia, and Africa.
• By the second quarter of the 19th century, raw materials, which chiefly consisted of raw cotton, opium, and indigo, accounted for most of India's exports.

Explanation

High organic matter content in soil actually increases its water-holding capacity. Organic matter helps to bind soil particles together, creating pore spaces that can hold water. It acts like a sponge, absorbing and retaining moisture effectively.

Soil plays a crucial role in the sulphur cycle. Soil contains various forms of sulfur compounds, including sulfates, which are essential nutrients for plant growth. Microorganisms in the soil participate in the transformation of sulfur compounds through processes like mineralization and immobilization.

Excessive or improper irrigation practices can lead to the salinization of agricultural lands. When irrigation water contains high levels of dissolved salts, and there is inadequate drainage, these salts can accumulate in the soil over time, leading to soil salinization. This can adversely affect crop growth and productivity.

Therefore, among the given statements, only statement 3 is correct.

Explanation

Key historical events in chronological order

1. 1859: Neeldarpan was written by Dinabandhu Mitra. This was a significant work highlighting the plight of indigo farmers.

2. 1863: Satyendranath Tagore cleared the British-UPSC without coaching, becoming the first Indian to do so.

3. 1875: Arya Samaj was established by Swami Dayanand, marking a pivotal moment in the religious and social reform movements in India.

4. 1882: Anandmath was penned by Bankim Chandra Chattopadhyay, introducing the song 'Vande Mataram' which played a crucial role in the Indian independence movement.

Explanation

Statement 1 is incorrect. The govt has been infusing large amounts in seven public sector banks through recapitalisation bonds but this has not been steady as statement 1 says.

Statement 2 is correct. To put the public sector banks in order, the merger of associate banks with the parent State Bank of India has been affected. For example, the merger of SBI associate banks will result in the creation of a stronger merger entity.

Hence, option C is the correct answer.

Explanation

Statement 1 is incorrect. GACSA was launched in 2014 at the UN Climate Summit in New York, not at the Paris Climate Summit in 2015.

Statement 2 is correct. GACSA is a voluntary partnership, and membership does not create any legally binding obligations for its members.

Statement 3 is incorrect. GACSA was launched by the Netherlands and several other countries, but India was not among the founding members or instrumental in its creation.

Explanation

The Rule of Law is a fundamental principle of governance that ensures all individuals, institutions, and the State itself are subject to and accountable under laws that are publicly known, equally enforced, and independently adjudicated. Let’s analyze each option in this context:

Limitation of powers: The Rule of Law restricts arbitrary use of power by ensuring that no person or authority, including the government, is above the law. This maintains a system of checks and balances.

Equality before law: A core principle of the Rule of Law is "equality before the law" (Article 14 of the Indian Constitution), ensuring that all individuals, irrespective of rank or status, are treated equally.

People's responsibility to the Government: The Rule of Law primarily focuses on the government's accountability to the people, ensuring that it functions within the legal framework. It does not impose an obligation on citizens to be accountable to the government in the same way.

Liberty and civil rights: The Rule of Law safeguards fundamental rights, protecting individual freedoms, justice, and civil liberties from arbitrary actions of the state.

Hence, the correct answer is option (c) 1, 2 and 4 only.

Explanation

Statement 1 is incorrect: Sand mining in riverbeds does not directly affect the salinity levels in the river water. Salinity is primarily influenced by factors like the inflow of saline water from the sea or other sources, dissolution of salts from surrounding rocks and soil and anthropogenic activities like irrigation return flows and industrial discharge.

Statement 2 is correct: Sand plays a crucial role in natural filtration, helping to remove impurities from water percolating through riverbeds. Excessive sand removal can disrupt this filtration process, allowing pollutants to seep into groundwater, increase turbidity, making water more susceptible to contamination, expose toxic substances previously trapped in sediments. It can:

Statement 3 also correct: Excessive sand mining can significantly disrupt the hydrological balance of a river system.

• Reduce water-holding capacity of riverbeds, leading to lower groundwater recharge.
• Cause river incision, deepening the riverbed and lowering adjacent groundwater levels.
• Affect agriculture and drinking water sources, particularly in arid and semi-arid regions.

Hence, the correct answer is option (b) 2 and 3 only.

Explanation

Option A is correct. A Bill shall be deemed a Money Bill if it contains only provisions related to the imposition, abolition, remission, alteration, or regulation of any tax. This statement is correct as per Article 110(1)(a) of the Indian Constitution, which defines the scope of a Money Bill.

Option B is correct. A Money Bill includes provisions regarding the custody of the Consolidated Fund of India or the Contingency Fund of India. This statement is correct. As per Article 110(1)(c) of the Constitution, a Money Bill may contain provisions related to the custody, withdrawal, and audit of funds from these financial accounts.

Option C is incorrect. A Money Bill is concerned with the appropriation of money out of the Contingency Fund of India. This statement is not correct. The Contingency Fund of India is under the disposal of the President of India to meet unforeseen expenditures, and its withdrawal is not governed by a Money Bill. Instead, Article 267(1) of the Constitution provides for its use, and the withdrawal of money from this fund is later regularized through an Appropriation Bill.

Option D is correct. A Money Bill deals with the regulation of borrowing of money or giving of any guarantee by the Government of India. This statement is correct. As per Article 110(1)(d), provisions regarding government borrowing, the issuance of guarantees, and financial obligations of the Government of India fall within the scope of a Money Bill.

Thus, statements (a), (b), and (d) are correct, while statement (c) is incorrect.

Explanation

Puthukkuli shawls: These embroidered textiles are a traditional craft of the Toda people in the Nilgiri Hills of Tamil Nadu.

Sujni embroidery: This embroidery style originates from the Bhusura village in Bihar, not Maharashtra.

Uppada Jamdani saris: Uppada Jamdani saris are known for their diaphanous silk and are native to Uppada in Andhra Pradesh, not Karnataka.

Explanation

Statement 1 (Incorrect): Buland Darwaza and Khankah at Fatehpur Sikri were primarily constructed using red sandstone, not white marble. While the structures might incorporate some decorative elements with white marble inlay, red sandstone is the dominant material.

Statement 2 (Incorrect): Bara Imambara in Lucknow is primarily constructed using brick with stucco plaster, not red sandstone and marble. Rumi Darwaza, on the other hand, is built mainly with bricks and lime plaster.

Explanation

The equalization levy on online advertisement services offered by non-resident entities is introduced as a separate tax under the Finance Act, not as a part of the Income Tax Act.

Non-resident entities cannot claim a tax credit in their home country under the "Double Taxation Avoidance Agreements" because the equalization levy is not an income tax. It is a separate tax levied on specified services provided by non-residents to residents.

Hence, option A is the correct answer.

Note: The Indian government has abolished the 6% Equalization Levy on online advertisements, with effective from April 1, 2025.

Explanation

THAAD is a missile defense system developed by the United States to intercept and destroy short, medium, and intermediate-range ballistic missiles during their terminal phase of flight.

It is designed to defend against threats both within and outside the Earth's atmosphere, providing protection against potential missile attacks.

THAAD has been deployed by the United States military and has also been sold to allied countries such as South Korea and Saudi Arabia.

Explanation

Wood's Dispatch advocated for a Grant-in-aid system to support private schools alongside government schools. This aimed to expand educational opportunities even with limited government resources.

The Dispatch recommended establishing universities in major cities like Bombay, Calcutta, and Madras. These universities would follow the model of the University of London.

While Wood's Dispatch acknowledged the importance of vernacular languages in primary education, it did not recommend English as the medium of instruction at all levels.

The Dispatch proposed a tiered system

• Primary schools - Vernacular languages
• Secondary schools - Both English and vernacular languages
• Colleges - Primarily English

So, statements 1 and 2 are true, while statement 3 is not entirely accurate.

Explanation

Statement 1 is Correct: The Food Safety and Standards Act, of 2006 did supersede the Prevention of Food Adulteration Act, of 1954. It established a more comprehensive framework for ensuring food safety and regulating the food industry in India.

Statement 2 is Incorrect: The Food Safety and Standards Authority of India (FSSAI) is an autonomous body, not under the direct control of the Director General of Health Services. While the Ministry of Health and Family Welfare oversees FSSAI, it functions independently with its own governing board and chairperson.

Therefore, the correct answer is option (a) 1 only.

Explanation

The Partnership for Action on Green Economy (PAGE) was established in response to the United Nations Conference on Sustainable Development (UNCSD) 2012, also known as Rio+20, held in Rio de Janeiro, Brazil.

The Rio+20 conference aimed to reaffirm global commitment to sustainable development and highlight the importance of transitioning to green economies i.e. economic systems that promote environmental sustainability, social inclusion, and economic growth.

PAGE was launched as a collaborative initiative to support countries in developing policies and strategies for sustainable and inclusive economic growth.

Explanation

Statement 1 is Incorrect, The National Programme for Organic Production (NPOP) is operated under the guidelines and directions of the Ministry of Agriculture and Farmers Welfare (MoA&FW), not the Ministry of Rural Development.

Statement 2 is Correct, The Agricultural and Processed Food Products Export Development Authority (APEDA) does function as the Secretariat for the implementation of NPOP. APEDA plays a crucial role in promoting and certifying organic products in India.

Statement 3 is Correct, Sikkim has indeed become India's first fully organic State. This achievement signifies India's efforts to promote sustainable agricultural practices.

Therefore, the correct answer is 2 and 3 only.

Explanation

Plants in arid environments have evolved adaptive features to minimize water loss through transpiration:

• Hard and waxy leaves have a thick cuticle and fewer stomata, reducing water loss by limiting evaporation.
• Tiny leaves have a smaller surface area, which decreases the area exposed to transpiration.
• Thorns, though primarily modified branches for protection, can also replace leaves in some desert plants (e.g., cacti), further reducing transpiration by limiting leaf surface area.

Therefore, the correct answer is option (d) 1, 2 and 3.

Explanation

The International Labour Organization's Conventions 138 and 182 are both related to child labour.

Convention No. 138 is the Minimum Age Convention. It requires member countries to set a minimum age for employment and work towards the elimination of child labour.

Convention No. 182 deals with the Worst Forms of Child Labour. It calls for the prohibition and elimination of the most severe forms of child labour, such as slavery, forced labour, and trafficking.

These conventions are considered fundamental by the ILO, meaning all member states must respect, promote, and work towards their aims regardless of ratification.

Explanation

Most of the world's coral reefs are found in tropical waters. Coral reefs thrive in warm, shallow, clear waters with a temperature range between 18C and 34C, and they are predominantly located in the tropics.

More than one-third of the world's coral reefs are located in the territories of Australia, Indonesia, and the Philippines. These countries have some of the largest and most diverse coral reef ecosystems in the world.

Coral reefs host a far greater number of animal phyla compared to tropical rainforests. Coral reefs are known for their high biodiversity, hosting a wide variety of marine species, including many unique and specialised organisms. In contrast, tropical rainforests, while also highly diverse, host a relatively smaller number of animal phyla.

Therefore, all three statements are correct.

Explanation

Dhara Mustard Hybrid-11, otherwise known as DMH - 11, is a genetically modified hybrid variety of the mustard species Brassica juncea.

Statement 1 is incorrect. The GM mustard developed in India does not have the property of pest-resistance. It has been genetically modified for hybridization and increased yield, not for pest-resistance.

Statement 2 is correct. The GM mustard has been developed with genes that allow it to cross-pollinate, leading to hybridization and increased yield.

Statement 3 is incorrect. The GM mustard was developed by scientists at Delhi University’s Centre for Genetic Manipulation of Crop Plants (CGMCP), not by the IARI and Punjab Agricultural University.

So, only statement 2 is correct.

Explanation

Chapchar Kut is a harvest festival celebrated in Mizoram.

Khongjom Parba is a ballad commemorating the Battle of Khongjom, which took place in Manipur.

Thang-Ta is a martial art form that originated in Manipur, not Sikkim.

So, only options 1 and 2 are correct.

Explanation

Jean-Baptiste Tavernier, a French traveller and gem merchant, extensively documented his travels to India in the 17th century. He wrote about various aspects of Indian society, culture, and economy, including detailed descriptions of diamond mines and the diamond trade in India. Tavernier's writings provided valuable insights into the diamond industry of India during his time.

Francois Bernier (1625–1688): A French physician and traveler who visited India during the reign of Mughal Emperor Aurangzeb

Jean de Thévenot (1633–1667): A French traveler who visited India in the 17th century.

Abbe Barthelemy Carre (17th Century): A French traveler and envoy who visited India in the late 17th century.

Explanation

Statement 1 is correct: The Scheduled Tribes and Other Traditional Forest Dwellers (Recognition of Forest Rights) Act, 2006, commonly known as the Forest Rights Act (FRA), 2006, introduces the concept of Critical Wildlife Habitat (CWH). These are areas within National Parks and Wildlife Sanctuaries that must be kept inviolate to ensure wildlife protection. CWHs can only be declared based on scientific evidence and after completing the due process of rehabilitation and resettlement of affected communities.

Statement 2 is correct: In 2015, the Baiga tribal community in Madhya Pradesh became the first to be granted Habitat Rights under the Forest Rights Act, 2006. This recognition allowed them to continue living within the Kanha Tiger Reserve while accessing forest resources for their bonafide livelihood needs.

Statement 3 is incorrect: According to the Forest Rights Act, 2006, it is the respective State governments that have the authority to declare and vest Habitat Rights for Primitive Tribal Groups and pre-agricultural communities over critical wildlife habitats, after obtaining consent from the tribal communities and establishing measures for their resettlement and rehabilitation.

Hence, correct answer is option (a) 1 and 2 only.

Explanation

Economic Growth vs. Economic Development An increase in absolute and per capita real GNP signifies economic growth, which means the overall production of goods and services in a country is expanding.

Economic development is a broader concept that goes beyond just increasing production. It encompasses factors like

1. Improved living standards for citizens
2. Reduction in poverty and unemployment
3. Increased literacy and education levels
4. Improved healthcare and infrastructure

If poverty and unemployment are increasing even with economic growth (GNP increase), it suggests the benefits of growth are not being shared widely. This indicates a lack of true economic development.

Explanation

Carbon fertilization is the increased rate of photosynthesis in plants due to the higher concentration of carbon dioxide in the atmosphere.

During Photosynthesis plants absorb carbon dioxide (CO₂) from the atmosphere, along with water and sunlight, to produce sugars (glucose) that provide energy for growth. This process releases oxygen (O₂) as a byproduct.

The concentration of CO₂ in the atmosphere is currently at its highest level in millions of years, primarily due to human activities such as fossil fuel combustion and deforestation.

Many plants respond to higher CO₂ levels with an increased rate of photosynthesis, enabling them to produce more sugars, which can lead to faster growth and higher biomass production.

Explanation

The Reserve Bank of India manages public debt and issues Indian currency-denominated loans on behalf of the central and state governments under the powers derived from the Reserve Bank of India Act. The RBI is the debt manager for both the Central Government and the State Governments. RBI manages the debt of state governments based on separate agreements. Hence, statement 1 is incorrect.

Treasury bills or T-bills, which are money market instruments, are short-term debt instruments issued by the Government of India and are presently issued in three tenors, namely, 91-day, 182-day and 364 days.

Treasury bills are zero coupon securities and pay no interest. They are issued at a discount and redeemed at the face value at maturity.

Therefore, statements 2 and 3 are correct.

Explanation

The correct statement is 3 only.

Statement 1 is incorrect. Under the Mines and Minerals (Development and Regulation) Amendment Act, of 2015, state governments conduct auctions for non-coal mine licenses.

Statement 2 is incorrect. Both Andhra Pradesh and Jharkhand have gold deposits and ongoing mining activities.

Statement 3 is correct. Rajasthan is known for its rich iron ore deposits and mining.

Explanation

The Merchant Discount Rate (MDR) is a fee levied on merchants by payment processors for accepting debit and credit card transactions. It's typically a percentage of the transaction value. So, when a customer uses a debit card at a store, the store pays a fee to the bank that processes the transaction. Hence, option C is the correct answer.

Explanation

Conservation Agriculture is a set of practices aimed at minimizing soil disturbance, maintaining permanent soil cover, and adopting crop rotations or intercropping.

Avoiding monoculture practices - This does not directly fall under Conservation Agriculture. Monoculture refers to the cultivation of a single crop over a wide area.

Adopting minimum tillage - Minimum or no tillage is one of the key principles of Conservation Agriculture, as it reduces soil disturbance.

Avoiding the cultivation of plantation crops - This is not a part of Conservation Agriculture. Plantation crops like tea, coffee, or rubber can be cultivated using conservation agriculture practices.

Using crop residues to cover the soil surface - Maintaining soil cover with crop residues or mulches is a crucial component of Conservation Agriculture.

Adopting spatial and temporal crop sequencing/crop rotations - Crop rotations and intercropping are recommended practices under Conservation Agriculture to improve soil fertility and reduce pest and disease incidence.

Therefore, the correct options that fall under Conservation Agriculture are 2, 4, and 5.

Explanation

Kodaikanal Lake, also known as Kodai Lake is a manmade lake located in the Kodaikanal city in Dindigul district in Tamil Nadu, India.

Sir Vere Henry Levinge, the then Collector of Madurai, was instrumental in creating the lake in 1863, amidst the Kodaikanal town which was developed by the British and early missionaries from the USA.