UPSC Prelims 2018 Analysis

Explanation

The correct answer is Yemen and South Sudan.

Yemen and South Sudan are two countries in which lakhs of people suffered from acute famine/malnutrition and died due to starvation caused by war or conflicts. These countries are facing a humanitarian crisis due to famine and civil war.

Explanation

The UNFCCC Secretariat launched its Climate Neutral Now initiative in 2015. The following year, the Secretariat launched a new pillar under its Momentum for Change initiative focused on Climate Neutral Now, as part of larger efforts to showcase successful climate action around the world.

Climate neutrality is a three-step process, which requires individuals, companies, and governments to

1. Measure their climate footprint.
2. Reduce their emissions as much as possible.
3. Offset what they cannot reduce with UN certified emission reductions.

Explanation

The scenario described involves various devices (smartphone, geyser, smart mirror, refrigerator, car, etc.) communicating with each other and with the user, and automatically performing tasks based on certain triggers. This is characteristic of the Internet of Things (IoT), which is a system of interrelated computing devices, mechanical and digital machines, objects, animals or people that are provided with unique identifiers (UIDs) and the ability to transfer data over a network without requiring human-to-human or human-to-computer interaction.

Border Gateway Protocol is a protocol used to exchange routing information across the internet and is not relevant to the scenario described.

Internet Protocol is a set of rules for sending and receiving messages at the Internet address level, but it doesn't cover the broad range of device intercommunication described in the scenario.

A Virtual Private Network is a technology for using the internet or another intermediate network to connect computers to isolated remote computer networks that would otherwise be inaccessible, which also doesn't fit the scenario.

Explanation

The Champaran Satyagraha of 1917 was the first Satyagraha movement inspired by Gandhi and a major revolt in the Indian Independence Movement. It was a farmer's uprising that took place in the Champaran district of Bihar, India during the British colonial period. The farmers were protesting against growing indigo with barely any payment for it.

Explanation

The Aral Sea was once one of the world's largest lakes, but due to water diversion for irrigation projects, it has shrunk by over 75% since the 1960s.

Black Sea While it faces environmental challenges, it hasn't dried up significantly.

Lake Baikal This is the deepest freshwater lake in the world and shows fluctuations in water level, but it hasn't experienced immense drying up.

Thus, only statement 1 is correct.

Explanation

Air India was nationalised in 1953. The Government of India passed the Air Corporation Act in 1953 and purchased a majority stake in the carrier from Tata Sons.

Imperial Bank of India was nationalised in 1955, with RBI taking a 60 per cent stake, and its name was changed to SBI.

The first democratically elected communist party government was formed in a state in India in 1957. In the first general election held to the Kerala state legislative assembly in 1957, the Communist Party of India won 60 seats out of 126.

Goa became an independent state of India on 18 Dec 1961, and Goa was freed from the Portuguese. On Dec 18 1961, Operation Vijay was launched by the Indian Government to bring back Goa into India.

Therefore correct chronological sequence is 3-2-1-4

Explanation

The Committee on Subordinate Legislation (CSL) is specifically tasked with scrutinizing and reporting on the exercise of delegated powers by the executive branch. They ensure the government is acting within the legal boundaries set by Parliament when creating rules, regulations, etc.

Committee on Government Assurances (A) focuses on tracking the implementation of assurances, and promises made by the government in Parliament.

Rules Committee (C) deals with framing rules for the smooth functioning of the Houses of Parliament (Lok Sabha and Rajya Sabha).

Business Advisory Committee (D) allocates time for different kinds of legislative and other business of the House.

Therefore, only the Committee on Subordinate Legislation directly addresses the scrutiny of delegated powers.

Explanation

Statement 1 is incorrect In 2013, NFSA was enacted to provide food security to 67% of the population in the form of highly subsidized food grains at Rs. 2 and 3 per Kg for wheat and rice respectively. Beneficiaries are identified using Socio-economic Caste Census (SECC) methodology so even non-BPL will also benefit.

Statement 2 is correct Under the NFSA, to issue ration cards the eldest woman of a household aged 18 years or above would be considered as head. Hence, this statement is correct.

Statement 3 is incorrect The Act does provide for pregnant women and lactating mothers to receive a take-home ration. However, it does not specify the calorie content should be 1600 calories per day. This makes the given statement incorrect.

Explanation

List of Tax-exempted Goods are;

• Several food items have been exempted from any of the tax slabs. Fresh meat, fish, chicken, eggs, milk, buttermilk, curd, natural honey, fresh fruits and vegetables, flour, besan, bread, all kinds of salt, jaggery and hulled cereal grains have been kept out of the taxation system.

• Bindi, sindoor, kajal, Palmyra, human hair and bangles also do not attract any tax under GST.

• Drawing or colouring books alongside stamps, judicial papers, printed books, newspapers also fall under this category.

Explanation

Capital formation This refers to the net increase in the capital stock of a country, which includes physical capital (machinery, buildings) and human capital (skills, education).

High savings A high savings economy implies people are saving a significant portion of their income. Ideally, these savings are then invested to create new capital.

Capital-output ratio (COR) This ratio measures the amount of additional capital needed to produce one unit of additional output (GDP). A high COR indicates that even with high savings and investment, the increase in output might be low.

Explanation

3D printing, also known as additive manufacturing, is a process of making three dimensional solid objects from a digital file. It is used in a wide range of industries and has various applications.

It can be used to create intricate and customized shapes in confectionery items like chocolates, candies, and other desserts.

It has been used to create customized bionic ears for people with hearing impairments.

It is used in the automotive industry for rapid prototyping, manufacturing of customized parts, and even some production of vehicle components.

It is used in reconstructive surgeries to create patient-specific implants, prosthetics, and surgical guides.

It can be used to create specialized components and parts for data processing technologies, such as computer hardware.

Therefore, all the five statements are correct.

Explanation

Statement 1 is incorrect As per the RTE Act, the minimum qualification for teachers is set by the National Council for Teacher Education (NCTE), not the state council.

Statement 2 correct The RTE Act mandates passing a Teacher Eligibility Test (TET) for teaching primary classes, and the National Council for Teacher Education (NCTE) lays down the guidelines for conducting this test.

As per the All India Survey on Higher Education (AISHE) 2019-20, out of the total number of teacher education institutions in India, around 67% are privately managed, and only around 33% are government-managed. Hence, statement 3 is incorrect.

Explanation

Charter Act of 1813 ordered the East India Company to spend 1 lakh on Education of Indians.

General Committee of Public Instruction, 1823 was formed to give effect to grant sanction in the 1813 Charter Act.

Orientalist and Anglicist Controversy were also related to the spread of education in India. This debate led to the introduction of English education in India by 1834's Macaulay Minutes.

Explanation

Incorrect (1) Most of Thyagaraja's kritis (compositions) are devotional songs in praise of Lord Rama, not Krishna.

Correct (2) Tyagaraja is credited with creating several new ragas (melodic scales) in Carnatic music.

Incorrect (3) Annamacharya and Tyagaraja were not contemporaries. Annamacharya lived in the 15th century, while Tyagaraja lived in the 18th-19th century.

Correct (4) Annamacharya's kirtanas (devotional songs) are indeed known for praising Lord Venkateshwara, a form of Vishnu.

Explanation

According to Einstein's General Theory of Relativity, gravity can bend light. This phenomenon is known as gravitational lensing.

The General Theory of Relativity led to the prediction of an expanding universe, which has been confirmed by observational evidence.

According to the General Theory of Relativity, the presence of matter and energy warps the fabric of space and time around it, which is the underlying cause of the gravitational force.

So, all three statements are correct.

Explanation

Incorrect The Ministry of Skill Development and Entrepreneurship (MSDE) is responsible for PMKVY, not the Ministry of Labour and Employment.

Correct PMKVY goes beyond technical skills training and incorporates soft skills, entrepreneurship, financial literacy, and digital literacy to make participants more employable.

Correct A core objective of PMKVY is to bridge the gap between the skills of the unregulated workforce and industry requirements by aligning them with the National Skill Qualification Framework (NSQF). This standardization helps ensure a minimum level of competency and improves employment opportunities.

Explanation

Human capital formation refers to the process of increasing the stock of knowledge, skills, and experiences that people in a country possess. This intangible wealth is what makes a workforce productive and adaptable. Therefore, statement 2 and 4 are correct.

Explanation

The Pakhui Wildlife Sanctuary is located in the state of Arunachal Pradesh in northeastern India.

The sanctuary is part of the Kameng Elephant Reserve and is contiguous with the Pakke Tiger Reserve. Major rivers like the Bhareli and Bamadi flow through the sanctuary. It is home to several indigenous tribes like the Nyishi and Apatani.

Explanation

• Santhals were the agricultural people settled in Rajmahal Hills of Bihar.
• They are native to the Indian states of predominantly Jharkhand, West Bengal and Odisha.

Creation of Santhal Paraganas A separate administrative unit called the Santhal Paraganas was established in 1855. This aimed to isolate the Santhal community from the rest of the population and potentially prevent further uprisings.

Restriction on Land Transfer The Santhal Parganas Tenancy Act was passed in 1876. This act made it illegal for a Santhal to sell or transfer land to a non-Santhal. This aimed to protect the Santhal community's economic interests and prevent further exploitation by outsiders called 'Dikus'.

Explanation

All of the listed factors - birds, dust blowing, rain, and wind blowing - can contribute to the spread of plant diseases

Birds can act as vectors, carrying and spreading plant pathogens from one location to another through their feathers, feet, or droppings.

Dust and soil particles blown by the wind can carry and spread plant diseases, especially fungal spores and bacterial cells.

Rain can splash and disperse plant pathogens, such as fungi and bacteria, from the soil or infected plant parts to uninfected plants.

Wind can transport and spread airborne plant pathogens, such as fungal spores and bacterial cells, over long distances.

Explanation

Only the first statement is correct The value of the vote of each MLA varies from State to State.

The value of an MLA's vote is based on the population of their state relative to the number of MLAs in the state assembly.

• States with larger populations have a higher value per MLA vote.

Both MPs (Lok Sabha and Rajya Sabha) have the same value for their vote in the presidential election. Hence, statement 2 is incorrect.

Explanation

The correct answer is 3 only.

The Digital India plan focuses on bridging the digital divide and increasing access to technology, which aligns with option 3 of connecting villages, schools, and public spaces to the internet.

Option 1 is not a core aim of the plan, though it may indirectly encourage domestic companies. Option 2 goes against the Digital India vision of empowering citizens and potentially raises privacy concerns.

Explanation

The National Payments Corporation of India (NPCI)

The NPCI operates the National Financial Switch (NFS), which is the largest network connecting ATMs across various banks in India. This network facilitates inter-bank transactions and allows users to withdraw cash from ATMs even if they don't belong to the bank that owns the ATM.

Explanation

The Cabinet Committee on Economic Affairs (CCEA) announces the Minimum Support Price (MSP) for certain staple crops and some key commercial crops.

Barley, Finger millet, Groundnut, and Sesamum are crops for which MSP is typically announced by the government. These are important food or oilseed crops and support farmer income.

Areca nut and Coffee are considered cash crops and MSP is generally not announced for them. Turmeric can be classified as a spice crop, and MSP announcements for spices is not very common,

Therefore, the most options for which CCEA announces MSP are 2, 4, 5 and 6.

Explanation

Catalonia

• It is located in Spain.
• It is bordered by France and Andorra in the north, the Mediterranean Sea to the east, the autonomous community of Valencia to the south, and the autonomous community of Aragon to the west.

The Republic of Crimea

• Officially part of Ukraine, lies on a peninsula stretching from the south of Ukraine between the Black Sea and the Sea of Azov.
• It is separated from Russia by the narrow Kerch Strait.

Mindanao

• It is an island located in the Philippines.
• It is surrounded by the Bohol, Philippine, Celebes, and Sulu seas.

Oromia

• It is a regional state of Ethiopia.
• Ethiopia is a landlocked country located in Eastern Africa.

Explanation

The term "sixth mass extinction" is used in the context of discussions about the current rapid decline in biodiversity and the potential for it to be as significant as the five major extinction events in Earth's history.

Mass extinction events Throughout Earth's history, there have been five major extinction events where a large percentage of species (estimated at 75% or more) disappeared in a geologically short period. Examples include the Cretaceous-Paleogene extinction event that wiped out non-avian dinosaurs.

Sixth mass extinction Scientists are concerned that human activities like habitat destruction, climate change, pollution, and overexploitation of resources are causing a mass extinction event that could be as severe as the previous ones.

Thus, the correct answer is 'D'.

Explanation

In the NSSO 70th Round survey, Rajasthan had the highest percentage of rural agricultural households at 78.4%, followed by Uttar Pradesh at 74.8% and Madhya Pradesh at 70.8%.

Among agricultural households, 45% were from Other Backward Classes (OBC), 16% from Scheduled Castes (SC), and 13% from Scheduled Tribes (ST).

In most major states, agricultural activities were the primary income source, except in Kerala, where 61% earned more from non-agricultural sources.

Explanation

India signed the Additional Protocol to the IAEA safeguards agreement on May 15, 2009.

An additional protocol to the Safeguards Agreement between the Government of India and the IAEA for the Application of Safeguards to Civilian Nuclear Facilities entered into force on 25 July 2014. Hence option 1 is correct.

Explanation

In the federation established by the Government of India Act of 1935, the residuary power was given to the Governor General.

This means that the Governor General had the authority to deal with any legislative matters that weren't explicitly assigned to either the federal legislature or the provincial legislatures. This gave the Governor General significant control over the legislative process.

Explanation

Statement 1 is correct. The Earth's magnetic field does reverse polarity every few hundred thousand years, on average.

Statement 2 is incorrect. The early Earth's atmosphere did not have significant oxygen and likely had a lot of carbon dioxide and other greenhouse gases.

Statement 3 is correct. The rise of photosynthetic organisms like cyanobacteria significantly increased the amount of oxygen in the atmosphere over time.

Therefore, the correct answer is (c) 1 and 3 only.

Explanation

The availability of open APIs for Aadhaar means that the Aadhaar system can be easily integrated into various electronic devices, such as smartphones, laptops, point-of-sale terminals, etc. This allows these devices to leverage the Aadhaar platform for authentication and other services.

The Aadhaar APIs provide the capability to perform online authentication using biometric modalities like fingerprint and iris scans. This allows for secure identity verification and authentication through electronic devices and applications.

Therefore, both statements 1 and 2 are correct.

Explanation

Sanskrit College at Benaras This college was established by Jonathan Duncan in 1791, not William Jones.

Calcutta Madrasa Warren Hastings established the Calcutta Madrasa in 1781 for the study of Islamic subjects like Arabic and Persian.

Fort William College This college was founded by Lord Wellesley in 1800, primarily to train British civil servants in Indian languages and customs.

Explanation

"Bani Thani" is a famous painting associated with the Kishangarh school of painting, which flourished in the princely state of Kishangarh in Rajasthan during the 18th century. This painting is particularly renowned for its elegance and depiction of Indian beauty.

Explanation

India does not feature among the top three global manufacturers of silicon wafers used in photovoltaic (PV) units or solar cells. The top three manufacturers of silicon wafers for PV applications are China, Taiwan, and South Korea. Thus, statement 1 is incorrect,

The Solar Energy Corporation of India (SECI) is a government-owned company that facilitates the implementation of solar energy projects in the country, but it does not determine the solar power tariffs. The solar power tariffs in India are determined through a competitive bidding process conducted by various agencies. Thus, statement 2 is also incorrect.

Explanation

Capital Adequacy Ratio (CAR) This is a crucial regulatory tool used by central banks to ensure banks have sufficient capital reserves to absorb potential financial losses. It acts as a buffer to protect depositors' funds in case of loan defaults or other financial risks.

CAR is not decided by individual banks The CAR is mandated and regulated by the central bank of a country, in India's case, the Reserve Bank of India (RBI). The RBI sets a minimum CAR that all banks operating in the country must adhere to. This ensures a level playing field and safeguards the financial system's stability.

Explanation

The future Buddha, yet to come to save the world according to Buddhist tradition, is referred to as Maitreya.

Explanation

Delhi and Bengaluru are located almost on the same longitude.

• Longitude of Delhi- 77.1025 E
• Longitude of Bengaluru- 77.5946 E
• Longitude of Hyderabad- 78.4867 E
• Longitude of Nagpur- 79.0882 E
• Llongitude of Pune- 73.8567 E

Explanation

Neither of the statements are correct.

Aadhaar card is not proof of citizenship or domicile The Aadhaar Act itself clarifies that Aadhaar is only for identity and residence verification. It doesn't confer or prove citizenship or domicile status.

Aadhaar number can be deactivated or omitted While deactivation is temporary, the issuing authority (UIDAI) can deactivate an Aadhaar number in certain situations. Additionally, under specific circumstances, Aadhaar numbers can be permanently omitted from the database.

Explanation

Aleppo is a city in Syria , serving as the capital of the Aleppo Governorate, the most populous Syrian governorate.

Kirkuk is a city in Iraq , serving as the capital of the Kirkuk Governorate, located 238 kilometres north of Baghdad.

Mosul is a major city in northern Iraq situated on the west bank of the Tigris, opposite the ancient Assyrian city of Nineveh on the east bank.

Mazar-e Sharif, the city is in Afghanistan , 35 miles south of the border with Uzbekistan. Hence, B is the correct option.

Explanation

The correct answer is B, to secure a fixed income for the Company. The main focus was on military and political control rather than securing a fixed income for the Company. The system aimed at ensuring British dominance and security. It was also introduced to safeguard Indian states from perceived threat from Napoleon

Explanation

Domestic production of edible oil in 2018 was around 100 Lakh Metric tons (LMT) while import was around 150 LMT. Hence, statement 1 is correct

The Government of India does impose customs duties on imported edible oils. The rates of these duties may vary depending on various factors, including the type of edible oil, international market conditions, and government policies aimed at promoting domestic production or protecting domestic producers. Hence, statement 2 is incorrect.

Explanation

The correct answer is (c) Article 21 and the freedoms guaranteed in Part III.

• Article 21 guarantees the right to life and personal liberty.
• The 2017 landmark judgment in K.S. Puttaswamy (Retd) vs Union of India established that the right to privacy is an intrinsic part of Article 21.
• Part III of the Indian Constitution deals with Fundamental Rights, which include crucial rights like freedom of speech and expression. Let's analyze the other options

(a) Article 14 deals with equality before the law, not directly related to privacy. (b) Article 17 abolishes untouchability, not privacy. Directive Principles are guidelines, not enforceable rights. (d) Article 24 prohibits child labor.

Explanation

The Two-State Solution is used in the context of the Israel-Palestine issue.

It envisages an independent State of Palestine alongside the State of Israel west of the Jordan River.

Explanation

Statement 1 is correct Bharat Interface for Money (BHIM) is a payment app that lets you make simple, easy, and quick transactions using Unified Payments Interface (UPI). You can make direct bank payments to anyone on UPI using their UPI ID or scanning their QR with the BHIM app. You can also request money through the app from a UPI ID.

Statement 2 is not correct From a consumer point of view, three levels of authentication are required in this app.

1. The device ID and mobile number,
2. The bank account which you are linking to this app, and
3. The UPI Pin which is needed to complete the transaction.

There are three factors of authentication versus a normal net banking app or a chip-in debit card which will only have two factors of authentication.

Explanation

The Belle II experiment is a particle physics experiment designed to study the properties of B mesons. It is not related to artificial intelligence.

Blockchain technology is the underlying technology behind cryptocurrencies like Bitcoin. It is a distributed ledger technology that ensures secure and transparent transactions.

CRISPR-Cas9 is a gene-editing technology used in the field of molecular biology to edit genes. It is not related to particle physics.

Therefore, only pair 2 is correctly matched.

Explanation

The Hind Mazdoor Sabha (HMS) wasn't founded by a single person, but by a group of socialists, Forward Bloc followers, and independent unionists in 1948.

Here's a list of some key figures involved Basawon Singh (Sinha) Ashok Mehta R.S. Ruikar Maniben Kara Shibnath Banerjee R.A. Khedgikar T.S. Ramanujam V.S. Mathur G.G. Mehta

It's important to note that R.S. Ruikar was elected as the first President and Ashok Mehta became the General Secretary of the HMS.

Explanation

The Fiscal Responsibility and Budget Management (FRBM) Review Committee Report indeed recommended a debt-to-GDP ratio of 60% for the general (combined) government by 2023, with 40% for the Central Government and 20% for the State Governments. This recommendation aimed to ensure fiscal discipline and sustainability. Hence, statement 1 is correct.

The Central Government has domestic liabilities of 46.1% of GDP (2016-17) and as a percentage of GDP, States liabilities increased to 23.2 per cent at end-March 2016. Hence, statement 2 is not correct.

The Constitution of India empowers State Governments to borrow only from domestic sources (Article 293(1)). Further, as long as a State has outstanding borrowings from the Central Government, it is required to obtain the Central Government's prior approval before incurring debt (Article 293 (3)). Hence, statement 3 is correct.

Explanation

The terms 'WannaCry, Petya and EternalBlue' are all related to cyber attacks.

'WannaCry' is a ransomware that locks user's devices and prevents them from accessing data and software until a certain ransom is paid to its creator.

'Petya' is another type of ransomware that spreads rapidly through networks that use Microsoft Windows.

The Petya and WannaCry cyber-attacks in May and June 2017 are two of the biggest in history and impacted the finances of companies throughout the globe.

'EternalBlue' is a cyber exploit developed by the U.S. National Security Agency (NSA). It was used in the 2017 WannaCry ransomware attack and exploits a vulnerability in the Microsoft implementation of the Server Message Block (SMB) Protocol.

Explanation

The National Green Tribunal was established by the National Green Tribunal Act, 2010, which was passed by the Parliament. On the other hand, the Central Pollution Control Board (CPCB) was constituted in 1974 under the Water (Prevention and Control of Pollution) Act, 1974. So CPCB is also a statutory body. Thus, statement 1 is incorrect.

The primary role of the National Green Tribunal is to provide effective and expeditious disposal of cases related to environmental protection and conservation of forests and other natural resources, thereby reducing the burden on the higher courts. On the other hand, the CPCB is a statutory organization that works under the Ministry of Environment, Forest and Climate Change to promote the cleanliness of streams, and wells, and improve the quality of air by implementing various environmental laws and regulations. Thus, statement 2 is correct.

Explanation

The World Trade Organization (WTO) has an agreement called the Agreement on Trade-Related Aspects of Intellectual Property Rights (TRIPS).

TRIPS requires member countries to protect Geographical Indications (GIs). GIs identify a product as originating from a specific geographical location where its qualities or reputation are essentially due to that origin.

India enacted the Geographical Indications of Goods (Registration and Protection) Act, 1999 to comply with its obligations under the TRIPS agreement of the WTO.

Explanation

Let's analyze each option with respect to Article 356

(a) Incorrect The state assembly is not automatically dissolved under the President's rule. It can be suspended, but a proclamation is required for dissolution.

(b) Correct When President's rule is imposed, the legislative power of the state shifts to the Parliament. Parliament can enact laws for the state during this period.

(c) Incorrect Article 19, guaranteeing fundamental rights, is not automatically suspended under the President's rule.

(d) Incorrect The President cannot directly make laws for the state under Article 356. Laws are made by the Parliament during the President's rule.

Explanation

The correct statement is 1 only.

Statement 1 is correct. Barren Island is the only confirmed active volcano in India and lies in the Andaman and Nicobar Islands.

Statement 2 is incorrect. Great Nicobar is north of Barren Island, not east. The distance is also more than 140 km.

Statement 3 is incorrect. Barren Island has erupted multiple times after 1991, including eruptions in 1995, 2005, and 2017.

Explanation

ASEAN has five free trade agreements (FTAs) with six Dialogue Partners, namely China, Japan, the Republic of Korea, India, and Australia and New Zealand. All Parties have ratified the FTA Agreements.

USA is not a dialogue partner of ASEAN. So, they don't share a free trade agreement.

Explanation

The Ninth Schedule is a part of the Constitution (Inserted through 1st Amendment) that lists laws exempt from judicial review on the grounds of violating fundamental rights (protected under Part III). Hence, statement 1 is correct.

Laws can still be challenged if they violate the basic structure of the Constitution (a doctrine established in the Kesavananda Bharati case). Laws added to the Ninth Schedule after the basic structure doctrine was established (April 24, 1973) are susceptible to such challenges. (I.R. Coelho Case)

Therefore, while the Ninth Schedule offers protection, it's not absolute. The Supreme Court can still review laws for adherence to the Constitution's core principles. Hence, statement 2 is incorrect.

Explanation

The correct answer is 1 only.

Statement 1 (access to latest nuclear technology) is a consequence of NSG membership. NSG members can trade nuclear materials, equipment, and technology for peaceful purposes. This access can be crucial for a country's nuclear energy program or medical isotope production.

Statement 2 (automatic NPT membership) is incorrect. Becoming an NSG member doesn't automatically qualify a country for NPT membership. NPT is a separate treaty focusing on nuclear non-proliferation, and membership has different requirements.

Explanation

The Sthanakvasi sect is a subsect of Jainism. It is known for its emphasis on ascetic practices and the abandonment of idol worship.

Members of the Sthanakvasi sect believe in the concept of Sthanak or a place for meditation, hence the name "Sthanakvasi," which translates to "those who dwell in a place for meditation."

Explanation

In the first Lok Sabha, the single largest party in the opposition was not the Swatantra Party but the Communist Party of India. So, this statement is incorrect.

In the Lok Sabha, a "Leader of the Opposition" was indeed recognized for the first time in 1969. So, this statement is correct.

In the Lok Sabha, if a party does not have a minimum of 75 members, its leader cannot be recognized as the Leader of the Opposition. This statement is incorrect. The requirement is not 75 members but 10% of the total strength of the house, which is 55 members.

So, only the statement 2 is correct.

Explanation

IRNSS is an independent regional navigation satellite system being developed by India.

The Indian Regional Navigation Satellite System (IRNSS) indeed has three satellites in geostationary orbits and four satellites in geosynchronous orbits.

It is designed to provide accurate position information service to users in India as well as the region extending up to 1500 km from its boundary, which is its primary service area. An Extended Service Area lies between primary service area and area enclosed by the rectangle from Latitude 30 deg South to 50 deg North, Longitude 30 deg East to 130 deg East.

While India has been working on enhancing the coverage of its navigation system, as of the given timeframe (2019), it does not have full global coverage. The system is primarily regional, although there are plans for augmentation and expansion.

Explanation

Opportunity cost It refers to the potential benefit an individual or entity gives up when choosing one option over another. In simpler terms, it's what you miss out on by making a specific choice.

Free commodity and government When the government provides a good or service for free, it doesn't eliminate the opportunity cost. The resources used to provide that free good could have been used for something else.

Taxpayers bear the burden The resources for "free" public goods come from somewhere, usually taxpayer money. So, the opportunity cost isn't eliminated, it's simply shifted. Taxpayers give up the potential use of those resources in exchange for a free good or service.

In essence, while the individual consumer might not directly pay for the good, the cost is still there and borne by the tax-paying public.

Explanation

The most appropriate relationship between law and liberty is reflected in (b) If there are no laws, there is no liberty.

Without laws, there's no framework for protecting individual rights. People could be subject to the whims of others, leading to a situation where the strong dominate the weak. This wouldn't be considered liberty. Laws, however, should be designed to protect liberty, not restrict it unnecessarily. They should establish clear boundaries for acceptable behavior and ensure everyone can exercise their freedoms without infringing on those of others.

Other options. (a) Not always true. While some laws might restrict specific freedoms, others exist to safeguard them. A well-crafted legal system can enhance liberty. (c) Doesn't directly address the relationship. While ideally, laws should reflect the will of the people, the statement doesn't explain how this impacts liberty. (d) Frequency of change is a separate issue. Frequent changes can be disruptive, but stability shouldn't come at the cost of outdated laws hindering liberty.

Therefore, while a balance is important, a complete absence of law undermines liberty.

Explanation

Prosopis juliflora, commonly known as mesquite or thorn mimosa, is often mentioned in the news due to its controversial impact on ecosystems and biodiversity.

Invasive Species Prosopis juliflora is native to Central and South America but has been introduced to many other regions, including parts of Africa, Asia, and Australia. Due to its rapid growth rate, tolerance for harsh conditions, and prolific seed production, it can become invasive. It can outcompete native plants, disrupt ecological balances, and form dense thickets that hinder other vegetation growth.

In states like Tamil Nadu, Prosopis juliflora has been labelled an invasive species causing ecological damage. Efforts are underway to remove it from certain areas to restore native ecosystems.

Explanation

In 1920, the All India Home Rule League changed its name to Swarajya Sabha. This marked a significant shift towards the goal of achieving Swaraj (self-rule).

Explanation

Legal tender refers to money that is legally recognized for the payment of debts. This means that if a creditor offers you legal tender to settle a debt, you are legally obligated to accept it. Hence, option 'B' is the correct answer.

Explanation

Lala Lajpat Rai was a prolific writer and wrote several books and articles on various topics. He wrote biographies of Mazzini, Garibaldi, Shivaji, and Shrikrishna . His writings were influential in shaping the nationalist movement in India. Lala Lajpat Rai was an active member of the Indian National Congress .

Lala Lajpat Rai visited America in 1914 for a lecture tour organized by the Indian Home Rule League.

He was elected to the Central Legislative Assembly in 1923 and even served as its president in 1925.

Explanation

The Speaker of the Legislative Assembly shall vacate his/her office if he/she ceases to be a member of the Assembly. This statement is correct. As per Article 179 of the Constitution of India, the Speaker of the Legislative Assembly shall vacate his/her office if he/she ceases to be a member of the Assembly.

Whenever the Legislative Assembly is dissolved, the Speaker shall vacate his/her office immediately. This statement is incorrect. When the Legislative Assembly is dissolved, the Speaker does not vacate his/her office immediately. The Speaker continues in office till the newly elected Assembly meets for the first time.

So, only the first statement is correct.

Explanation

GPS, or Global Positioning System, is a satellite-based navigation system that provides geolocation and time information to a GPS receiver anywhere on or near the Earth. It has a wide range of applications.

GPS is used in mobile phones for various purposes such as location tracking, navigation, and location-based services.

GPS is used in banking operations for ATM location services and for time-stamping transactions, which is crucial for maintaining accurate records.

GPS is used for time-stamping power system measurements, which is vital for grid stability and synchronization.

Therefore, GPS technology can be used in all the three areas mentioned.

Explanation

Immunity from prosecution Governors in India enjoy immunity from criminal proceedings while they are in office. This is established by Article 361 of the Indian Constitution. This provision aims to ensure the Governor can perform their duties without fear of legal harassment.

Fixed emoluments The salary and allowances of the Governor are determined by the law and cannot be reduced during their term. This is outlined in Article 158 of the Constitution. This provision aims to ensure financial independence for the Governor.

So, both statements accurately reflect the legal protections afforded to Governors in India.

Explanation

The main aim of the colonisation of India by the Britishers was the economic exploitation of India. The commercialisation of Agriculture was an outcome of colonial exploitation. Various cash crops such as Indigo, Tea, and Cotton were forced on Indian farmers to meet the needs for raw materials for the Industrial Revolution in England.

On the other hand, the Handicraft of India was ruined thus exports decreased. Ruralisation of India led to a decrease in factories in the 19th century.

Explanation

The World Justice Project (WJP) is the organization that releases the Rule of Law Index. This index measures how well countries adhere to the rule of law in practice.

Explanation

PSLV (Polar Satellite Launch Vehicle) is primarily used to launch Earth observation/monitoring satellites, while GSLV (Geosynchronous Satellite Launch Vehicle) is designed to launch communication satellites into geosynchronous transfer orbits.

Satellites launched by PSLV are typically placed in polar or sun-synchronous orbits, which are not geosynchronous. These satellites appear to move across the sky as viewed from a particular location on Earth.

The GSLV Mk III is a three-stage launch vehicle, not a four-stage one. The first stage uses solid rocket motors, the second stage uses liquid rocket engines, and the third stage uses a cryogenic rocket engine.

So, only the first statement is correct.

Explanation

During the period 1780-1860, India transitioned from an exporter of processed goods, paid for in bullion, to an exporter of raw materials and a buyer of manufactured goods.

• In the 1750s, fine cotton and silk were exported from India to markets in Europe, Asia, and Africa.
• By the second quarter of the 19th century, raw materials, which chiefly consisted of raw cotton, opium, and indigo, accounted for most of India's exports.

Explanation

High organic matter content in soil actually increases its water-holding capacity. Organic matter helps to bind soil particles together, creating pore spaces that can hold water. It acts like a sponge, absorbing and retaining moisture effectively.

Soil plays a crucial role in the sulphur cycle. Soil contains various forms of sulfur compounds, including sulfates, which are essential nutrients for plant growth. Microorganisms in the soil participate in the transformation of sulfur compounds through processes like mineralization and immobilization.

Excessive or improper irrigation practices can lead to the salinization of agricultural lands. When irrigation water contains high levels of dissolved salts, and there is inadequate drainage, these salts can accumulate in the soil over time, leading to soil salinization. This can adversely affect crop growth and productivity.

Therefore, among the given statements, only statement 3 is correct.

Explanation

Key historical events in chronological order

1. 1859 Neeldarpan was written by Dinabandhu Mitra. This was a significant work highlighting the plight of indigo farmers.

2. 1863 Satyendranath Tagore cleared the British-UPSC without coaching, becoming the first Indian to do so.

3. 1875 Arya Samaj was established by Swami Dayanand, marking a pivotal moment in the religious and social reform movements in India.

4. 1882 Anandmath was penned by Bankim Chandra Chattopadhyay, introducing the song 'Vande Mataram' which played a crucial role in the Indian independence movement.

Explanation

The govt has been infusing large amounts in seven public sector banks through recapitalisation bonds but this not has been steady as statement 1 says, so, statement 1 is incorrect.

Statement 2 is correct. To put the public sector banks in order, the merger of associate banks with the parent State Bank of India has been affected. For example, the merger of SBI associate banks will result in the creation of a stronger merger entity.

Explanation

GACSA was launched in 2014 at the UN Climate Summit in New York, not at the Paris Climate Summit in 2015. Thus, statement 1 is incorrect.

GACSA is a voluntary partnership, and membership does not create any legally binding obligations for its members. Thus, statement 2 is correct.

GACSA was launched by the Netherlands and several other countries, but India was not among the founding members or instrumental in its creation. Thus, statement 3 is incorrect.

Explanation

The "Rule of Law" is a fundamental principle of governance stating that all persons, institutions, and entities, public and private, including the State itself, are accountable to laws that are publicly promulgated, equally enforced, and independently adjudicated. Let's evaluate each option

Limitation of powers This is a key feature of the Rule of Law. It ensures that no individual or group has absolute power and that all are subject to the law.

Equality before law This is another crucial aspect of the Rule of Law, which ensures that all individuals are treated equally under the law, regardless of their status or position.

People's responsibility to the Government This is not a feature of the Rule of Law. The Rule of Law is about the government's responsibility to its citizens, not the other way around.

Liberty and civil rights The Rule of Law is designed to protect individual liberties and civil rights. So, this is also a key feature of the Rule of Law.

Option (c) 1, 2 and 4 only is the correct answer.

Explanation

Pollution of groundwater Sand mining activities can disturb the natural filtration process of riverbeds, potentially allowing pollutants to seep into groundwater sources. Thus, statement 2 is correct.

Lowering of the water table Excessive sand removal can disrupt the natural flow and underground storage of water in the river ecosystem, leading to a lower water table in surrounding areas. Thus, statement 3 is also correct.

Sand mining in riverbeds does not directly affect the salinity levels in the river water. Salinity is primarily influenced by factors like the inflow of saline water from the sea or other sources and the dissolution of salts from the surrounding rocks and soil. Thus, statement 1 is incorrect.

Explanation

(a) A bill shall be deemed to be a Money Bill if it contains only provisions relating to imposition, abolition, remission, alteration, or regulation of any tax. This statement is correct as per Article 110 of the Indian Constitution.

(b) A Money Bill has provisions for the custody of the Consolidated Fund of India or the Contingency Fund of India. This statement is also correct. A Money Bill does deal with the custody of these funds.

(c) A Money Bill is concerned with the appropriation of money out of the Contingency Fund of India. This statement is not correct. The Contingency Fund of India is at the disposal of the President to meet unforeseen expenditure. Money Bills do not deal with the appropriation of money out of this fund.

(d) A Money Bill deals with the regulation of borrowing of money or giving of any guarantee by the Government of India. This statement is correct. A Money Bill does deal with these matters.

Explanation

Puthukkuli shawls These embroidered textiles are a traditional craft of the Toda people in the Nilgiri Hills of Tamil Nadu.

Sujni embroidery This embroidery style originates from the Bhusura village in Bihar, not Maharashtra.

Uppada Jamdani saris Uppada Jamdani saris are known for their diaphanous silk and are native to Uppada in Andhra Pradesh, not Karnataka.

Explanation

Statement 1 (Incorrect) Buland Darwaza and Khankah at Fatehpur Sikri were primarily constructed using red sandstone, not white marble. While the structures might incorporate some decorative elements with white marble inlay, red sandstone is the dominant material.

Statement 2 (Incorrect) Bara Imambara in Lucknow is primarily constructed using brick with stucco plaster, not red sandstone and marble. Rumi Darwaza, on the other hand, is built mainly with bricks and lime plaster.

Explanation

The equalization levy on online advertisement services offered by non-resident entities is introduced as a separate tax under the Finance Act, not as a part of the Income Tax Act.

Non-resident entities cannot claim a tax credit in their home country under the "Double Taxation Avoidance Agreements" because the equalization levy is not an income tax. It is a separate tax levied on specified services provided by non-residents to residents.

Explanation

THAAD is a missile defense system developed by the United States to intercept and destroy short, medium, and intermediate-range ballistic missiles during their terminal phase of flight.

It is designed to defend against threats both within and outside the Earth's atmosphere, providing protection against potential missile attacks.

THAAD has been deployed by the United States military and has also been sold to allied countries such as South Korea and Saudi Arabia.

Explanation

Wood's Dispatch advocated for a Grant-in-aid system to support private schools alongside government schools. This aimed to expand educational opportunities even with limited government resources.

The Dispatch recommended establishing universities in major cities like Bombay, Calcutta, and Madras. These universities would follow the model of the University of London.

While Wood's Dispatch acknowledged the importance of vernacular languages in primary education, it did not recommend English as the medium of instruction at all levels.

The Dispatch proposed a tiered system Primary schools - Vernacular languages Secondary schools - Both English and vernacular languages Colleges - Primarily English

So, statements 1 and 2 are true, while statement 3 is not entirely accurate.

Explanation

Correct: The Food Safety and Standards Act, of 2006 did supersede the Prevention of Food Adulteration Act, of 1954. It established a more comprehensive framework for ensuring food safety and regulating the food industry in India.

Incorrect: The Food Safety and Standards Authority of India (FSSAI) is an autonomous body, not under the direct control of the Director General of Health Services. While the Ministry of Health and Family Welfare oversees FSSAI, it functions independently with its own governing board and chairperson.

Therefore, only statement 1 regarding the replacement of the earlier act is accurate.

Explanation

The Partnership for Action on Green Economy (PAGE) emerged at the United Nations Conference on Sustainable Development (UNCSD) 2012, also known as Rio20, held in Rio de Janeiro, Brazil.

This conference aimed to renew global commitment to sustainable development and address the need for green economies. PAGE was launched as a response to the call for international support for countries seeking to embark on sustainable and inclusive economic growth trajectories.

Explanation

1. Incorrect The National Programme for Organic Production (NPOP) is operated under the guidelines and directions of the Ministry of Agriculture and Farmers Welfare (MoA&FW), not the Ministry of Rural Development.

2. Correct The Agricultural and Processed Food Products Export Development Authority (APEDA) does function as the Secretariat for the implementation of NPOP. APEDA plays a crucial role in promoting and certifying organic products in India.

3. Correct Sikkim has indeed become India's first fully organic State. This achievement signifies India's efforts to promote sustainable agricultural practices.

Therefore, the correct answer is 2 and 3 only

Explanation

Hard and waxy leaves help reduce transpiration by having a thick cuticle and fewer stomata.

Tiny leaves have a smaller surface area, minimizing the area for transpiration.

While thorns are modified branches primarily for protection, they can also replace leaves in some desert plants, thereby reducing the surface area for transpiration.

Therefore, the code for the correct answer is 1, 2 and 3.

Explanation

The International Labour Organization's Conventions 138 and 182 are both related to child labour.

Convention No. 138 is the Minimum Age Convention. It requires member countries to set a minimum age for employment and work towards the elimination of child labour.

Convention No. 182 deals with the Worst Forms of Child Labour. It calls for the prohibition and elimination of the most severe forms of child labour, such as slavery, forced labour, and trafficking.

These conventions are considered fundamental by the ILO, meaning all member states must respect, promote, and work towards their aims regardless of ratification.

Explanation

Most of the world's coral reefs are found in tropical waters. Coral reefs thrive in warm, shallow, clear waters with a temperature range between 18C and 34C, and they are predominantly located in the tropics.

More than one-third of the world's coral reefs are located in the territories of Australia, Indonesia, and the Philippines. These countries have some of the largest and most diverse coral reef ecosystems in the world.

Coral reefs host a far greater number of animal phyla compared to tropical rainforests. Coral reefs are known for their high biodiversity, hosting a wide variety of marine species, including many unique and specialised organisms. In contrast, tropical rainforests, while also highly diverse, host a relatively smaller number of animal phyla.

Therefore, all three statements are correct.

Explanation

Dhara Mustard Hybrid-11, otherwise known as DMH - 11, is a genetically modified hybrid variety of the mustard species Brassica juncea.

The GM mustard developed in India does not have the property of pest-resistance. It has been genetically modified for hybridization and increased yield, not for pest-resistance.

The GM mustard has been developed with genes that allow it to cross-pollinate, leading to hybridization and increased yield.

The GM mustard was developed by scientists at Delhi University's Centre for Genetic Manipulation of Crop Plants (CGMCP), not by the IARI and Punjab Agricultural University.

So, only statement 2 is correct.

Explanation

Chapchar Kut is a harvest festival celebrated in Mizoram.

Khongjom Parba is a ballad commemorating the Battle of Khongjom, which took place in Manipur.

Thang-Ta is a martial art form that originated in Manipur, not Sikkim.

So, only options 1 and 2 are correct.

Explanation

Jean-Baptiste Tavernier, a French traveller and gem merchant, extensively documented his travels to India in the 17th century. He wrote about various aspects of Indian society, culture, and economy, including detailed descriptions of diamond mines and the diamond trade in India. Tavernier's writings provided valuable insights into the diamond industry of India during his time.

Explanation

The Scheduled Tribes and Other Traditional Forest Dwellers (Recognition of Forest Rights) Act, 2006, commonly known as the Forest Rights Act, incorporate "Critical Wildlife Habitat" as areas within National Parks and Sanctuaries that are required to be kept as inviolate to protect wildlife and its habitat. Thus, statement 1 is correct.

In 2015, the Baiga tribal community in Madhya Pradesh became the first to be granted Habitat Rights under the Forest Rights Act, 2006. This allowed them to stay inside the Kanha Tiger Reserve and access forest resources for their bonafide livelihood needs. Thus, statement 2 is also correct.

According to the Forest Rights Act, 2006, it is the respective State governments that have the authority to declare and vest Habitat Rights for Primitive Tribal Groups and pre-agricultural communities over critical wildlife habitats, after obtaining consent from the tribal communities and establishing measures for their resettlement and rehabilitation.

Thus, statement 3 is incorrect.

Explanation

Economic Growth vs. Economic Development An increase in absolute and per capita real GNP signifies economic growth, which means the overall production of goods and services in a country is expanding.

Economic development is a broader concept that goes beyond just increasing production. It encompasses factors like

1. Improved living standards for citizens
2. Reduction in poverty and unemployment
3. Increased literacy and education levels
4. Improved healthcare and infrastructure

If poverty and unemployment are increasing even with economic growth (GNP increase), it suggests the benefits of growth are not being shared widely. This indicates a lack of true economic development.

Explanation

Carbon fertilization is the increased rate of photosynthesis in plants due to the higher concentration of carbon dioxide in the atmosphere.

Photosynthesis Plants absorb carbon dioxide (CO) from the atmosphere, along with water and sunlight, to produce sugars for energy and growth. Carbon dioxide concentration The current atmospheric CO concentration is higher than it has been in millions of years. Increased rate Many plants can take advantage of this higher CO concentration, leading to an increased rate of photosynthesis. This means they can produce more sugars for growth and potentially grow faster.

Explanation

The Reserve Bank of India manages public debt and issues Indian currency-denominated loans on behalf of the central and state governments under the powers derived from the Reserve Bank of India Act. The RBI is the debt manager for both the Central Government and the State Governments. RBI manages the debt of state governments based on separate agreements. Hence, statement 1 is incorrect.

Treasury bills or T-bills, which are money market instruments, are short-term debt instruments issued by the Government of India and are presently issued in three tenors, namely, 91-day, 182-day and 364 days.

Treasury bills are zero coupon securities and pay no interest. They are issued at a discount and redeemed at the face value at maturity.

Therefore, statements 2 and 3 are correct.

Explanation

The correct statement is 3 only.

Statement 1 is incorrect. Under the Mines and Minerals (Development and Regulation) Amendment Act, of 2015, state governments conduct auctions for non-coal mine licenses.

Statement 2 is incorrect. Both Andhra Pradesh and Jharkhand have gold deposits and ongoing mining activities.

Statement 3 is correct. Rajasthan is known for its rich iron ore deposits and mining.

Explanation

The Merchant Discount Rate (MDR) is a fee levied on merchants by payment processors for accepting debit and credit card transactions. It's typically a percentage of the transaction value. So, when a customer uses a debit card at a store, the store pays a fee to the bank that processes the transaction.

Explanation

Conservation Agriculture is a set of practices aimed at minimizing soil disturbance, maintaining permanent soil cover, and adopting crop rotations or intercropping.

Avoiding monoculture practices - This does not directly fall under Conservation Agriculture. Monoculture refers to the cultivation of a single crop over a wide area. Adopting minimum tillage - Minimum or no tillage is one of the key principles of Conservation Agriculture, as it reduces soil disturbance. Avoiding the cultivation of plantation crops - This is not a part of Conservation Agriculture. Plantation crops like tea, coffee, or rubber can be cultivated using conservation agriculture practices. Using crop residues to cover the soil surface - Maintaining soil cover with crop residues or mulches is a crucial component of Conservation Agriculture. Adopting spatial and temporal crop sequencing/crop rotations - Crop rotations and intercropping are recommended practices under Conservation Agriculture to improve soil fertility and reduce pest and disease incidence.

Therefore, the correct options that fall under Conservation Agriculture are 2, 4, and 5.

Explanation

Kodaikanal Lake, also known as Kodai Lake is a manmade lake located in the Kodaikanal city in Dindigul district in Tamil Nadu, India.

Sir Vere Henry Levinge, the then Collector of Madurai, was instrumental in creating the lake in 1863, amidst the Kodaikanal town which was developed by the British and early missionaries from the USA.