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UPSC Prelims 2018 Analysis

Subject wise MCQ distribution

  • Economy (20 Questions): The highest weightage in the paper, covering macroeconomic indicators, policies, and economic development themes. Analytical abilities were essential to interpret trends.
  • Environment & Ecology (15 Questions): A significant presence, likely reflecting UPSC’s increasing focus on climate change, biodiversity, and sustainable development. Maps were useful in location-based questions.
  • Indian Polity (15 Questions): A core subject, testing governance, constitutional provisions, and landmark judgments. Many questions followed an assertion-reasoning pattern.
  • Modern History (13 Questions): A relatively high emphasis on the freedom struggle, key personalities, and movements.
  • Science & Technology (12 Questions): Covered advancements in AI, biotechnology, and space technology, requiring both static and current knowledge.
  • Art & Culture (7 Questions): More weightage than in some later years, indicating an expectation for deeper knowledge of cultural heritage.
  • International Relations (7 Questions): Focused on global organizations, treaties, and India's foreign policy.
  • Medieval History (1 Question): Minimal representation, following the usual trend of fewer medieval history questions.
  • Geography (Indian Geography: 4, Physical Geography: 2, World Geography: 0): The focus was on Indian geography, with limited physical geography and no direct world geography questions.
Prelims 2018
Subject-Wise Weightage in UPSC Prelims 2018

Difficulty analysis

  • Medium Difficulty (50 Questions): The largest segment, requiring a balance of factual knowledge and application skills.
  • Hard Questions (29 Questions): A significant portion of the paper, making elimination techniques and conceptual clarity essential.
  • Easy Questions (21 Questions): Fewer than in later years, indicating a relatively tougher paper.

The 2018 Prelims had tougher questions than before, which made them hard to solve. This is reflected in the final cut-off, which was only 98 marks.

Prelims 2018
Difficulty-Level Distribution in UPSC Prelims 2021

Variations in Question framing

Multi-Statement Questions (58%):

  • The most common type, requiring elimination techniques and conceptual clarity.
  • Particularly prevalent in Polity, Economy, and Environment sections.
  • Many followed match the following and assertion-reasoning formats.

Direct Questions (42%):

  • Straightforward factual questions, especially in History and Geography.
  • Easier to score but required precise knowledge.
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Variations of Questions in UPSC Prelims 2021

Current Affairs vs. Static Questions

  • Current Affairs-Based (44 Questions): UPSC maintained a strong current affairs focus, particularly in Economy, Science & Technology, and International Relations.
  • Static (56 Questions): A balanced approach, with a considerable portion testing foundational knowledge, often derived from NCERT books.

Key learning for Future Preparation

  • Strengthen Economy and Polity: These subjects consistently hold high weightage and require an in-depth understanding of fundamental concepts.
  • Master Multi-Statement Questions: Since a majority of questions require elimination skills, practice structured reasoning techniques.
  • Balance Static and Current Affairs: While static knowledge remains crucial, integrating dynamic current developments is essential for scoring well.
  • Prepare for Moderate to Hard Questions: The paper had a higher proportion of challenging questions, so aspirants should refine their approach to conceptual application and strategic guessing.
  • History and Culture Awareness: Despite variations in different years, Art & Culture and Modern History continue to hold importance, making them key focus areas.
The Prelims 2018 paper had a strong focus on Economy, Environment, and Polity, with a majority of multi-statement questions requiring elimination techniques. A mix of current affairs and static knowledge highlighted the need for an integrated approach. The moderate-to-hard difficulty level and a low cutoff of 98 marks reflected the paper’s complexity.

QUESTION 1

HardEnvironment & EcologyPrelims 2018

"Momentum for Change: Climate Neutral Now" is an initiative launched by

A. The Intergovernmental Panel on Climate Change

B. The UNEP Secretariat

C. The UNFCCC Secretariat

D. The World Meteorological Organisation

Answer: C

Explanation

The United Nations Framework Convention on Climate Change (UNFCCC) Secretariat launched the Climate Neutral Now initiative in 2015 to encourage individuals, businesses, and governments to take voluntary action towards climate neutrality.

In 2016, the Secretariat introduced a new pillar under its "Momentum for Change" initiative, focusing on Climate Neutral Now as part of broader efforts to highlight and promote successful climate action worldwide.

Climate neutrality is a three-step process, which requires individuals, companies, and governments to:

  1. Measure their climate footprint (greenhouse gas emissions).
  2. Reduce emissions as much as possible through sustainable practices and efficiency improvements.
  3. Offset unavoidable emissions using UN-certified emission reductions (CERs).

This initiative aligns with global efforts to meet the Paris Agreement goals, fostering greater accountability and proactive engagement in combating climate change.


QUESTION 2

HardEnvironment & EcologyPrelims 2018

Which of the following has/have shrunk immensely/dried up in the recent past due to human activities?

  1. Aral Sea
  2. Black Sea
  3. Lake Baikal

A. 1 and 3

B. 2 and 3

C. 2 only

D. 1 only

Answer: D

Explanation

The Aral Sea was once one of the world's largest inland lakes, but due to extensive water diversion for irrigation projects, particularly from the Amu Darya and Syr Darya rivers, it has shrunk by over 75% since the 1960s. This has led to severe environmental, economic, and social consequences, including increased salinity, loss of marine life, and desertification.

Aral Sea

Black Sea: While the Black Sea faces environmental challenges such as pollution, biodiversity loss, and reduced oxygen levels in deep waters, it has not experienced significant drying like the Aral Sea.

Lake Baikal: Lake Baikal in Russia is the deepest and oldest freshwater lake in the world, containing about 20% of the world's unfrozen freshwater supply. Although it experiences natural fluctuations in water levels, it has not undergone severe drying like the Aral Sea.

Thus, the correct answer is option (d).


QUESTION 3

MediumEnvironment & EcologyPrelims 2018

In which one of the following States is Pakhui Wildlife Sanctuary located?

A. Arunachal Pradesh

B. Manipur

C. Meghalaya

D. Nagaland

Answer: A

Explanation

The Pakhui Wildlife Sanctuary, located in Arunachal Pradesh, is part of the Kameng Elephant Reserve and is contiguous with the Pakke Tiger Reserve. It is known for its rich biodiversity and dense forests, making it a critical habitat for various wildlife species. The Bhareli (Pakke) and Bamadi rivers flow through the sanctuary, supporting its diverse ecosystem. Several indigenous tribes, including the Nyishi and Apatani, reside in the region, coexisting with the forest and its resources.

Wildlife Santuaries in Arunachal pradesh


QUESTION 4

EasyEnvironment & EcologyPrelims 2018

The term "sixth mass extinction/sixth extinction" is often mentioned in the news in the context of the discussion of

A. Widespread monoculture practices in agriculture and large-scale commercial farming with indiscriminate use of chemicals in many parts of the world that may result in the loss of good native ecosystems.

B. Fears of a possible collision of a meteorite with the Earth in the near future in the manner it happened 65 million years ago that caused the mass extinction of many species including those of dinosaurs.

C. Large scale cultivation of genetically modified crops in many parts of the world and promoting their cultivation in other parts of the world which may cause the disappearance of good native crop plants and the loss of food biodiversity.

D. Mankind's over-exploitation/misuse of natural resources, fragmentation/loss of natural habitats, destruction of ecosystems, pollution and global climate change.

Answer: D

Explanation

The term "sixth mass extinction" is used in the context of discussions about the current rapid decline in biodiversity and the potential for it to be as significant as the five major extinction events in Earth's history.

Mass extinction events: Throughout Earth's history, there have been five major extinction events where a large percentage of species (estimated at 75% or more) disappeared in a geologically short period. Examples include the Cretaceous-Paleogene extinction event that wiped out non-avian dinosaurs.

Sixth mass extinction: Scientists are concerned that human activities like habitat destruction, climate change, pollution, and overexploitation of resources are causing a mass extinction event that could be as severe as the previous ones.

Thus, the correct answer is 'D'.


QUESTION 5

HardEnvironment & EcologyPrelims 2018

With reference to solar power production in India, consider the following statements:

  1. India is the third largest in the world in the manufacture of silicon wafers used in photovoltaic units.
  2. The solar power tariffs are determined by the Solar Energy Corporation of India.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

A. 1 only

B. 2 only

C. Both 1 and 2

D. Neither 1 nor 2

Answer: D

Explanation

Statement 1 is incorrect: India does not feature among the top three global manufacturers of silicon wafers used in photovoltaic (PV) units or solar cells. The top three manufacturers of silicon wafers for PV applications are China, Taiwan, and South Korea.

Statement 2 is incorrect: The Solar Energy Corporation of India (SECI) is a government-owned company that facilitates the implementation of solar energy projects in the country, but it does not determine the solar power tariffs. The solar power tariffs in India are determined through a competitive bidding process conducted by various agencies.

Hence, the correct answer is option (d) Neither 1 nor 2.


QUESTION 6

MediumEnvironment & EcologyPrelims 2018

How is the National Green Tribunal (NGT) different from the Central Pollution Control Board (CPCB)?

  1. The NGT has been established by an Act whereas the CPCB has been created by executive order of the Government.
  2. The NGT provides environmental justice and helps reduce the burden of litigation in the higher courts whereas the CPCB promotes cleanliness of streams and wells, and aims to improve the quality of air in the country.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct

A. 1 only

B. 2 only

C. 1 and 2

D. None of the above

Answer: B

Explanation

Statement 1 is incorrect: The National Green Tribunal (NGT) was established under the National Green Tribunal Act, 2010, passed by Parliament, making it a statutory body. Similarly, the Central Pollution Control Board (CPCB) was constituted under the Water (Prevention and Control of Pollution) Act, 1974 and is also a statutory body. It plays a key role in environmental regulation in India.

Statement 2 is correct: The NGT’s primary role is to ensure the expeditious disposal of environmental cases related to forest conservation, natural resource protection, and pollution control, thereby reducing the burden on higher courts.

The CPCB, functioning under the Ministry of Environment, Forest and Climate Change (MoEFCC), is responsible for monitoring water and air quality, implementing pollution control measures, and enforcing environmental laws to promote a cleaner environment.

Thus, while both bodies deal with environmental protection, the NGT focuses on adjudication, whereas the CPCB handles regulatory and enforcement functions. Therefore, the correct answer is option (b) 2 only.


QUESTION 7

EasyEnvironment & EcologyPrelims 2018

Why is a plant called Prosopis juliflora often mentioned in the news?

A. Its extract is widely used in cosmetics.

B. It tends to reduce the biodiversity in the area in which it grows.

C. Its extract is used in the synthesis of pesticides.

D. None of the above

Answer: B

Explanation

Prosopis juliflora, commonly known as mesquite or thorn mimosa, frequently appears in discussions about invasive species due to its significant impact on ecosystems and biodiversity.

Originally native to Central and South America, Prosopis juliflora was introduced to various parts of Africa, Asia, and Australia for purposes like afforestation, erosion control, and fuelwood supply.

However, due to its rapid growth rate, tolerance for harsh conditions, and prolific seed production, it can become invasive.

It can outcompete native plants, disrupt ecological balances, and form dense thickets that hinder other vegetation growth.

In states like Tamil Nadu, Prosopis juliflora has been labelled an invasive species causing ecological damage. Efforts are underway to remove it from certain areas to restore native ecosystems.


QUESTION 8

MediumEnvironment & EcologyPrelims 2018

With reference to agricultural soils, consider the following statements :

  1. The high content of organic matter in soil drastically reduces its water holding capacity.
  2. Soil does not play any role in the sulphur cycle.
  3. Irrigation over a period of time can contribute to the salinization of some agricultural lands.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

A. 1 and 2 only

B. 3 only

C. 1 and 3 only

D. 1, 2 and 3

Answer: B

Explanation

High organic matter content in soil actually increases its water-holding capacity. Organic matter helps to bind soil particles together, creating pore spaces that can hold water. It acts like a sponge, absorbing and retaining moisture effectively.

Soil plays a crucial role in the sulphur cycle. Soil contains various forms of sulfur compounds, including sulfates, which are essential nutrients for plant growth. Microorganisms in the soil participate in the transformation of sulfur compounds through processes like mineralization and immobilization.

Excessive or improper irrigation practices can lead to the salinization of agricultural lands. When irrigation water contains high levels of dissolved salts, and there is inadequate drainage, these salts can accumulate in the soil over time, leading to soil salinization. This can adversely affect crop growth and productivity.

Therefore, among the given statements, only statement 3 is correct.


QUESTION 9

HardEnvironment & EcologyPrelims 2018

With reference to the 'Global Alliance for Climate-Smart Agriculture (GACSA)', which of the following statements is/are correct.

  1. GACSA is an outcome of the Climate Summit held in Paris in 2015.
  2. Membership of GACSA does not create any binding obligations.
  3. India was instrumental in the creation of GACSA.

Select the correct answer using the code given

A. 1 and 3 only

B. 2 only

C. 2 and 3 only

D. 1, 2 and 3

Answer: B

Explanation

Statement 1 is incorrect. GACSA was launched in 2014 at the UN Climate Summit in New York, not at the Paris Climate Summit in 2015.

Statement 2 is correct. GACSA is a voluntary partnership, and membership does not create any legally binding obligations for its members.

Statement 3 is incorrect. GACSA was launched by the Netherlands and several other countries, but India was not among the founding members or instrumental in its creation.


QUESTION 10

MediumEnvironment & EcologyPrelims 2018

Which of the following is/are the possible consequence/s of heavy sand mining in riverbeds?

  1. Decreased salinity in the river
  2. Pollution of groundwater
  3. Lowering of the water-table

Select the correct answer using the code given below :

A. 1 only

B. 2 and 3 only

C. 1 and 3 only

D. 1, 2 and 3

Answer: B

Explanation

Statement 1 is incorrect: Sand mining in riverbeds does not directly affect the salinity levels in the river water. Salinity is primarily influenced by factors like the inflow of saline water from the sea or other sources, dissolution of salts from surrounding rocks and soil and anthropogenic activities like irrigation return flows and industrial discharge.

Statement 2 is correct: Sand plays a crucial role in natural filtration, helping to remove impurities from water percolating through riverbeds. Excessive sand removal can disrupt this filtration process, allowing pollutants to seep into groundwater, increase turbidity, making water more susceptible to contamination, expose toxic substances previously trapped in sediments. It can:

Statement 3 also correct: Excessive sand mining can significantly disrupt the hydrological balance of a river system.

  • Reduce water-holding capacity of riverbeds, leading to lower groundwater recharge.
  • Cause river incision, deepening the riverbed and lowering adjacent groundwater levels.
  • Affect agriculture and drinking water sources, particularly in arid and semi-arid regions.

Hence, the correct answer is option (b) 2 and 3 only.


QUESTION 11

MediumEnvironment & EcologyPrelims 2018

The Partnership for Action on Green Economy (PAGE), a UN mechanism to assist countries transition towards greener and more inclusive economies, emerged at

A. The Earth Summit on Sustainable Development 2002, Johannesburg

B. The United Nations Conference on Sustainable Development 2012, Rio de Janeiro

C. The United Nations Framework Convention on Climate Change 2015, Paris

D. The World Sustainable Development Summit 2016, New Delhi

Answer: B

Explanation

The Partnership for Action on Green Economy (PAGE) was established in response to the United Nations Conference on Sustainable Development (UNCSD) 2012, also known as Rio+20, held in Rio de Janeiro, Brazil.

The Rio+20 conference aimed to reaffirm global commitment to sustainable development and highlight the importance of transitioning to green economies i.e. economic systems that promote environmental sustainability, social inclusion, and economic growth.

PAGE was launched as a collaborative initiative to support countries in developing policies and strategies for sustainable and inclusive economic growth.


QUESTION 12

EasyEnvironment & EcologyPrelims 2018

Which of the following leaf modifications occur(s) in the desert areas to inhibit water loss?

  1. Hard and waxy leaves
  2. Tiny leaves
  3. Thorns instead of leaves

Select the correct answer using the code given below:

A. 2 and 3 only

B. 2 only

C. 3 only

D. 1, 2 and 3

Answer: D

Explanation

Plants in arid environments have evolved adaptive features to minimize water loss through transpiration:

Plant Modifications

  • Hard and waxy leaves have a thick cuticle and fewer stomata, reducing water loss by limiting evaporation.
  • Tiny leaves have a smaller surface area, which decreases the area exposed to transpiration.
  • Thorns, though primarily modified branches for protection, can also replace leaves in some desert plants (e.g., cacti), further reducing transpiration by limiting leaf surface area.

Therefore, the correct answer is option (d) 1, 2 and 3.


QUESTION 13

MediumEnvironment & EcologyPrelims 2018

Consider the following statements:

  1. The definition of "Critical Wildlife Habitat" is incorporated in the Forest Rights Act, 2006.
  2. For the first time in India, Baigas have been given Habitat Rights.
  3. Union Ministry of Environment, Forest and Climate Change officially decides and declares Habitat Rights for Primitive and Vulnerable Tribal Groups in any part of India.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct ?

A. 1 and 2 only

B. 2 and 3 only

C. 3 only

D. 1, 2 and 3

Answer: A

Explanation

Statement 1 is correct: The Scheduled Tribes and Other Traditional Forest Dwellers (Recognition of Forest Rights) Act, 2006, commonly known as the Forest Rights Act (FRA), 2006, introduces the concept of Critical Wildlife Habitat (CWH). These are areas within National Parks and Wildlife Sanctuaries that must be kept inviolate to ensure wildlife protection. CWHs can only be declared based on scientific evidence and after completing the due process of rehabilitation and resettlement of affected communities.

Critical wildlife habitat

Statement 2 is correct: In 2015, the Baiga tribal community in Madhya Pradesh became the first to be granted Habitat Rights under the Forest Rights Act, 2006. This recognition allowed them to continue living within the Kanha Tiger Reserve while accessing forest resources for their bonafide livelihood needs.

Statement 3 is incorrect: According to the Forest Rights Act, 2006, it is the respective State governments that have the authority to declare and vest Habitat Rights for Primitive Tribal Groups and pre-agricultural communities over critical wildlife habitats, after obtaining consent from the tribal communities and establishing measures for their resettlement and rehabilitation.

Hence, correct answer is option (a) 1 and 2 only.


QUESTION 14

MediumEnvironment & EcologyPrelims 2018

Which of the following statements best describes "carbon fertilization"?

A. Increased plant growth due to increased concentration of carbon dioxide in the atmosphere

B. Increased temperature of Earth due to increased concentration of carbon dioxide in the atmosphere

C. Increased acidity of oceans as a result of increased concentration of carbon dioxide in the atmosphere

D. Adaptation of all living beings on Earth to the climate change brought about hr the increased concentration of carbon dioxide in the atmosphere

Answer: A

Explanation

Carbon fertilization is the increased rate of photosynthesis in plants due to the higher concentration of carbon dioxide in the atmosphere.

During Photosynthesis plants absorb carbon dioxide (CO₂) from the atmosphere, along with water and sunlight, to produce sugars (glucose) that provide energy for growth. This process releases oxygen (O₂) as a byproduct.

The concentration of CO₂ in the atmosphere is currently at its highest level in millions of years, primarily due to human activities such as fossil fuel combustion and deforestation.

Many plants respond to higher CO₂ levels with an increased rate of photosynthesis, enabling them to produce more sugars, which can lead to faster growth and higher biomass production.


QUESTION 15

MediumEnvironment & EcologyPrelims 2018

With reference to the circumstances in Indian agriculture, the concept of "Conservation Agriculture" assumes significance. Which of the following fall under the Conservation Agriculture?

  1. Avoiding monoculture practices
  2. Adopting minimum tillage
  3. Avoiding the cultivation of plantation crops
  4. Using crop residues to cover the soil surface
  5. Adopting spatial and temporal crop sequencing/crop rotations

Select the correct answer using the code given below:

A. 1, 3 and 4

B. 2, 3, 4 and 5

C. 1, 2, 3 and 5

D. 2, 4 and 5

Answer: D

Explanation

Conservation Agriculture is a set of practices aimed at minimizing soil disturbance, maintaining permanent soil cover, and adopting crop rotations or intercropping.

Conservation Agriculture

Avoiding monoculture practices - This does not directly fall under Conservation Agriculture. Monoculture refers to the cultivation of a single crop over a wide area.

Adopting minimum tillage - Minimum or no tillage is one of the key principles of Conservation Agriculture, as it reduces soil disturbance.

Avoiding the cultivation of plantation crops - This is not a part of Conservation Agriculture. Plantation crops like tea, coffee, or rubber can be cultivated using conservation agriculture practices.

Using crop residues to cover the soil surface - Maintaining soil cover with crop residues or mulches is a crucial component of Conservation Agriculture.

Adopting spatial and temporal crop sequencing/crop rotations - Crop rotations and intercropping are recommended practices under Conservation Agriculture to improve soil fertility and reduce pest and disease incidence.

Therefore, the correct options that fall under Conservation Agriculture are 2, 4, and 5.

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