UPSC Prelims 2018 Analysis

Subject wise MCQ distribution

  • Economy (20 Questions): The highest weightage in the paper, covering macroeconomic indicators, policies, and economic development themes. Analytical abilities were essential to interpret trends.
  • Environment & Ecology (15 Questions): A significant presence, likely reflecting UPSC’s increasing focus on climate change, biodiversity, and sustainable development. Maps were useful in location-based questions.
  • Indian Polity (15 Questions): A core subject, testing governance, constitutional provisions, and landmark judgments. Many questions followed an assertion-reasoning pattern.
  • Modern History (13 Questions): A relatively high emphasis on the freedom struggle, key personalities, and movements.
  • Science & Technology (12 Questions): Covered advancements in AI, biotechnology, and space technology, requiring both static and current knowledge.
  • Art & Culture (7 Questions): More weightage than in some later years, indicating an expectation for deeper knowledge of cultural heritage.
  • International Relations (7 Questions): Focused on global organizations, treaties, and India's foreign policy.
  • Medieval History (1 Question): Minimal representation, following the usual trend of fewer medieval history questions.
  • Geography (Indian Geography: 4, Physical Geography: 2, World Geography: 0): The focus was on Indian geography, with limited physical geography and no direct world geography questions.
Prelims 2018
Subject-Wise Weightage in UPSC Prelims 2018

Difficulty analysis

  • Medium Difficulty (50 Questions): The largest segment, requiring a balance of factual knowledge and application skills.
  • Hard Questions (29 Questions): A significant portion of the paper, making elimination techniques and conceptual clarity essential.
  • Easy Questions (21 Questions): Fewer than in later years, indicating a relatively tougher paper.

The 2018 Prelims had tougher questions than before, which made them hard to solve. This is reflected in the final cut-off, which was only 98 marks.

Prelims 2018
Difficulty-Level Distribution in UPSC Prelims 2021

Variations in Question framing

Multi-Statement Questions (58%):

  • The most common type, requiring elimination techniques and conceptual clarity.
  • Particularly prevalent in Polity, Economy, and Environment sections.
  • Many followed match the following and assertion-reasoning formats.

Direct Questions (42%):

  • Straightforward factual questions, especially in History and Geography.
  • Easier to score but required precise knowledge.
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Variations of Questions in UPSC Prelims 2021

Current Affairs vs. Static Questions

  • Current Affairs-Based (44 Questions): UPSC maintained a strong current affairs focus, particularly in Economy, Science & Technology, and International Relations.
  • Static (56 Questions): A balanced approach, with a considerable portion testing foundational knowledge, often derived from NCERT books.

Key learning for Future Preparation

  • Strengthen Economy and Polity: These subjects consistently hold high weightage and require an in-depth understanding of fundamental concepts.
  • Master Multi-Statement Questions: Since a majority of questions require elimination skills, practice structured reasoning techniques.
  • Balance Static and Current Affairs: While static knowledge remains crucial, integrating dynamic current developments is essential for scoring well.
  • Prepare for Moderate to Hard Questions: The paper had a higher proportion of challenging questions, so aspirants should refine their approach to conceptual application and strategic guessing.
  • History and Culture Awareness: Despite variations in different years, Art & Culture and Modern History continue to hold importance, making them key focus areas.
The Prelims 2018 paper had a strong focus on Economy, Environment, and Polity, with a majority of multi-statement questions requiring elimination techniques. A mix of current affairs and static knowledge highlighted the need for an integrated approach. The moderate-to-hard difficulty level and a low cutoff of 98 marks reflected the paper’s complexity.

QUESTION 1

EasyScience & TechnologyPrelims 2018

When the alarm of your smartphone rings in the morning, you wake up and tap it to stop the alarm which causes your geyser to be switched on automatically. The smart mirror in your bathroom shows the day's weather and also indicates the level of water in your overhead tank. After you take some groceries from your refrigerator for making breakfast, it recognises the shortage of stock in it and places an order for the supply of fresh grocery items. When you step out of your house and lock the door, all lights, fans, geysers and AC machines get switched off automatically. On your way to the office, your car warns you about traffic congestion ahead and suggests an alternative route, and if you are late for a meeting, it sends a- message to your office accordingly. In the context of emerging communication technologies, which one of the following term best applies to the above scenario?

A. Border Gateway Protocol

B. Internet of Things

C. Internet Protocol

D. Virtual Private Network

Answer: B

Explanation

The scenario described involves various devices (smartphone, geyser, smart mirror, refrigerator, car, etc.) communicating with each other and with the user, and automatically performing tasks based on certain triggers. This is characteristic of the Internet of Things (IoT), which is a system of interrelated computing devices, mechanical and digital machines, objects, animals or people that are provided with unique identifiers (UIDs) and the ability to transfer data over a network without requiring human-to-human or human-to-computer interaction.

Border Gateway Protocol is a protocol used to exchange routing information across the internet and is not relevant to the scenario described.

Internet Protocol is a set of rules for sending and receiving messages at the Internet address level, but it doesn't cover the broad range of device intercommunication described in the scenario.

A Virtual Private Network is a technology for using the internet or another intermediate network to connect computers to isolated remote computer networks that would otherwise be inaccessible, which also doesn't fit the scenario.


QUESTION 2

MediumScience & TechnologyPrelims 2018

"3D printing" has applications in which of the following?

  1. Preparation of confectionery items
  2. Manufacture of bionic ears
  3. Automotive industry
  4. Reconstructive surgeries
  5. Data processing technologies

Select the correct answer using the code given below:

A. 1, 3 and 4 only

B. 2, 3 and 5 only

C. 1 and 4 only

D. 1, 2, 3, 4 and 5

Answer: D

Explanation

3D printing, also known as additive manufacturing, is a process of making three dimensional solid objects from a digital file. It is used in a wide range of industries and has various applications.

It can be used to create intricate and customized shapes in confectionery items like chocolates, candies, and other desserts.

It has been used to create customized bionic ears for people with hearing impairments.

It is used in the automotive industry for rapid prototyping, manufacturing of customized parts, and even some production of vehicle components.

It is used in reconstructive surgeries to create patient-specific implants, prosthetics, and surgical guides.

It can be used to create specialized components and parts for data processing technologies, such as computer hardware.

Therefore, all the five statements are correct.


QUESTION 3

HardScience & TechnologyPrelims 2018

Consider the following phenomena :

  1. Light is affected by gravity.
  2. The Universe is constantly expanding.
  3. Matter warps its surrounding space-time.

Which of the above is/are the prediction/predictions of Albert Einstein's General Theory of Relativity, often discussed in media?

A. 1 and 2 only

B. 3 only

C. 1, 2 and 3

D. 1 and 2

Answer: C

Explanation

According to Einstein's General Theory of Relativity, gravity can bend light. This phenomenon is known as gravitational lensing.

The General Theory of Relativity led to the prediction of an expanding universe, which has been confirmed by observational evidence.

According to the General Theory of Relativity, the presence of matter and energy warps the fabric of space and time around it, which is the underlying cause of the gravitational force.

So, all three statements are correct.


QUESTION 4

MediumScience & TechnologyPrelims 2018

Consider the following:

  1. Birds
  2. Dust blowing
  3. Rain
  4. Wind blowing

Which of the above spread plant diseases?

A. 1 and 3 only

B. 3 and 4 only

C. 1, 2 and 4 only

D. 1, 2, 3 and 4

Answer: D

Explanation

All of the listed factors - birds, dust blowing, rain, and wind blowing - can contribute to the spread of plant diseases

Birds can act as vectors, carrying and spreading plant pathogens from one location to another through their feathers, feet, or droppings.

Dust and soil particles blown by the wind can carry and spread plant diseases, especially fungal spores and bacterial cells.

Rain can splash and disperse plant pathogens, such as fungi and bacteria, from the soil or infected plant parts to uninfected plants.

Wind can transport and spread airborne plant pathogens, such as fungal spores and bacterial cells, over long distances.


QUESTION 5

MediumScience & TechnologyPrelims 2018

The identity platform `Aadhaar' provides open "Application Programming Interfaces (APIs)". What does it imply?

  1. It can be integrated into any electronic device.
  2. Online authentication using iris is possible.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

A. 1 only

B. 2 only

C. Both 1 and 2

D. Neither 1 nor 2

Answer: C

Explanation

The availability of open APIs for Aadhaar means that the Aadhaar system can be easily integrated into various electronic devices, such as smartphones, laptops, point-of-sale terminals, etc. This allows these devices to leverage the Aadhaar platform for authentication and other services.

The Aadhaar APIs provide the capability to perform online authentication using biometric modalities like fingerprint and iris scans. This allows for secure identity verification and authentication through electronic devices and applications.

Therefore, both statements 1 and 2 are correct.


QUESTION 6

EasyScience & TechnologyPrelims 2018

Consider the following pairs :

Terms sometimes seen in newsContext /Topic
1. Belle II experimentArtificial Intelligence
2. Blockchain technologyDigital/Cryptocurrency
3. CRISPR — Cas9Particle Physics

Which of the pairs given above is/are correctly matched ?

A. 1 and 3 only

B. 2 only

C. 2 and 3 only

D. 1, 2 and 3

Answer: B

Explanation

The Belle II experiment is a particle physics experiment designed to study the properties of B mesons. It is not related to artificial intelligence.

Blockchain technology is the underlying technology behind cryptocurrencies like Bitcoin. It is a distributed ledger technology that ensures secure and transparent transactions.

CRISPR-Cas9 is a gene-editing technology used in the field of molecular biology to edit genes. It is not related to particle physics.

Therefore, only pair 2 is correctly matched.


QUESTION 7

EasyScience & TechnologyPrelims 2018

The terms ‘Wanna Cry, Petya and Eternal Blue' sometimes mentioned in the news recently are related to

A. Exo-planets

B. Crypto-currency

C. Cyberattacks

D. Minisatellites

Answer: C

Explanation

The terms 'WannaCry, Petya and EternalBlue' are all related to cyber attacks.

'WannaCry' is a ransomware that locks user's devices and prevents them from accessing data and software until a certain ransom is paid to its creator.

'Petya' is another type of ransomware that spreads rapidly through networks that use Microsoft Windows.

The Petya and WannaCry cyber-attacks in May and June 2017 are two of the biggest in history and impacted the finances of companies throughout the globe.

'EternalBlue' is a cyber exploit developed by the U.S. National Security Agency (NSA). It was used in the 2017 WannaCry ransomware attack and exploits a vulnerability in the Microsoft implementation of the Server Message Block (SMB) Protocol.


QUESTION 8

MediumScience & TechnologyPrelims 2018

With reference to the Indian Regional Navigation Satellite System (IRNSS), consider the following statements :

  1. IRNSS has three satellites in geostationary and four satellites in geosynchronous orbits.
  2. IRNSS covers entire India and about 5500 sq. km beyond its borders.
  3. India will have its own satellite navigation system with full global coverage by the middle of 2019.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

A. 1 only

B. 1 and 2 only

C. 2 and 3 only

D. None

Answer: A

Explanation

IRNSS is an independent regional navigation satellite system being developed by India.

The Indian Regional Navigation Satellite System (IRNSS) indeed has three satellites in geostationary orbits and four satellites in geosynchronous orbits.

It is designed to provide accurate position information service to users in India as well as the region extending up to 1500 km from its boundary, which is its primary service area. An Extended Service Area lies between primary service area and area enclosed by the rectangle from Latitude 30 deg South to 50 deg North, Longitude 30 deg East to 130 deg East.

While India has been working on enhancing the coverage of its navigation system, as of the given timeframe (2019), it does not have full global coverage. The system is primarily regional, although there are plans for augmentation and expansion.


QUESTION 9

EasyScience & TechnologyPrelims 2018

In which of the following areas can GPS technology be used?

  1. Mobile phone operations
  2. Banking operations
  3. Controlling the power grids

Select the correct answer using the code given below:

A. 1 only

B. 2 and 3 only

C. 1 and 3 only

D. 1, 2 and 3

Answer: D

Explanation

GPS, or Global Positioning System, is a satellite-based navigation system that provides geolocation and time information to a GPS receiver anywhere on or near the Earth. It has a wide range of applications.

GPS is used in mobile phones for various purposes such as location tracking, navigation, and location-based services.

GPS is used in banking operations for ATM location services and for time-stamping transactions, which is crucial for maintaining accurate records.

GPS is used for time-stamping power system measurements, which is vital for grid stability and synchronization.

Therefore, GPS technology can be used in all the three areas mentioned.


QUESTION 10

MediumScience & TechnologyPrelims 2018

With reference to India’s satellite launch vehicles, consider the following statements:

  1. PSLVs launch the satellites useful for Earth resources monitoring whereas GSLVs are designed mainly to launch communication satellites.
  2. Satellites launched by PSLV appear to remain permanently fixed in the same position in the sky, as viewed from a particular location on Earth.
  3. GSLV Mk III is a four-stage launch vehicle with the first and third stages using solid rocket motors, and the second and fourth stages using liquid rocket engines.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

A. 1 only

B. 2 and 3

C. 1 and 2

D. 3 only

Answer: A

Explanation

PSLV (Polar Satellite Launch Vehicle) is primarily used to launch Earth observation/monitoring satellites, while GSLV (Geosynchronous Satellite Launch Vehicle) is designed to launch communication satellites into geosynchronous transfer orbits.

Satellites launched by PSLV are typically placed in polar or sun-synchronous orbits, which are not geosynchronous. These satellites appear to move across the sky as viewed from a particular location on Earth.

The GSLV Mk III is a three-stage launch vehicle, not a four-stage one. The first stage uses solid rocket motors, the second stage uses liquid rocket engines, and the third stage uses a cryogenic rocket engine.

So, only the first statement is correct.


QUESTION 11

MediumScience & TechnologyPrelims 2018

What is "Terminal High Altitude Area Defense (THAAD)", sometimes seen in the news?

A. An Israeli radar system

B. India's indigenous anti-missile programme

C. An American anti-missile system

D. A defence collaboration between Japan and South Korea

Answer: C

Explanation

THAAD is a missile defense system developed by the United States to intercept and destroy short, medium, and intermediate-range ballistic missiles during their terminal phase of flight.

It is designed to defend against threats both within and outside the Earth's atmosphere, providing protection against potential missile attacks.

THAAD has been deployed by the United States military and has also been sold to allied countries such as South Korea and Saudi Arabia.


QUESTION 12

MediumScience & TechnologyPrelims 2018

With reference to the Genetically Modified mustard (GM mustard) developed in India, consider the following statements :

  1. GM mustard has the genes of a soil bacterium that gives the plant the property of pest-resistance to a wide variety of pests.
  2. GM mustard has the genes that allow the plant cross-pollination and hybridization.
  3. GM mustard has been developed jointly by the IARI and Punjab Agricultural University.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

A. 1 and 3 only

B. 2 only

C. 2 and 3 only

D. 1, 2 and 3

Answer: B

Explanation

Dhara Mustard Hybrid-11, otherwise known as DMH - 11, is a genetically modified hybrid variety of the mustard species Brassica juncea.

The GM mustard developed in India does not have the property of pest-resistance. It has been genetically modified for hybridization and increased yield, not for pest-resistance.

The GM mustard has been developed with genes that allow it to cross-pollinate, leading to hybridization and increased yield.

The GM mustard was developed by scientists at Delhi University's Centre for Genetic Manipulation of Crop Plants (CGMCP), not by the IARI and Punjab Agricultural University.

So, only statement 2 is correct.

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