UPSC Prelims 2024 Analysis

Explanation

Fifth-generation fighter aircraft are characterized by advanced stealth, superior agility, advanced avionics, and integrated computer systems. Let's consider the aircraft listed:

1. Rafael (Rafale): This is a 4.5 generation multirole fighter aircraft developed by Dassault Aviation.

2. MiG-29: This is a fourth-generation multirole fighter aircraft developed by Mikoyan in the Soviet Union.

3. Tejas MK-1: This is a fourth-generation light multirole fighter aircraft developed by Hindustan Aeronautics Limited (HAL) in India.

 None of the above aircraft are considered fifth-generation fighter aircraft.

Explanation

Statement-I: The Indian Flying Fox is placed under the vermin category in the Wild Life (Protection) Act, 1972.

The flying fox (Pteropus giganteus) is generally considered a vermin as they raid orchards. It had a similar official status under Schedule V of the Wildlife (Protection) Act of 1972

Though now it is put on the Schedule II list entailing a higher degree of protection.

Statement-II: The Indian Flying Fox feeds on the blood of other animals.

This statement is incorrect. The Indian Flying Fox is a frugivore, meaning it primarily feeds on fruits, nectar, and flowers, not on the blood of other animals.

Hence, statement 1 is correct while statement 2 is incorrect.

Explanation

Explanation:

Writ of Prohibition:

• It is a judicial order issued by a higher court (Supreme Court or High Court) to a lower court or tribunal.

• It prevents the lower court from exceeding its jurisdiction or acting contrary to law.

• Purpose: To stop ongoing proceedings in a case where the lower court lacks jurisdiction or violates legal procedures.

• Nature: It is preventive, ensuring the lower court does not act unlawfully rather than correcting a wrong decision after it has occurred.

• Example: If a tribunal starts hearing a case that legally falls under the jurisdiction of a civil court, the Writ of Prohibition can halt such proceedings.

• Comparison with Certiorari: Prohibition is issued before judgment to stop proceedings, whereas Certiorari is issued after judgment to quash orders passed unlawfully.

Explanation

Explanation:

• Collateral Borrowing and Lending Obligations (CBLO) are instruments of the: C. Money market

• CBLO is a money market instrument that facilitates borrowing and lending operations on a collateralized basis. It is used by banks, financial institutions, and other entities to manage their short-term liquidity requirements.

Explanation

Explanation:

Statement-I:  This statement is correct. If the United States of America (USA) were to default on its debt, holders of US Treasury Bonds would not be able to exercise their claims to receive payment. This statement is correct because, in the

• event of a default, the government would not be able to fulfil its debt obligations, meaning bondholders would not receive the payments they are due.

• Statement-II: This statement is correct. The US government debt is not backed by any hard assets, but only by the faith of the Government. This statement is also correct. US Government debt, such as Treasury Bonds, is backed by the full faith and credit of the US Government rather than any specific physical assets.

Statement II explains Statement I because the faith and credit of the US Government are the guarantees behind its debt. If this faith is shaken or if the government defaults, bondholders cannot claim any specific assets to recover their investment, hence they would not receive their payments.

Explanation

Explanation:

• Statement 1 is correct. The Government of India Act, 1935, proposed an All India Federation that would encompass both the British Indian Provinces and the Princely States. However, this federation never fully materialized due to the reluctance of many Princely States to join.

• Statement 2 is incorrect. The Act reserved key subjects like Defence and Foreign Affairs under the control of the Governor General, representing the British Crown, and not the federal legislature. This ensured British dominance in these crucial areas.

Explanation

Explanation:

• Insurance Companies: Insurance companies have large funds that they need to invest securely for long-term returns. Corporate bonds and government securities fit this investment profile. Hence, this statement is correct.

• Pension Funds: Similar to insurance companies, pension funds manage retirement savings and need safe, long-term investment avenues like corporate bonds and government securities. Hence, this statement is correct.

• Retail Investors: Retail investors can also invest in corporate bonds and government securities, though the process might be slightly more complex than investing in stocks. Various platforms and brokers facilitate such investments. Hence, this statement is correct.

Therefore, all three statements are correct.

Explanation

Dr. Sachchidananda Sinha was elected as the Provisional President of the Constituent Assembly on December 9, 1946. This was a temporary position. He served as the Chairman for two days, after which Dr. Rajendra Prasad was elected as the President of the Constituent Assembly on December 11, 1946.

Here's why the other options are incorrect:

• C. Rajagopalachari: He was the last Governor-General of India and played a significant role in the Indian independence movement.

• Dr. B.R. Ambedkar: He was the Chairman of the Drafting Committee of the Constitution.

•  T.T. Krishnamachari: He was a prominent member of the Constituent Assembly and later served as the Finance Minister of India.

Explanation

• The 71st Amendment Act, 1992 amended the Eighth Schedule of the Indian Constitution to include Konkani, Manipuri, and Nepali languages.

• These languages were added to grant official recognition and promote their cultural and linguistic development.

• Konkani is primarily spoken in Goa, Manipuri in Manipur, and Nepali in Sikkim and Darjeeling (West Bengal).

• Maithili, however, was added later through the 92nd Amendment Act, 2003, along with Bodo, Dogri, and Santhali.

Explanation

Explanation:

Article 368 of the Indian Constitution outlines the process for amending the Constitution. It grants Parliament the authority to amend any provision of the Constitution by way of:

• Addition

  • Parliament can add new provisions or articles to the Constitution that were not originally included. This allows the Constitution to evolve by incorporating new concepts or requirements.

  • Example: The 93rd Amendment Act, 2005 added Article 15(5), which allows for reservations in educational institutions for backward classes.

• Variation

  • Parliament has the power to modify or alter existing provisions of the Constitution. This means changes can be made to existing articles without removing them entirely.

  • Example: The 42nd Amendment Act, 1976 altered several provisions, including changes to the Preamble and the relationship between the President and Parliament.

• Repeal

  • Parliament can also repeal provisions of the Constitution, effectively removing them. This allows for the removal of outdated or irrelevant provisions.

  • Example: The 26th Amendment Act, 1971 abolished the privy purse that was being paid to former rulers of princely states.

Therefore, the correct answer is All of the above (1, 2, and 3).

Explanation

Explanation:

• Butterflies: Some butterfly species, like the Monarch butterfly, are poisonous. They consume milkweed during their larval stage, which makes them toxic to predators.

• Fish: Many fish species are poisonous, such as pufferfish, lionfish, and stonefish. They possess venom as a defense mechanism.

• Frogs: Poison dart frogs are a well-known example of poisonous frogs. Their skin secretes toxins that can be deadly.

Therefore, all three groups have poisonous species.

Explanation

• Dhuandhar: This waterfall is located on the Narmada River, but the region is not Malwa. It is in Madhya Pradesh Mahakoshal region. Hence, pair 1 is incorrectly matched.

• Hundru: This waterfall is indeed located on the Subarnarekha River within the Chota Nagpur Plateau. Hence, pair 2 is correctly matched.

• Gersoppa (also known as Jog Falls): This waterfall is on the Sharavati River in the Western Ghats, not the Netravati River. Hence, pair 3 is incorrectly matched.

Explanation

Explanation:

• Statement I is incorrect: India does import apples from the USA. In fact, the USA is one of the major sources of apple imports for India.

• Statement II is correct: India has stringent regulations regarding the import of Genetically Modified (GM) food. The Genetic Engineering Appraisal Committee (GEAC) is the competent authority responsible for assessing the safety of GM crops and foods. Importing GM food without GEAC approval is illegal.

• Therefore, statement 1 is incorrect, while statement 2 is correct.

Explanation

Explanation:

• The Reserve Bank of India requires foreign banks operating as wholly owned subsidiaries to maintain a minimum capital requirement. As of current regulations, the RBI mandates that these subsidiaries must have a minimum paid-up voting equity capital of ₹5 billion (₹500 crore). Hence, statement 1 is incorrect.

• The RBI has set guidelines that require at least 50% of the board members of wholly-owned banking subsidiaries in India to be Indian nationals. This measure ensures that there is adequate local representation in the governance of these banks. Hence, statement 2 is correct.

Explanation

• Statement 1: Lions do not have a particular breeding season.: This statement is correct. Lions can breed throughout the year, but they do show some seasonal preferences depending on their location and environmental factors like rainfall.

• Statement 2: Unlike most other big cats, cheetahs do not roar.: This statement is correct. Cheetahs have a different vocal structure compared to lions, tigers, leopards, and jaguars, preventing them from roaring. They purr, chirp, and make other bird-like sounds.

• Statement 3: Unlike male lions, male leopards do not proclaim their territory by scent marking.: This statement is incorrect. Both male lions and male leopards use scent marking extensively to define their territories. They spray urine and scrape the ground, leaving both olfactory and visual signals for other cats.

Therefore, only statements 1 and 2 are correct.

Explanation

• Insolation reaches the earth's surface in short waves and heat is radiated from the earth in long waves, Hence energy leaving the earth's surface i.e. terrestrial radiation heats up the atmosphere more than the incoming solar radiation i.e. insolation.

Hence, statement 1 is incorrect.

• Greenhouse gases in the atmosphere (such as water vapour and carbon dioxide) absorb most of the Earth's emitted longwave infrared radiation, which heats the lower atmosphere.

Hence, statement 2 is correct.

Explanation

Explanation: 

On June 21st, the Summer Solstice, the Earth's tilt positions the North Pole at its maximum inclination towards the Sun. Let's analyze each option:

• Equator: The equator receives 12 hours of daylight throughout the year, regardless of the season.

• Tropic of Cancer: On June 21st, the Sun is directly overhead at the Tropic of Cancer. Locations at and north of this latitude experience their longest day of the year, with more than 12 hours of daylight.

• Tropic of Capricorn: This latitude is in the Southern Hemisphere, experiencing its shortest day of the year on June 21st with less than 12 hours of daylight.

• Arctic Circle: On June 21st, the Arctic Circle experiences 24 hours of daylight. 

Therefore, both the Tropic of Cancer and the Arctic Circle experience more than 12 hours of daylight on June 21st.

Explanation

Explanation: 

Understanding Isotherms and Their Behavior

• Isotherms are lines on a map connecting points with the same temperature. 

• January is a winter month in the Northern Hemisphere.

• Land and Water Heating Differences: Land heats up and cools down faster than water. This leads to significant temperature differences between continents and oceans in winter.

Statement 1: Correct

• In January, continents are colder than oceans in the Northern Hemisphere. 

• Isotherms bend northward over oceans, indicating warmer temperatures. 

• Isotherms bend southward over continents, indicating colder temperatures.

Statement 2: Incorrect

• The Gulf Stream and North Atlantic Drift are warm ocean currents, not cold. 

• These currents bring warm water from the tropics towards Europe, making the North Atlantic relatively warmer in winter. 

• Isotherms bend northward over the North Atlantic due to these warm currents.

Conclusion: Only statement 1 is a correct inference from isothermal maps in January.

Explanation

Explanation:

• Statement 1 is incorrect: The President of India, not the Governor of a State, has the power to specify a community as a Scheduled Tribe (ST) for a particular state or Union Territory. This is done through a notification in the Official Gazette, after consultation with the concerned State government.

• Statement 2 is correct: The specification of Scheduled Tribes is not uniform across the country. A community recognized as an ST in one State may not be recognized as such in another State. This is because the criteria for scheduling are based on social, educational, and economic backwardness, which can vary across regions.

Explanation

• Chhau dance - Chhau is a traditional Indian dance-drama form originating from eastern India, primarily in Odisha, Jharkhand, and West Bengal. It has three styles: Seraikella Chhau (Jharkhand), Mayurbhanj Chhau (Odisha) and Purulia Chhau (West Bengal). Chhau dance got inscribed in the UNESCO Representative List of the Intangible Cultural Heritage of Humanity in the year 2010. 

*   Please Note: Chhau is basically a mask dance. However, Mayurbhanj Chhau is the only one which is performed without a mask.
    

• Durga Puja (West Bengal) - It is an annual Hindu festival particularly significant in West Bengal, Assam, Odisha, and other parts of India. Durga Puja was added to the UNESCO Representative List of the Intangible Cultural Heritage of Humanity in the year 2021.

• Garba Dance (Gujarat) -  has been inscribed in the Representative List of Intangible Cultural Heritage (ICH) of Humanity by UNESCO, under the provisions of the 2003 Convention for the Safeguarding of Intangible Cultural Heritage during the 18th meeting of the Intergovernmental Committee for the Safeguarding of the Intangible Cultural Heritage from 5th -9th December 2023 in Kasane, Botswana.

• Kumbh Mela -  Kumbh Mela is a major Hindu pilgrimage and festival celebrated at four sites: Prayagraj (Uttar Pradesh), Haridwar (Uttarakhand), Ujjain (Madhya Pradesh) and Nashik (Maharashtra). The Kumbh Mela was recognized as an Intangible Cultural Heritage of Humanity in the year 2017.

Explanation

Explanation:

About the North Eastern Council (NEC):

• Established under the North Eastern Council Act, 1971 to promote economic and social development in the Northeast region of India.

• The Act was amended in 2002 to expand its role and membership.

Composition of the NEC (After 2002 Amendment):

• Governors of all 8 constituent states (Arunachal Pradesh, Assam, Manipur, Meghalaya, Mizoram, Nagaland, Sikkim, and Tripura).

• Chief Ministers of these 8 states.

• Three members nominated by the President of India.

Clarification about the Home Minister:

• The Union Home Minister is not a member of the NEC.

• Instead, the Union Minister for Development of North Eastern Region (DoNER) functions as the ex-officio Chairman of the NEC.

The NEC Act was amended by the Parliament in 2002 (Act No. 68 of 2002).

Explanation

Explanation:

The correct answer is (D) Subrahmanyam Jaishankar.

• Subrahmanyam Jaishankar is an Indian diplomat and politician serving as the Minister of External Affairs of India since 2019. He has authored two prominent books:

•  'The India Way: Strategies for an Uncertain World' (2020) which provides insights into India's foreign policy approach.

•  'Why Bharat Matters' is a compilation of his articles and speeches that delve into India's global significance.

Explanation

• Statement 1: Correct. The Corporate Social Responsibility (CSR) rules in India state that expenditures aimed at benefiting the company's business interests or its employees (such as those related to employee welfare or activities that are a direct business benefit) will not be counted as CSR activities. The focus of CSR is on activities that benefit society at large and not just the company or its direct stakeholders.

• Statement 2: Incorrect. Under the Companies Act, 2013, CSR rules do specify a minimum spending requirement. Companies meeting certain criteria (like having a net worth of ₹500 crore or more, or an annual turnover of ₹1,000 crore or more, or a net profit of ₹5 crore or more) must allocate at least 2% of their average net profits over the last three years towards CSR activities.

So, the correct answer is: A. 1 only

Explanation

Explanation:

• Statement 1 is incorrect: There is no specific information available about which Lok Sabha session the provisions will be implemented. 

• Statement 2 is correct: The reservation will be provided for a period of 15 years. However, it shall continue till such date as determined by a law made by Parliament.

Statement 3 is also correct: In the seats reserved for SCs/STs, the Bill sought to provide one-third of the seats to be reserved for women on a rotational basis.

Explanation

• Italy and Japan are often cited as prime examples of countries with rapidly ageing populations and very low birth rates. Both countries have been grappling with the economic and social consequences of these demographic trends for several years.

• South Korea has also emerged as a country with significant demographic concerns. Its fertility rate is one of the lowest in the world, and its population is projected to start declining in the coming years.

• Nigeria and South Africa, while facing their own set of demographic challenges, are generally not highlighted for low birth rates or declining populations. Nigeria has a very young and rapidly growing population. South Africa’s population growth has slowed in recent years, but it is not yet experiencing a decline.

Explanation

Explanation:

• Membrane Bioreactors are often discussed in the context of: D. Wastewater treatment technologies.

• Membrane Bioreactors (MBRs) combine a membrane process like microfiltration or ultrafiltration with a biological wastewater treatment process. 

• They are used to improve the quality of treated wastewater and are known for their efficiency in removing contaminants.

Explanation

Explanation:

• Farmer's plough - Working capital - Incorrect: A farmer's plough is a long-term asset used repeatedly over time, making it fixed capital.

• Computer - Fixed capital - Correct: A computer is a long-term asset used over a period of time, making it fixed capital.

• Yarn used by the weaver - Fixed capital - Incorrect: Yarn is consumed in the production process and needs to be replaced regularly, making it working capital.

• Petrol - Working capital - Correct: Petrol is consumed in the production process and needs to be replenished regularly, making it working capital.

Therefore, only two pairs are correctly matched.

Explanation

• Statement 1: Correct India is indeed a member of the International Grains Council (IGC). 

• Statement 2: Incorrect Membership in the IGC is not a prerequisite for engaging in the rice and wheat trade. Countries that are not members can still export and import these grains. The IGC primarily serves as a forum for intergovernmental cooperation and policy discussion on grain trade.

Explanation

Nitric oxide (NO) is synthesized in the human body by the enzyme nitric oxide synthase from the amino acid arginine. It plays a crucial role in dilating blood vessels, which increases blood flow and reduces blood pressure. This function helps in regulating cardiovascular health.

Why the other options are incorrect:

B. Nitrous oxide: Used as an anesthetic, not a vasodilator.

C. Nitrogen dioxide: A toxic air pollutant, not involved in vasodilation.

D. Nitrogen pentoxide: A reactive compound, not related to blood vessel dilation.

Explanation

All three plants—Groundnut, Horse-gram, and Soybean—belong to the pea family, scientifically known as Leguminosae or Fabaceae. This family is characterized by plants that produce legumes (pods containing seeds). Here's a breakdown of each:

• Groundnut (Arachis hypogaea):

  • Groundnut, also known as peanut, belongs to the Leguminosae family. It produces peanuts, which grow underground in pods, typical of legumes.

  • It is part of the subfamily Faboideae, a major division within the pea family.

• Horse-gram (Macrotyloma uniflorum):

  • Horse-gram is another plant in the Leguminosae family. It is commonly cultivated in tropical regions and is known for its high protein content and use in animal feed and food.

  • It belongs to the subfamily Faboideae as well.

• Soybean (Glycine max):

  • Soybean, one of the most important leguminous crops, also belongs to the Leguminosae family. It is widely grown for its edible beans and oil extraction.

  • Soybean is part of the subfamily Faboideae too.

All three plants are legumes, characterized by their pod-like fruit and ability to fix nitrogen from the atmosphere through a symbiotic relationship with bacteria in their root nodules.

Explanation

• Bharatiya Jana Sangh | Dr. Shyama Prasad Mukherjee: This is correctly matched. Dr. Shyama Prasad Mukherjee was the founder and first president of the Bharatiya Jana Sangh (BJS), the forerunner of the Bharatiya Janata Party (BJP).

• Socialist Party | C. Rajagopalachari: This is incorrect. C. Rajagopalachari founded the Swatantra Party, advocating free-market principles.

• The Socialist Party was established in the year 1934 and had leaders like Acharya Narendra Dev, Jayaprakash Narayan, Yusuf Mehrali, Mino Masani, Acchut Patwardhan and Ashok Mehta. 

• Congress for Democracy | Jagjivan Ram: This is correctly matched. Congress for Democracy (CFD) was a political party founded by Jagjivan Ram in 1977 after breaking away from the Indian National Congress. It was a short-lived party, formed during the Emergency to oppose Indira Gandhi's regime. It later merged with the Janata Party.

• Swatantra Party | Acharya Narendra Dev: This is incorrect. The Swatantra Party was founded by C. Rajagopalachari in 1959, advocating for free-market economic policies and opposing the socialist policies of the Congress. Acharya Narendra Dev was associated with the Socialist Party and is regarded as one of its key leaders. 

Therefore, only two pairs are correctly matched. Hence, the answer is B.

Explanation

The correct equivalent rank in the three services of Indian Defence forces are:

Thus only pair 3 is correctly matched, hence option D is the correct answer

Explanation

Explanation: 

• Statement 1: Correct - Water vapour is indeed a gas, and its concentration generally decreases with altitude. This is because the air gets colder as we go higher, and colder air has a lower capacity to hold moisture.

• Statement 2: Incorrect - The percentage of water vapour in the atmosphere is highest near the equator and decreases as we move towards the poles. This is because the tropics receive the maximum solar radiation, leading to higher temperatures and more evaporation, which in turn increases the amount of water vapour in the air.

Explanation

The Ivory Coast and Ghana are by far the two largest producers of cocoa, accounting for more than 50 per cent of the world's cocoa.

West Africa is home to the largest cocoa producing countries worldwide, with 3.9 million tonnes of production in 2022.

In fact, there are about one million farmers in Côte d’Ivoire supplying cocoa to key customers such as Nestlé, Mars, and Hershey.

However, the massive influence of this industry has led to significant forest loss to plant cocoa trees.

Explanation

1. Brazil - Indri: Indris are lemurs found only in Madagascar, not Brazil. So, this pair is incorrect.

2. Indonesia - Elk: Elks are found in North America, Europe, and Asia, but not in Indonesia. This pair is incorrect.

3. Madagascar - Bonobo: Bonobos are found in the Democratic Republic of Congo, not Madagascar. This pair is also incorrect.

Therefore, none of the pairs are correctly matched.

Explanation

Explanation:

• Statement 1: Incorrect. RTGs (Radioisotope Thermoelectric Generators) are not miniature fission reactors. Fission reactors use nuclear fission, a process of splitting atoms to release a tremendous amount of energy. RTGs, on the other hand, utilize the natural radioactive decay of isotopes to generate heat, which is then converted to electricity through a process called thermoelectricity.

• Statement 2: Correct. RTGs are indeed a reliable power source for spacecraft, especially those venturing far from the sun where solar panels become ineffective. They provide consistent, low-level electric power for extended periods, making them ideal for probes, satellites, and rovers in deep space.

• Statement 3: Correct. Plutonium-238 is a common isotope used in RTGs due to its long half-life (the time it takes for half of the material to decay) and its ability to generate a steady heat output from its decay process. While it can be a byproduct of weapons development, there are also alternative ways to produce Plutonium-238 specifically for peaceful applications like RTGs.

Explanation

Explanation:

Distributed Energy Resources (DERs) are small-scale units of power generation or storage that are situated closer to the end-users. Let's analyze each option:

• Battery storage: These store energy and can be deployed within the distribution network or at the consumer end, making them DERs.

• Biomass generators: These can be small-scale and located near the biomass source, making them suitable for distributed generation.

• Fuel cells: Similar to biomass generators, fuel cells can be deployed in a decentralized manner, qualifying as DERs.

• Rooftop solar photovoltaic units: These are a classic example of DERs, generating power at the point of consumption.

Therefore, all four options are considered Distributed Energy Resources.

Explanation

Explanation:

• The Supreme Court of India, in its landmark judgment in Justice K.S. Puttaswamy (Retd.) vs Union of India (2017), declared that the Right to Privacy is a fundamental right enshrined in the Constitution of India.

• The court held that this right is protected under Article 21 of the Constitution, which guarantees the Right to Life and Personal Liberty.

•  Article 21: States that 'No person shall be deprived of his life or personal liberty except according to the procedure established by law.' The court interpreted 'personal liberty' broadly to include various aspects of privacy.

• While the other options are fundamental rights, they are not directly where the Right to Privacy is placed:

1. Article 15: Prohibits discrimination on grounds of religion, race, caste, sex or place of birth.

2. Article 16: Guarantees equality of opportunity in matters of public employment.

Article 19: Guarantees certain freedoms like speech and expression, assembly, etc.

Explanation

• The ninth edition of the Joint Military exercise Exercise MITRA SHAKTI-2023 commenced today in Aundh (Pune). A key focus of the exercise was to enhance interoperability and coordination between the two armies for counter-terrorism operations.

• The exercise is being conducted from 16th to 29th November 2023. The Indian contingent, of 120 personnel, is being represented mainly by troops from the MARATHA LIGHT INFANTRY Regiment. The Sri Lankan side is being represented by personnel from the 53 Infantry Division. 15 personnel from the Indian Air Force and five personnel from Sri Lankan Air Force are also participating in the exercise.

Hence, statement 1 is incorrect, while statements 2, 3 and 4 are correct.

Explanation

Power plants burning fossil fuels (coal, oil, and, to a lesser extent, natural gas) are the largest source of sulfur dioxide emissions globally. Coal, in particular, contains high levels of sulfur, and when burned, it releases large amounts of SO₂.   

• Locomotives, especially older ones, use diesel fuel which contains sulfur. While locomotives do contribute to sulfur dioxide (SO₂) emissions, their contribution is relatively minor compared to larger industrial sources.  

• Ships, particularly large cargo vessels and tankers, often use bunker fuel, a heavy, sulfur-rich fuel oil. This contributes significantly to SO₂ emissions, particularly in maritime regions.  However, they are still overshadowed by emissions from power plants 

• The process of extraction of metals from ore involves heating ores that contain sulfur compounds, releasing SO₂ into the atmosphere. However, its contribution is less than that of power plants.

Explanation

Statement 1 is incorrect. Under Article 85(2) of the Constitution, the President has the authority to prorogue the Houses, or either House of Parliament, from time to time. The termination of a session of the House by an order from the President under this provision is referred to as 'prorogation.' The President exercises this power of prorogation only upon the recommendation of the Prime Minister or the Cabinet, i.e., the Council of Ministers. Statement 2 is correct. Typically, prorogation follows adjournment sine die, but technically, the President can prorogue a House even while it is in session. Statement 3 is correct. The President usually dissolves the Lok Sabha based on the advice of the Council of Ministers, except in exceptional circumstances such as a vote of no confidence or other political crises.

Explanation

Explanation:

1. Carabid beetles: Many carabid beetles are predatory, and some species are known to be parasitoids, particularly of other insects. 

2. Centipedes: Centipedes are predatory arthropods and not parasitoids. They hunt and kill their prey.

3. Flies: The order Diptera (flies) includes a large number of parasitoid species. For example, Tachinid flies are parasitoids of various insects.

4. Termites: Termites are not parasitoids. They are social insects that primarily feed on wood and other plant matter.

5. Wasps: The order Hymenoptera (wasps, bees, ants) has numerous parasitoid species. Many wasp species are parasitoids, laying their eggs on or in other insects.

Therefore, parasitoid species are found in Carabid beetles, Flies, and Wasps.

Explanation

Explanation:

• Statement 1: PFAS are found to be widespread in drinking water, food and food packaging materials. This statement is TRUE. PFAS are used in a wide range of consumer products, and due to their persistence, they can leach into the environment and contaminate water sources, food, and packaging materials.

• Statement 2: PFAS are not easily degraded in the environment. This statement is TRUE. PFAS are known as 'forever chemicals' because the strong carbon-fluorine bond makes them highly resistant to natural degradation processes. This persistence leads to their accumulation in the environment.

• Statement 3: Persistent exposure to PFAS can lead to bioaccumulation in animal bodies. This statement is TRUE. Because PFAS don't break down easily, they can build up in the tissues of animals and humans over time, leading to potential health concerns.

Therefore, all three statements are correct.

Explanation

The border between Canada and the United States is the longest international border in the world, stretching approximately 8,891 kilometers (5,525 miles), including the border shared with Alaska. It is a peaceful boundary and includes both land and water segments.

Chile and Argentina:

• Length: Approx. 5,308 kilometres

• This is the third-longest international border in the world and the longest in South America.

• It follows the Andes mountain range for most of its length, with several high-altitude border crossings.

China and India:

• Length: Approx. 3,488 kilometers

• This border is the longest for India and spans regions like Ladakh, Himachal Pradesh, Uttarakhand, Sikkim, and Arunachal Pradesh.

• It is highly disputed in areas such as Aksai Chin and Arunachal Pradesh, leading to occasional tensions between the two nations.

Kazakhstan and Russian Federation:

• Length: Approx. 7,644 kilometers

• This is the second-longest international border in the world.

• It is largely flat, passing through vast steppes, and is a vital region for trade and natural resources between the two countries.

Explanation

Explanation:

Radars can be used in the following activities:

• Identification of narcotics on passengers at airports or in aircraft: This is typically done using X-ray scanners or advanced imaging technologies like millimeter wave scanners, not traditional radar.

• Monitoring of precipitation: Radars, specifically weather radars, are commonly used to monitor precipitation. They can detect rain, snow, and other weather conditions by bouncing radio waves off precipitation particles.

• Tracking the migration of animals: Radars can be used to track the migration of birds and other animals. They are often used in ornithological studies to monitor bird migration patterns.

Explanation

• The number of children born per 1000 people in the population in a year. This describes the crude birth rate, not the total fertility rate.

• The number of children born to a couple in their lifetime in a given population. This is close but not quite accurate. The total fertility rate is calculated for women, not couples.

• The birth rate minus death rate. This defines the rate of natural increase, which indicates population growth, not fertility.

• The average number of live births a woman would have by the end of her child-bearing age. This is the correct definition of Total Fertility Rate (TFR). It's a hypothetical measure assuming a woman lives through her childbearing years and experiences the age-specific fertility rates of a given period.

  • In simple terms, TFR tells us the average number of children a woman would have if current birth trends continued.

Explanation

•  Statement 1 is incorrect. Chandraketugarh, located in West Bengal, not Odisha, was an ancient port city known for its extensive trade networks.

•  Statement 2 is correct. Inamgaon is a well-known archaeological site in Maharashtra, providing valuable insights into the Chalcolithic period.

•  Statement 3 is correct. Kerala has numerous megalithic sites, The megalithic monuments at Mangadu consisted of 28 hard compact and unhewn laterite blocks within an area of 5 cents of land.

• Statement 4 is incorrect. Salihundam, is a village and panchayat in Gara Mandal of Srikakulam district in Andhra Pradesh. It is a historically important Buddhist monument of ancient Kalinga, not rock-cut caves.

Therefore, the correctly matched rows are 2 and 3.

Explanation

• Finland: Finland borders the Baltic Sea, not the North Sea.

• Germany: Germany shares a border with the North Sea.

• Norway: Norway has a long coastline along the North Sea.

• Russia: Russia does not border the North Sea.

• In total 7 countries border the North Sea - United Kingdom, Norway, Denmark, Germany, The Netherlands, Belgium, France.

Therefore, only Germany and Norway border the North Sea.

Explanation

• Statement 1 is correct. According to Article 96(2) of the Indian Constitution, the Speaker cannot preside while a resolution for his/her removal is under consideration. However, they can vote on the resolution.

• Statement 2 is incorrect. The Speaker retains the right to speak even during the proceedings of their removal.

Statement 3 is incorrect. The Speaker is entitled to vote on the resolution for their removal. They do not have a casting vote in this instance.

Explanation

• Statement I: This statement is correct. The Sumed Pipeline is indeed a significant route for transporting oil and natural gas from the Persian Gulf to Europe. It bypasses the Suez Canal, offering an alternative path for these resources.

• Statement II: This statement is also correct. The Sumed Pipeline physically connects the Red Sea (where oil and gas are loaded onto ships from the Persian Gulf) with the Mediterranean Sea, providing a direct route for them to reach European ports.

• The connection between the Red Sea and the Mediterranean Sea established by the Sumed Pipeline directly explains its strategic importance for transporting oil and gas to Europe.  Statement II provides the geographical context for how Statement I functions.

Explanation

• Powers of the Municipalities are given in Part IX A of the Constitution. - This statement is correct. Part IXA of the Indian Constitution (added by the 74th Amendment Act, 1992) deals with Municipalities and provides for their powers and functions.

• Emergency provisions are given in Part XVIII of the Constitution. - This statement is correct. Part XVIII of the Indian Constitution (Articles 352 to 360) deals with 'Emergency Provisions' outlining situations like national emergency, state emergency, and financial emergency.

• Provisions related to the amendment of the Constitution are given in Part XX of the Constitution - This statement is correct. Part XX of the Indian Constitution contains only Article 368, which deals with the power of the Parliament to amend the Constitution and the procedure for it.

Therefore, all three statements are correct.

Explanation

1. Permanent Chairman of Chiefs of Staff Committee: This is correct. The CDS is designated as the Permanent Chairman of the Chiefs of Staff Committee (COSC), which includes the chiefs of the Army, Navy, and Air Force.

2. Exercise military command over the three Service Chiefs: This is incorrect. The CDS does not have direct operational command authority over the three service chiefs. The service chiefs continue to exercise operational command over their respective services. The CDS acts as a coordinator and advisor, promoting jointness and integration among the services.

3. Principal Military Advisor to Defence Minister on all tri-service matters: This is correct. The CDS acts as the single-point military advisor to the Defence Minister on matters related to all three services. This ensures streamlined and integrated military advice to the political leadership.  

4. Additional Information - The creation of the post of the Chief of Defence Staff was recommended by these committees: Group of Ministers (2001), Naresh Chandra Committee and D.B. Shekatkar Committee. 

Therefore, the correct statements are 1 and 3.

Explanation

Sanghabhuti was a prominent Buddhist scholar known for his work on the Sarvastivada school of Buddhism, particularly their Vinaya texts. Vinaya texts focus on monastic rules and discipline.  He traveled to China to translate these texts, making them accessible to Chinese Buddhists.

Let's look at the other options:

• Prajnaparamita Sutra: These sutras are central to Mahayana Buddhism and focus on the concept of 'emptiness' (sunyata). While important, they are not primarily associated with Sanghabhuti's work.

• Visuddhimagga: This text, meaning 'Path of Purification,' is a comprehensive Theravada Buddhist treatise written by Buddhaghosa, not Sanghabhuti.

• Lalitavistara: This Mahayana sutra narrates the life of the Buddha and is not directly linked to Sanghabhuti's scholarship.

Explanation

• Storage of agricultural produce | Secondary (Incorrect) - Storage is a tertiary activity. It falls under the service sector, facilitating the smooth flow of goods from producers to consumers.

• Dairy farm | Primary (Correct) - Dairy farming involves the direct extraction of raw materials (milk) from natural resources (animals). Hence, it's a primary activity.

• Mineral exploration | Tertiary (Incorrect) - Mineral exploration is a primary activity. It involves extracting raw materials from the earth.

• Weaving cloth | Secondary (Correct) - Weaving cloth transforms raw materials (cotton, silk, etc.) into a finished product (cloth). This transformation signifies a secondary activity.

Therefore, only two pairs are correctly matched.

Explanation

• Statement 1: Correct: The Ethics Committee of Lok Sabha was initially an ad-hoc committee formed in 1952. It became a standing committee in 1997.

• Statement 2: Incorrect: Any person can make a complaint to the Ethics Committee of Lok Sabha against a Member of Parliament for unethical conduct. It doesn't necessarily have to be another Member of Parliament.

• Statement 3: Correct: The Ethics Committee of Lok Sabha cannot take up any matter that is sub-judice, meaning a matter that is currently under consideration by a court or other judicial authority.

Therefore, only statements 1 and 3 are correct.

Explanation

Explanation: 

• Donyi Polo Airport (Itanagar, Arunachal Pradesh): This newly constructed airport was inaugurated in 2022. It was built on undeveloped land, making it a greenfield project.

• Kushinagar International Airport (Uttar Pradesh): This airport was inaugurated in 2021. It was also built as a new entity on undeveloped land, qualifying as a greenfield project.

• Vijayawada International Airport (Andhra Pradesh): This airport has existed for several decades. While it has undergone significant expansion and modernization, it wasn't built from scratch on undeveloped land. Therefore, it's not a greenfield project.

Therefore, only Donyi Polo Airport and Kushinagar International Airport are greenfield projects.

Explanation

Explanation:

• Statement 1: Incorrect. The Pradhan Mantri Surakshit Matritva Abhiyan (PMSMA) provides a minimum package of antenatal care (ANC) services only during the second and third trimesters of pregnancy. It does not cover post-delivery health care services for six months. The focus is on ensuring safe pregnancies through early detection and management of high-risk cases.

• Statement 2:  Correct. Under PMSMA, private sector health care providers (such as gynecologists, radiologists, and physicians) can volunteer to provide free services at nearby government health facilities on the 9th of every month. This public-private partnership enhances access to specialized care for pregnant women.

Explanation

Explanation:

100 Million Farmers: The 100 Million Farmers initiative, launched by The World Economic Forum (WEF), seeks to drive a global movement focused on accelerating the adoption of regenerative agriculture and climate adaptation practices at the farm level. This initiative aims to transition towards sustainable food and water systems. It focuses on achieving net-zero carbon emissions, enhancing nature positivity, and improving farmers' resilience to climate change and market fluctuations.

Let's look at why the other options are incorrect:

•  Option B: This describes organizations promoting organic animal husbandry, not the '100 Million Farmers' initiative.

•  Option C: This refers to a blockchain-based platform for fertilizer trading, which is not the core focus of '100 Million Farmers.'

•  Option D: While farmer collectives are important, '100 Million Farmers has a broader scope encompassing sustainable practices and climate resilience.

Explanation

Explanation:

• Statement 1 is incorrect. The World Toilet Organization (WTO) is not an agency of the United Nations. It is an international non-profit organization.

• Statement 2 is correct. The WTO is known for its initiatives like World Toilet Summit, World Toilet Day, and World Toilet College, all aimed at addressing the global sanitation crisis.

• Statement 3 is incorrect. While the WTO advocates for improved sanitation and hygiene, its primary function is not to grant funds. It focuses on advocacy, education, and capacity building to achieve its goals.

Therefore, only statement 2 is correct.

Explanation

Coriolis Force: The Coriolis force is an inertial force that acts on objects in motion within a rotating frame of reference. On Earth, this force causes moving objects (like air masses or ocean currents) to deflect to the right in the Northern Hemisphere and to the left in the Southern Hemisphere.

• Statement 1 is correct: It increases with an increase in wind velocity - The magnitude of the Coriolis force is directly proportional to the speed of the moving object. Faster winds experience a stronger Coriolis deflection.

• Statement 2 is correct: It is maximum at the poles and is absent at the equator. - The Coriolis force is strongest at the poles because the Earth's rotation is fastest at these points. At the equator, the Earth's surface moves parallel to the axis of rotation, resulting in zero Coriolis effect.

Therefore, both statements 1 and 2 are correct.

Explanation

Explanation:

• Statement 1 is incorrect: While the Union Finance Minister does present the Annual Financial Statement in Parliament, it is not done 'on behalf of the Prime Minister', but the President of India. As Article 112 reads The President shall in respect of every financial year cause to be laid before both the Houses of Parliament a statement of the estimated receipts and expenditure of the Government of India for that year, in this Part, referred to as the annual financial statement.

• Statement 2 is correct: Article 113 of the Indian Constitution explicitly states that no demand for a grant can be made unless it's recommended by the President. This ensures executive control over the legislature in financial matters.

Explanation

Explanation:

Congo Basin Peatlands: The Congo Basin in Central Africa is home to the world's largest tropical peatland complex. This vast peatland stores an immense amount of carbon, estimated to be equivalent to about three years of global fossil fuel emissions. 

Importance of Peatlands: Peatlands are a critical carbon sink. They store more carbon than all the world's forests combined. When peatlands are drained or degraded, this stored carbon is released into the atmosphere, contributing to climate change. The Republic of Congo, the Democratic Republic of Cong and Indonesia are parties to the Brazzaville Declaration, aimed at protecting the Cuvette Centrale region in the Congo Basin, the world’s largest tropical peatlands, from unregulated land use and preventing its drainage and degradation. 

Other Options: 

• Amazon Basin: While the Amazon is known for its vast rainforests, it is not the primary location of the world's largest tropical peatland.

•  Kikori Basin: The Kikori Basin is located in Papua New Guinea and contains significant peatlands, but not the largest tropical peatland complex.

• Rio de la Plata Basin: This basin in South America is primarily known for its grasslands and is not associated with major peatland areas.

Explanation

Pumped-storage hydropower (PSH) is used for long-duration energy storage. It works by pumping water to a higher reservoir during low electricity demand and releasing it to generate power during peak demand. This process helps balance the grid supply and demand, making PSH an effective tool for energy storage over extended periods.

Thus, the correct answer is C.

Explanation

Explanation: 

• Statement-I: Correct - The troposphere is thicker at the equator than at the poles. This is because the equator receives more direct sunlight, leading to warmer temperatures and greater air expansion. This expanded air results in a greater height of the troposphere.

• Statement-II: Correct - Convection is a significant mode of heat transfer in the atmosphere. At the equator, intense solar heating causes air to rise rapidly in strong convectional currents. This rising air carries heat to higher altitudes, contributing to the vertical distribution of heat in the troposphere.

Statement II directly explains Statement I. The strong convectional currents mentioned in Statement II are the primary reason for the greater thickness of the troposphere at the equator, as explained in Statement I. The rising air due to convection leads to the expansion and increased height of the troposphere in equatorial regions.

Explanation

• Statement 1 is correct. The digital rupee, also known as the e-rupee or Central Bank Digital Currency (CBDC), is indeed a sovereign currency issued by the RBI. It's a digital representation of India's fiat currency and is part of the RBI's monetary policy toolkit.

• Statement 2 is correct. Like physical currency, the digital rupee is a liability on the RBI's balance sheet. When you hold digital rupees, it's essentially a claim you have on the RBI, similar to holding physical banknotes.

• Statement 3 is incorrect. The digital rupee, by itself, doesn't come with inherent inflation protection. Its value, like physical currency, is subject to inflationary pressures. The RBI manages inflation through its monetary policy measures, not through the inherent design of the digital rupee.

• Statement 4 is correct. The digital rupee is designed to be freely convertible. This means you can easily exchange it with bank deposits (commercial bank money) and cash at a 1:1 ratio without any restrictions.

Therefore, the correct answer is (D) - 1, 2 and 4.

Explanation

• Statement 1 is incorrect: Upanishads are known for their philosophical dialogues and teachings, and they often employ allegories and parables to convey complex ideas. For example, the Chandogya Upanishad contains the well-known parable of 'Satyakama Jabala' and his search for truth.

• Statement 2 is correct: Upanishads form the concluding part of the Vedas and are known as 'Vedanta' (the end of the Vedas). They are believed to have been composed between 800-500 BCE. Puranas, on the other hand, are a later genre of Hindu texts, composed from around the 3rd century CE onwards.

Explanation

Explanation:

• Statement 1: The Red Sea is located in a desert region with very high temperatures and low humidity. This leads to very little rainfall or any form of precipitation.

• Statement 2: Due to its location, no major rivers are flowing into the Red Sea. The water in the Red Sea comes primarily from the inflow of saltier water from the Gulf of Aden through the Bab el-Mandeb Strait.

Hence, both statements (1 and 2) are correct.

Explanation

• Statement-I: There is instability and worsening security situation in the Sahel region. This statement is correct as the Sahel region has been experiencing significant instability and security challenges, including terrorism, armed conflict, and humanitarian crises.

• Statement-II: There have been military takeovers/coups d'état in several countries of the Sahel region in the recent past. This statement is also correct. Several countries in the Sahel region, such as Mali, Burkina Faso, and Chad, have experienced military coups in recent years.

• Statement-II explains Statement-I because the military takeovers and coups contribute to the instability and worsening security situation in the Sahel region. The political instability resulting from these coups disrupts governance, exacerbates conflict, and undermines efforts to address security and development challenges in the region.

Explanation

Explanation:

Hydrogels are used in the following applications:

• Controlled drug delivery in patients: Hydrogels are commonly used in biomedical applications, including controlled drug delivery systems, due to their ability to absorb and release drugs in a controlled manner.

• Mobile air-conditioning systems: Hydrogels can be used in evaporative cooling systems, including mobile air-conditioning systems, where they help in the absorption and release of water to enhance cooling.

• Preparation of industrial lubricants: Hydrogels are not typically used in the preparation of industrial lubricants. Lubricants generally require materials with specific viscosity and stability properties that hydrogels do not provide.

Explanation

Explanation: 

• Gomati: The Gomti River originates in the Central Himalayas and joins the Ganga near Varanasi, Uttar Pradesh.

• Ghaghara: The Ghaghara River, also known as the Ghagra-Rapti River, is the largest tributary of the Ganga. It originates in the Nepal Himalayas and joins the Ganga near Chhapra, Bihar.

• Gandak: The Gandak River originates in the Nepal Himalayas and joins the Ganga near Patna, Bihar.

• Kosi: The Kosi River, also known as the Koshi River, is known for its erratic behaviour and floods. It originates in the Nepal Himalayas and joins the Ganga near Katihar, Bihar.

Therefore, the correct sequence is Gomati - Ghaghara - Gandak - Kosi.

Explanation

Explanation:

• Exchange-Traded Funds (ETFs): ETFs are baskets of securities (like stocks) that are traded on stock exchanges, similar to individual stocks. They represent a financial instrument.

• Motor vehicles: Motor vehicles are tangible assets, not financial instruments. Financial instruments represent claims to assets or cash flows.

• Currency swap: A currency swap is a derivative contract where two parties exchange principal and interest payments in different currencies. It is a type of financial instrument.

Therefore, only ETFs and currency swaps are considered financial instruments.

Explanation

Out of the four sites listed, two were included in the World Heritage List (WHS) in 2023: Shantiniketan and Sacred Ensembles of the Hoysalas. While Rani-ki-Vav was added to the WHS list in 2014 and the Mahabodhi Temple Complex at Bodhgaya in 2002.  

• Shantiniketan: It was founded by Rabindranath Tagore's father, Maharshi Debendranath Tagore, in 1863 as a spiritual retreat. Shantiniketan was further expanded by Rabindranath Tagore into Visva-Bharati University in 1921, emphasizing the fusion of traditional Indian and modern Western education. 

• Rani ki Vav: It was built in the 11th century CE by Queen Udayamati of the Solanki dynasty in Patan, Gujarat, as a memorial to her husband, King Bhimdev I. It is an exceptional example of stepwell design. 

• Sacred Ensembles of Hoysalas: These were built during the 12th-13th centuries CE under the patronage of the Hoysala dynasty, centered in Karnataka. Hoysala temples are characterized by star-shaped platforms (jagatis). Some of the renowned temples are Chennakeshava Temple (Belur), Hoysaleswara Temple (Halebidu), and Keshava Temple (Somanathapura). 

• Mahabodhi Temple Complex at Bodhgaya: It was built during the reign of Emperor Ashoka in the 3rd century BCE at the site where Gautama Buddha attained enlightenment under the Bodhi tree.

Explanation

Explanation:

Metaverse: This term accurately describes a network of interconnected, persistent 3D virtual spaces. 

Key characteristics of the metaverse often include:

• Interoperability: Users can move between different virtual worlds seamlessly.

• User-Generated Content: Users can create, own, and trade virtual assets.

• Social Interaction: The metaverse facilitates social experiences and interactions.

Let's look at why the other options are incorrect:

• Big data analytics: This involves analyzing large and complex datasets to uncover patterns and insights. It's not directly related to virtual worlds.

• Cryptography: This focuses on secure communication and data protection techniques. While relevant to security within a metaverse, it doesn't define the concept itself.

• Virtual matrix: This term is not commonly used to describe the concept outlined in the question. The term 'matrix' is often associated with a grid-like structure or a virtual reality environment, but not the broader interconnected network the question describes.

Explanation

Explanation:

• Statement-I: Giant stars do not live much longer than dwarf stars. In fact, giant stars have shorter lifespans compared to dwarf stars because they burn through their nuclear fuel at a much faster rate.

• Statement-II: Compared to dwarf stars, giant stars have a greater rate of nuclear reactions. This is correct as giant stars are more massive and have higher pressures and temperatures in their cores, leading to faster nuclear fusion rates.

Explanation

Statement-I: Correct

• Chewing gums are a source of environmental pollution due to several factors:

  •  Non-biodegradable gum base: Traditional chewing gums often contain polymers like polyisobutylene, polyvinyl acetate, or polyethylene, which do not decompose easily in the environment.

  •  Littering: Discarded chewing gum remains on sidewalks, streets, and other public spaces, creating an eyesore and requiring significant resources for removal.

Statement-II: Correct and explains Statement-I

• The plastic-like polymers used as gum bases in many chewing gums are the primary reason they are difficult to biodegrade. These polymers contribute significantly to the environmental persistence of chewing gum litter.

Therefore, the correct option is (A): Both Statement-I and Statement-II are correct and Statement-II explains Statement-I.

Explanation

Fuel Cell Electric Vehicles (FCEVs) powered by hydrogen generate electricity by combining hydrogen (H₂) with oxygen (O₂) in a fuel cell. This process produces electricity, heat, and the only exhaust emission is water vapour (H₂O), making hydrogen fuel cells zero-emission.

Explanation

With reference to the Pradhan Mantri Shram Yogi Maan-dhan (PM-SYM) Yojana, here's the breakdown of the statements:

• Statement 1:  Incorrect. The eligible age group for enrolment in the scheme is 18 to 40 years, not 21 to 40 years. This allows younger workers to join early and contribute for a longer period.

• Statement 2: Correct. Beneficiaries are required to make age-specific monthly contributions, which increase with age. For instance, contributions start at ₹55 for an 18-year-old and go up to ₹200 for a 40-year-old.

• Statement 3: Correct. Subscribers will receive a minimum pension of ₹3,000 per month after attaining 60 years of age. This provides social security for workers in the unorganized sector.

• Statement 4: Incorrect. Family pension is available only to the spouse, who will receive 50% of the pension amount after the subscriber's death. Unmarried daughters are not eligible for this benefit.

Explanation

• Delimitation commissions have been set up four times in the past — 1953, 1962, 1972 and 2002 — under Delimitation Commission Acts of 1952, 1962, 1972 and 2002.

• The Delimitation Commission is appointed by the President of India and works in collaboration with the Election Commission of India. The Delimitation Commission in India is a high-power body whose orders have the force of law and cannot be called into question before any court. 

• The Commission’s orders are laid before the Lok Sabha and the legislative assemblies concerned, but they cannot effect any modifications in the orders.

• Composition: Retired Supreme Court Judge, Chief Election Commissioner and respective state election commissioners.

Explanation

• Krishnadeva Raya, the ruler of the Vijayanagara Empire (1509-1529), maintained friendly relations with the Portuguese. In 1510, with his permission, Alphonso de Albuquerque, the Portuguese governor, constructed a fort at Bhatkal, located in the Uttara Kannada district of Karnataka.  

• **Narasimha Saluva (**reigned 1491–1505) was a ruler of the Saluva dynasty, which briefly controlled the Vijayanagara Empire. The Portuguese presence in India was only beginning to take root during his reign, and their focus was primarily on establishing trade rather than fortifications.  

• Muhammad Shah III (reigned 1463–1482) was a ruler of the Bahmani Sultanate, a medieval kingdom in the Deccan region. By the time of his reign, the Portuguese had not yet arrived in India (their arrival occurred in 1498).  

• Yusuf Adil Shah: He was the founder of the Adil Shahi dynasty of Bijapur and ruled from 1489 to 1510. His engagements with the Portuguese were more conflictual, particularly over the control of Goa.

Explanation

Inter-State quarantine falls under the purview of the Union List (List I) in the Seventh Schedule of the Indian Constitution. This is because matters of inter-state significance, especially those related to health and disease control, are best handled by the central government to ensure uniformity and prevent the spread of diseases across state borders.

Let's examine why the other options are incorrect:

•  Inter-State trade and commerce is a State subject under the State List. This is incorrect. Inter-State trade and commerce is explicitly mentioned in the Union List (List I), giving the central government the power to regulate commerce that transcends state boundaries.

• Inter-State migration is a State subject under the State List. This is also incorrect. While individual states have some powers related to internal migration is mentioned in the Union List.

• Corporation tax is a State subject under the State List. This is incorrect. Corporation tax, levied on the net income of companies, is a subject under the Union List (List I). However, the Constitution allows for the sharing of corporation tax revenue with states.

• In essence, the Constitution designates subjects of national importance, like inter-state quarantine and trade, to the Union List, while matters of local governance fall under the State List.

Explanation

Explanation:

• Statement 1 is incorrect: Introduced primarily in Madras (now Tamil Nadu) and Bombay (now Mumbai) presidencies by Alexander Reed and Thomas Munro. Ryotwari System, while aiming to establish direct contact with the cultivators (ryots), did not offer blanket exemption from revenue payment during bad harvests or calamities. While some provisions for remission existed, they were not automatic or guaranteed. 

• Statement 2 is correct: Introduced in Bengal, Bihar, and parts of Odisha by Lord Cornwallis in 1793. A key feature of the Permanent Settlement was the strict revenue collection timeline. Zamindars were obligated to pay a fixed amount of revenue to the British by a specific date. Failure to do so could result in the auctioning of their Zamindari to recover the dues.

Explanation

Explanation:

• Central Asia - Vosges - Fold Mountain: This is incorrect. The Vosges Mountains are located in Europe, not Central Asia. They are indeed folded mountains.

• Europe - Alps - Block Mountain: This is incorrect. The Alps, located in Europe, are a classic example of fold mountains, formed due to the collision of the African and Eurasian tectonic plates.

• North America - Appalachians - Fold Mountain: This is correct. The Appalachian Mountains in North America are old fold mountains.

• South America - Andes - Fold Mountain: This is correct. The Andes, running along the western edge of South America, are the longest continental mountain range in the world and are fold mountains formed due to the convergence of the Nazca and South American plates.

Therefore, only two rows have the information correctly matched.

Explanation

Explanation:

• Statement 1:  Correct.  The Digital India Land Records Modernisation Programme (DILRMP) is 100% centrally funded by the Central Government for Union Territories and North-Eastern States. For other states, the funding pattern may vary, but it largely involves central assistance for implementing the scheme.

• Statement 2: Correct. Cadastral Maps (detailed maps showing boundaries of individual land parcels) are being digitized under the scheme. This aims to create accurate digital land records, enabling better governance and reduced disputes.

• Statement 3: Correct. An initiative has been undertaken to transliterate Records of Rights (RoR) from local languages into languages recognized by the Constitution of India. This improves accessibility and ensures land records are understood by a wider audience.

Explanation

Operation Sadbhavana is a unique initiative undertaken by the Indian Army in Jammu & Kashmir and the North East regions. It focuses on winning the hearts and minds of the local population through various developmental activities and assistance. This includes providing education, healthcare, infrastructure development, and promoting skill development initiatives.

Let's look at the other options:

• Operation Sankalp was launched by the Indian Navy to ensure maritime security in the Persian Gulf and the Gulf of Oman.

•  Operation Maitri refers to the Indian Armed Forces' humanitarian assistance and disaster relief operations to assist friendly countries. A notable example was the aid provided to Nepal during the 2015 earthquake.

•  Operation Madad is the Indian Navy's effort to provide humanitarian assistance and disaster relief during natural calamities, both within India and to neighboring countries.

Explanation

The correct answer is (C) Madhyama-vyayoga. Here's why: 

• Bhasa was an ancient Indian playwright believed to have predated Kalidasa. He is known for his Sanskrit plays, often characterized by their dramatic intensity and focus on emotions.

• Madhyama-vyayoga (meaning 'The Middle One') is one of Bhasa's famous plays. It's part of a trilogy and tells a story from the Mahabharata.

Let's look at the other options:

• Kavyalankara is a work on Sanskrit poetics by the renowned scholar Bhamaha.

• Natyashastra is the foundational text on Indian classical dance and drama, attributed to the sage Bharata Muni.

• Mahabhashya is a comprehensive commentary on the Sanskrit grammar of Patanjali, based on Panini's Ashtadhyayi.

Explanation

• Cashew: Originally native to Brazil, cashew was brought to India by Portuguese traders in the 16th century. 

• Papaya: Papaya also originated in the Americas, specifically in southern Mexico and Central America. 

• Red Sanders: This tree, known for its valuable reddish wood, is endemic to India. It is found in the Eastern Ghats, particularly in Andhra Pradesh.

Therefore, only Red Sanders is native to India.

Explanation

Fig-Wasp Mutualism: Figs and fig wasps share an obligate mutualistic relationship, meaning they are entirely dependent on each other for survival and reproduction. Fig wasps are the only insects that can pollinate fig trees, and fig trees are the sole source of food and shelter for developing fig wasps.

Highly Specialized Pollination: The fig fruit (technically a syconium) has its flowers enclosed within. Female fig wasps enter the syconium through a tiny opening called the ostiole. They lay eggs inside and pollinate the flowers in the process.

Coevolution: This intricate relationship is a classic example of coevolution, where two species have evolved together over millions of years, with each species' adaptations influencing the other's.

The other options are incorrect:

• Mahua (B): It is pollinated by various insects and even bats. Mahua (Madhuca indica) is found in the dry deciduous type of forests like the Forests of Chhattisgarh and Jharkhand.

• Sandalwood (C): It is primarily pollinated by bees and flies. Sandalwood is a dry deciduous forest species native to China, India, Indonesia, Australia, and the Philippines. Sandalwood is listed as Vulnerable in the IUCN Red list. Sandalwood grows as a partial or hemiparasite, relying on the presence of four or five other trees nearby. Beneath the ground, its roots develop a haustorium, an octopus-like structure that attaches to the host tree's roots, drawing water and nutrients from them. 

Silk cotton (D): It is pollinated by bats and birds. The Silk Cotton Tree is a tropical deciduous tree native to the Indian subcontinent and other parts of Southeast Asia. It produces a capsule that, when ripe, contains white fibres like cotton.

Explanation

Explanation:

• Argentina - Worst economic crisis: Argentina has been facing a severe economic crisis for a while, marked by high inflation, debt, and poverty. This pair seems correct.

• Sudan - War between the country's regular army and paramilitary forces: Sudan has been engulfed in a violent conflict between the Sudanese Armed Forces and the paramilitary Rapid Support Forces. This pair is also correct.

• Turkey - Rescinded its membership of NATO: Turkey has not rescinded its membership of NATO. While there have been tensions between Turkey and other NATO members, it remains a member. This pair is incorrect.

Therefore, only two out of the three pairs are correctly matched.

Explanation

• Statement-I: This statement is correct. Syndicated lending, by definition, involves multiple lenders pooling resources to provide a loan to a single borrower. This inherently distributes the risk of default, as no single lender bears the entire burden if the borrower fails to repay.

• Statement II: This statement is incorrect. Syndicated loans can take various forms, including both fixed-amount term loans (lump sum) and revolving credit facilities (credit lines). 

Therefore, the correct option is C: Statement I is correct, but Statement II is incorrect.

Explanation

Explanation:

• Statement 1 is incorrect: Non-Banking Financial Companies (NBFCs) in India do not have direct access to the Liquidity Adjustment Facility (LAF) window of the Reserve Bank of India (RBI). The LAF is a tool used by RBI to manage short-term liquidity in the banking system. 

• Statement 2 is correct: Foreign Institutional Investors (FIIs) are permitted to invest in Government Securities (G-Secs) in India, subject to certain regulations and limits set by the Securities and Exchange Board of India (SEBI) and RBI. 

• Statement 3 is correct: Stock exchanges in India can offer separate trading platforms for debt securities. For instance, the National Stock Exchange (NSE) and the Bombay Stock Exchange (BSE) have dedicated platforms for trading in corporate bonds and government securities.

Explanation

Pyroclastic debris: This is a general term for fragmental material ejected from a volcano during an eruption. It includes ash, pumice, cinders, and volcanic bombs.

Ash and dust: These are fine-grained particles of volcanic rock and glass that can be carried long distances by wind.

Nitrogen compounds: Nitrogen is a common gas released by volcanoes, and it can react with other elements in the atmosphere to form compounds such as ammonia and nitrogen oxides.

Sulphur compounds: Sulphur dioxide (SO2) is one of the main gases released by volcanoes. It can irritate the respiratory system and contribute to acid rain. Other sulphur compounds, such as hydrogen sulphide (H2S), can also be released in smaller amounts.

All of the above (1, 2, 3, and 4) are products of volcanic eruptions.

Explanation

•  Cicada: Known for their loud buzzing sounds, cicadas are insects.

•  Froghopper: Also known as spittlebugs, they are small, jumping insects.

•  Pond Skater: These insects are known for their ability to walk on the surface of water.

All three organisms are classified as insects.

Explanation

• Statement-I: Incorrect. Venezuela continues to suffer from a severe economic crisis marked by hyperinflation, shortages of basic goods, and political instability. This crisis has led to a massive exodus of Venezuelans seeking better living conditions in neighboring countries and beyond.

• Statement-II: Correct. Venezuela indeed possesses the world's largest proven oil reserves, surpassing even Saudi Arabia. However, despite this vast resource wealth, economic mismanagement, corruption, and international sanctions have crippled its oil industry and hindered its ability to leverage this asset for economic recovery.

Explanation

Explanation:

• Article 109 of the Indian Constitution specifically deals with the special procedure for Money Bills. (Correct)

• Article 109(1) states that a Money Bill shall not be introduced in the Council of States (Rajya Sabha). It can only be introduced in the Lok Sabha (House of the People). (Correct)

•  Article 109(5) states that the Rajya Sabha can't reject a Money Bill. It can only make recommendations within 14 days, which the Lok Sabha may or may not accept. (Correct)

• The Lok Sabha has the ultimate power regarding Money Bills. It is not bound to accept any amendments suggested by the Rajya Sabha. (Incorrect)

Therefore, statements 1, 2, and 3 are correct.

Explanation

Explanation:

• Agricultural residues: These include materials like crop stalks, husks, and leaves. They are a viable source of biomass that can be converted into biofuels, including Sustainable Aviation Fuel (SAF).

• Corn grain: Corn grain is a source of sugars that can be fermented to produce ethanol, a biofuel. While ethanol is primarily used in gasoline blends, it can also be further processed into SAF.

• Wastewater treatment sludge: This sludge is rich in organic matter. Through processes like anaerobic digestion, it can produce biogas, which can be further converted into SAF.

• Wood mill waste: This includes sawdust, wood chips, and bark. These lignocellulosic materials can be converted into biofuels through various thermochemical or biochemical processes, ultimately leading to SAF production.

Therefore, all four materials can be used as feedstock for producing Sustainable Aviation Fuel.

Explanation

Explanation:

• Statement 1: Correct. When the Lok Sabha is dissolved, any bill pending in the Lok Sabha automatically lapses. This is because the dissolution of the Lok Sabha ends its session, and all legislative business in progress becomes void.

• Statement 2: Correct. If a bill has been passed by the Lok Sabha but is pending in the Rajya Sabha, it lapses upon the dissolution of the Lok Sabha. This is true even if the Rajya Sabha has not yet acted on the bill.

• Statement 3: Incorrect. A bill regarding which the President has notified a joint sitting will not lapse on the dissolution of the Lok Sabha. It can be taken up in the next session after the Lok Sabha is reconstituted. A joint sitting is called only when there is a deadlock between the Lok Sabha and Rajya Sabha.

Explanation

Explanation:

1. Nayaputta: This term means 'the son of Naya' and is not associated with Gautama Buddha rather this epithet is used for Mahavira.

2. Shakyamuni: This epithet means 'Sage of the Shakya clan'. Gautama Buddha belonged to the Shakya clan, making this a correct epithet.

3. Tathagata: This term means 'one who has thus gone' or 'one who has thus come'. It signifies enlightenment and is a common epithet for Gautama Buddha.

Therefore, statements 2 and 3 are correct.

Explanation

Explanation:

• Statement-I: Correct. The European Parliament indeed approved the Net-Zero Industry Act in March 2023. This act aims to scale up manufacturing of clean technologies within the EU.

• Statement-II: Incorrect. The EU's target for achieving carbon neutrality is 2050, not 2040. Additionally, while the EU aims to bolster its own clean technology production, it doesn't necessarily aim to develop all of its own technology by 2050. Collaboration and some level of imports are likely to remain part of the strategy.

Therefore, the correct option is (C): Statement-I is correct, but Statement-II is incorrect.

Explanation

The climate described by these characteristics is most likely a Marine West Coast Climate (Cfb) according to the Köppen climate classification system.

• Annual and daily range of temperatures is low: Marine west coast climates are known for their mild temperatures year-round. The influence of the nearby ocean moderates both summer highs and winter lows, resulting in a smaller range of temperatures compared to continental climates at similar latitudes.

• Precipitation occurs throughout the year: These regions experience frequent precipitation due to prevailing westerly winds carrying moist air from the ocean. The cyclones associated with these winds bring rain or snowfall throughout the year.

• Precipitation varies between 50 cm and 250 cm: The amount of precipitation in marine west coast climates can vary depending on factors like latitude, topography, and proximity to the ocean. The range of 50 cm to 250 cm falls within the typical range observed in these regions.

Explanation

Explanation: 

• Statement I: This statement is true. Rainfall is one of the reasons for the weathering of rocks.  Rainwater can cause both physical and chemical weathering. Physical weathering occurs due to the impact of raindrops, especially during heavy downpours. Chemical weathering happens when rainwater reacts with minerals in rocks, leading to their breakdown.

• Statement-II: This statement is true. Rainwater contains carbon dioxide in solution. Rainwater absorbs carbon dioxide from the atmosphere, forming weak carbonic acid (H2CO3). This slightly acidic nature of rainwater contributes to chemical weathering.

• Statement-III: This statement is true. Rainwater contains atmospheric oxygen. Rainwater dissolves atmospheric gases, including oxygen. The dissolved oxygen in rainwater plays a role in the oxidation of certain minerals in rocks, which is a form of chemical weathering.

Therefore, both Statement II and Statement III are correct, and both explain Statement I. Rainwater's acidity (due to dissolved carbon dioxide) and dissolved oxygen content contribute to the chemical weathering of rocks.