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UPSC Prelims 2024 Analysis

Subject-Wise MCQ Distribution

  • Polity: High representation with 15-20 questions, focusing on constitutional articles, governance, and recent amendmentsAnalytical abilities were essential to tackle assertion-based and statement-type questions.
  • Economy: Approximately 12-15 questions, heavily tilted towards current economic developments, policies, and budget-related topics. A mix of static concepts from NCERT and dynamic updates was necessary.
  • Environment & Ecology18-20 questions, with a strong emphasis on climate change, international agreements, and conservation effortsMatch the following questions played a significant role in this section.
  • History12-14 questions, balanced between ancient, medieval, and modern, with increasing weightage on cultural aspects. Many questions required a combination of NCERT knowledge and historical maps for better context.
  • Geography10-12 questions, mostly applied concepts like map-based and environmental geography questions.
  • Science & Technology8-10 questions, leaning towards application-based knowledge on recent innovations and space technology.
  • Current Affairs15-18 questions, interwoven with other subjects, often requiring assertion-reasoning skills to connect facts.
     
Subject-Wise MCQ Distribution
Subject-Wise MCQ Distribution in UPSC Prelims 2024

Difficulty Analysis

  • Easy: ~30% of questions were straightforward and could be attempted with basic NCERT knowledge.
  • Moderate: ~50% required analytical abilities, conceptual clarity, and elimination tactics.
  • Difficult: ~20% were tricky, involving multi-layered reasoning or obscure facts.

     
Difficulty Analysis
Difficulty Analysis in UPSC Prelims 2024

Variations in Question Framing

  • Statement-based MCQs60% of questions were framed in a two-statement or three-statement format, testing comprehension, elimination skills, and analytical abilities.
  • Assertion-Reasoning13% of the questions assessed logical connections between concepts, requiring critical thinking.
  • Match the Following10% of the questions required mapping terms with their definitions, locations, or features, particularly in Geography and Environment.
  • Standalone Questions25% were direct, fact-based questions, but even these often required cross-referencing with maps or historical events.
  • Notably, in 2024, UPSC introduced three-column Match the Following MCQs, increasing question complexity and demanding better comprehension skills.
typesofques.png
Variations in Question Framing in UPSC Prelims 2024

Key Learnings for Future Preparation

  • Integrated Approach: Focus on interlinking static NCERT subjects with current affairs, as many questions have contextual relevance.
  • Master the Basics: A strong foundation in NCERTs is crucial for tackling conceptual questions, especially in Polity, History, and Geography.
  • Develop Analytical AbilitiesStatement-based and assertion-reasoning questions require critical thinking and elimination tactics.
  • Focus on Trends: Emphasize high-yield topics like Environment, Economy, and Current Affairs to maximize scoring potential.
  • Revise Maps and SchematicsGeography and Environmental questions often require map-based knowledge and spatial reasoning to answer correctly.
The Prelims 2024 paper demonstrated a balanced mix of factual recall and analytical reasoning. A strategic approach to preparation—emphasizing both breadth and depth—is critical for success.

QUESTION 1

EasyModern HistoryPrelims 2024

With reference to the Government of India Act, 1935, consider the following statements:

  1. It provided for the establishment of an All India Federation based on the union of the British Indian Provinces and Princely States.
  2. Defence and Foreign Affairs were kept under the control of the federal legislature.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

A. 1 only

B. 2 only

C. Both 1 and 2

D. Neither 1 nor 2

Answer: A

Explanation

Explanation:

  • Statement 1 is correct. The Government of India Act, 1935, proposed an All India Federation that would encompass both the British Indian Provinces and the Princely States. However, this federation never fully materialized due to the reluctance of many Princely States to join.

  • Statement 2 is incorrect. The Act reserved key subjects like Defence and Foreign Affairs under the control of the Governor General, representing the British Crown, and not the federal legislature. This ensured British dominance in these crucial areas.


QUESTION 2

HardModern HistoryPrelims 2024

Consider the following pairs :

PartyIts Leader
1. Bharatiya Jana SanghDr. Shyama Prasad Mukherjee
2. Socialist PartyC. Rajagopalachari
3. Congress for DemocracyJagjivan Ram
4. Swatantra PartyAcharya Narendra Dev

How many of the above are correctly matched?

A. Only one

B. Only two

C. Only three

D. All four

Answer: B

Explanation

  • Bharatiya Jana Sangh | Dr. Shyama Prasad Mukherjee: This is correctly matched. Dr. Shyama Prasad Mukherjee was the founder and first president of the Bharatiya Jana Sangh (BJS), the forerunner of the Bharatiya Janata Party (BJP).

  • Socialist Party | C. Rajagopalachari: This is incorrect. C. Rajagopalachari founded the Swatantra Party, advocating free-market principles.

  • The Socialist Party was established in the year 1934 and had leaders like Acharya Narendra Dev, Jayaprakash Narayan, Yusuf Mehrali, Mino Masani, Acchut Patwardhan and Ashok Mehta. 

  • Congress for Democracy | Jagjivan Ram: This is correctly matched. Congress for Democracy (CFD) was a political party founded by Jagjivan Ram in 1977 after breaking away from the Indian National Congress. It was a short-lived party, formed during the Emergency to oppose Indira Gandhi's regime. It later merged with the Janata Party.

  • Swatantra Party | Acharya Narendra Dev: This is incorrect. The Swatantra Party was founded by C. Rajagopalachari in 1959, advocating for free-market economic policies and opposing the socialist policies of the Congress. Acharya Narendra Dev was associated with the Socialist Party and is regarded as one of its key leaders. 

Therefore, only two pairs are correctly matched. Hence, the answer is B.


QUESTION 3

EasyModern HistoryPrelims 2024

With reference to revenue collection by Cornwallis, consider the following statements:

  1. Under the Ryotwari Settlement of revenue collection, the peasants were exempted from revenue payment in case of bad harvests or natural calamities.
  2. Under the Permanent Settlement in Bengal, if the Zamindar failed to pay his revenues to the state, on or before the fixed date, he would be removed from his Zamindari.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

A. 1 only

B. 2 only

C. Both 1 and 2

D. Neither 1 nor 2

Answer: B

Explanation

Explanation:

  • Statement 1 is incorrect: Introduced primarily in Madras (now Tamil Nadu) and Bombay (now Mumbai) presidencies by Alexander Reed and Thomas Munro. Ryotwari System, while aiming to establish direct contact with the cultivators (ryots), did not offer blanket exemption from revenue payment during bad harvests or calamities. While some provisions for remission existed, they were not automatic or guaranteed. 

  • Statement 2 is correct: Introduced in Bengal, Bihar, and parts of Odisha by Lord Cornwallis in 1793. A key feature of the Permanent Settlement was the strict revenue collection timeline. Zamindars were obligated to pay a fixed amount of revenue to the British by a specific date. Failure to do so could result in the auctioning of their Zamindari to recover the dues.

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