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UPSC Prelims 2024 Analysis

Subject-Wise MCQ Distribution

  • Polity: High representation with 15-20 questions, focusing on constitutional articles, governance, and recent amendmentsAnalytical abilities were essential to tackle assertion-based and statement-type questions.
  • Economy: Approximately 12-15 questions, heavily tilted towards current economic developments, policies, and budget-related topics. A mix of static concepts from NCERT and dynamic updates was necessary.
  • Environment & Ecology18-20 questions, with a strong emphasis on climate change, international agreements, and conservation effortsMatch the following questions played a significant role in this section.
  • History12-14 questions, balanced between ancient, medieval, and modern, with increasing weightage on cultural aspects. Many questions required a combination of NCERT knowledge and historical maps for better context.
  • Geography10-12 questions, mostly applied concepts like map-based and environmental geography questions.
  • Science & Technology8-10 questions, leaning towards application-based knowledge on recent innovations and space technology.
  • Current Affairs15-18 questions, interwoven with other subjects, often requiring assertion-reasoning skills to connect facts.
     
Subject-Wise MCQ Distribution
Subject-Wise MCQ Distribution in UPSC Prelims 2024

Difficulty Analysis

  • Easy: ~30% of questions were straightforward and could be attempted with basic NCERT knowledge.
  • Moderate: ~50% required analytical abilities, conceptual clarity, and elimination tactics.
  • Difficult: ~20% were tricky, involving multi-layered reasoning or obscure facts.

     
Difficulty Analysis
Difficulty Analysis in UPSC Prelims 2024

Variations in Question Framing

  • Statement-based MCQs60% of questions were framed in a two-statement or three-statement format, testing comprehension, elimination skills, and analytical abilities.
  • Assertion-Reasoning13% of the questions assessed logical connections between concepts, requiring critical thinking.
  • Match the Following10% of the questions required mapping terms with their definitions, locations, or features, particularly in Geography and Environment.
  • Standalone Questions25% were direct, fact-based questions, but even these often required cross-referencing with maps or historical events.
  • Notably, in 2024, UPSC introduced three-column Match the Following MCQs, increasing question complexity and demanding better comprehension skills.
typesofques.png
Variations in Question Framing in UPSC Prelims 2024

Key Learnings for Future Preparation

  • Integrated Approach: Focus on interlinking static NCERT subjects with current affairs, as many questions have contextual relevance.
  • Master the Basics: A strong foundation in NCERTs is crucial for tackling conceptual questions, especially in Polity, History, and Geography.
  • Develop Analytical AbilitiesStatement-based and assertion-reasoning questions require critical thinking and elimination tactics.
  • Focus on Trends: Emphasize high-yield topics like Environment, Economy, and Current Affairs to maximize scoring potential.
  • Revise Maps and SchematicsGeography and Environmental questions often require map-based knowledge and spatial reasoning to answer correctly.
The Prelims 2024 paper demonstrated a balanced mix of factual recall and analytical reasoning. A strategic approach to preparation—emphasizing both breadth and depth—is critical for success.

QUESTION 1

MediumSocial Issues & SchemesPrelims 2024

With reference to Corporate Social Responsibility (CSR) rules in India, consider the following statements:

  1. CSR rules specify that expenditures that benefit the company directly or its employees will not be considered as CSR activities.
  2. CSR rules do not specify minimum spending on CSR activities.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

A. 1 only

B. 2 only

C. Both 1 and 2

D. Neither 1 nor 2

Answer: A

Explanation

  • Statement 1: Correct. The Corporate Social Responsibility (CSR) rules in India state that expenditures aimed at benefiting the company's business interests or its employees (such as those related to employee welfare or activities that are a direct business benefit) will not be counted as CSR activities. The focus of CSR is on activities that benefit society at large and not just the company or its direct stakeholders.

  • Statement 2: Incorrect. Under the Companies Act, 2013, CSR rules do specify a minimum spending requirement. Companies meeting certain criteria (like having a net worth of ₹500 crore or more, or an annual turnover of ₹1,000 crore or more, or a net profit of ₹5 crore or more) must allocate at least 2% of their average net profits over the last three years towards CSR activities.

So, the correct answer is: A. 1 only


QUESTION 2

MediumSocial Issues & SchemesPrelims 2024

With reference to the 'Pradhan Mantri Surakshit Matritva Abhiyan', consider the following statements:

  1. This scheme guarantees a minimum package of antenatal care services to women in their second and third trimesters of pregnancy and six months post-delivery health care service in any government health facility.
  2. Under this scheme, private sector health care providers of certain specialities can volunteer to provide services at nearby government health facilities.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

A. 1 only

B. 2 only

C. Both 1 and 2

D. Neither 1 nor 2

Answer: B

Explanation

Explanation:

  • Statement 1: Incorrect. The Pradhan Mantri Surakshit Matritva Abhiyan (PMSMA) provides a minimum package of antenatal care (ANC) services only during the second and third trimesters of pregnancy. It does not cover post-delivery health care services for six months. The focus is on ensuring safe pregnancies through early detection and management of high-risk cases.

  • Statement 2:  Correct. Under PMSMA, private sector health care providers (such as gynecologists, radiologists, and physicians) can volunteer to provide free services at nearby government health facilities on the 9th of every month. This public-private partnership enhances access to specialized care for pregnant women.


QUESTION 3

MediumSocial Issues & SchemesPrelims 2024

Which one of the following is the correct description of "100 Million Farmers"?

A. It is a platform for accelerating the transition towards food and water systems that are net-zero (carbon), nature-positive and that aims to increase farmer resilience.

B. It is an international alliance and a network of individuals and farming organisations interested in supporting and strengthening the development of the organic animal husbandry.

C. It is a digital platform fully integrated with service providers and built on blockchain that lets buyers, sellers and third parties trade fertilizers quickly and securely.

D. It is a platform with the mission of encouraging the farmers to form Farmer Product Organisations or Agribusiness Consortiums, thus facilitating the access to global open markets to sell their products.

Answer: A

Explanation

Explanation:

100 Million Farmers: The 100 Million Farmers initiative, launched by The World Economic Forum (WEF), seeks to drive a global movement focused on accelerating the adoption of regenerative agriculture and climate adaptation practices at the farm level. This initiative aims to transition towards sustainable food and water systems. It focuses on achieving net-zero carbon emissions, enhancing nature positivity, and improving farmers' resilience to climate change and market fluctuations.

100 Million Farmers

Let's look at why the other options are incorrect:

  •  Option B: This describes organizations promoting organic animal husbandry, not the '100 Million Farmers' initiative.

  •  Option C: This refers to a blockchain-based platform for fertilizer trading, which is not the core focus of '100 Million Farmers.'

  •  Option D: While farmer collectives are important, '100 Million Farmers has a broader scope encompassing sustainable practices and climate resilience.


QUESTION 4

HardSocial Issues & SchemesPrelims 2024

Consider the following statements regarding World Toilet Organization :

  1. It is one of the agencies of the United Nations.
  2. World Toilet Summit, World Toilet Day and World Toilet College are the initiatives of this organization, to inspire action to tackle the global sanitation crisis.
  3. The main focus of its function is to grant funds to the least developed countries and developing countries to achieve the end of open defecation.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

A. 2 only

B. 3 only

C. 1 and 2

D. 2 and 3

Answer: A

Explanation

Explanation:

  • Statement 1 is incorrect. The World Toilet Organization (WTO) is not an agency of the United Nations. It is an international non-profit organization.

  • Statement 2 is correct. The WTO is known for its initiatives like World Toilet Summit, World Toilet Day, and World Toilet College, all aimed at addressing the global sanitation crisis.

  • Statement 3 is incorrect. While the WTO advocates for improved sanitation and hygiene, its primary function is not to grant funds. It focuses on advocacy, education, and capacity building to achieve its goals.

Therefore, only statement 2 is correct.


QUESTION 5

MediumSocial Issues & SchemesPrelims 2024

With reference to the Pradhan Mantri Shram Yogi Maan-dhan (PM-SYM) Yojana, consider the following statements:

  1. The entry age group for enrolment in the scheme is 21 to 40 years.
  2. Age specific contribution shall be made by the beneficiary.
  3. Each subscriber under the scheme shall receive a minimum pension of ₹ 3,000 per month after attaining the age of 60 years.
  4. Family pension is applicable to the spouse and unmarried daughters.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

A. 1,3 and 4

B. 2 and 3 only

C. 2 only

D. 1, 2 and 4

Answer: B

Explanation

With reference to the Pradhan Mantri Shram Yogi Maan-dhan (PM-SYM) Yojana, here's the breakdown of the statements:

  • Statement 1:  Incorrect. The eligible age group for enrolment in the scheme is 18 to 40 years, not 21 to 40 years. This allows younger workers to join early and contribute for a longer period.

  • Statement 2: Correct. Beneficiaries are required to make age-specific monthly contributions, which increase with age. For instance, contributions start at ₹55 for an 18-year-old and go up to ₹200 for a 40-year-old.

  • Statement 3: Correct. Subscribers will receive a minimum pension of ₹3,000 per month after attaining 60 years of age. This provides social security for workers in the unorganized sector.

  • Statement 4: Incorrect. Family pension is available only to the spouse, who will receive 50% of the pension amount after the subscriber's death. Unmarried daughters are not eligible for this benefit.


QUESTION 6

MediumSocial Issues & SchemesPrelims 2024

With reference to the Digital India Land Records Modernisation Programme, consider the following statements :

  1. To implement the scheme, the Central Government provides 100% funding.
  2. Under the Scheme, Cadastral Maps are digitised.
  3. An initiative has been undertaken to transliterate the Records of Rights from local language to any of the languages recognized by the Constitution of India.

Which of the statements given above are correct?

A. 1 and 2 only

B. 2 and 3 only

C. 1 and 3 only

D. 1, 2 and 3

Answer: D

Explanation

Explanation:

  • Statement 1:  Correct.  The Digital India Land Records Modernisation Programme (DILRMP) is 100% centrally funded by the Central Government for Union Territories and North-Eastern States. For other states, the funding pattern may vary, but it largely involves central assistance for implementing the scheme.

  • Statement 2: Correct. Cadastral Maps (detailed maps showing boundaries of individual land parcels) are being digitized under the scheme. This aims to create accurate digital land records, enabling better governance and reduced disputes.

  • Statement 3: Correct. An initiative has been undertaken to transliterate Records of Rights (RoR) from local languages into languages recognized by the Constitution of India. This improves accessibility and ensures land records are understood by a wider audience.


QUESTION 7

EasySocial Issues & SchemesPrelims 2024

Operations undertaken by the Army towards upliftment of the local population in remote areas to include addressing of their basic needs is called:

A. Operation Sankalp

B. Operation Maitri

C. Operation Sadbhavana

D. Operation Madad

Answer: C

Explanation

Operation Sadbhavana is a unique initiative undertaken by the Indian Army in Jammu & Kashmir and the North East regions. It focuses on winning the hearts and minds of the local population through various developmental activities and assistance. This includes providing education, healthcare, infrastructure development, and promoting skill development initiatives.

Let's look at the other options:

  • Operation Sankalp was launched by the Indian Navy to ensure maritime security in the Persian Gulf and the Gulf of Oman.

  •  Operation Maitri refers to the Indian Armed Forces' humanitarian assistance and disaster relief operations to assist friendly countries. A notable example was the aid provided to Nepal during the 2015 earthquake.

  •  Operation Madad is the Indian Navy's effort to provide humanitarian assistance and disaster relief during natural calamities, both within India and to neighboring countries.

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