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UPSC Prelims 2025 Analysis

UPSC Prelims Answer Key

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UPSC Prelims 2025 Analysis

Subject-wise weightage

subjectNumber of questions
Ancient History6
Art & Culture2
Economy18
Environment & Ecology15
Indian Geography1
Indian Polity14
International Relations8
Modern History8
Physical Geography7
Science & Technology13
Social Issues & Schemes3
World Geography5
Grand Total100

Polity: High representation with 14 questions, focusing on constitutional articles, governance, and recent amendments. Analytical abilities were essential to tackle assertion-based and statement-type questions.

Economy: Approximately 18 questions, focusing on conceptual clarity and application based questions and policies. A mix of static concepts from NCERT and dynamic updates was necessary.

Environment & Ecology: 15 questions, with a strong emphasis on climate change, international agreements, international bodies and conservation efforts. Match the following questions played a significant role in this section.

History: 16 questions, balanced between ancient, medieval, and modern. Many questions required a combination of NCERT knowledge and historical maps for better context. Modern history was doable if student is clear with standard resources and timeline.

Geography: 10-13 questions, mostly applied concepts like map-based and environmental geography questions.

Science & Technology: 13 questions, leaning towards application-based knowledge on recent innovations and space technology. Current affairs played vital role.

Current Affairs: 15-18 questions, interwoven with other subjects, often requiring assertion-reasoning skills to connect facts.

Question Count (1).png
Subject-Wise MCQ Distribution in UPSC Prelims 2025

Difficulty-wise breakdown

  • Easy: ~33% of questions were straightforward and could be attempted with basic NCERT knowledge.
  • Moderate: ~35% required analytical abilities, conceptual clarity, and elimination tactics.
  • Difficult: ~32% were tricky, involving multi-layered reasoning or obscure facts.
Difficulty Analysis in UPSC Prelims 2025
Difficulty Analysis in UPSC Prelims 2025

 

Type of questions

Question typeNumber of questions
Direct26
Assertion12
Multi-statement62

 

Youtubz Poster

QUESTION 1

EasyIndian PolityPrelims 2025

Consider the following statements about Lokpal:

I. The power of Lokpal applies to public servants of India, but not to the Indian public servants posted outside India. II. The Chairperson or a Member shall not be a Member of the Parliament or a Member of the Legislature of any State or Union Territory, and only the Chief Justice of India, whether incumbent or retired, has to be its Chairperson. III. The Chairperson or a Member shall not be a person of less than forty-five years of age on the date of assuming office as the Chairperson or Member, as the case may be. IV. Lokpal cannot inquire into the allegations of corruption against a sitting Prime Minister of India.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

A. III only

B. II and III

C. I and IV

D. None of the above statements is correct

Answer: A

Explanation

❌ Statement I: Incorrect Lokpal’s jurisdiction includes all Indian public servants, even those posted abroad.

❌ Statement II: Incorrect Chairperson need not be only the CJI; former judges or eminent persons with 25+ years’ expertise can also be appointed.

✅ Statement III: Correct Minimum age to be Chairperson or Member is 45 years.

❌ Statement IV: Incorrect Lokpal can inquire against a sitting PM, but with safeguards and restrictions in sensitive areas.

Therefore, only Statement III is correct.


QUESTION 2

EasyScience & TechnologyPrelims 2025

Consider the following statements:

I. No virus can survive in ocean waters. II. No virus can infect bacteria. III. No virus can change the cellular transcriptional activity in host cells.

Which of the statements given above are correct?

A. Only one

B. Only two

C. All the three

D. None

Answer: D

Explanation

Viruses can survive in oceans, infect bacteria, and alter host cell transcription.

Statement I: False. Viruses can survive in ocean waters, and marine viruses are highly abundant.

Statement II: False. Viruses can infect bacteria; for example, bacteriophages specifically infect bacteria.

Statement III: False. Viruses can alter host transcription and modify host gene expression.

None of the statements are correct.


QUESTION 3

MediumEnvironment & EcologyPrelims 2025

With reference to the planet Earth, consider the following statements:

I. Rain forests produce more oxygen than that produced by oceans. II. Marine phytoplankton and photosynthetic bacteria produce about 50% of world's oxygen. III. Well-oxygenated surface water contains several folds higher oxygen than that in atmospheric air.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

A. I and II

B. II only

C. I and III

D. None of the above statements is correct

Answer: B

Explanation

Oxygen on Earth mainly comes from photosynthesis, especially by phytoplankton (marine organisms), and oxygen levels differ between air and water.

Statement I is incorrect:

  • Oceans (phytoplankton) produce more oxygen than rainforests.

Statement II is correct:

  • Marine phytoplankton and photosynthetic bacteria produce about 50% of the world’s oxygen.

Statement III is incorrect:

  • Atmospheric air has much more oxygen than surface water; water does not contain several folds higher oxygen than air.

So, the correct answer is: B


QUESTION 4

EasyPhysical GeographyPrelims 2025

Consider the following statements:

I. Without the atmosphere, temperature would be well below freezing point everywhere on the Earth's surface. II. Heat absorbed and trapped by the atmosphere maintains our planet's average temperature. III. Atmosphere's gases, like carbon dioxide, are particularly good at absorbing and trapping radiation.

Which of the statements given above are correct?

A. I and III only

B. I and II only

C. I, II and III

D. II and III only

Answer: C

Explanation

Statement I: Correct Without an atmosphere, Earth’s surface would lose heat rapidly and become much colder, like the Moon.

Statement II: Correct The atmosphere traps heat via the greenhouse effect, maintaining a temperature suitable for life.

Statement III: Correct Gases like CO₂, methane, and water vapor absorb infrared radiation, causing the greenhouse effect.

Correct Answer: All three statements are correct.


QUESTION 5

HardScience & TechnologyPrelims 2025

In the context of electric vehicle batteries, consider the following elements:

I. Cobalt II. Graphite III. Lithium IV. Nickel

How many of the above usually make up battery cathodes?

A. Only one

B. Only two

C. Only three

D. All the four

Answer: C

Explanation

In lithium-ion batteries, the cathode is typically made of materials that include Cobalt, Lithium, and Nickel, depending on the chemistry used.

  • I. Cobalt: Used in cathodes like LCO and NMC.
  • II. Graphite: Used in the anode, not the cathode.
  • III. Lithium: Core element in cathode materials (like LCO, LFP).
  • IV. Nickel: Found in cathode types like NMC and NCA.

Three of the four are used in cathodes.

Alternatively, you can use mnemonic CoLiNi to remember Cathode forming materials.


QUESTION 6

MediumModern HistoryPrelims 2025

Consider the following statements in respect of the Non-Cooperation Movement:

I. The Congress declared the attainment of 'Swaraj' by all legitimate and peaceful means to be its objective. II. It was to be implemented in stages with civil disobedience and non-payment of taxes for the next stage only if 'Swaraj' did not come within a year and the Government resorted to repression.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

A. I only

B. II only

C. Both I and II

D. Neither I nor II

Answer: C

Explanation

This question tests your knowledge of the objectives and phased strategy of the Non-Cooperation Movement (1920) led by the Indian National Congress.

Statement I: Correct

  • The Congress declared in the Nagpur session (1920) that attaining 'Swaraj' by all legitimate and peaceful means was its objective.

Statement II: Incorrect

  • While the Non-Cooperation Movement did envision a phased approach, the conditions mentioned are not entirely accurate. Gandhi did promise Swaraj in one year if the movement was followed sincerely. Civil disobedience and non-payment of taxes were considered, but not necessarily only if 'Swaraj' didn't come within a year and only if the government resorted to repression. Gandhi kept the discretion to start civil disobedience in his hands.

Answer: A


QUESTION 7

HardScience & TechnologyPrelims 2025

With reference to India's defence, consider the following pairs:

Aircraft type – Description I. Dornier-228 : Maritime patrol aircraft II. IL-76 : Supersonic combat aircraft III. C-17 Globemaster III : Military transport aircraft

How many of the pairs given above are correctly matched?

A. Only one

B. Only two

C. All the three

D. None

Answer: B

Explanation

Pair I: Dornier-228 : Maritime patrol aircraft — Correct Dornier-228 is used by Indian Navy & Coast Guard for maritime patrol and surveillance.

Pair II: IL-76 : Supersonic combat aircraft — Incorrect IL-76 is a heavy military transport aircraft, not supersonic or combat.

Pair III: C-17 Globemaster III : Military transport aircraft — Correct C-17 is a strategic military transport aircraft used by the Indian Air Force.

Therefore, only pairs I and III are correct.


QUESTION 8

EasyEconomyPrelims 2025

Consider the following statements:

I. The Reserve Bank of India mandates all the listed companies in India to submit a Business Responsibility and Sustainability Report (BRSR). II. In India, a company submitting a BRSR makes disclosures in the report that are largely non-financial in nature.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

A. I only

B. II only

C. Both I and II

D. Neither I nor II

Answer: B

Explanation

The Business Responsibility and Sustainability Report (BRSR) is a disclosure framework introduced by SEBI to promote transparency in a company’s non-financial performance, particularly in Environmental, Social, and Governance (ESG) areas.

Statement I: Incorrect

  • SEBI, not the RBI, mandates the submission of BRSR.
  • It applies to the top 1,000 listed companies by market capitalization.

Statement II: Correct

  • BRSR disclosures are mostly non-financial and focus on areas like environment, social responsibility, and governance.

QUESTION 9

EasyArt & CulturePrelims 2025

The famous female figurine known as 'Dancing Girl', found at Mohenjo-daro, is made of

A. Carnelian

B. Clay

C. Bronze

D. Gold

Answer: C

Explanation

The 'Dancing Girl' of Mohenjo-daro is a celebrated example of Indus Valley Civilization art, reflecting high craftsmanship in metalwork.

The Dancing Girl is made of bronze, created using the lost-wax casting method.

DG


QUESTION 10

EasyScience & TechnologyPrelims 2025

What is the common characteristic of the chemical substances generally known as CL-20, HMX and LLM-105, which are sometimes talked about in media?

A. These are alternatives to hydro-fluorocarbon refrigerants

B. These are explosives in military weapons

C. These are high-energy fuels for cruise missiles

D. These are fuels for rocket propulsion

Answer: B

Explanation

CL-20, HMX, and LLM-105 are chemical substances known for their use as high-energy explosives in military weapons.

  • CL-20: A powerful explosive with high energy density.
  • HMX: A well-known military explosive used in various munitions.
  • LLM-105: A newer explosive with similar high performance.

All three are explosives used in military weapons.


QUESTION 11

HardEconomyPrelims 2025

Consider the following statements:

Statement I: Of the two major ethanol producers in the world, i.e., Brazil and the United States of America, the former produces more ethanol than the latter.

Statement II: Unlike in the United States of America where corn is the principal feedstock for ethanol production, sugarcane is the principal feedstock for ethanol production in Brazil.

Which of the statements given above are correct?

A. Both Statement I and Statement II are correct and Statement II explains Statement I

B. Both Statement I and Statement II are correct but Statement II does not explain Statement I

C. Statement I is correct but Statement II is not correct

D. Statement I is not correct but Statement II is correct

Answer: D

Explanation

Ethanol is a biofuel produced mainly by fermenting sugars found in crops like corn and sugarcane, with the USA and Brazil being the top global producers—each using a different primary feedstock.

Statement I: Incorrect

  • The United States is the largest ethanol producer, not Brazil.

Statement II: Correct

  • USA uses corn; Brazil uses sugarcane as the primary feedstock for ethanol.

QUESTION 12

HardInternational RelationsPrelims 2025

Consider the following countries:

I. Austria II. Bulgaria III. Croatia IV. Serbia V. Sweden VI. North Macedonia

How many of the above are members of the North Atlantic Treaty Organization?

A. Only three

B. Only four

C. Only five

D. All the six

Answer: B

Explanation

❌I. Austria - Not a NATO member (maintains neutrality).

✅ II.Bulgaria - NATO member (joined in 2004).

✅ III. Croatia - NATO member (joined in 2009).

❌IV. Serbia - Not a NATO member (participates in Partnership for Peace, but not a full member).

✅ V. Sweden - NATO member (officially joined in March 2024).

✅ VI. North Macedonia - NATO member (joined in 2020).

So, four of the listed countries are members of NATO: Bulgaria, Croatia, Sweden, and North Macedonia.


QUESTION 13

EasyIndian PolityPrelims 2025

With reference to India, consider the following:

I. The Inter-State Council II. The National Security Council III. Zonal Councils

How many of the above were established as per the provisions of the Constitution of India?

A. Only one

B. Only two

C. All the three

D. None

Answer: A

Explanation

Among the listed bodies, only the Inter-State Council is established by the Constitution of India. The others are based on statutory or executive provisions.

I. Inter-State Council – Correct

  • Established under Article 263 of the Constitution to facilitate Centre-State coordination.

II. National Security Council – Incorrect

  • Formed in 1998 by an executive order, not mentioned in the Constitution.

III. Zonal Councils – Incorrect

  • Established under the States Reorganisation Act, 1956, a statutory but non-constitutional body.

QUESTION 14

HardSocial Issues & SchemesPrelims 2025

Who amongst the following are members of the Jury to select the recipient of 'Gandhi Peace Prize'?

I. The President of India II. The Prime Minister of India III. The Chief Justice of India IV. The Leader of Opposition in the Lok Sabha

Select the correct answer using the code given below.

A. II and IV only

B. I, II and III

C. II, III and IV

D. I and III only

Answer: C

Explanation

Statement I: Incorrect The President of India is NOT a member of the Jury.

Statement II: Correct The Prime Minister of India is the Chairperson of the Jury.

Statement III: Correct The Chief Justice of India (or a Supreme Court Judge nominated by the CJI) is a Jury member.

Statement IV: Correct The Leader of Opposition in Lok Sabha (or leader of largest opposition party) is a Jury member.

Correct Answer: Statements II, III, and IV are correct.


QUESTION 15

EasyEconomyPrelims 2025

Consider the following statements:

I. Capital receipts create a liability or cause a reduction in the assets of the Government. II. Borrowings and disinvestment are capital receipts. III. Interest received on loans creates a liability of the Government.

Which of the statements given above are correct?

A. I and II only

B. II and III only

C. I and III only

D. I, II and III

Answer: A

Explanation

Capital receipts involve transactions that either increase liabilities or reduce assets for the government. Revenue receipts, on the other hand, are routine incomes like interest or taxes that don’t affect assets or liabilities.

Statement I: Correct

  • Capital receipts create liabilities (like borrowings) or reduce assets (like disinvestment).

Statement II: Correct

  • Borrowings and disinvestment are both capital receipts.

Statement III: Incorrect

  • Interest received is a revenue receipt, not a capital receipt—it’s income, not a liability.

QUESTION 16

MediumEconomyPrelims 2025

Consider the following statements:

I. India accounts for a very large portion of all equity option contracts traded globally thus exhibiting a great boom. II. India’s stock market has grown rapidly in the recent past even overtaking Hong Kong’s at some point of time. III. There is no regulatory body either to warn the small investors about the risks of options trading or to act on unregistered financial advisors in this regard.

Which of the statements given above are correct?

A. I and II only

B. II and III only

C. I and III only

D. I, II and III

Answer: A

Explanation

India has seen a massive rise in equity options trading and stock market capitalization, but investor protection is actively overseen by SEBI.

Statement I: Correct India leads globally in equity options trading volume, reflecting a major boom in the derivatives market.

Statement II: Correct In early 2024, India's stock market temporarily overtook Hong Kong’s, becoming the 4th largest by market cap.

Statement III: Incorrect India has a regulatory body—SEBI—which issues warnings and acts against unregistered advisors.


QUESTION 17

EasyIndian PolityPrelims 2025

With reference to the Indian polity, consider the following statements:

I. An Ordinance can amend any Central Act. II. An Ordinance can abridge a Fundamental Right. III. An Ordinance can come into effect from a back date.

Which of the statements given above are correct?

A. I and II only

B. II and III only

C. I and III only

D. I, II and III

Answer: C

Explanation

An Ordinance is a temporary law issued by the President (Article 123) or Governor (Article 213) when the legislature is not in session. It holds the same force as a regular law, but must adhere to constitutional limits.

Statement I: Correct

  • An Ordinance can amend any Central Act, just like a Parliamentary law, subject to constitutional provisions.

Statement II: Incorrect

  • Ordinances cannot abridge Fundamental Rights as per Article 13(2) of the Constitution. Any such provision is void.

Statement III: Correct

  • Ordinances can be given retrospective effect, i.e., they can be enforced from a past date.

QUESTION 18

HardIndian GeographyPrelims 2025

Consider the following pairs:

State – Description I. Arunachal Pradesh : The capital is named after a fort, and the State has two National Parks. II. Nagaland : The State came into existence on the basis of a Constitutional Amendment Act. III. Tripura : Initially a Part 'C' State, it became a centrally administered territory with the reorganization of States in 1956 and later attained the status of a full-fledged State.

How many of the above pairs are correctly matched?

A. Only one

B. Only two

C. All the three

D. None

Answer: C

Explanation

This question tests knowledge of historical and administrative facts about northeastern Indian states.

Pair I: Arunachal Pradesh – Correct

  • Itanagar, the capital, is named after Ita Fort.
  • The state has two National Parks: Namdapha and Mouling.

Pair II: Nagaland – Correct

  • Nagaland attained statehood via a constitutional amendment and came into being on 1 December 1963 through the State of Nagaland Act, 1962.

Pair III: Tripura – Correct

  • Tripura was a Part 'C' state, became a Union Territory in 1956, and was granted statehood in 1972.

QUESTION 19

EasyAncient HistoryPrelims 2025

Fa-hien (Faxian), the Chinese pilgrim, travelled to India during the reign of

A. Samudragupta

B. Chandragupta II

C. Kumaragupta I

D. Skandagupta

Answer: B

Explanation

The correct answer is B. Chandragupta II.

Fa-hien (Faxian), the Chinese Buddhist pilgrim, visited India during the reign of Chandragupta II (also known as Chandragupta Vikramaditya) of the Gupta dynasty. He arrived around the early 5th century CE, seeking Buddhist texts and studying the practices of Buddhism in India. His travel accounts provide valuable information about Gupta India’s society, administration, and Buddhism.

The other rulers listed do not align with the period of Fa-hien’s visit.


QUESTION 20

EasyModern HistoryPrelims 2025

Consider the following subjects with regard to Non-Cooperation Programme:

I. Boycott of law-courts and foreign cloth II. Observance of strict non-violence III. Retention of titles and honours without using them in public IV. Establishment of Panchayats for settling disputes

How many of the above were parts of Non-Cooperation Programme?

A. Only one

B. Only two

C. Only three

D. All the four

Answer: C

Explanation

The Non-Cooperation Programme aimed to resist British rule through boycott and self-reliance, emphasizing non-violence and alternative institutions.

Statement I is correct:

  • Boycott of law courts and foreign cloth was a key part of the movement.

Statement II is correct:

  • Strict non-violence was insisted upon by Gandhi during the movement.

Statement III is incorrect:

  • The programme required surrendering British titles and honours, not retaining them.

Statement IV is correct:

  • Setting up Panchayats to settle disputes locally was encouraged.

So, the correct answer is: C (Only three)


QUESTION 21

EasyPhysical GeographyPrelims 2025

Which of the following are the evidences of the phenomenon of continental drift?

I. The belt of ancient rocks from Brazil coast matches with those from Western Africa. II. The gold deposits of Ghana are derived from the Brazil plateau when the two continents lay side by side. III. The Gondwana system of sediments from India is known to have its counterparts in six different landmasses of the Southern Hemisphere.

Select the correct answer using the code given below.

A. I and III only

B. I and II only

C. I, II and III

D. II and III only

Answer: C

Explanation

Statement I: Correct Ancient rock belts on Brazil’s coast match those on Western Africa, showing geological continuity.

Statement II: Correct Gold deposits in Ghana correlate with those on the Brazil plateau, indicating a shared origin.

Statement III: Correct Gondwana sediments in India match those in Antarctica, Australia, South Africa, South America, and Madagascar, with similar fossils and environments.

Correct Answer: All three statements are correct.


QUESTION 22

MediumIndian PolityPrelims 2025

With reference to the Indian polity, consider the following statements:

I. The Governor of a State is not answerable to any court for the exercise and performance of the powers and duties of his/her office. II. No criminal proceedings shall be instituted or continued against the Governor during his/her term of office. III. Members of a State Legislature are not liable to any proceedings in any court in respect of anything said within the House.

Which of the statements given above are correct?

A. I and II only

B. II and III only

C. I and III only

D. I, II and III

Answer: D

Explanation

The Indian Constitution provides legal immunities and privileges to ensure the independent functioning of constitutional offices and legislative bodies.

Statement I: Correct

  • As per Article 361(1), the Governor is not answerable to any court for actions taken in the course of their official duties.

Statement II: Correct

  • Article 361(2) states that no criminal proceedings can be initiated or continued against a Governor during their term.

Statement III: Correct

  • Article 194(2) grants immunity to State Legislators for anything said or any vote given within the House or its committees.

QUESTION 23

EasyModern HistoryPrelims 2025

Subsequent to which one of the following events, Gandhiji, who consistently opposed untouchability and appealed for its eradication from all spheres, decided to include the upliftment of 'Harijans' in his political and social programme?

A. The Poona Pact

B. The Gandhi–Irwin Agreement (Delhi Pact)

C. Arrest of Congress leadership at the time of the Quit India Movement

D. Promulgation of the Government of India Act, 1935

Answer: A

Explanation

Mahatma Gandhi made the upliftment of Harijans a central goal after opposing separate electorates for the Depressed Classes in the British Communal Award.

After the Poona Pact (1932), signed with Dr. B.R. Ambedkar, Gandhi intensified efforts to eradicate untouchability, forming the Harijan Sevak Sangh and launching the 'Harijan' journal.


QUESTION 24

MediumEconomyPrelims 2025

Consider the following statements:

Statement I: As regards returns from an investment in a company, generally, bondholders are considered to be relatively at lower risk than stockholders.

Statement II: Bondholders are lenders to a company whereas stockholders are its owners.

Statement III: For repayment purpose, bondholders are prioritized over stockholders by a company.

Which one of the following is correct in respect of the above statements?

A. Both Statement II and Statement III are correct and both of them explain Statement I

B. Both Statement I and Statement II are correct and Statement I explains Statement II

C. Only one of the Statements II and III is correct and that explains Statement I

D. Neither Statement II nor Statement III is correct

Answer: A

Explanation

Bonds are debt instruments, while stocks represent ownership. Bondholders earn fixed interest and are repaid before stockholders, making them relatively less risky investors.

Statement I: Correct Bondholders face lower risk as they receive fixed returns and are prioritized during repayment over stockholders.

Statement II: Correct Bondholders are lenders to the company; stockholders are owners.

Statement III: Correct In case of liquidation, companies repay bondholders before stockholders.


QUESTION 25

HardWorld GeographyPrelims 2025

Consider the following water bodies:

I. Lake Tanganyika II. Lake Tonlé Sap III. Patos Lagoon

Through how many of them does the equator pass?

A. Only one

B. Only two

C. All the three

D. None

Answer: D

Explanation

Statement I: Incorrect Lake Tanganyika lies south of the Equator, in Tanzania, DRC, Burundi, and Zambia.

Statement II: Incorrect Lake Tonlé Sap is in Cambodia, well north of the Equator.

Statement III: Incorrect Patos Lagoon is in southern Brazil, far south of the Equator.

Correct Answer: (D) None The Equator does not pass through any of the three water bodies listed.


QUESTION 26

HardEnvironment & EcologyPrelims 2025

Consider the following statements:

Statement I: Article 6 of the Paris Agreement on climate change is frequently discussed in global discussions on sustainable development and climate change.

Statement II: Article 6 of the Paris Agreement on climate change sets out the principles of carbon markets.

Statement III: Article 6 of the Paris Agreement on climate change intends to promote inter-country non-market strategies to reach their climate targets.

Which one of the following is correct in respect of the above statements?

A. Both Statement II and Statement III are correct and both of them explain Statement I

B. Both Statement II and Statement III are correct but only one of them explains Statement I

C. Only one of the Statements II and III is correct and that explains Statement I

D. Neither Statement II nor Statement III is correct

Answer: A

Explanation

Article 6 of the Paris Agreement is crucial as it outlines international cooperation through both carbon markets and non-market approaches to help countries meet climate goals.

Statement I is correct:

  • Article 6 is widely discussed because it enables cooperation through market and non-market means to fight climate change.

Statement II is correct:

  • It defines rules for carbon markets, including carbon trading and credit mechanisms.

Statement III is correct:

  • It also promotes non-market tools like technology transfer and capacity building to reach climate targets.

So, the correct answer is: A


QUESTION 27

MediumInternational RelationsPrelims 2025

Consider the following statements in respect of BIMSTEC:

I. It is a regional organization consisting of seven member States till January 2025. II. It came into existence with the signing of the Dhaka Declaration, 1999. III. Bangladesh, India, Sri Lanka, Thailand and Nepal are founding member States of BIMSTEC. IV. In BIMSTEC, the subsector of tourism is being led by India.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

A. I and II

B. II and III

C. I and IV

D. I only

Answer: D

Explanation

Statement I: Correct BIMSTEC currently has seven members: Bangladesh, India, Myanmar, Sri Lanka, Thailand, Nepal, and Bhutan.

Statement II: Incorrect BIMSTEC was established by the Bangkok Declaration in 1997, not the Dhaka Declaration in 1999.

Statement III: Incorrect Founding members were Bangladesh, India, Sri Lanka, Thailand, and Myanmar; Nepal and Bhutan joined later.

Statement IV: Incorrect Nepal leads tourism subsector, not India; India leads sectors like Counter-Terrorism and Energy.

Correct Answer: Only Statement I is correct.


QUESTION 28

HardScience & TechnologyPrelims 2025

Consider the following substances:

I. Ethanol II. Nitroglycerine III. Urea

Coal gasification technology can be used in the production of how many of them?

A. Only one

B. Only two

C. All the three

D. None

Answer: C

Explanation

Coal gasification produces syngas (carbon monoxide + hydrogen), which is a starting point for making many chemicals.

✅I. Ethanol – Syngas can be converted into ethanol using chemical processes. ✅II. Nitroglycerine – Though not made directly, syngas helps produce chemicals (like hydrogen and methanol) needed to make nitroglycerine. ✅III. Urea – Syngas is used to produce ammonia, a key ingredient for urea production.

All three substances can be produced using coal gasification technology.


QUESTION 29

MediumPhysical GeographyPrelims 2025

Consider the following statements:

Statement I: Scientific studies suggest that a shift is taking place in the Earth’s rotation and axis.

Statement II: Solar flares and associated coronal mass ejections bombarded the Earth’s outermost atmosphere with tremendous amount of energy.

Statement III: As the Earth’s polar ice melts, the water tends to move towards the equator.

Which one of the following is correct in respect of the above statements?

A. Both Statement II and Statement III are correct and both of them explain Statement I

B. Both Statement II and Statement III are correct but only one of them explains Statement I

C. Only one of the Statements II and III is correct and that explains Statement I

D. Neither Statement II nor Statement III is correct

Answer: B

Explanation

Earth’s rotation and axis can shift due to changes in how mass is distributed across the planet, such as melting polar ice.

Statement I is correct:

  • Studies show that Earth’s rotation and axis are shifting slightly due to internal mass redistribution.

Statement II is correct:

  • But it doesn’t explain the shift — solar flares affect only the upper atmosphere, not Earth’s rotation.

Statement III is correct:

  • It explains the shift — melting polar ice moves water toward the equator, altering Earth’s mass distribution and spin.

QUESTION 30

MediumWorld GeographyPrelims 2025

Consider the following pairs:

Country – Resource-rich in I. Botswana : Diamond II. Chile : Lithium III. Indonesia : Nickel

In how many of the above rows is the given information correctly matched?

A. Only one

B. Only two

C. All the three

D. None

Answer: C

Explanation

This question checks knowledge of countries known for major natural resources that play key roles in global markets.

I. Botswana : Diamond – Correct

  • Botswana is a top global producer of diamonds, vital to its economy.

II. Chile : Lithium – Correct

  • Chile has vast lithium reserves in the Atacama Desert and is a leading global supplier.

III. Indonesia : Nickel – Correct

  • Indonesia is the world’s largest producer of nickel, crucial for batteries and steel.

QUESTION 31

HardInternational RelationsPrelims 2025

Consider the following statements in respect of the Kho Kho World Cup:

I. The event was held in Delhi, India. II. Indian men beat Nepal with a score of 78–40 in the final to become the World Champion in men category. III. Indian women beat Nepal with a score of 54–36 in the final to become the World Champion in women category.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

A. I only

B. II and III only

C. I and III only

D. I, II and III

Answer: A

Explanation

✅ Statement I: Correct The inaugural Kho Kho World Cup was held in New Delhi, India, from January 13-19, 2025.

❌ Statement II: Incorrect India defeated Nepal 54-36 (not 78-40) to win the men’s final.

❌ Statement III: Incorrect India beat Nepal 78-40 (not 54-36) in the women’s final.

Additional Context: 24 countries participated, and the event was organized by the Kho Kho Federation of India with the International Kho Kho Federation.

Therefore, only Statement I is correct.


QUESTION 32

HardInternational RelationsPrelims 2025

Consider the following statements regarding AI Action Summit held in Grand Palais, Paris in February 2025:

I. Co-chaired with India, the event builds on the advances made at the Bletchley Park Summit held in 2023 and the Seoul Summit held in 2024. II. Along with other countries, US and UK also signed the declaration on inclusive and sustainable AI.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

A. I only

B. II only

C. Both I and II

D. Neither I nor II

Answer: A

Explanation

Statement I: Correct India co-chaired the AI Action Summit in Paris (Feb 2025), continuing efforts from the Bletchley Park (UK, 2023) and Seoul (South Korea, 2024) Summits on AI governance.

Statement II: Incorrect The joint statement on ‘Inclusive and Sustainable AI’ was signed by 58 countries including India and China, but the US and UK did not sign due to concerns about overregulation.

Correct Answer: Only Statement I is correct.


QUESTION 33

HardEnvironment & EcologyPrelims 2025

Consider the following statements:

Statement I: At the 28th United Nations Climate Change Conference (COP28), India refrained from signing the “Declaration on Climate and Health”.

Statement II: The COP28 Declaration on Climate and Health is a binding declaration; and if signed, it becomes mandatory to decarbonize health sector.

Statement III: If India’s health sector is decarbonized, the resilience of its health-care system may be compromised.

Which one of the following is correct in respect of the above statements?

A. Both Statement II and Statement III are correct and both of them explain Statement I

B. Both Statement II and Statement III are correct but only one of them explains Statement I

C. Only one of the Statements II and III is correct and that explains Statement I

D. Neither Statement II nor Statement III is correct

Answer: C

Explanation

At COP28, India chose not to sign the “Declaration on Climate and Health,” and this decision can be understood by analyzing the nature of the declaration and India’s concerns.

Statement I: Correct. India did not sign the COP28 Declaration on Climate and Health, unlike over 120 other countries.

Statement II: Incorrect. The declaration is not legally binding; it is a voluntary political commitment. Signing it does not legally mandate countries to decarbonize their health sectors immediately.

Statement III: Correct. India’s concern is that rapid decarbonization of its health sector could compromise the resilience and accessibility of healthcare services, given current developmental challenges and resource constraints.

Therefore, only Statement III correctly explains Statement I, while Statement II is factually wrong about the binding nature of the declaration.


QUESTION 34

MediumEconomyPrelims 2025

Consider the following statements:

I. India has joined the Minerals Security Partnership as a member. II. India is a resource-rich country in all the 30 critical minerals that it has identified. III. The Parliament in 2023 has amended the Mines and Minerals (Development and Regulation) Act, 1957 empowering the Central Government to exclusively auction mining lease and composite license for certain critical minerals.

Which of the statements given above are correct?

A. I and II only

B. II and III only

C. I and III only

D. I, II and III

Answer: C

Explanation

Critical minerals are essential for modern technologies and clean energy, but many countries, including India, depend on imports for several of them. To strengthen supply chains, India has joined international partnerships and reformed mining laws.

Statement I: Correct India joined the Minerals Security Partnership (MSP) in 2023 to ensure reliable access to critical minerals.

Statement II: Incorrect India is not resource-rich in all 30 critical minerals it has identified and remains import-dependent for several, like cobalt and nickel.

Statement III: Correct In 2023, Parliament amended the Mines and Minerals Act, giving the Central Government power to auction leases for critical minerals.


QUESTION 35

EasyModern HistoryPrelims 2025

Consider the following statements about Raja Ram Mohan Roy:

I. He possessed great love and respect for the traditional philosophical systems of the East. II. He desired his countrymen to accept the rational and scientific approach and the principle of human dignity and social equality of all men and women.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

A. I only

B. II only

C. Both I and II

D. Neither I nor II

Answer: C

Explanation

Raja Ram Mohan Roy was a reformer who respected Indian traditions but promoted rational thinking and social equality.

Statement I is correct:

  • He respected traditional Eastern philosophies like Vedanta and sought their reform.

Statement II is correct:

  • He advocated for rationalism, scientific thinking, and equality of all men and women.

So, the correct answer is: C


QUESTION 36

EasyModern HistoryPrelims 2025

Who among the following was the founder of the 'Self-Respect Movement'?

A. 'Periyar' E. V. Ramaswamy Naicker

B. Dr. B. R. Ambedkar

C. Bhaskarrao Jadhav

D. Dinkarrao Javalkar

Answer: A

Explanation

The Self-Respect Movement, started in 1925, aimed to dismantle caste hierarchies and promote social equality, especially for non-Brahmin communities in Tamil Nadu.

He founded the Self-Respect Movement to fight caste oppression and promote rationalism and equality.


QUESTION 37

HardEnvironment & EcologyPrelims 2025

Regarding Peacock tarantula (Gooty tarantula), consider the following statements:

I. It is an omnivorous crustacean. II. Its natural habitat in India is only limited to some forest areas. III. In its natural habitat, it is an arboreal species.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

A. I only

B. I and III

C. II only

D. II and III

Answer: D

Explanation

The Peacock tarantula (Gooty tarantula) is a rare, tree-dwelling spider found in limited forest areas in India.

Statement I is incorrect:

  • It is a spider (arachnid), not an omnivorous crustacean.

Statement II is correct:

  • Its habitat is restricted to some forest areas in the Eastern Ghats.

Statement III is correct:

  • It is arboreal, living in trees and tree crevices.

So, the correct answer is: D


QUESTION 38

HardAncient HistoryPrelims 2025

With reference to ancient India (600–322 BC), consider the following pairs:

Territorial region – River flowing in the region I. Asmaka : Godavari II. Kamboja : Vipas III. Avanti : Mahanadi IV. Kosala : Sarayu

How many of the pairs given above are correctly matched?

A. Only one

B. Only two

C. Only three

D. All the four

Answer: B

Explanation

I. Asmaka : Godavari

  • Asmaka (or Assaka) was a Mahajanapada located in the Deccan region on the banks of the Godavari river. This pair is correctly matched.

II. Kamboja : Vipas

  • Kamboja was in the north-western part of the Indian subcontinent (around Afghanistan and Tajikistan). The river Vipas (Beas) flows in Punjab, so this pair is incorrectly matched.

III. Avanti : Mahanadi

  • Avanti was in western Madhya Pradesh with Ujjain as its capital. The main river there was the Kshipra, not the Mahanadi, so this pair is incorrect.

IV. Kosala : Sarayu

  • Kosala was a Mahajanapada in present-day eastern Uttar Pradesh, through which the Sarayu river flows. This pair is correct.

QUESTION 39

MediumEnvironment & EcologyPrelims 2025

Which one of the following launched the 'Nature Solutions Finance Hub for Asia and the Pacific'?

A. The Asian Development Bank (ADB)

B. The Asian Infrastructure Investment Bank (AIIB)

C. The New Development Bank (NDB)

D. The International Bank for Reconstruction and Development (IBRD)

Answer: A

Explanation

Nature-based solutions involve using natural processes to tackle climate change and biodiversity loss, often needing dedicated financial support.n ADB launched the Nature Solutions Finance Hub for Asia and the Pacific to fund nature-based solutions for climate and environmental challenges in the region.


QUESTION 40

MediumIndian PolityPrelims 2025

Consider the following statements:

I. If any question arises as to whether a Member of the House of the People has become subject to disqualification under the Tenth Schedule, the President’s decision in accordance with the opinion of the Council of Union Ministers shall be final. II. There is no mention of the word 'political party' in the Constitution of India.

Which of the statements given above are correct?

A. I only

B. II only

C. Both I and II

D. Neither I nor II

Answer: D

Explanation

Statement I: Incorrect The decision on disqualification under the Tenth Schedule is made by the Speaker or Chairman, not the President or the Union Council of Ministers.

Statement II: Incorrect The word ‘political party’ is explicitly mentioned in the Tenth Schedule of the Constitution.

Therefore, neither statement is correct.


QUESTION 41

EasyEnvironment & EcologyPrelims 2025

Artificial way of causing rainfall to reduce air pollution makes use of

A. silver iodide and potassium iodide

B. silver nitrate and potassium iodide

C. silver iodide and potassium nitrate

D. silver nitrate and potassium chloride

Answer: A

Explanation

A. silver iodide and potassium iodide: True Both are used in cloud seeding because their crystalline structures help form ice nuclei, inducing rainfall.

B. silver nitrate and potassium iodide: False Silver nitrate is not used for artificial rainmaking.

C. silver iodide and potassium nitrate: False Potassium nitrate is not used in cloud seeding.

D. silver nitrate and potassium chloride: False Neither chemical is used in artificial rainmaking.

Therefore, option A is correct.


QUESTION 42

MediumIndian PolityPrelims 2025

Consider the following statements:

Statement I: In India, State Governments have no power for making rules for grant of concessions in respect of extraction of minor minerals even though such minerals are located in their territories.

Statement II: In India, the Central Government has the power to notify minor minerals under the relevant law.

Which one of the following is correct in respect of the above statements?

A. Both Statement I and Statement II are correct and Statement II explains Statement I

B. Both Statement I and Statement II are correct but Statement II does not explain Statement I

C. Statement I is correct but Statement II is not correct

D. Statement I is not correct but Statement II is correct

Answer: D

Explanation

Statement I: Incorrect Regulation of minor minerals is mainly a State subject under the MMDR Act, 1957. States have the authority to make rules for extraction concessions.

Statement II: Correct The Central Government notifies which minerals are classified as 'minor minerals' under the MMDR Act.

Therefore, Statement I is incorrect, and Statement II is correct.


QUESTION 43

HardIndian PolityPrelims 2025

Consider the following statements:

I. On the dissolution of the House of the People, the Speaker shall not vacate his/her office until immediately before the first meeting of the House of the People after the dissolution. II. According to the provisions of the Constitution of India, a Member of the House of the People on being elected as Speaker shall resign from his/her political party immediately. III. The Speaker of the House of the People may be removed from his/her office by a resolution of the House of the People passed by a majority of all the then Members of the House, provided that no resolution shall be moved unless at least fourteen days' notice has been given of the intention to move the resolution.

Which of the statements given above are correct?

A. I and II only

B. II and III only

C. I and III only

D. I, II and III

Answer: C

Explanation

Statement I: Correct The Speaker of Lok Sabha continues in office even after dissolution until just before the new House meets, ensuring continuity (Article 94).

Statement II: Incorrect No constitutional mandate requires the Speaker to resign from their political party; this is only a convention for impartiality.

Statement III: Correct The Speaker can be removed by a majority resolution with at least 14 days' prior notice (Article 94).

Therefore, statements I and III are correct.


QUESTION 44

EasyModern HistoryPrelims 2025

Who provided legal defence to the people arrested in the aftermath of Chauri Chaura incident?

A. C. R. Das

B. Madan Mohan Malaviya and Krishna Kant

C. Dr. Saifuddin Kitchlew and Khwaja Hasan Nizami

D. M. A. Jinnah

Answer: B

Explanation

After the Chauri Chaura incident in 1922, many people were arrested and faced severe punishment, including death sentences. Legal intervention helped reduce this.

B. Madan Mohan Malaviya and Krishna Kant – Correct

  • Madan Mohan Malaviya and his son Krishna Kant provided legal defence to the accused.
  • Their efforts led to major sentence reductions, saving many from execution.

QUESTION 45

EasyIndian PolityPrelims 2025

Consider the following pairs:

Provision in the Constitution of India – Stated under I. Separation of Judiciary from the Executive in the public services of the State : The Directive Principles of the State Policy II. Valuing and preserving of the rich heritage of our composite culture : The Fundamental Duties III. Prohibition of employment of children below the age of 14 years in factories : The Fundamental Rights

How many of the above pairs are correctly matched?

A. Only one

B. Only two

C. All the three

D. None

Answer: C

Explanation

Each of these constitutional provisions is accurately linked to its correct part within the Constitution of India.

Pair I: Directive Principles of State Policy – Correct

  • Article 50 mandates the separation of the judiciary from the executive in the public services of the State.

Pair II: Fundamental Duties – Correct

  • Article 51A(f) states that citizens must value and preserve the rich heritage of our composite culture.

Pair III: Fundamental Rights – Correct

  • Article 24 prohibits the employment of children below 14 years in hazardous work such as factories or mines.

QUESTION 46

HardEconomyPrelims 2025

Which of the following statements with regard to recommendations of the 15th Finance Commission of India are correct?

I. It has recommended grants of ₹4,800 crores from the year 2022–23 to the year 2025–26 for incentivizing States to enhance educational outcomes. II. 45% of the net proceeds of Union taxes are to be shared with States. III. ₹45,000 crores are to be kept as performance-based incentive for all States for carrying out agricultural reforms. IV. It reintroduced tax effort criteria to reward fiscal performance.

Select the correct answer using the code given below.

A. I, II and III

B. I, II and IV

C. I, III and IV

D. II, III and IV

Answer: C

Explanation

The 15th Finance Commission made recommendations to promote better fiscal discipline, education, and agriculture reforms, while adjusting tax devolution among states.

Statement I: Correct 4,800 crores were recommended (2022–23 to 2025–26) to incentivize states for improving educational outcomes.

Statement II: Incorrect The Commission recommended 41% of Union taxes to be shared with states, not 45%.

Statement III: Correct

  • It proposed a ₹45,000 crore performance-based incentive for states to implement agricultural reforms.

Statement IV: Correct It reintroduced the 'tax effort' criterion, rewarding states that better mobilize revenue in relation to their GSDP.


QUESTION 47

HardWorld GeographyPrelims 2025

Consider the following pairs:

Region – Country I. Mallorca : Italy II. Normandy : Spain III. Sardinia : France

In how many of the above rows is the given information correctly matched?

A. Only one

B. Only two

C. All the three

D. None

Answer: D

Explanation

The question tests knowledge of European geography, particularly the correct country associations of famous regions.

I. Mallorca : Italy

  • Mallorca is part of Spain, not Italy.

II. Normandy : Spain

  • Normandy is a region in France, not Spain.

III. Sardinia : France

  • Sardinia belongs to Italy, not France.

QUESTION 48

HardEnvironment & EcologyPrelims 2025

Consider the following statements:

Statement I: Activated carbon is a good and an attractive tool to remove pollutants from effluent streams and to remediate contaminants from various industries.

Statement II: Activated carbon exhibits a large surface area and a strong potential for adsorbing heavy metals.

Statement III: Activated carbon can be easily synthesized from environmental wastes with high carbon content.

Which one of the following is correct in respect of the above statements?

A. Both Statement II and Statement III are correct and both of them explain Statement I

B. Both Statement II and Statement III are correct but only one of them explains Statement I

C. Only one of the Statements II and III is correct and that explains Statement I

D. Neither Statement II nor Statement III is correct

Answer: A

Explanation

Activated carbon is widely used to clean pollutants because of its unique properties and sustainable production methods.

Statement I: Correct. Activated carbon effectively removes pollutants from industrial effluents due to its high adsorption capacity. It’s commonly used in water treatment and pollution control. ✅Statement II: Correct. This is because activated carbon has an extremely large surface area, created by its porous structure, allowing it to trap heavy metals and other contaminants efficiently. ✅ Statement III: Correct. Moreover, activated carbon can be produced easily and cost-effectively from carbon-rich wastes like coconut shells, rice husks, and other agricultural residues, making it an eco-friendly option.

Thus, both Statement II and Statement III are correct, and together they explain why Statement I is true.


QUESTION 49

HardPhysical GeographyPrelims 2025

Consider the following statements:

I. Anadyr in Siberia and Nome in Alaska are a few kilometers from each other, but when people are waking up and getting set for breakfast in these cities, it would be different days. II. When it is Monday in Anadyr, it is Tuesday in Nome.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

A. I only

B. II only

C. Both I and II

D. Neither I nor II

Answer: A

Explanation

Anadyr (Russia) and Nome (Alaska, USA) lie close to each other geographically but are separated by the International Date Line, leading to a significant difference in calendar dates despite similar times of day.

Statement I: Correct Due to the International Date Line, Anadyr and Nome can have the same time of day but different dates.

Statement II: Incorrect When it’s Monday in Anadyr, it is still Sunday in Nome, not Tuesday—Anadyr is ahead of Nome by almost 21 hours.


QUESTION 50

MediumEconomyPrelims 2025

Which of the following are the sources of income for the Reserve Bank of India?

I. Buying and selling Government bonds II. Buying and selling foreign currency III. Pension fund management IV. Lending to private companies V. Printing and distributing currency notes

Select the correct answer using the code given below.

A. I and II only

B. II, III and IV

C. I, III, IV and V

D. I, II and V

Answer: D

Explanation

The Reserve Bank of India earns income through financial operations such as managing government securities, foreign exchange, and issuing currency. It does not operate like a commercial bank or a pension fund manager.

Statement I: Correct Buying and selling Government bonds through Open Market Operations earns the RBI interest and trading profits.

Statement II: Correct Forex operations and investment of foreign exchange reserves generate income for the RBI.

Statement III: Incorrect RBI does not manage pension funds; that is done by entities like PFRDA.

Statement IV: Incorrect RBI does not lend directly to private companies; it lends to banks, which in turn lend to companies.

Statement V: Correct

  • Printing and distributing currency notes* yields income through seigniorage—the profit from face value minus production cost.

QUESTION 51

HardEconomyPrelims 2025

A country’s fiscal deficit stands at ₹50,000 crores. It is receiving ₹10,000 crores through non-debt creating capital receipts. The country’s interest liabilities are ₹1,500 crores. What is the gross primary deficit?

A. ₹48,500 crores

B. ₹51,500 crores

C. ₹58,500 crores

D. None of the above

Answer: A

Explanation

Fiscal Deficit represents the government's total borrowing requirement, while the Primary Deficit shows how much the government is borrowing excluding interest payments on past debt.

Formula: Primary Deficit = Fiscal Deficit − Interest Payments

Given:

  • Fiscal Deficit = ₹50,000 crores
  • Interest Liabilities = ₹1,500 crores
  • Non-debt capital receipts are already factored into the fiscal deficit, so no need to adjust further.

Calculation: Primary Deficit = ₹50,000 − ₹1,500 = ₹48,500 crores


QUESTION 52

HardArt & CulturePrelims 2025

The first Gandharva Mahavidyalaya, a music training school, was set up in 1901 by Vishnu Digambar Paluskar in

A. Delhi

B. Gwalior

C. Ujjain

D. Lahore

Answer: D

Explanation

✅ Vishnu Digambar Paluskar established the first Gandharva Mahavidyalaya in Lahore in 1901. This marked a significant step in formalizing music education in India, aiming to revive and promote classical music traditions.


QUESTION 53

HardIndian PolityPrelims 2025

With reference to the Government of India, consider the following information:

Organization      Some of its Functions     It Works Under      
Directorate of Enforcement    Enforcement of the Fugitive Economic Offenders Act, 2018     Internal Security Division-I, Ministry of Home Affairs
Directorate of Revenue Intelligence  Enforces the provisions of the Customs Act, 1962    Department of Revenue, Ministry of Finance  
Directorate General of Systems and Data ManagementCarrying out big data analytics to assist tax officers for better policy and nabbing tax evadersDepartment of Revenue, Ministry of Finance     

In how many of the above rows is the information correctly matched?

A. Only one

B. Only two

C. All the three

D. None

Answer: B

Explanation

The question relates to the correct mapping of key investigative and analytical bodies under the Government of India and their parent ministries or departments.

Row I: Incorrect The Directorate of Enforcement does implement the Fugitive Economic Offenders Act, 2018, but it functions under the Department of Revenue, Ministry of Finance, not the Ministry of Home Affairs.

Row II: Correct The Directorate of Revenue Intelligence (DRI) enforces the Customs Act, 1962 and works under the Department of Revenue, Ministry of Finance.

Row III: Correct The Directorate General of Systems and Data Management aids in big data analytics for tax enforcement and operates under the Department of Revenue, Ministry of Finance.


QUESTION 54

HardPhysical GeographyPrelims 2025

Consider the following statements:

Statement I: In the context of effect of water on rocks, chalk is known as a very permeable rock whereas clay is known as quite an impermeable or least permeable rock.

Statement II: Chalk is porous and hence can absorb water.

Statement III: Clay is not at all porous.

Which one of the following is correct in respect of the above statements?

A. Both Statement II and Statement III are correct and both of them explain Statement I

B. Both Statement II and Statement III are correct but only one of them explains Statement I

C. Only one of the Statements II and III is correct and that explains Statement I

D. Neither Statement II nor Statement III is correct

Answer: C

Explanation

Statement I: Correct Chalk is permeable (water passes easily); clay is impermeable (water passes poorly).

Statement II: Correct Chalk is porous, with many small holes that hold water, making it permeable.

Statement III: Incorrect Clay is porous but with very tiny pores that restrict water flow; it is impermeable but not non-porous.

Correct Answer: Only Statements I and II are correct; Statement II explains Statement I.


QUESTION 55

MediumScience & TechnologyPrelims 2025

Consider the following statements:

I. Indian Railways have prepared a National Rail Plan (NRP) to create a future ready railway system by 2028. II. 'Kavach' is an Automatic Train Protection system developed in collaboration with Germany. III. 'Kavach' system consists of RFID tags fitted on track in station section.

Which of the statements given above are not correct?

A. I and II only

B. II and III only

C. I and III only

D. I, II and III

Answer: A

Explanation

Statement I: Incorrect The National Rail Plan targets 2030 for a future-ready railway, not 2028.

Statement II: Incorrect Kavach is an indigenous Automatic Train Protection system developed under 'Make in India', not with Germany.

Statement III: Correct Kavach uses RFID tags on tracks in station sections to track train location and speed continuously.

Therefore, Statements I and II are incorrect, and Statement III is correct.


QUESTION 56

EasyIndian PolityPrelims 2025

Consider the following statements:

I. Panchayats at the intermediate level exist in all States. II. To be eligible to be a Member of a Panchayat at the intermediate level, a person should attain the age of thirty years. III. The Chief Minister of a State constitutes a commission to review the financial position of Panchayats at the intermediate levels and to make recommendations regarding the distribution of net proceeds of taxes and duties, leviable by the State, between the State and Panchayats at the intermediate level.

Which of the statements given above are not correct?

A. I and II only

B. II and III only

C. I and III only

D. I, II and III

Answer: D

Explanation

Statement I: Incorrect Intermediate-level Panchayats are not mandatory in all states; states with population under 20 lakhs may skip this tier.

Statement II: Incorrect Minimum age to be a Panchayat member is 21 years, not 30.

Statement III: Incorrect State Finance Commission is constituted by the Governor, not the Chief Minister.

Correct Answer: All three statements are incorrect.


QUESTION 57

EasyWorld GeographyPrelims 2025

Consider the following countries:

I. United Kingdom II. Denmark III. New Zealand IV. Australia V. Brazil

How many of the above countries have more than four time zones?

A. All the five

B. Only four

C. Only three

D. Only two

Answer: B

Explanation

Based on the distribution of official time zones including overseas territories, we can determine:

United Kingdom – More than four (Total 9 Time Zones) ✅ Denmark – More than four (At least 5 Time Zones) ✅ New Zealand – More than four (Total 5 Time Zones) ✅ Australia – More than four (Total 8-9 Time Zones) ❌ Brazil – Exactly four

Therefore, four out of the five countries have more than four time zones.


QUESTION 58

EasySocial Issues & SchemesPrelims 2025

Consider the following statements about the Rashtriya Gokul Mission:

I. It is important for the upliftment of rural poor as majority of low producing indigenous animals are with small and marginal farmers and landless labourers. II. It was initiated to promote indigenous cattle and buffalo rearing and conservation in a scientific and holistic manner.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

A. I only

B. II only

C. Both I and II

D. Neither I nor II

Answer: C

Explanation

Statement I: Correct RGM aims to conserve indigenous breeds, benefiting small farmers and landless labourers by improving animal productivity.

Statement II: Correct Launched in December 2014, the mission promotes scientific breeding, genetic upgradation, and conservation of indigenous breeds.

Correct Answer: (C) Both Statements I and II are correct.


QUESTION 59

HardEconomyPrelims 2025

Consider the following statements about turmeric during the year 2022–23:

I. India is the largest producer and exporter of turmeric in the world. II. More than 30 varieties of turmeric are grown in India. III. Maharashtra, Telangana, Karnataka and Tamil Nadu are major turmeric producing States in India.

Which of the statements given above are correct?

A. I and II only

B. II and III only

C. I and III only

D. I, II and III

Answer: D

Explanation

Statement I: Correct India produces about 80% of the world’s turmeric and exports around 65% globally.

Statement II: Correct India grows over 30 turmeric varieties like Alleppey Finger, Erode, Sangli, Salem, Nizamabad, and Rajapore.

Statement III: Correct Major producing states include Telangana (largest), Maharashtra, Tamil Nadu, and Karnataka.

Correct Answer: (D) All statements are correct.


QUESTION 60

HardEnvironment & EcologyPrelims 2025

Consider the following statements:

I. Carbon dioxide (CO₂) emissions in India are less than 0.5 t CO₂/capita. II. In terms of CO₂ emissions from fuel combustion, India ranks second in Asia-Pacific region. III. Electricity and heat producers are the largest sources of CO₂ emissions in India.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

A. I and III only

B. II only

C. II and III only

D. I, II and III

Answer: C

Explanation

India’s CO₂ emissions come mainly from fuel combustion, especially electricity generation, and per capita emissions are higher than 0.5 tonnes.

Statement I is incorrect:

  • India’s per capita CO₂ emissions are around 1.9-2.0 tonnes, higher than 0.5 t CO₂/capita.

Statement II is correct:

  • India ranks second in the Asia-Pacific for total CO₂ emissions from fuel combustion, after China.

Statement III is correct:

  • Electricity and heat production (mainly coal-based) is the largest source of India’s CO₂ emissions.

So, the correct answer is: C


QUESTION 61

MediumScience & TechnologyPrelims 2025

Consider the following statements:

I. It is expected that Majorana 1 chip will enable quantum computing. II. Majorana 1 chip has been introduced by Amazon Web Services (AWS). III. Deep learning is a subset of machine learning.

Which of the statements given above are correct?

A. I and II only

B. II and III only

C. I and III only

D. I, II and III

Answer: C

Explanation

Majorana 1 chip is linked to quantum computing and deep learning is part of machine learning, but AWS did not introduce the Majorana 1 chip.

  • I. Majorana 1 chip – Expected to advance quantum computing.
  • II. AWS introducing Majorana 1 – Incorrect, it’s a Microsoft project.
  • III. Deep learning – A subset of machine learning.

Only statements I and III are correct.


QUESTION 62

MediumInternational RelationsPrelims 2025

Consider the following statements:

I. In the finals of the 45th Chess Olympiad held in 2024, Gukesh Dommaraju became the world's youngest winner after defeating the Russian player Ian Nepomniachtchi. II. Abhimanyu Mishra, an American chess player, holds the record of becoming world's youngest ever Grandmaster.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

A. I only

B. II only

C. Both I and II

D. Neither I nor II

Answer: B

Explanation

❌ Statement I: Incorrect Gukesh Dommaraju did not become the youngest world chess champion by defeating Ian Nepomniachtchi; the final was against Ding Liren (of China).

✅ Statement II: Correct Abhimanyu Mishra is the youngest chess Grandmaster ever, achieving the title at 12 years, 4 months, and 25 days.

Therefore, only Statement II is correct.


QUESTION 63

MediumModern HistoryPrelims 2025

'Sedition has become my religion' was the famous statement given by Gandhiji at the time of

A. the Champaran Satyagraha

B. publicly violating Salt Law at Dandi

C. attending the Second Round Table Conference in London

D. the launch of the Quit India Movement

Answer: B

Explanation

The phrase "Sedition has become my religion" was declared by Gandhiji during the Salt Satyagraha, symbolizing his open defiance of British authority through non-violent means.

B. Publicly violating Salt Law at Dandi – Correct

  • Gandhi made this powerful statement during the Salt March (1930) after breaking the Salt Law at Dandi.

QUESTION 64

MediumIndian PolityPrelims 2025

Consider the following statements:

I. The Constitution of India explicitly mentions that in certain spheres the Governor of a State acts in his/her own discretion. II. The President of India can, of his/her own, reserve a bill passed by a State Legislature for his/her consideration without it being forwarded by the Governor of the State concerned.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

A. I only

B. II only

C. Both I and II

D. Neither I nor II

Answer: A

Explanation

The Constitution outlines specific roles where the Governor can act at his/her own discretion, but it does not allow the President to unilaterally intervene in State legislation without the Governor's involvement.

Statement I: Correct

  • The Governor can act in discretion in certain cases (e.g., reserving a bill for the President under Article 200, or appointing a CM in a hung assembly).
  • Article 163(2) makes the Governor’s discretion final in such matters.

Statement II: Incorrect

  • The President cannot suo motu reserve a State bill. Only the Governor can do this under Article 200.

QUESTION 65

EasyEnvironment & EcologyPrelims 2025

Which organization has enacted the Nature Restoration Law (NRL) to tackle climate change and biodiversity loss?

A. The European Union

B. The World Bank

C. The Organization for Economic Cooperation and Development

D. The Food and Agriculture Organization

Answer: A

Explanation

A. The European Union: The Nature Restoration Law (NRL) is an EU legislative initiative adopted in 2024. It sets binding targets to restore ecosystems, fight climate change, and protect biodiversity across EU member states.

B. The World Bank: An international financial institution providing loans and grants; it does not enact laws like the NRL.

C. OECD: An organization promoting economic cooperation and policy coordination; it does not enact binding environmental laws such as the NRL.

D. FAO: A UN agency focused on hunger and agriculture; it does not enact regional laws like the NRL.


QUESTION 66

MediumAncient HistoryPrelims 2025

Ashokan inscriptions suggest that the 'Pradesika', 'Rajuka' and 'Yukta' were important officers at the

A. village-level administration

B. district-level administration

C. provincial administration

D. level of the central administration

Answer: B

Explanation

✅ Ashokan inscriptions mention 'Pradesika', 'Rajuka', and 'Yukta' as important officers at the district (Pradesa) level.

  • 'Pradesika' managed the district administration.
  • 'Rajuka' handled revenue and judicial matters.
  • 'Yukta' was a subordinate official involved in administration and record-keeping.

QUESTION 67

MediumScience & TechnologyPrelims 2025

With reference to monoclonal antibodies, often mentioned in news, consider the following statements:

I. They are man-made proteins. II. They stimulate immunological function due to their ability to bind to specific antigens. III. They are used in treating viral infections like that of Nipah virus.

Which of the statements given above are correct?

A. I and II only

B. II and III only

C. I and III only

D. I, II and III

Answer: D

Explanation

Monoclonal antibodies are lab-made proteins that target specific antigens and can be used to treat viral infections like Nipah virus.

  • I. Man-made proteins – Created by cloning a single immune cell type.
  • II. Bind to specific antigens – Help stimulate or guide immune response.
  • III. Used in viral infections – Applied in treating infections like Nipah virus.

All three statements are correct.


QUESTION 68

MediumEconomyPrelims 2025

Consider the following statements:

Statement I: In India, income from allied agricultural activities like poultry farming and wool rearing in rural areas is exempted from any tax.

Statement II: In India, rural agricultural land is not considered a capital asset under the provisions of the Income-tax Act, 1961.

Which one of the following is correct in respect of the above statements?

A. Both Statement I and Statement II are correct and Statement II explains Statement I

B. Both Statement I and Statement II are correct but Statement II does not explain Statement I

C. Statement I is correct but Statement II is not correct

D. Statement I is not correct but Statement II is correct

Answer: D

Explanation

Income from agriculture is tax-exempt in India, but only core agricultural activities like cultivation qualify. Allied activities such as poultry or dairy are taxable. Also, certain types of land are excluded from capital asset classification under tax law.

Statement I: Incorrect Allied agricultural activities like poultry farming and wool rearing are not tax-exempt under the Income-tax Act, 1961.

Statement II: Correct Rural agricultural land is not treated as a capital asset under Section 2(14), so capital gains tax does not apply on its sale.


QUESTION 69

MediumModern HistoryPrelims 2025

Consider the following fruits:

I. Papaya II. Pineapple III. Guava

How many of the above were introduced in India by the Portuguese in the sixteenth and seventeenth centuries?

A. Only one

B. Only two

C. All the three

D. None

Answer: C

Explanation

Papaya, pineapple, and guava are all non-native fruits to India, originally from the Americas, and were introduced during European colonial expansion, particularly by the Portuguese.

I. Papaya – Correct

  • Native to Central America, introduced to India by the Portuguese in the 16th century.

II. Pineapple – Correct

  • Originates from South America, brought to India by Portuguese explorers.

III. Guava – Correct

  • Native to Central America, introduced to India by the Portuguese in the 17th century.

QUESTION 70

MediumPhysical GeographyPrelims 2025

Consider the following statements:

Statement I: In January, in the Northern Hemisphere, the isotherms bend equatorward while crossing the landmasses, and poleward while crossing the oceans.

Statement II: In January, the air over the oceans is warmer than that over the landmasses in the Northern Hemisphere.

Which one of the following is correct in respect of the above statements?

A. Both Statement I and Statement II are correct and Statement II explains Statement I

B. Both Statement I and Statement II are correct but Statement II does not explain Statement I

C. Statement I is correct but Statement II is not correct

D. Statement I is not correct but Statement II is correct

Answer: A

Explanation

Statement I: Correct In January, isotherms bend equatorward over land (which cools faster) and poleward over oceans (which retain heat).

Statement II: Correct Oceans stay warmer than land in January because water has a higher specific heat.

Relationship: Statement II explains why the isotherms behave as described in Statement I.

Correct Answer: Both statements are correct, and Statement II explains Statement I.


QUESTION 71

EasyAncient HistoryPrelims 2025

Who among the following led a successful military campaign against the kingdom of Srivijaya, the powerful maritime State, which ruled the Malay Peninsula, Sumatra, Java and the neighbouring islands?

A. Amoghavarsha (Rashtrakuta)

B. Prataparudra (Kakatiya)

C. Rajendra I (Chola)

D. Vishnuvardhana (Hoysala)

Answer: C

Explanation

The correct answer is C. Rajendra I (Chola).

Rajendra Chola I, son of Rajaraja Chola I, led a famous naval expedition against the Srivijaya kingdom around 1025 CE. Srivijaya was a powerful maritime empire controlling the Malay Peninsula, Sumatra, Java, and nearby islands. Rajendra I’s campaign asserted Chola naval dominance in the region and secured control over important sea trade routes.

The other rulers listed did not conduct campaigns against Srivijaya:

  • Amoghavarsha (Rashtrakuta) focused mainly on the Deccan region.
  • Prataparudra (Kakatiya) ruled much later and was centered in the Deccan.
  • Vishnuvardhana (Hoysala) focused on South Indian affairs.

QUESTION 72

EasyScience & TechnologyPrelims 2025

GPS-Aided Geo Augmented Navigation (GAGAN) uses a system of ground stations to provide necessary augmentation. Which of the following statements is/are correct in respect of GAGAN?

I. It is designed to provide additional accuracy and integrity. II. It will allow more uniform and high quality air traffic management. III. It will provide benefits only in aviation but not in other modes of transportation.

Select the correct answer using the code given below.

A. I, II and III

B. II and III only

C. I only

D. I and II only

Answer: D

Explanation

Statement I: Correct GAGAN is an Indian SBAS developed by ISRO and AAI to enhance GPS accuracy and integrity, crucial for aviation safety.

Statement II: Correct It improves GPS reliability and accuracy, enabling better air traffic management and safer, efficient navigation.

Statement III: Incorrect GAGAN’s benefits extend beyond aviation to railways, roadways, maritime, agriculture, and disaster management.

Correct Answer: Only Statements I and II are correct.


QUESTION 73

MediumEnvironment & EcologyPrelims 2025

The World Bank warned that India could become one of the first places where wet-bulb temperatures routinely exceed 35 °C. Which of the following statements best reflect(s) the implication of the above‐said report?

I. Peninsular India will most likely suffer from flooding, tropical cyclones and droughts. II. The survival of animals including humans will be affected as shedding of their body heat through perspiration becomes difficult.

Select the correct answer using the code given below.

A. I only

B. II only

C. Both I and II

D. Neither I nor II

Answer: B

Explanation

Wet-bulb temperature combines heat and humidity. When it exceeds 35°C, the human body can no longer cool itself through sweating, posing a serious threat to survival.

Statement I: Incorrect

  • Though flooding, cyclones, and droughts are valid climate threats, they are not directly related to the World Bank's warning about wet-bulb temperatures.

Statement II: Correct

  • When wet-bulb temperatures cross 35°C, the body cannot release heat, making it fatal for humans and animals.

QUESTION 74

MediumEnvironment & EcologyPrelims 2025

Consider the following:

I. Cigarette butts II. Eyeglass lenses III. Car tyres

How many of them contain plastic?

A. Only one

B. Only two

C. All the three

D. None

Answer: C

Explanation

Many everyday items contain hidden plastics, even if they don’t look like typical plastic products.

  • I. Cigarette butts – Filters are made of cellulose acetate, a form of plastic.
  • II. Eyeglass lenses – Usually made from polycarbonate or CR-39 plastic, not glass.
  • III. Car tyres – Contain synthetic rubber, which includes plastic-based polymers.

All three items contain plastic.


QUESTION 75

MediumInternational RelationsPrelims 2025

Consider the following statements with regard to BRICS:

I. 16th BRICS Summit was held under the Chairship of Russia in Kazan. II. Indonesia has become a full member of BRICS. III. The theme of the 16th BRICS Summit was Strengthening Multiculturalism for Just Global Development and Security.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

A. I and II

B. II and III

C. I and III

D. I only

Answer: A

Explanation

Statement I: Correct The 16th BRICS Summit was held in Kazan, Russia, in October 2024 under Russia’s chairship. Russia held the rotating presidency in 2024, and the summit took place from October 22-24 in Kazan, the capital of Tatarstan.

Statement II: Correct Indonesia became a full member of BRICS in January 2025, becoming the first Southeast Asian nation and the 10th member of the bloc.

Statement III: Incorrect The theme of the 16th BRICS Summit is "Strengthening Multilateralism for Just Global Development and Security." The statement used "Multiculturalism" instead of "Multilateralism," making it incorrect for this question.

Therefore, only statements I and II are correct.


QUESTION 76

EasyEnvironment & EcologyPrelims 2025

Consider the following statements:

Statement I: Circular economy reduces the emissions of greenhouse gases.

Statement II: Circular economy reduces the use of raw materials as inputs.

Statement III: Circular economy reduces wastage in the production process.

Which one of the following is correct in respect of the above statements?

A. Both Statement II and Statement III are correct and both of them explain Statement I

B. Both Statement II and Statement III are correct but only one of them explains Statement I

C. Only one of the Statements II and III is correct and that explains Statement I

D. Neither Statement II nor Statement III is correct

Answer: A

Explanation

A circular economy focuses on minimizing waste, reusing resources, and improving efficiency, all of which help lower greenhouse gas emissions and conserve raw materials.

Statement I: Correct By reducing waste and energy use, the circular economy helps cut greenhouse gas emissions.

Statement II: Correct It reduces the need for raw materials through reuse, recycling, and product life extension.

Statement III: Correct It also lowers production waste using efficient and sustainable design and processes.


QUESTION 77

MediumPhysical GeographyPrelims 2025

Consider the following statements:

Statement I: The amount of dust particles in the atmosphere is more in subtropical and temperate areas than in equatorial and polar regions.

Statement II: Subtropical and temperate areas have less dry winds.

Which one of the following is correct in respect of the above statements?

A. Both Statement I and Statement II are correct and Statement II explains Statement I

B. Both Statement I and Statement II are correct but Statement II does not explain Statement I

C. Statement I is correct but Statement II is not correct

D. Statement I is not correct but Statement II is correct

Answer: C

Explanation

Statement I: Correct Subtropical and temperate regions have more dust due to dry conditions, sparse vegetation, and strong winds.

Statement II: Incorrect Subtropical and temperate regions have more dry winds, not less, which help lift dust.

Correct Answer: Only Statement I is correct.


QUESTION 78

MediumScience & TechnologyPrelims 2025

Consider the following types of vehicles:

I. Full battery electric vehicles II. Hydrogen fuel cell vehicles III. Fuel cell electric hybrid vehicles

How many of the above are considered as alternative (powertrain) vehicles?

A. Only one

B. Only two

C. All the three

D. None

Answer: C

Explanation

Alternative powertrain vehicles are those that do not use conventional petrol/diesel engines. Instead, they rely on clean energy sources like electricity or hydrogen.

  • I. BEVs – Run fully on batteries and electric motors.
  • II. FCEVs – Use hydrogen to make electricity via a fuel cell.
  • III. FCEHVs – Combine hydrogen fuel cell + battery + electric motor.

All three are alternatives to traditional fuel vehicles.


QUESTION 79

MediumSocial Issues & SchemesPrelims 2025

Consider the following statements about 'PM Surya Ghar Muft Bijli Yojana':

I. It targets installation of one crore solar rooftop panels in the residential sector. II. The Ministry of New and Renewable Energy aims to impart training on installation, operation, maintenance and repairs of solar rooftop systems at grassroot levels. III. It aims to create more than three lakhs skilled manpower through fresh skilling, and up-skilling, under scheme component of capacity building.

Which of the statements given above are correct?

A. I and II only

B. I and III only

C. II and III only

D. I, II and III

Answer: D

Explanation

The PM Surya Ghar Muft Bijli Yojana is a major government initiative to expand rooftop solar adoption in the residential sector, while also building technical capacity across the country.

Statement I: Correct

  • The scheme targets the installation of 1 crore solar rooftop panels in households.

Statement II: Correct

  • The Ministry of New and Renewable Energy (MNRE plans to train grassroots-level workers in installation, operation, and maintenance.

Statement III: Correct

  • The scheme aims to create over 3 lakh skilled workers through fresh skilling and up-skilling efforts.

QUESTION 80

HardEconomyPrelims 2025

With reference to India, consider the following pairs:

Organization                              Union Ministry                                  
I. The National Automotive Board            Ministry of Commerce and Industry               
II. The Coir Board                            Ministry of Heavy Industries                    
III. The National Centre for Trade InformationMinistry of Micro, Small and Medium Enterprises

How many of the above pairs are correctly matched?

A. Only one

B. Only two

C. All the three

D. None

Answer: D

Explanation

Pair I: The National Automotive Board – Ministry of Commerce and Industry

  • Incorrect. It functions under the Ministry of Heavy Industries, not Commerce and Industry.

Pair II: The Coir Board – Ministry of Heavy Industries

  • Incorrect. The Coir Board is under the Ministry of Micro, Small and Medium Enterprises.

Pair III: National Centre for Trade Information – Ministry of MSME

  • Incorrect. NCTI is linked to the Ministry of Commerce and Industry, not MSME.

QUESTION 81

MediumIndian PolityPrelims 2025

Consider the following subjects under the Constitution of India:

I. List I–Union List, in the Seventh Schedule II. Extent of the executive power of a State III. Conditions of the Governor’s office

For a constitutional amendment with respect to which of the above, ratification by the Legislatures of not less than one-half of the States is required before presenting the bill to the President of India for assent?

A. I and II only

B. II and III only

C. I and III only

D. I, II and III

Answer: A

Explanation

Under Article 368(2) of the Constitution, certain amendments require ratification by at least half of the State Legislatures, particularly those affecting the federal structure.

I. Union List in the Seventh Schedule – Correct

  • Any change to the Union List alters the federal balance and requires State ratification.

II. Extent of executive power of a State – Correct

  • This impacts the distribution of power between Centre and States, so it also requires ratification.

III. Conditions of the Governor’s office – Incorrect

  • Changes to the Governor’s conditions of service do not require ratification by States.

QUESTION 82

EasyScience & TechnologyPrelims 2025

Consider the following statements:

Statement I: Some rare earth elements are used in the manufacture of flat television screens and computer monitors.

Statement II: Some rare earth elements have phosphorescent properties.

Which one of the following is correct in respect of the above statements?

A. Both Statement I and Statement II are correct and Statement II explains Statement I

B. Both Statement I and Statement II are correct but Statement II does not explain Statement I

C. Statement I is correct but Statement II is not correct

D. Statement I is not correct but Statement II is correct

Answer: A

Explanation

✅ Statement I: Correct Rare earth elements like europium, terbium, and yttrium are essential in flat TV screens and monitors due to their role in producing vibrant colors and enhancing display quality.

✅ Statement II: Correct These elements exhibit phosphorescence—absorbing energy and slowly emitting light—which is key to their use in color reproduction and brightness in displays.

Relationship: Statement II explains why rare earth elements are crucial in displays, confirming the reason behind Statement I.

Therefore, both statements are correct and related.


QUESTION 83

HardEconomyPrelims 2025

Consider the following activities:

I. Production of crude oil II. Refining, storage and distribution of petroleum products III. Marketing and sale of petroleum products IV. Production of natural gas

How many of the above activities are regulated by the Petroleum and Natural Gas Regulatory Board in our country?

A. Only one

B. Only two

C. Only three

D. All the four

Answer: B

Explanation

The Petroleum and Natural Gas Regulatory Board (PNGRB) regulates downstream activities like storage, distribution, and marketing—not upstream activities like production.

I. Production of crude oil – Not regulated

  • This is an upstream activity regulated by the Ministry of Petroleum & Natural Gas and Directorate General of Hydrocarbons (DGH), not PNGRB.

II. Refining, storage and distribution – Partially regulated

  • Storage and distribution are regulated by PNGRB.
  • Refining is generally not directly regulated, though PNGRB may set standards affecting it.

III. Marketing and sale of petroleum products – Regulated

  • PNGRB authorizes entities to market notified petroleum products and natural gas.

IV. Production of natural gas – Not regulated

  • Like crude oil, it’s an upstream activity, not under PNGRB.

QUESTION 84

HardEnvironment & EcologyPrelims 2025

Consider the following statements:

Statement I: Studies indicate that carbon dioxide emissions from cement industry account for more than 5% of global carbon emissions.

Statement II: Silica-bearing clay is mixed with limestone while manufacturing cement.

Statement III: Limestone is converted into lime during clinker production for cement manufacturing.

Which one of the following is correct in respect of the above statements?

A. Both Statement II and Statement III are correct and both of them explain Statement I

B. Both Statement II and Statement III are correct but only one of them explains Statement I

C. Only one of the Statements II and III is correct and that explains Statement I

D. Neither Statement II nor Statement III is correct

Answer: B

Explanation

Cement manufacturing contributes significantly to global carbon emissions, mainly due to the chemical process involved in producing clinker.

Statement I: Cement industry emissions are estimated to be around 5-8% of global CO₂ emissions, making it a major source of greenhouse gases. ✅Statement II: Silica-bearing clay is indeed mixed with limestone during cement making to provide essential minerals like silicon, aluminum, and iron needed for the final product. ✅Statement III: During clinker production, limestone (calcium carbonate) is heated and converted into lime (calcium oxide), releasing CO₂ in the process. This calcination is the main source of carbon emissions in cement manufacturing.

Both Statements II and III are correct, but only Statement III directly explains the source of carbon emissions mentioned in Statement I.


QUESTION 85

EasyAncient HistoryPrelims 2025

Who among the following rulers in ancient India had assumed the titles 'Mattavilasa', 'Vichitrachitta' and 'Gunabharata'?

A. Mahendravarman I

B. Simhavishnu

C. Narasimhavarman I

D. Simhavarman

Answer: A

Explanation

The correct answer is A. Mahendravarman I.

Mahendravarman I, a 7th-century Pallava king, was known for his literary talent and artistic patronage. He adopted the titles ‘Mattavilasa’ (lover of playful sport), ‘Vichitrachitta’ (curious-minded or inventive), and ‘Gunabharata’ (full of virtues). He also authored the Sanskrit play Mattavilasa Prahasana, reflecting his cultural contributions.

The other rulers listed did not assume these titles.


QUESTION 86

HardEconomyPrelims 2025

Suppose the revenue expenditure is ₹80,000 crores and the revenue receipts of the Government are ₹60,000 crores. The Government budget also shows borrowings of ₹10,000 crores and interest payments of ₹6,000 crores. Which of the following statements are correct?

I. Revenue deficit is ₹20,000 crores. II. Fiscal deficit is ₹10,000 crores. III. Primary deficit is ₹4,000 crores.

Select the correct answer using the code given below.

A. I and II only

B. II and III only

C. I and III only

D. I, II and III

Answer: D

Explanation

Revenue Deficit, Fiscal Deficit, and Primary Deficit are key indicators used to assess a government's financial health.

I. Revenue Deficit = ₹20,000 crores – Correct

  • Definition: Revenue Deficit = Revenue Expenditure − Revenue Receipts
  • Calculation: ₹80,000 crores − ₹60,000 crores = ₹20,000 crores

II. Fiscal Deficit = ₹10,000 crores – Correct

  • Definition: Fiscal Deficit = Total Expenditure − Total Receipts (excluding borrowings)
  • Alternatively, it reflects total borrowings needed to meet the gap
  • Given: Borrowings = ₹10,000 crores ⇒ Fiscal Deficit = ₹10,000 crores

III. Primary Deficit = ₹4,000 crores – Correct

  • Definition: Primary Deficit = Fiscal Deficit − Interest Payments
  • Calculation: ₹10,000 crores − ₹6,000 crores = ₹4,000 crores

QUESTION 87

HardEnvironment & EcologyPrelims 2025

Consider the following pairs:

Plant – Description I. Cassava : Woody shrub II. Ginger : Herb with pseudostem III. Malabar spinach : Herbaceous climber IV. Mint : Annual shrub V. Papaya : Woody shrub

How many of the above pairs are correctly matched?

A. Only two

B. Only three

C. Only four

D. All the five

Answer: B

Explanation

Plants can be classified based on their growth form — woody shrubs, herbs with pseudostems, climbers, etc.

I. Cassava : Woody shrub — Correct

  • Cassava is a perennial woody shrub.

II. Ginger : Herb with pseudostem — Correct

  • Ginger has a pseudostem made from leaf bases.

III. Malabar spinach : Herbaceous climber — Correct

  • It is a soft-stemmed climbing herb.

IV. Mint : Annual shrub — Incorrect

  • Mint is a perennial herb, not a shrub.

V. Papaya : Woody shrub — Incorrect

  • Papaya is a large herbaceous plant, not woody.

So, the correct answer is: B (Only three)


QUESTION 88

MediumEconomyPrelims 2025

Consider the following countries:

I. United Arab Emirates II. France III. Germany IV. Singapore V. Bangladesh

How many countries amongst the above are there other than India where international merchant payments are accepted under UPI?

A. Only two

B. Only three

C. Only four

D. All the five

Answer: B

Explanation

Unified Payments Interface (UPI) is expanding internationally, but only a few countries currently support international merchant payments under UPI.

I. United Arab Emirates – Correct

  • UPI is accepted at select merchants in the UAE via NPCI partnerships.

II. France – Correct

  • France allows UPI merchant payments at select tourist locations, like the Eiffel Tower.

III. Germany – Incorrect

  • No official rollout of UPI for merchant payments in Germany as of now.

IV. Singapore – Correct

  • UPI is live for both P2P remittances and merchant payments in Singapore.

V. Bangladesh – Incorrect

  • UPI is not yet operational for merchant payments in Bangladesh.

International merchant payments are accepted under UPI in seven countries outside of India: Bhutan, France, Mauritius, Nepal, Singapore, Sri Lanka, and the UAE.


QUESTION 89

MediumWorld GeographyPrelims 2025

Consider the following countries:

I. Bolivia II. Brazil III. Colombia IV. Ecuador V. Paraguay VI. Venezuela

Andes mountains pass through how many of the above countries?

A. Only two

B. Only three

C. Only four

D. Only five

Answer: C

Explanation

Statement I: Correct Andes pass through Bolivia, forming the Altiplano plateau.

Statement II: Incorrect Andes do not pass through Brazil, which lies on the Brazilian Plateau.

Statement III: Correct Andes pass through Colombia, where they split into three mountain chains.

Statement IV: Correct Andes run north-south through Ecuador, shaping its geography.

Statement V: Incorrect Paraguay lies in the interior lowlands; Andes do not pass through it.

Statement VI: Correct The Venezuelan Andes extend into western Venezuela (Cordillera de Mérida).

Correct Answer: (C) Only four ✅ Andes pass through: Bolivia, Colombia, Ecuador, Venezuela ❌ Not through: Brazil, Paraguay


QUESTION 90

EasyIndian PolityPrelims 2025

Consider the following statements:

With reference to the Constitution of India, if an area in a State is declared as Scheduled Area under the Fifth Schedule, I. the State Government loses its executive power in such areas and a local body assumes total administration. II. the Union Government can take over the total administration of such areas under certain circumstances on the recommendations of the Governor.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

A. I only

B. II only

C. Both I and II

D. Neither I nor II

Answer: D

Explanation

When an area is declared a Scheduled Area under the Fifth Schedule of the Constitution, it continues to be administered by the State Government, but with special powers granted to the Governor for tribal welfare.

Statement I: Incorrect The State Government does not lose its executive powers. There is no provision for a local body to take over full administration.

Statement II: Incorrect The Union Government cannot take over total administration of Scheduled Areas under the Fifth Schedule, even on the Governor’s recommendation.


QUESTION 91

HardInternational RelationsPrelims 2025

Consider the following pairs:

I. International Year of the Woman Farmer : 2026 II. International Year of Sustainable and Resilient Tourism : 2027 III. International Year of Peace and Trust : 2025 IV. International Year of Asteroid Awareness and Planetary Defence : 2029

How many of the pairs given above are correctly matched?

A. Only one

B. Only two

C. Only three

D. All the four

Answer: D

Explanation

Pair I: International Year of the Woman Farmer : 2026 — Correct The UN designated 2026 to honor the vital role of women in agriculture and to address gender inequalities in farming globally.

Pair II: International Year of Sustainable and Resilient Tourism : 2027 — Correct 2027 is proclaimed to promote tourism that supports sustainable development and resilience against climate and health challenges.

Pair III: International Year of Peace and Trust : 2025 — Correct The year 2025 focuses on fostering global peace, trust, and cooperation among nations and communities.

Pair IV: International Year of Asteroid Awareness and Planetary Defence : 2029 — Correct 2029 marks the UN’s focus on asteroid awareness and planetary defense, coinciding with asteroid Apophis’s close approach.

Therefore, all four pairs are correctly matched.


QUESTION 92

EasyScience & TechnologyPrelims 2025

With reference to Unmanned Aerial Vehicles (UAVs), consider the following statements:

I. All types of UAVs can do vertical landing. II. All types of UAVs can do automated hovering. III. All types of UAVs can use battery only as a source of power supply.

How many of the statements given above are correct?

A. Only one

B. Only two

C. All the three

D. None

Answer: D

Explanation

Unmanned Aerial Vehicles (UAVs) are aircraft systems operated without a human pilot onboard. Their capabilities depend on design type (like fixed-wing, multirotor, or hybrid) and power source.

I. Vertical landing – Only VTOL and multirotor drones can do vertical landings. Fixed-wing UAVs cannot.II. Automated hovering – Only multirotor drones and advanced hybrids can hover. Fixed-wing UAVs cannot hover at all.III. Battery-only powerNot all UAVs use batteries. Larger ones may use fuel, hybrid, or solar power.

None of the statements are correct.


QUESTION 93

MediumScience & TechnologyPrelims 2025

Consider the following space missions:

I. Axiom-4 II. SpaDeX III. Gaganyaan

How many of the space missions given above encourage and support micro-gravity research?

A. Only one

B. Only two

C. All the three

D. None

Answer: C

Explanation

I. Axiom-4: Correct Axiom-4 is a private crewed ISS mission focused on micro-gravity research through scientific experiments.

II. SpaDeX: Correct SpaDeX, ISRO’s autonomous docking tech demo, also supports micro-gravity research during its mission.

III. Gaganyaan: Correct India’s first human spaceflight, Gaganyaan, promotes micro-gravity research by enabling experiments in space.

Therefore, all three missions support and encourage micro-gravity research.


QUESTION 94

EasyIndian PolityPrelims 2025

Consider the following statements with regard to pardoning power of the President of India:

I. The exercise of this power by the President can be subjected to limited judicial review. II. The President can exercise this power without the advice of the Central Government.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

A. I only

B. II only

C. Both I and II

D. Neither I nor II

Answer: A

Explanation

Statement I: Correct The President’s pardoning power can be judicially reviewed on limited grounds like mala fide or arbitrariness, so it’s not absolute.

Statement II: Incorrect The President must act on the advice of the Council of Ministers and cannot exercise the pardoning power independently.

Therefore, only Statement I is correct.


QUESTION 95

EasyInternational RelationsPrelims 2025

India is one of the founding members of the International North-South Transport Corridor (INSTC), a multimodal transportation corridor, which will connect

A. India to Central Asia to Europe via Iran

B. India to Central Asia via China

C. India to South-East Asia through Bangladesh and Myanmar

D. India to Europe through Azerbaijan

Answer: A

Explanation

The International North-South Transport Corridor (INSTC) is a multimodal transport network aimed at boosting trade between India, Central Asia, Russia, and Europe, using a combination of sea, rail, and road routes via Iran.

The corridor connects Mumbai → Bandar Abbas (Iran) → Azerbaijan → Russia → Europe, with access to Central Asia.


QUESTION 96

EasyEnvironment & EcologyPrelims 2025

With reference to Direct Air Capture, an emerging technology, which of the following statements is/are correct?

I. It can be used as a way of carbon sequestration. II. It can be a valuable approach for plastic production and in food processing. III. In aviation, it can be a source of carbon for combining with hydrogen to create synthetic low-carbon fuel.

Select the correct answer using the code given below.

A. I and II only

B. III only

C. I, II and III

D. None of the above statements is correct

Answer: C

Explanation

Direct Air Capture (DAC) is a technology that removes CO₂ directly from the air for storage or use in various industries.

Statement I is correct:

  • DAC captures CO₂ for carbon sequestration, reducing greenhouse gases.

Statement II is correct:

  • Captured CO₂ can be used to make plastics and in food processing.

Statement III is correct:

  • DAC provides carbon to make synthetic low-carbon aviation fuels by combining with hydrogen.

So, the correct answer is: C


QUESTION 97

MediumEconomyPrelims 2025

Consider the following statements in respect of the International Bank for Reconstruction and Development (IBRD):

I. It provides loans and guarantees to middle income countries. II. It works single-handedly to help developing countries to reduce poverty. III. It was established to help Europe rebuild after the World War II.

Which of the statements given above are correct?

A. I and II only

B. II and III only

C. I and III only

D. I, II and III

Answer: C

Explanation

The International Bank for Reconstruction and Development (IBRD) is a key arm of the World Bank Group, originally created for post-war reconstruction and now focused on development in middle-income nations.

Statement I: Correct The IBRD provides loans and guarantees to middle-income and creditworthy low-income countries.

Statement II: Incorrect The IBRD does not work single-handedly; it collaborates with other arms of the World Bank Group like IDA, IFC, etc.

Statement III: Correct It was established in 1944 to help Europe rebuild after World War II.


QUESTION 98

EasyAncient HistoryPrelims 2025

The irrigation device called 'Araghatta' was

A. a water bag made of leather pulled over a pulley

B. a large wheel with earthen pots tied to the outer ends of its spokes

C. a larger earthen pot driven by bullocks

D. a large water bucket pulled up by rope directly by hand

Answer: B

Explanation

Correct answer: B. a large wheel with earthen pots tied to the outer ends of its spokes.

The Araghatta was an ancient Indian irrigation device consisting of a large wheel with earthen pots fixed around its rim. As the wheel rotated—usually powered by animals or humans—the pots dipped into a water source and lifted water for irrigation. This mechanism is distinct from leather bags or simple buckets pulled by hand and represents early mechanical water-lifting technology.


QUESTION 99

HardEconomyPrelims 2025

With reference to investments, consider the following:

I. Bonds II. Hedge Funds III. Stocks IV. Venture Capital

How many of the above are treated as Alternative Investment Funds?

A. Only one

B. Only two

C. Only three

D. All the four

Answer: B

Explanation

Alternative Investment Funds (AIFs) are privately pooled investment vehicles that invest in assets beyond traditional options like stocks and bonds. In India, SEBI classifies AIFs into three categories, including hedge funds and venture capital funds.

Statement I: Incorrect

  • Bonds are traditional debt instruments and not classified as AIFs.

Statement II: Correct

  • Hedge Funds fall under Category III AIFs as per SEBI regulations.

Statement III: Incorrect

  • Stocks are conventional equity investments, not treated as AIFs.

Statement IV: Correct

  • Venture Capital is a form of Category I AIF in India.

QUESTION 100

MediumEconomyPrelims 2025

Consider the following statements in respect of RTGS and NEFT:

I. In RTGS, the settlement time is instantaneous while in case of NEFT, it takes some time to settle payments. II. In RTGS, the customer is charged for inward transactions while that is not the case for NEFT. III. Operating hours for RTGS are restricted on certain days while this is not true for NEFT.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

A. I only

B. I and II

C. I and III

D. III only

Answer: A

Explanation

RTGS (Real Time Gross Settlement) and NEFT (National Electronic Funds Transfer) are two major electronic payment systems in India, differing mainly in settlement speed and mechanism.

Statement I: Correct RTGS processes transactions instantly in real time, while NEFT settles in hourly batches, causing a time lag.

Statement II: Incorrect Inward transactions (receiving money) are not charged in either RTGS or NEFT as per RBI guidelines.

Statement III: Incorrect Both RTGS and NEFT are available 24x7x365, including on holidays.

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