UPSC Prelims 2025 Analysis

Explanation

Statement I: Incorrect The Lokpal's jurisdiction covers all public servants in India, including those posted outside India. The Lokpal and Lokayuktas Act, 2013, does not exclude Indian public servants posted abroad from its purview.

Statement II: Incorrect While it is true that the Chairperson or a Member of Lokpal cannot be a Member of Parliament or a State/UT Legislature, the Chairperson does not have to be only the Chief Justice of India (CJI), whether incumbent or retired. The Chairperson can be a former CJI, a former judge of the Supreme Court, or an eminent person with impeccable integrity and outstanding ability, having special knowledge and expertise of not less than 25 years in matters relating to anti-corruption policy, public administration, vigilance, finance, law and management.

Statement III: Correct As per Section 3(4) of the Lokpal and Lokayuktas Act, 2013, the Chairperson or a Member shall not be a person of less than forty-five years of age on the date of assuming office.

Statement IV: Incorrect The Lokpal can inquire into allegations of corruption against a sitting Prime Minister, but with certain limitations and subject to specific procedures and safeguards. The Act does not bar inquiry against a sitting Prime Minister, but restricts it in certain cases (e.g., international relations, external and internal security, public order, atomic energy and space, etc.).

Therefore, only Statement III is correct.

Explanation

Statement I: Incorrect Viruses can survive in ocean waters. In fact, marine viruses are abundant and play a crucial role in marine ecosystems by influencing microbial populations and biogeochemical cycles. They infect various marine organisms, including bacteria, algae, and other microorganisms. Research has identified diverse viral communities in ocean waters.

Statement II: Incorrect Viruses can infect bacteria. Viruses that infect bacteria are called bacteriophages (or phages). Bacteriophages are highly specific to certain bacterial hosts and are important for regulating bacterial populations. Bacteriophages are used in research and have potential applications in phage therapy to treat bacterial infections.

Statement III: Incorrect Viruses can change the cellular transcriptional activity in host cells. Viruses often manipulate the host cell's machinery, including transcriptional activity, to facilitate their own replication and survival. They can introduce viral genes or proteins that interact with the host cell's transcription factors, leading to altered gene expression patterns.

Therefore, none of the statements are correct.

Explanation

Statement I: Incorrect While rainforests are vital ecosystems, oceans are the primary producers of oxygen on Earth. Marine phytoplankton, through photosynthesis, contribute a significantly larger portion of the world's oxygen compared to rainforests.

Statement II: Correct Marine phytoplankton, including algae and photosynthetic bacteria like cyanobacteria, are responsible for a significant portion of global oxygen production. Scientific estimates suggest they produce about 50% of the world's oxygen. This is due to their vast numbers and widespread distribution in the oceans.

Statement III: Incorrect Atmospheric air contains significantly more oxygen than well-oxygenated surface water. Air is composed of roughly 21% oxygen, while the amount of dissolved oxygen in water is much lower, typically measured in parts per million (ppm). Therefore, water does not contain 'several folds higher oxygen' than atmospheric air.

Therefore, only statement II is correct.

Explanation

Statement I: Correct Without the atmosphere, Earth's surface would lose heat rapidly, especially at night, and the average temperature would be much lower than the freezing point of water. The Moon, which lacks an atmosphere, has extreme temperature variations, supporting this fact.

Statement II: Correct The atmosphere absorbs and traps heat (mainly through the greenhouse effect), which helps maintain Earth's average temperature at a level suitable for life. Without this effect, the planet would be much colder.

Statement III: Correct Certain gases in the atmosphere, such as carbon dioxide, methane, and water vapor, are very effective at absorbing and trapping infrared radiation. This is the basis of the greenhouse effect, which keeps Earth warm.

Therefore, all three statements are correct.

Explanation

I. Cobalt: Correct Cobalt is a key component of many lithium-ion battery cathodes, such as Lithium Cobalt Oxide (LCO) and Nickel Manganese Cobalt Oxide (NMC).

II. Graphite: Incorrect Graphite is typically used as the anode material in lithium-ion batteries, not the cathode.

III. Lithium: Correct Lithium is present in the cathode material of lithium-ion batteries, such as Lithium Cobalt Oxide (LCO), Lithium Iron Phosphate (LFP), etc.

IV. Nickel: Correct Nickel is used in several cathode chemistries, such as Nickel Manganese Cobalt (NMC) and Nickel Cobalt Aluminum (NCA).

Conclusion: Cobalt, Lithium, and Nickel are commonly found in battery cathodes, but Graphite is not. Therefore, three out of the four elements listed are usually found in battery cathodes.

Explanation

Statement I: The Congress declared the attainment of 'Swaraj' by all legitimate and peaceful means to be its objective.

• This statement is correct. In the Nagpur session of the Indian National Congress in December 1920, the Congress adopted the goal of attaining 'Swaraj' (self-government) by all legitimate and peaceful means. This became the official objective of the Congress during the Non-Cooperation Movement.

Statement II: It was to be implemented in stages with civil disobedience and non-payment of taxes for the next stage only if 'Swaraj' did not come within a year and the Government resorted to repression.

• This statement is also correct. The Non-Cooperation Movement was planned to be implemented in stages. The initial phase included surrender of titles, boycott of government schools, law courts, and foreign goods. The next stage, which included civil disobedience and non-payment of taxes, was to be launched only if the government did not grant 'Swaraj' within a year and resorted to repression.

Therefore, the correct answer is (C) I and II.

Explanation

Pair I: Dornier-228 : Maritime patrol aircraft — Correct The Dornier-228 is an Indian-made aircraft used by the Indian Navy and Coast Guard for maritime patrol, surveillance, and transport roles. It is indeed a maritime patrol aircraft.

Pair II: IL-76 : Supersonic combat aircraft — Incorrect The Ilyushin IL-76 is a multi-purpose, fixed-wing, four-engine turbofan strategic airlifter designed by the Soviet Union. It is primarily used for military transport, not as a supersonic combat aircraft. It is not supersonic and not a combat aircraft.

Pair III: C-17 Globemaster III : Military transport aircraft — Correct The C-17 Globemaster III is a large military transport aircraft used by the Indian Air Force for strategic and tactical airlift missions. It is correctly described as a military transport aircraft.

Therefore, only two pairs are correctly matched.

Explanation

The correct answer is (B) II only.

Statement I is incorrect.

The Securities and Exchange Board of India (SEBI), not the Reserve Bank of India (RBI), mandates the submission of BRSR.

• SEBI introduced the Business Responsibility and Sustainability Report (BRSR) framework in May 2021, replacing the earlier Business Responsibility Report (BRR).
• The mandate applies to the top 1,000 listed companies by market capitalization, not all listed companies.
• RBI is India's central bank and primarily regulates monetary policy, banking sector, and foreign exchange - it does not regulate capital markets or mandate corporate reporting for listed companies.

Statement II is correct.

• BRSR focuses on Environmental, Social, and Governance (ESG) parameters which are predominantly non-financial metrics.
• The report covers areas like:
  • Environmental impact (carbon footprint, water usage, waste management)
  • Social responsibility (employee welfare, community development, human rights)
  • Governance practices (board diversity, ethics, stakeholder engagement)
• While some quantitative data may be included, the primary focus is on sustainability practices, policies, and qualitative disclosures rather than traditional financial metrics.
• The framework emphasizes transparency in non-financial performance indicators that impact long-term value creation.

Therefore, only Statement II is correct, making option B the right answer.

Explanation

The famous "Dancing Girl" statuette found at Mohenjo-daro is a small bronze sculpture, approximately 10.5 centimeters (4.1 inches) high. It is a masterpiece of Harappan art and showcases their skill in bronze casting using the lost-wax technique.

Explanation

The correct answer is (B) These are explosives in military weapons.

Here's why:

• CL-20 (also known as HNIW), HMX (Octogen), and LLM-105: These are all high-performance explosives used in various military applications. They are known for their high energy density and brisance (shattering effect).
• A. These are alternatives to hydro-fluorocarbon refrigerants: Hydrofluorocarbons (HFCs) are greenhouse gases used as refrigerants. CL-20, HMX, and LLM-105 are not related to refrigerants.
• C. These are high-energy fuels for cruise missiles: While explosives can be used in propulsion systems, these specific substances are primarily used as the explosive charge in warheads, not as fuel for propulsion.
• D. These are fuels for rocket propulsion: While some explosives can be used in specialized rocket propellants, these substances are not commonly used as primary rocket fuels.

Therefore, option B is the most accurate as it correctly identifies CL-20, HMX, and LLM-105 as explosives used in military weapons.

Explanation

Statement I: This statement is incorrect. The United States of America is the largest producer of ethanol in the world, not Brazil. The USA produces more ethanol than Brazil, primarily from corn. Brazil is the second-largest producer, using sugarcane as the main feedstock.

Statement II: This statement is correct. In the United States, corn is the principal feedstock for ethanol production. In contrast, Brazil uses sugarcane as the main raw material for its ethanol industry. This difference in feedstock is a key distinction between the two countries' ethanol industries.

Explanation

Austria: NATO Member - NO Austria has maintained a policy of neutrality since 1955 and is not a member of NATO. Austria joined the EU in 1995 but has consistently remained outside military alliances.

Bulgaria: NATO Member - YES Bulgaria joined NATO on March 29, 2004, as part of the largest expansion in NATO's history, along with six other countries including Romania, Slovakia, Slovenia, Estonia, Latvia, and Lithuania.

Croatia: NATO Member - YES Croatia became a NATO member on April 1, 2009, along with Albania. This was NATO's fourth round of expansion after the end of the Cold War.

Serbia: NATO Member - NO Serbia is not a NATO member and maintains a policy of military neutrality. Serbia has a Partnership for Peace agreement with NATO but has not pursued full membership, partly due to historical tensions stemming from the 1999 NATO bombing of Yugoslavia.

Sweden: NATO Member - YES Sweden officially became NATO's 32nd member on March 7, 2024, ending decades of neutrality. This decision was accelerated following Russia's invasion of Ukraine in 2022.

North Macedonia: NATO Member - YES North Macedonia became NATO's 30th member on March 27, 2020. The country's NATO bid was delayed for years due to the naming dispute with Greece, which was resolved in 2018 with the Prespa Agreement.

Summary: NATO Members: Bulgaria, Croatia, Sweden, North Macedonia (4 countries) Non-NATO Members: Austria, Serbia (2 countries)

Therefore, only four of the listed countries are NATO members.

Explanation

I. The Inter-State Council: Correct The Inter-State Council was established under Article 263 of the Constitution of India.

II. The National Security Council: Incorrect The National Security Council (NSC) was established in 1998 by the Government of India. There is no mention of the NSC in the Constitution of India. It is a non-constitutional, executive body.

III. Zonal Councils: Incorrect Zonal Councils were set up under the States Reorganisation Act, 1956, which is a statute and not a constitutional provision. The Constitution does not provide for Zonal Councils.

Explanation

Statement I: The President of India - Incorrect Incorrect. The President of India is NOT a member of the Jury for the Gandhi Peace Prize.

Statement II: The Prime Minister of India - Correct Correct. The Prime Minister of India is the Chairperson of the Jury for the Gandhi Peace Prize.

Statement III: The Chief Justice of India - Correct Correct. The Chief Justice of India (or a Supreme Court Judge nominated by the CJI) is a member of the Jury.

Statement IV: The Leader of Opposition in the Lok Sabha - Correct Correct. The Leader of Opposition in the Lok Sabha (or the leader of the single largest opposition party) is a member of the Jury.

Therefore, the correct combination is II, III and IV.

Explanation

Statement I: Correct Capital receipts are those receipts that either create a liability or cause a reduction in the assets of the government. For example, borrowings (which create a liability) and disinvestment (which reduces assets) are capital receipts.

Statement II: Correct Borrowings (like loans raised by the government) and disinvestment (sale of government assets) are classic examples of capital receipts.

Statement III: Incorrect Interest received on loans is a revenue receipt, not a capital receipt. It does not create a liability for the government; rather, it is an income earned by the government on the loans it has given to others.

Therefore, only statements I and II are correct.

Explanation

Statement I: Correct India has become the world's largest market for equity derivatives, especially options. According to data from the World Federation of Exchanges (WFE), India accounts for a very large portion of all equity option contracts traded globally, surpassing even the US in terms of volume. This reflects a significant boom in options trading in India.

Statement II: Correct India's stock market has grown rapidly in recent years. In early 2024, the total market capitalization of Indian stock markets overtook that of Hong Kong, making India the fourth largest equity market in the world for a brief period. This demonstrates the rapid growth and global significance of India's stock market.

Statement III: Incorrect There is a regulatory body in India: the Securities and Exchange Board of India (SEBI). SEBI regularly issues warnings to investors about the risks of options trading and takes action against unregistered financial advisors. SEBI has also launched investor awareness campaigns and has penalized entities for unauthorized investment advice. Therefore, the statement that there is 'no regulatory body' is incorrect.

Therefore, only statements I and II are correct.

Explanation

Statement I: Correct An Ordinance issued by the President (under Article 123) or Governor (under Article 213) has the same force and effect as an Act of Parliament or State Legislature. Therefore, an Ordinance can amend any Central Act, subject to constitutional limitations.

Statement II: Incorrect An Ordinance cannot abridge or take away Fundamental Rights. Article 13(2) of the Constitution prohibits the State from making any law (including Ordinances) that takes away or abridges Fundamental Rights. Any such law is void to the extent of the contravention.

Statement III: Correct An Ordinance can be given retrospective effect, i.e., it can come into effect from a back date, just like an Act of Parliament. There is no constitutional bar on this, and the Supreme Court has upheld this power.

Therefore, only statements I and III are correct.

Explanation

Pair I: Arunachal Pradesh : The capital is named after a fort, and the State has two National Parks.

• Correct. The capital of Arunachal Pradesh is Itanagar, which is named after the historical Ita Fort ('Ita' means brick in Assamese). The state has two National Parks: Namdapha National Park and Mouling National Park.

Pair II: Nagaland : The State came into existence on the basis of the Thirteenth Constitutional Amendment Act.

• Correct. Nagaland became the 16th state of India on 1 December 1963. Its statehood was granted by the State of Nagaland Act, 1962, which was a Constitutional Amendment Act.

Pair III: Tripura : Initially a Part 'C' State, it became a centrally administered territory with the reorganization of States in 1956 and later attained the status of a full-fledged State.

• Correct. Tripura was a Part 'C' state after accession to India. In 1956, it became a Union Territory (centrally administered) under the States Reorganisation Act, and later, in 1972, it attained full statehood.

Therefore, all three pairs are correctly matched.

Explanation

The correct answer is (B) Chandragupta II

Here's why:

• A. Samudragupta: Samudragupta was a significant ruler of the Gupta dynasty, known for his military conquests. However, Fa-Hien did not visit India during his reign.
• B. Chandragupta II: Fa-Hien's visit to India is well-documented to have occurred during the reign of Chandragupta II (also known as Chandragupta Vikramaditya). He travelled extensively throughout North India, seeking Buddhist scriptures and learning about Buddhist practices. He arrived in India around 399 AD and stayed for about 10 years.
• C. Kumaragupta I: Kumaragupta I succeeded Chandragupta II. Fa-Hien's travels predate his rule.
• D. Skandagupta: Skandagupta came after Kumaragupta I. Thus, Fa-Hien did not travel during his reign.

Therefore, option B is the correct answer.

Explanation

Statement I: Boycott of law-courts and foreign cloth Correct. The Non-Cooperation Movement (1920-22) included the boycott of law courts, government schools, and foreign cloth as major components. This was a direct action against British institutions and goods.

Statement II: Observance of strict non-violence Correct. Mahatma Gandhi insisted on the strict observance of non-violence (ahimsa) as a core principle of the movement. Any deviation from non-violence was not tolerated.

Statement III: Retention of titles and honours without using them in public Incorrect. The Non-Cooperation Programme called for the surrender (not retention) of titles and honours conferred by the British government. Retaining them, even without using them in public, was not part of the programme.

Statement IV: Establishment of Panchayats for settling disputes Correct. The movement encouraged the establishment of local panchayats to settle disputes, as an alternative to British courts.

Therefore, only three of the above were parts of the Non-Cooperation Programme.

Explanation

Statement I: Correct The belt of ancient rocks from Brazil coast matches with those from Western Africa. This is one of the strongest pieces of geological evidence for continental drift. The rock formations, particularly the Precambrian cratons and fold belts on the eastern coast of South America align perfectly with those on the western coast of Africa when the continents are fitted together. The ages, rock types, and structural trends show remarkable continuity across the Atlantic Ocean.

Statement II: Correct The gold deposits of Ghana are indeed derived from the Brazil plateau when the two continents lay side by side. This is a well-documented example of mineral correlation evidence. The gold-bearing conglomerate beds and the geological structures containing gold deposits in Ghana have their direct counterparts in Brazil. The source rocks and geological processes that created these deposits were originally part of the same continental mass before the Atlantic Ocean opened.

Statement III: Correct The Gondwana system of sediments from India does have counterparts in six different landmasses of the Southern Hemisphere. The Gondwana sedimentary sequences found in India match remarkably well with similar formations in Antarctica, Australia, South Africa, South America, and Madagascar. These sediments contain similar fossil assemblages (like Glossopteris flora) and show similar depositional environments, indicating they were formed when these landmasses were joined together as the supercontinent Gondwanaland.

All three statements represent valid evidence for continental drift theory proposed by Alfred Wegener.

Explanation

Statement I: Correct Article 361(1) of the Indian Constitution provides that the Governor of a State is not answerable to any court for the exercise and performance of the powers and duties of his/her office or for any act done or purported to be done by him/her in the exercise and performance of those powers and duties.

Statement II: Correct Article 361(2) states that no criminal proceedings whatsoever shall be instituted or continued against the Governor of a State in any court during his/her term of office.

Statement III: Correct Article 194(2) of the Constitution provides that no member of the Legislature of a State shall be liable to any proceedings in any court in respect of anything said or any vote given by him/her in the Legislature or any committee thereof. This is similar to the parliamentary privileges enjoyed by Members of Parliament under Article 105.

Therefore, all three statements are correct.

Explanation

The Poona Pact was signed in 1932 between Mahatma Gandhi and Dr. B.R. Ambedkar, following the British government's Communal Award, which provided separate electorates for the Depressed Classes (now known as Scheduled Castes).

• Gandhi strongly opposed separate electorates for untouchables, fearing it would divide Hindu society. He went on a fast unto death, which led to negotiations and the eventual signing of the Poona Pact.
• After this event, Gandhi intensified his efforts for the upliftment of Harijans (a term he used for the untouchables), making it a central part of his social and political programme. He launched the Harijan Sevak Sangh and started the 'Harijan' weekly to campaign against untouchability.
• This is the correct event after which Gandhi made the upliftment of Harijans a major focus.

Explanation

Statement I: This statement is correct. Bondholders are generally considered to be at lower risk compared to stockholders because bonds are debt instruments with fixed interest payments and priority in repayment over equity holders in case of liquidation. Stockholders, as owners, face higher risk but also have the potential for higher returns.

Statement II: This statement is correct. Bondholders are indeed lenders to the company—they provide loans to the company in exchange for interest payments. Stockholders, on the other hand, are owners of the company and have a claim on its residual profits.

Statement III: This statement is correct. In the event of liquidation or bankruptcy, bondholders are paid before stockholders. This prioritization in repayment is a key reason why bonds are considered less risky than stocks.

Explanation of Relationship: Statements II and III together explain why Statement I is true:

• Because bondholders are lenders (Statement II) and are prioritized for repayment (Statement III), their risk is lower compared to stockholders, who are owners and are paid last.

Conclusion: Option A is correct because both Statement II and Statement III are correct and together they explain why bondholders are at lower risk than stockholders (Statement I).

Explanation

I. Lake Tanganyika: Lake Tanganyika is located in Central Africa, specifically in the countries of Tanzania, Democratic Republic of the Congo, Burundi, and Zambia. Its approximate coordinates are 6°00′S 29°30′E. Given its location south of the equator, the equator does not pass through it.

II. Lake Tonlé Sap: Lake Tonlé Sap is located in Cambodia. Its approximate coordinates are 12°41′35″N 104°35′59″E. Given its location north of the equator, the equator does not pass through it.

III. Patos Lagoon: Patos Lagoon is located in the state of Rio Grande do Sul in southern Brazil. Its approximate coordinates are 31°30′S 51°30′W. Given its location south of the equator, the equator does not pass through it.

Therefore, the equator passes through none of these water bodies. Hence, Option D is correct.

Explanation

Statement I Analysis: Article 6 of the Paris Agreement is indeed frequently discussed in global climate discussions. It deals with international cooperation mechanisms for achieving climate targets, making it a central topic in sustainable development and climate change negotiations. This statement is TRUE.

Statement II Analysis: Article 6 of the Paris Agreement does establish principles for carbon markets. Specifically:

• Article 6.2 covers internationally transferred mitigation outcomes (ITMOs) - essentially international carbon trading
• Article 6.4 establishes a centralized crediting mechanism (successor to CDM)
• Article 6.8 addresses non-market approaches

The article sets out key principles like avoiding double counting, ensuring environmental integrity, and promoting sustainable development. This statement is TRUE.

Statement III Analysis: Article 6 does include provisions for non-market approaches. Article 6.8 specifically recognizes 'non-market approaches' as a mechanism for international cooperation. These include:

• Technology transfer
• Capacity building
• Climate finance
• Policy coordination

These non-market strategies are designed to help countries achieve their Nationally Determined Contributions (NDCs). This statement is TRUE.

Relationship Analysis: Both Statement II and III correctly explain why Statement I is true. Article 6 is frequently discussed precisely because it covers both market mechanisms (carbon markets) and non-market approaches for international climate cooperation. Both aspects make it a crucial component of global climate discussions.

Conclusion: All three statements are correct, and both Statement II and Statement III explain Statement I by describing the key components of Article 6 that make it so frequently discussed in climate negotiations.

Explanation

Statement I: Correct BIMSTEC (Bay of Bengal Initiative for Multi-Sectoral Technical and Economic Cooperation) is a regional organization consisting of seven member states as of now and till January 2025. The members are Bangladesh, India, Myanmar, Sri Lanka, Thailand, Nepal, and Bhutan.

Statement II: Incorrect BIMSTEC came into existence with the signing of the Bangkok Declaration in 1997, not the Dhaka Declaration in 1999. The Dhaka Declaration is related to a later summit, not the founding of BIMSTEC.

Statement III: Incorrect The founding members of BIMSTEC were Bangladesh, India, Sri Lanka, and Thailand (initially as BIST-EC in 1997). Nepal and Bhutan joined later in 2004. Myanmar joined in 1997 itself, but Nepal was not a founding member.

Statement IV: Incorrect In BIMSTEC, the subsector of tourism is currenlty being led by Nepal. BIMSTEC has a system where different member countries lead different sectors of cooperation, and India leads the Counter-Terrorism and Transnational Crime, Disaster Management, Energy sub-sectors.

Therefore, only statement I is correct.

Explanation

I. Ethanol: Coal gasification can be used to produce syngas (a mixture of carbon monoxide and hydrogen). Syngas can then be converted into ethanol through various chemical processes like Fischer-Tropsch synthesis or other catalytic methods. So, ethanol can be produced using coal gasification.

II. Nitroglycerine: While coal gasification doesn't directly produce nitroglycerine, the syngas produced from it can be used as a feedstock to produce hydrogen and other chemicals, which are in turn used in the production of nitroglycerine. Nitroglycerine is produced by nitrating glycerol. Glycerol production can be linked to syngas via methanol production. Thus, indirectly, coal gasification supports nitroglycerine production.

III. Urea: Coal gasification can produce syngas, and from syngas, we can derive ammonia. Ammonia is a crucial ingredient in the production of urea. The Haber-Bosch process is used to convert hydrogen (derived from syngas) and nitrogen into ammonia, which then reacts with carbon dioxide (also potentially derived from syngas) to form urea.Since all three substances (Ethanol, Nitroglycerine, and Urea) can be produced using coal gasification technology (either directly or indirectly), the answer is all three.

Explanation

Statement I: This statement is correct. Scientific studies do indicate shifts in the Earth's rotation and axis. These shifts are small but measurable.

Statement II: This statement is also correct. Solar flares and coronal mass ejections (CMEs) do bombard the Earth's atmosphere with energy. However, these events primarily affect the outermost layers of the atmosphere (like the ionosphere and thermosphere) and have a minimal direct impact on the Earth's rotation or axis.

Statement III: This statement is also correct. As polar ice melts, the water redistributes towards the equator. This redistribution of mass affects the Earth's moment of inertia, which in turn influences the Earth's rotation. This is analogous to a spinning figure skater extending their arms outward, which slows their spin.

Considering how the statements relate:

Statement III directly explains Statement I, as the redistribution of mass due to melting ice impacts Earth's rotation. Statement II, while true, doesn't directly explain the changes in Earth's rotation and axis mentioned in Statement I. Solar flares primarily impact the atmosphere, not the planet's rotation. Statement III is the primary reason behind this effect.

Explanation

I. Botswana : Diamond — Correct Botswana is one of the world's leading producers of diamonds. The diamond industry is a major contributor to Botswana's economy.

II. Chile : Lithium — Correct Chile is among the top producers of lithium globally, with vast reserves in the Atacama Desert. It is a key player in the global lithium market.

III. Indonesia : Nickel — Correct Indonesia is the world's largest producer of nickel, a critical mineral for batteries and stainless steel production.

Therefore, all three pairs are correctly matched.

Explanation

Statement I: Correct The inaugural Kho Kho World Cup was indeed held in New Delhi, India from January 13-19, 2025. The event took place at the Indira Gandhi Indoor Stadium, making India the host nation for this historic first-ever Kho Kho World Cup.

Statement II: Incorrect The Indian men's team defeated Nepal in the final with a score of 54-36 to claim the inaugural Kho Kho World Cup title in the men's category. This was a dominant performance by the host nation, showcasing their strength in this traditional Indian sport on the global stage.

Statement III: Incorrect The Indian women's team also emerged victorious, beating Nepal 78-40 in the women's final. This made India the champion in both men's and women's categories, completing a clean sweep for the host nation in the inaugural tournament. UPSC basically exchange scorecard of women team with men team.

Additional Context: The Kho Kho World Cup featured 24 countries competing across men's and women's categories. The tournament was organized by the Kho Kho Federation of India in association with the International Kho Kho Federation. This marked a significant milestone for Kho Kho as it gained international recognition and participation.

Therefore, all three statements are correct.

Explanation

Statement I: Correct The AI Action Summit in Paris (February 2025) was indeed co-chaired with India, and it explicitly aimed to build on the progress and commitments made at the Bletchley Park Summit (UK, 2023) and the Seoul Summit (South Korea, 2024). These summits are part of a series of global efforts to coordinate AI governance and safety.

Statement II: Incorrect Joint statement on ‘Inclusive and Sustainable Artificial Intelligence for People and the Planet’ was signed by 58 countries, including India, China, and the European Union, while the United States and the United Kingdom opted not to sign, citing concerns over potential overregulation of AI.

Therefore, the correct answer is (A) I only.

Explanation

At COP28, India chose not to sign the “Declaration on Climate and Health,” and this decision can be understood by analyzing the nature of the declaration and India’s concerns.

• ✅Statement I: Correct India did not sign the COP28 Declaration on Climate and Health, unlike over 120 other countries.

• ❌Statement II: Incorrect The declaration is not legally binding; it is a voluntary political commitment. Signing it does not legally mandate countries to decarbonize their health sectors immediately.

• ✅Statement III: Correct India’s concern is that rapid decarbonization of its health sector could compromise the resilience and accessibility of healthcare services, given current developmental challenges and resource constraints.

Therefore, only Statement III correctly explains Statement I, while Statement II is factually wrong about the binding nature of the declaration.

Explanation

Statement I: Correct India joined the Minerals Security Partnership (MSP) in 2023. The MSP is a US-led initiative launched in 2022 to strengthen critical mineral supply chains among partner countries. India's participation aims to secure access to critical minerals needed for clean energy transition and reduce dependence on China for these materials.

Statement II: Incorrect India is NOT resource-rich in all 30 critical minerals it has identified. While India has significant reserves of some critical minerals like lithium (recently discovered in Jammu & Kashmir), rare earth elements, graphite, and others, it lacks adequate domestic reserves of many critical minerals. India is heavily import-dependent for several critical minerals including cobalt, nickel, copper, and others. The country imports a substantial portion of its critical mineral requirements, particularly from China and other countries.

Statement III: Correct The Parliament in 2023 amended the Mines and Minerals (Development and Regulation) Act, 1957 through the Mines and Minerals (Development and Regulation) Amendment Act, 2023. This amendment empowered the Central Government to exclusively auction mining leases and composite licenses for certain critical and strategic minerals. The amendment was made to ensure better control and strategic management of critical minerals essential for national security and economic development.

Therefore, statements I and III are correct, while statement II is incorrect.

Explanation

Statement I: Correct Raja Ram Mohan Roy had a deep appreciation for the traditional philosophical systems of the East, especially Vedanta. He studied Sanskrit, Persian, and Arabic texts and sought to highlight the rational and ethical aspects of Indian philosophy. He believed that Indian traditions had much to offer, but also needed reform.

Statement II: Correct Raja Ram Mohan Roy was a strong advocate of rationalism, scientific approach, and the principle of human dignity. He campaigned against social evils like Sati, caste discrimination, and promoted the equality of men and women. He wanted Indians to adopt modern, rational, and scientific thinking while upholding human dignity and social equality.

Therefore, both statements are correct.

Explanation

Periyar E. V. Ramaswamy Naicker was the founder of the Self-Respect Movement in 1925 in Tamil Nadu. The movement aimed at achieving a society where backward castes had equal human rights, and it strongly opposed the caste system and the dominance of Brahminism in social and religious life.

• B. Dr. B. R. Ambedkar: FALSE. While Dr. Ambedkar was a prominent leader for social justice and the rights of Dalits, he was not the founder of the Self-Respect Movement. He led the Dalit movement and was associated with the formation of the Independent Labour Party and the Scheduled Castes Federation.

• C. Bhaskarrao Jadhav: FALSE. Bhaskarrao Jadhav was a social reformer from Maharashtra, but he was not associated with the founding of the Self-Respect Movement.

• D. Dinkarrao Javalkar: FALSE. Dinkarrao Javalkar was also a social reformer from Maharashtra, but he did not found the Self-Respect Movement.

Therefore, option A is the correct answer as Periyar E. V. Ramaswamy Naicker was the founder of the Self-Respect Movement.

Explanation

Statement I: Incorrect The Peacock tarantula (Gooty tarantula), scientifically known as 'Poecilotheria metallica', is not a crustacean. It is an arachnid (a spider), not related to crustaceans like crabs or lobsters. Additionally, it is primarily insectivorous, feeding on insects and other small animals, not omnivorous.

Statement II: Correct The natural habitat of the Gooty tarantula in India is extremely limited. It is found only in a few forested areas, particularly in the Eastern Ghats of Andhra Pradesh. Its distribution is highly restricted and fragmented.

Statement III: Correct In its natural habitat, the Gooty tarantula is an arboreal species, meaning it lives in trees. It constructs silken retreats in tree holes and crevices.

Therefore, statements II and III are correct.

Explanation

I. Asmaka : Godavari — Correct Asmaka (or Assaka) was a Mahajanapada located in the Deccan region, on the banks of the Godavari river. This pair is correctly matched.

II. Kamboja : Vipas — Incorrect Kamboja was located in the north-western part of the Indian subcontinent, around present-day Afghanistan and Tajikistan. The river Vipas (Beas) flows in the Punjab region, not in Kamboja. Thus, this pair is not correctly matched.

III. Avanti : Mahanadi — Incorrect Avanti was a Mahajanapada located in western Madhya Pradesh, with its capital at Ujjain. The main river flowing through Avanti was the Narmada, not the Mahanadi (which flows in Chhattisgarh and Odisha). So, this pair is not correctly matched.

IV. Kosala : Sarayu — Correct Kosala was a Mahajanapada in the region of present-day eastern Uttar Pradesh, and the Sarayu river (modern Ghaghara) flowed through it. This pair is correctly matched.

Therefore, only two pairs are correctly matched.

Explanation

The correct answer is (A) The Asian Development Bank (ADB)

Here's why:

• A. The Asian Development Bank (ADB): The Asian Development Bank (ADB) launched the 'Nature Solutions Finance Hub for Asia and the Pacific'. This initiative aims to mobilize finance for nature-based solutions to address climate change, biodiversity loss, and other environmental challenges in the Asia-Pacific region.
• B. The Asian Infrastructure Investment Bank (AIIB): While AIIB also invests in sustainable infrastructure, it did not launch the 'Nature Solutions Finance Hub for Asia and the Pacific'.
• C. The New Development Bank (NDB): NDB focuses on infrastructure and sustainable development projects in BRICS countries and other emerging economies. It did not launch the mentioned hub.
• D. The International Bank for Reconstruction and Development (IBRD): IBRD, part of the World Bank Group, operates globally and supports development projects. However, it was not the institution that launched the 'Nature Solutions Finance Hub for Asia and the Pacific'.

Therefore, option A is the most accurate answer as it directly identifies the organization responsible for launching the 'Nature Solutions Finance Hub for Asia and the Pacific'.

Explanation

Statement I: Incorrect The Tenth Schedule of the Constitution (anti-defection law) states that if any question arises as to whether a member of a House has become subject to disqualification, the decision of the Chairman (for Rajya Sabha) or the Speaker (for Lok Sabha) of such House shall be final. The President does not have a role in this decision, nor is it made in accordance with the opinion of the Council of Union Ministers.

Statement II: Incorrect The word 'political party' is indeed mentioned in the Constitution of India, specifically in the Tenth Schedule, which deals with the anti-defection law. Therefore, it is incorrect to say that there is no mention of the word 'political party' in the Constitution.

Therefore, neither statement is correct.

Explanation

• A. silver iodide and potassium iodide: TRUE. Artificial rainmaking, also known as cloud seeding, commonly uses silver iodide (AgI) and sometimes potassium iodide (KI) as seeding agents. These substances have a crystalline structure similar to ice, which helps in the formation of ice nuclei in clouds, leading to precipitation (rainfall). Silver iodide is the most widely used chemical for this purpose globally.

• B. silver nitrate and potassium iodide: FALSE. Silver nitrate (AgNO3) is not used in cloud seeding. While potassium iodide can be used, silver nitrate is not effective for inducing rainfall.

• C. silver iodide and potassium nitrate: FALSE. Potassium nitrate (KNO3) is not used in cloud seeding. Silver iodide is correct, but potassium nitrate is not.

• D. silver nitrate and potassium chloride: FALSE. Neither silver nitrate nor potassium chloride are used for artificial rainmaking.

Therefore, option A is correct as both silver iodide and potassium iodide are used in artificial rainmaking to induce rainfall and reduce air pollution.

Explanation

Statement I: This statement is NOT correct. Under the Mines and Minerals (Development and Regulation) Act, 1957 (MMDR Act), the regulation of minor minerals is primarily a State subject. State Governments have the power to make rules for the grant of concessions for extraction of minor minerals (such as sand, clay, gravel, etc.) within their territories. Section 15 of the MMDR Act specifically empowers State Governments to make rules regarding minor minerals.

Statement II: This statement is correct. The Central Government has the power to notify which minerals are to be considered as 'minor minerals' under the MMDR Act. The Central Government, through notification, classifies certain minerals as minor minerals, and then the States regulate their extraction.

Conclusion: Statement I is not correct, but Statement II is correct.

Explanation

Statement I: Correct Article 94 of the Constitution of India states that the Speaker of the Lok Sabha does not vacate his/her office upon the dissolution of the House. The Speaker continues in office until immediately before the first meeting of the newly constituted House. This ensures continuity in the functioning of the office of the Speaker.

Statement II: Incorrect There is no constitutional provision that requires a Member of the House of the People (Lok Sabha) to resign from his/her political party upon being elected as Speaker. However, by convention, the Speaker is expected to be impartial and may resign from the party, but it is not mandated by the Constitution.

Statement III: Correct Article 94 of the Constitution provides that the Speaker may be removed from office by a resolution of the House of the People passed by a majority of all the then members of the House. The Constitution also requires that at least 14 days' notice must be given of the intention to move such a resolution.

Therefore, statements I and III are correct.

Explanation

After the Chauri Chaura incident in February 1922, a large number of people were arrested and put on trial. Pandit Madan Mohan Malaviya played a very significant role in defending the accused. He, along with his son Krishna Kant Malaviya and other lawyers, argued the case for the accused, particularly in the appeal stages. Due to his efforts, out of 172 people sentenced to death by the sessions court, only 19 were eventually hanged, and the rest were either acquitted or had their sentences commuted to imprisonment.

Explanation

Pair I: Separation of Judiciary from the Executive in the public services of the State : The Directive Principles of the State Policy

• Correct. Article 50 of the Directive Principles of State Policy (DPSP) directs the State to take steps to separate the judiciary from the executive in the public services of the State.

Pair II: Valuing and preserving of the rich heritage of our composite culture : The Fundamental Duties

• Correct. Article 51A(f) of the Fundamental Duties states that it is the duty of every citizen to value and preserve the rich heritage of our composite culture.

Pair III: Prohibition of employment of children below the age of 14 years in factories : The Fundamental Rights

• Correct. Article 24, which is a Fundamental Right, prohibits the employment of children below the age of 14 years in factories, mines or any other hazardous employment.

Therefore, all three pairs are correctly matched.

Explanation

Statement I: Correct The 15th Finance Commission recommended grants of ₹4,800 crores from 2022–23 to 2025–26 to incentivize States to enhance educational outcomes. This is a specific grant aimed at improving education quality and outcomes in States.

Statement II: Incorrect The 15th Finance Commission recommended that 41% (not 45%) of the net proceeds of Union taxes be shared with States. The previous (14th) Finance Commission had recommended 42%, but the 15th reduced it to 41% due to the creation of the Union Territory of Jammu & Kashmir.

Statement III: Incorrect The Commission has recommended that Rs. 45,000 crore be kept as a performance-based incentive for all the States for carrying out agricultural reforms

Statement IV: Correct The 15th Finance Commission reintroduced the 'tax effort' criteria to reward States for better fiscal performance, i.e., States that mobilize more revenue relative to their GSDP are rewarded.

Therefore, statements I, III and IV are correct, hence, C is the correct answer.

Explanation

I. Mallorca : Italy Mallorca is the largest island in the Balearic Islands, which are part of Spain, not Italy. Therefore, this pair is incorrectly matched.

II. Normandy : Spain Normandy is a region in northern France, famous for the D-Day landings during World War II. It is not in Spain. Therefore, this pair is incorrectly matched.

III. Sardinia : France Sardinia is the second-largest island in the Mediterranean Sea and is part of Italy, not France. Therefore, this pair is incorrectly matched.

Conclusion: None of the pairs are correctly matched.

Explanation

Statement I: Correct Activated carbon is indeed a widely used and effective tool for removing pollutants from wastewater and industrial effluents. Its effectiveness stems from its ability to adsorb a variety of contaminants.

Statement II: Correct Activated carbon has a very high surface area due to its porous structure, which makes it an excellent adsorbent. It also possesses a significant capacity for adsorbing heavy metals from solutions.

Statement III: Correct Activated carbon can be synthesized from a variety of carbon-rich waste materials, including agricultural waste (e.g., coconut shells, rice husks), industrial by-products, and even certain types of plastic waste. This makes its production more sustainable and cost-effective.

Both Statement II and Statement III explain Statement I, because the properties of large surface area and strong potential for adsorbing heavy metals (Statement II), and the possibility of easy synthesis from environmental wastes with high carbon content (Statement III) contribute to activated carbon being a good tool to remove pollutants.

Therefore, both Statement II and Statement III are correct and both of them explain Statement I.

Explanation

Statement I: Correct

• Anadyr (Russia) and Nome (Alaska, USA) are located on opposite sides of the International Date Line (IDL), but geographically they are relatively close (separated by the Bering Strait).
• Due to the IDL, there is a date difference of almost one day between them. When it is morning in Anadyr, it is still the previous day in Nome, even though the local time of day (morning) may be similar.

Statement II: Incorrect

• When it is Monday in Anadyr, it is still Sunday in Nome, not Tuesday. Anadyr is ahead of Nome by almost 21 hours (Anadyr is UTC+12, Nome is UTC-9).
• Therefore, Anadyr is almost a day ahead, not behind. So, when it is Monday in Anadyr, it is still Sunday in Nome, not Tuesday.

Explanation

Statement I: Correct Buying and selling Government bonds is a major source of income for RBI. When RBI conducts Open Market Operations (OMOs), it buys and sells government securities in the secondary market. The interest earned on these government bonds and the profit/loss from trading activities constitute a significant portion of RBI's income.

Statement II: Correct Buying and selling foreign currency is another important source of income for RBI. As the custodian of India's foreign exchange reserves, RBI actively manages forex reserves by buying and selling foreign currencies. The returns from investing these reserves in foreign government securities and the gains from forex operations contribute to RBI's income.

Statement III: Incorrect Pension fund management is NOT a source of income for RBI. Pension fund management in India is handled by specialized institutions like Pension Fund Regulatory and Development Authority (PFRDA) and fund managers appointed by them. RBI does not engage in pension fund management as a business activity.

Statement IV: Incorrect Lending to private companies is NOT a direct source of income for RBI. RBI is the central bank and does not directly lend to private companies. It provides liquidity to commercial banks through various instruments like repo, reverse repo, and refinance facilities. Private companies get loans from commercial banks, not directly from RBI.

Statement V: Correct Printing and distributing currency notes generates income for RBI. RBI has the sole authority to issue currency notes in India (except one rupee notes which are issued by Government of India). The difference between the face value of currency notes and their production cost is called 'seigniorage', which forms part of RBI's income.

Therefore, statements I, II, and V are correct. Hence, D is the correct answer.

Explanation

1. Understand the terms:

   • Fiscal Deficit: The difference between the total expenditure and total receipts of the government, excluding borrowings. It indicates the total borrowings needed by the government.
   • Non-debt creating capital receipts: Receipts that do not create any liability for the government (e.g., recovery of loans, disinvestment). These receipts reduce the fiscal deficit.
   • Interest Liabilities: Payments made by the government on its past borrowings.
   • Gross Primary Deficit: Fiscal Deficit minus Interest Payments. It shows the deficit excluding the interest payment burden from past debts.

2. Given data:

   • Fiscal Deficit = ₹50,000 crores
   • Non-debt creating capital receipts = ₹10,000 crores (This information is usually already accounted for when the fiscal deficit figure is stated. Fiscal Deficit = Total Expenditure - (Revenue Receipts + Non-debt creating capital receipts). So, the ₹50,000 crore figure already reflects these receipts.)
   • Interest Liabilities = ₹1,500 crores

3. Calculate Gross Primary Deficit: Gross Primary Deficit = Fiscal Deficit - Interest Liabilities Gross Primary Deficit = ₹50,000 crores - ₹1,500 crores Gross Primary Deficit = ₹48,500 crores

Answer: A. ₹48,500 crores

Explanation

The correct answer is (D) Lahore

Here's why:

• Vishnu Digambar Paluskar established the first Gandharva Mahavidyalaya in Lahore in 1901. This marked a significant step in formalizing music education in India, aiming to revive and promote classical music traditions.
• The other options are incorrect because there's no historical record suggesting that the first Gandharva Mahavidyalaya was established in Delhi, Gwalior, or Ujjain.

Explanation

Row I: Incorrect

• The Directorate of Enforcement (ED) is responsible for enforcing the Fugitive Economic Offenders Act, 2018. However, it does not work under the Internal Security Division-I, Ministry of Home Affairs. Instead, the ED works under the Department of Revenue, Ministry of Finance.

Row II: Correct

• The Directorate of Revenue Intelligence (DRI) enforces the provisions of the Customs Act, 1962. It works under the Department of Revenue, Ministry of Finance. This is correctly matched.

Row III: Correct

• The Directorate General of Systems and Data Management is responsible for big data analytics to assist tax officers and nab tax evaders. It also works under the Department of Revenue, Ministry of Finance. This is correctly matched.

Conclusion:

• Only two rows (II and III) are correctly matched.

Therefore, the correct option is B. Only two

Explanation

Statement I: This is correct. Chalk is a very permeable rock because it allows water to pass through easily, while clay is considered quite impermeable or least permeable because it does not allow water to pass through easily.

Statement II: This is correct. Chalk is a porous rock, meaning it has many small holes or spaces that can absorb and hold water. This porosity is what makes chalk permeable.

Statement III: This is incorrect. Clay is not 'not at all porous'; it is actually made up of very fine particles and has tiny pores. However, the pores are so small that water cannot move through them easily, making clay impermeable, but not completely non-porous.

Conclusion: Only one of the Statements II and III is correct (Statement II), and it explains Statement I (why chalk is permeable).

Explanation

Statement I: Incorrect The National Rail Plan (NRP) aims to develop a 'future ready' railway system by 2030, not 2028. The plan focuses on increasing network capacity, improving freight and passenger services, and achieving sustainable operations.

Statement II: Incorrect 'Kavach' is an indigenously developed Automatic Train Protection (ATP) system. It is not developed in collaboration with Germany. It's a project under 'Make in India'.

Statement III: Correct The 'Kavach' system uses Radio Frequency Identification (RFID) tags, which are placed on the tracks in station sections. These tags help in continuously updating the train's location and speed.

Since statements I and II are incorrect, and statement III is correct, the question asks for the incorrect statements.

Explanation

Statement I: Incorrect Panchayats at the intermediate level (i.e., Block or Mandal Panchayats) do not exist in all States. According to Article 243B of the Constitution, states with a population not exceeding 20 lakhs may not constitute Panchayats at the intermediate level. Thus, smaller states and Union Territories may have only two tiers (village and district levels).

Statement II: Incorrect The minimum age to be a member of a Panchayat at any level is 21 years, as per Article 243F of the Constitution. The age of thirty years is not required.

Statement III: Incorrect The State Finance Commission, which reviews the financial position of Panchayats and makes recommendations regarding the distribution of taxes, is constituted by the Governor of the State, not the Chief Minister (Article 243I).

Therefore, all three statements are incorrect.

Explanation

1. I. United Kingdom:

   • Mainland UK (England, Scotland, Wales, Northern Ireland) uses GMT (UTC+0) or BST (UTC+1).
   • However, the UK has numerous Overseas Territories, which significantly increase its number of time zones. Examples include:
     • Pitcairn Islands: UTC-8
     • Bermuda, Falkland Islands: UTC-3 (varies slightly for Falklands DST)
     • Cayman Islands, British Virgin Islands: UTC-4
     • Gibraltar: UTC+1/UTC+2 (same as Central European Time)
     • Akrotiri and Dhekelia (Cyprus): UTC+2/UTC+3
     • British Indian Ocean Territory: UTC+6
     • South Georgia and the South Sandwich Islands: UTC-2
   • In total, the UK spans 9 official time zones. This is more than four.

2. II. Denmark:

   • Mainland Denmark uses Central European Time (UTC+1 / UTC+2 during summer).
   • Greenland (an autonomous territory of Denmark) has multiple time zones:
     • West Greenland (most populated areas like Nuuk): UTC-3 (summer UTC-2)
     • East Greenland (e.g., Ittoqqortoormiit): UTC-1 (summer UTC+0)
     • Thule Air Base area: UTC-4
     • Danmarkshavn: UTC+0 (GMT, no DST)
   • Faroe Islands (another autonomous territory): UTC+0 / UTC+1 during summer.
   • Taking distinct base UTC offsets, Denmark has at least 5 (UTC+1, UTC+0, UTC-1, UTC-3, UTC-4). This is more than four.

3. III. New Zealand:

   • Mainland New Zealand: NZST (UTC+12) / NZDT (UTC+13).
   • Chatham Islands: CHAST (UTC+12:45) / CHADT (UTC+13:45).
   • Associated states/territories:
     • Tokelau: UTC+13.
     • Niue: UTC-11.
     • Cook Islands: UTC-10.
   • This gives 5 distinct time zones (UTC+12, UTC+12:45, UTC+13 (Tokelau being distinct from NZDT contextually), UTC-11, UTC-10). This is more than four.

4. IV. Australia:

   • Mainland Australia has three primary time zones:
     • Western Standard Time (AWST): UTC+8
     • Central Standard Time (ACST): UTC+9:30
     • Eastern Standard Time (AEST): UTC+10
     • Some of these observe daylight saving.
   • Offshore territories add more:
     • Lord Howe Island: UTC+10:30 / UTC+11
     • Norfolk Island: UTC+11 / UTC+12
     • Cocos (Keeling) Islands: UTC+6:30
     • Christmas Island: UTC+7
     • Australian Antarctic Territory: Has multiple stations with different time zones (e.g., Mawson UTC+5, Davis UTC+7, Casey UTC+8).
   • Australia has at least 8-9 official time zones. This is more than four.

5. V. Brazil:

   • Brazil officially uses four time zones:
     • Fernando de Noronha Time: UTC-2
     • Brasilia Time (official time, covers most populous regions): UTC-3
     • Amazon Time: UTC-4
     • Acre Time: UTC-5
   • Brazil has exactly four time zones. It does not have more than four.

Therefore, the United Kingdom, Denmark, New Zealand, and Australia have more than four time zones. Brazil has exactly four.

So, 4 of the listed countries have more than four time zones.

Explanation

Statement I:

• True. The Rashtriya Gokul Mission (RGM) aims to conserve and develop indigenous breeds of cattle and buffalo. Most of the low-producing indigenous animals are owned by small and marginal farmers and landless labourers. Uplifting these animals directly benefits the rural poor by improving their livelihoods and income through better productivity.

Statement II:

• True. The mission was launched in December 2014 with the objective to promote indigenous cattle and buffalo rearing and conservation in a scientific and holistic manner. It includes scientific breeding, genetic upgradation, and conservation of indigenous breeds.

Therefore, the correct answer is (C) Both I and II.

Explanation

Statement I: Correct India is indeed the largest producer and exporter of turmeric in the world. India accounts for approximately 80% of global turmeric production and about 65% of global turmeric exports. Major producing countries include India, Myanmar, Bangladesh, and some African nations, but India dominates both production and export markets significantly.

Statement II: Correct More than 30 varieties of turmeric are grown in India. Some prominent varieties include:

• Alleppey Finger (Kerala)
• Erode turmeric (Tamil Nadu)
• Sangli turmeric (Maharashtra)
• Salem turmeric (Tamil Nadu)
• Nizamabad turmeric (Telangana)
• Rajapore turmeric (Maharashtra) India has a rich diversity of turmeric varieties adapted to different agro-climatic conditions.

Statement III: Correct Maharashtra, Telangana, Karnataka and Tamil Nadu are indeed major turmeric producing states in India. According to agricultural statistics:

• Telangana - Largest producer (around 35-40% of total production)
• Maharashtra - Second largest producer
• Tamil Nadu - Significant producer, especially known for Erode variety
• Karnataka - Important producing state Other states like Andhra Pradesh, Kerala, and Odisha also contribute significantly.

Hence, Option D is correct answer.

Explanation

Statement I: Incorrect India's per capita CO₂ emissions are actually higher than 0.5 t CO₂/capita. According to recent data from the Global Carbon Atlas and IEA, India's per capita CO₂ emissions are approximately 1.9-2.0 tonnes per capita as of 2020-2022. While this is still significantly lower than developed countries like the USA (15-16 t CO₂/capita) or China (7-8 t CO₂/capita), it exceeds the 0.5 threshold mentioned in the statement.

Statement II: Correct India indeed ranks second in the Asia-Pacific region in terms of absolute CO₂ emissions from fuel combustion, after China. China is the largest emitter globally and in Asia-Pacific, followed by India. Other major emitters in the region like Japan, South Korea, and Australia have much smaller absolute emissions compared to India, though some may have higher per capita emissions.

Statement III: Correct Electricity and heat production sector is indeed the largest source of CO₂ emissions in India, accounting for approximately 44-48% of total CO₂ emissions. This is primarily due to India's heavy reliance on coal-fired power plants for electricity generation. Coal accounts for about 70% of India's electricity generation, making the power sector the dominant contributor to CO₂ emissions. Other sectors like industry, transportation, and residential follow but contribute lesser percentages.

Therefore, statements II and III are correct.

Explanation

Let's analyze each statement:

Statement I: Correct The Majorana 1 chip is a quantum computing chip based on Majorana zero modes, which are theorized to be more stable for quantum computation. It is expected that such chips will enable advancements in quantum computing.

Statement II: Incorrect Majorana 1 chip has not been introduced by Amazon Web Services (AWS). It is a project by Microsoft, which is working on topological quantum computing using Majorana zero modes. AWS has its own quantum computing initiatives, but Majorana 1 is not one of them.

Statement III: Correct Deep learning is indeed a subset of machine learning. Deep learning uses neural networks with many layers to model complex patterns in data, and is a part of the broader field of machine learning.

Therefore, only statements I and III are correct.

Explanation

Statement I: Incorrect India's Gukesh Dommaraju became the youngest world chess champion after defeating defending champ Ding Liren (of China) in the finals of the 45th Chess Olympiad held in 2024. The finals was not against Russian player Ian Nepomniachtchi.

Statement II: Correct Abhimanyu Mishra, an American chess player of Indian origin, is the youngest chess Grandmaster in history. He achieved the title at the age of 12 years, 4 months, and 25 days, breaking the previous record held by Sergey Karjakin.

Therefore, the correct answer is (B) II only.

Explanation

Dandi March

• On 6 April, Gandhiji reached Dandi and declared:
• The British rule in India has brought about moral, material, cultural, and spiritual ruination of this great country. I regard this rule as a curse. I am out to destroy this system of Government. ... Sedition has become my religion. Ours is a non-violent battle. We are not to kill anybody but it is our dharma to see that the curse of this Government is blotted out.

Explanation

Statement I: Correct The Constitution of India does explicitly mention that the Governor of a State can act in his/her own discretion in certain matters. For example, Article 163(2) states that if any question arises whether a matter falls within the Governor's discretion, the decision of the Governor shall be final. Also, in matters like reserving a bill for the President (Article 200), or in the appointment of the Chief Minister when no party has a clear majority, the Governor acts in his/her discretion.

Statement II: Incorrect The President of India cannot, on his/her own, reserve a bill passed by a State Legislature for consideration. It is the Governor who has the power to reserve certain bills for the consideration of the President under Article 200. The President can only act on a bill once it is reserved and forwarded by the Governor. There is no provision for the President to directly take up a bill passed by a State Legislature without the Governor's intervention.

Therefore, only Statement I is correct.

Explanation

• A. The European Union: The Nature Restoration Law (NRL) is a legislative initiative of the European Union. It was proposed by the European Commission and adopted by the European Parliament and Council in 2024. The law aims to restore degraded ecosystems, tackle climate change, and halt biodiversity loss across EU member states. It sets legally binding targets for nature restoration on land and sea within the EU.

• B. The World Bank: The World Bank is an international financial institution that provides loans and grants to countries for development projects. It does not enact laws like the NRL; rather, it supports projects and policies globally.

• C. The Organization for Economic Cooperation and Development (OECD): The OECD is an international organization that promotes economic growth and policy coordination among member countries. It does not have the authority to enact binding environmental laws like the NRL.

• D. The Food and Agriculture Organization (FAO): The FAO is a specialized agency of the United Nations focused on defeating hunger and improving agriculture. It does not enact regional laws such as the NRL.

Explanation

The correct answer is (B) district-level administration.

• A. village-level administration: The Ashokan inscriptions do not mention 'Pradesika', 'Rajuka', and 'Yukta' as village-level officers. Village administration was generally managed by local headmen or village elders.

• B. district-level administration: This is correct. According to Ashokan edicts and inscriptions, 'Pradesika', 'Rajuka', and 'Yukta' were important officers at the district level. The 'Pradesika' was in charge of a district (Pradesa), the 'Rajuka' was responsible for revenue and judicial functions, and the 'Yukta' was a subordinate official, often involved in record-keeping and administration. These officers played a crucial role in the Mauryan administrative system at the district level.

• C. provincial administration: While there were provincial governors (Kumara or Aryaputra), the specific titles of 'Pradesika', 'Rajuka', and 'Yukta' are not associated with provincial administration in Ashokan inscriptions.

• D. level of the central administration: Central administration was managed by higher officials and ministers, not by these district-level officers.

Therefore, option B is correct as the Ashokan inscriptions clearly indicate that 'Pradesika', 'Rajuka', and 'Yukta' were important officers at the district level.

Explanation

Statement I: Correct Monoclonal antibodies are indeed man-made (synthetic) proteins. They are produced in laboratories by cloning a single type of immune cell, hence the term 'monoclonal'.

Statement II: Correct Monoclonal antibodies are designed to bind to specific antigens (such as those found on the surface of pathogens or cancer cells). By binding to these antigens, they can stimulate or modulate the immune system's response, either by marking the target for destruction or by blocking its activity.

Statement III: Correct Monoclonal antibodies have been used in the treatment of various viral infections, including the Nipah virus. For example, the monoclonal antibody m102.4 has been used on a compassionate basis to treat Nipah virus infections in humans.

Therefore, all three statements are correct.

Explanation

Statement I: This statement is NOT correct. In India, only income from agricultural activities (like cultivation of land, growing crops, etc.) is fully exempt from income tax under Section 10(1) of the Income-tax Act, 1961. However, income from allied agricultural activities such as poultry farming, dairy farming, and wool rearing is NOT considered agricultural income and is therefore taxable under the Income-tax Act.

Statement II: This statement is correct. Under Section 2(14) of the Income-tax Act, 1961, rural agricultural land in India is specifically excluded from the definition of 'capital asset'. This means that gains arising from the sale of rural agricultural land are not subject to capital gains tax.

Conclusion: Only Statement II is correct.

Explanation

I. Papaya: Correct Papaya is native to tropical America (Central America and southern Mexico). It was introduced to India by the Portuguese in the 16th century.

II. Pineapple: Correct Pineapple is also native to South America. The Portuguese introduced pineapple to India in the 16th century.

III. Guava: Correct Guava is native to Central America and Mexico, and it was introduced to India by the Portuguese in the 17th century.

Explanation

Statement I: This statement is correct. In January (winter in the Northern Hemisphere), isotherms (lines of equal temperature) bend equatorward (towards the equator) while crossing landmasses because land cools down faster than water. Over the oceans, the isotherms bend poleward (towards the poles) because the sea retains heat and is warmer than the adjacent land at the same latitude.

Statement II: This statement is also correct. In January, due to the high specific heat of water, the air over the oceans remains warmer compared to the air over the landmasses in the Northern Hemisphere. Land loses heat quickly, making it colder than the oceans during winter.

Relationship between the statements: Statement II provides the reason for the pattern described in Statement I. The difference in temperature between land and ocean in January causes the isotherms to bend as described.

Conclusion: Both statements are correct, and Statement II explains Statement I.

Explanation

The correct answer is (C) Rajendra I (Chola).

Here's why:

• A. Amoghavarsha (Rashtrakuta): Amoghavarsha was a famous Rashtrakuta ruler, but he did not lead any known military campaign against the Srivijaya kingdom. His reign was more noted for cultural achievements and internal administration.

• B. Prataparudra (Kakatiya): Prataparudra was a ruler of the Kakatiya dynasty in the Deccan region. There is no historical record of him leading any campaign against Srivijaya.

• C. Rajendra I (Chola): Rajendra Chola I, the son of Rajaraja Chola I, led a successful naval expedition against the Srivijaya kingdom in 1025 CE. This campaign is well-documented in Chola inscriptions and is considered one of the most significant overseas military expeditions in Indian history. The Cholas attacked several ports and cities of Srivijaya, asserting their dominance over the maritime trade routes of Southeast Asia.

• D. Vishnuvardhana (Hoysala): Vishnuvardhana was a prominent Hoysala king, but his military campaigns were mostly confined to South India and did not extend to Southeast Asia or Srivijaya.

Therefore, option C is the correct answer as Rajendra I (Chola) is historically credited with the successful military campaign against Srivijaya.

Explanation

Statement I: Correct GAGAN (GPS-Aided Geo Augmented Navigation) is an Indian Satellite Based Augmentation System (SBAS) developed jointly by ISRO and Airports Authority of India (AAI). It is specifically designed to provide additional accuracy and integrity to GPS signals, which is essential for safety-critical applications like aviation.

Statement II: Correct By improving the accuracy, reliability, and availability of GPS signals, GAGAN enables more uniform and high-quality air traffic management. It allows for more precise navigation and landing, which enhances safety and efficiency in airspace management.

Statement III: Incorrect While GAGAN was primarily developed for aviation, its benefits are not limited to aviation alone. It can also be used in other modes of transportation such as railways, roadways, maritime, and even in agriculture, surveying, and disaster management. Thus, the statement that it will provide benefits only in aviation is incorrect.

Therefore, only statements I and II are correct.

Explanation

Statement I: Incorrect The statement talks about Peninsular India suffering from flooding, tropical cyclones, and droughts. While these are indeed climate risks for Peninsular India, the specific warning from the World Bank about 'wet-bulb temperatures routinely exceeding 35°C' is not directly about these hazards. Wet-bulb temperature is a measure of heat and humidity, and when it exceeds 35°C, it becomes physiologically dangerous for humans and animals. The World Bank's warning is about the risk to human and animal survival due to extreme heat and humidity, not specifically about flooding, cyclones, or droughts.

Statement II: Correct This statement correctly reflects the implication of the report. Wet-bulb temperatures above 35°C mean that the human body cannot cool itself by sweating, leading to a high risk of heat stress and even death. This affects the survival of both humans and animals, as their ability to shed body heat through perspiration or other means becomes ineffective.

Therefore, only Statement II is correct.

Explanation

I. Cigarette butts: Correct Cigarette butts contain a filter made of cellulose acetate, which is a type of plastic. They are a major source of microplastic pollution.

II. Eyeglass lenses: Correct Most modern eyeglass lenses are made from polycarbonate or CR-39 plastic, not glass. Thus, they contain plastic.

III. Car tyres: Correct Car tyres are made from a blend of natural rubber and synthetic polymers (such as styrene-butadiene rubber), which are types of plastic. Tyres also contain other materials, but plastics are a significant component.

Therefore, all three items contain plastic.

Explanation

Statement I: Correct The 16th BRICS Summit was indeed held in Kazan, Russia in October 2024 under the chairship of Russia. Russia held the rotating presidency of BRICS in 2024, and the summit took place from October 22-24, 2024 in Kazan, the capital of Tatarstan.

Statement II: Correct Indonesia officially became a full member of the BRICS bloc in January, 2025. This makes Indonesia the first Southeast Asian nation and the 10th member of BRICS.

Statement III: Incorrect The theme for the 16th BRICS Summit (2024) is 'Strengthening Multilateralism for Just Global Development and Security.' The statement in the question is almost verbatim, except for a minor difference ('Multiculturalism' instead of 'Multilateralism'), so it is considered incorrect for the purpose of this question.

Therefore, statements I and II are correct.

Explanation

Statement I: Circular economy reduces the emissions of greenhouse gases. Correct. A circular economy aims to minimize waste and pollution, keep products and materials in use, and regenerate natural systems. By reducing reliance on virgin raw materials and promoting reuse, repair, and recycling, it significantly lowers greenhouse gas emissions associated with resource extraction, manufacturing, and waste disposal.

Statement II: Circular economy reduces the use of raw materials as inputs. Correct. A core principle of the circular economy is to minimize the need for new raw materials. This is achieved through strategies like product lifespan extension, reuse, repair, refurbishment, and recycling. By keeping materials in use for longer, the demand for virgin resources is reduced.

Statement III: Circular economy reduces wastage in the production process. Correct. The circular economy emphasizes efficient resource utilization and waste minimization at every stage of the production process. This involves strategies such as eco-design, closed-loop manufacturing, and industrial symbiosis, all aimed at reducing waste generation.

Relationship between Statements: Statement II and Statement III both directly contribute to Statement I. Reduced raw material use (Statement II) translates to less energy consumed in extraction and processing, leading to lower greenhouse gas emissions. Similarly, reduced wastage (Statement III) means less material ending up in landfills or incinerators, which are significant sources of greenhouse gas emissions. Thus, both statements help explain why a circular economy reduces greenhouse gas emissions.

Therefore, Statement II and III are correct and both of them explain statement I.

Explanation

Statement I: This statement is correct. The amount of dust particles in the atmosphere is generally higher in subtropical and temperate regions compared to equatorial and polar regions. This is because:

• Subtropical and temperate areas often have dry conditions, sparse vegetation, and strong winds, which help lift dust into the atmosphere (e.g., Sahara Desert, Middle East, Central Asia).
• Equatorial regions are humid and have dense vegetation, which prevents dust from being easily lifted.
• Polar regions are covered with ice and snow, and have little exposed soil, so dust is minimal.

Statement II: This statement is incorrect. Subtropical and temperate areas actually have more dry winds, not less. For example, the trade winds and westerlies in these regions are often dry and strong, contributing to dust storms and the movement of dust particles. Dry winds are less common in equatorial regions (which are humid) and polar regions (which are cold and moist).

Conclusion: Statement I is correct, but Statement II is not correct.

Explanation

I. Full battery electric vehicles (BEVs): Correct These vehicles are powered solely by electricity stored in a battery pack, which is charged from an external source. They do not use an internal combustion engine and are thus considered an alternative to conventional gasoline or diesel vehicles.

II. Hydrogen fuel cell vehicles (FCEVs): Correct These vehicles use hydrogen as fuel and convert it into electricity through a fuel cell. The electricity then powers an electric motor, propelling the vehicle. The only emission is water vapor, making them a zero-emission alternative.

III. Fuel cell electric hybrid vehicles (FCEHVs): Correct These vehicles combine a fuel cell with a battery pack and an electric motor. The fuel cell provides the primary source of electricity, while the battery pack provides additional power during acceleration or hill climbing and captures energy through regenerative braking. They are also considered alternative powertrain vehicles due to their reliance on fuel cell technology.

Since all three vehicle types represent alternatives to traditional internal combustion engine vehicles, all are considered alternative (powertrain) vehicles.

Explanation

Statement I: Correct The 'PM Surya Ghar Muft Bijli Yojana' aims to install one crore (10 million) solar rooftop panels in the residential sector. This is a key target of the scheme, as announced by the government in 2024.

Statement II: Correct The Ministry of New and Renewable Energy (MNRE) is responsible for the implementation of the scheme. As part of the scheme, MNRE aims to impart training at the grassroots level on installation, operation, maintenance, and repairs of solar rooftop systems. This is to ensure the sustainability and efficiency of the installed systems.

Statement III: Correct The scheme also has a component of capacity building, which aims to create more than three lakh (300,000) skilled manpower through fresh skilling and up-skilling. This is to support the large-scale deployment and maintenance of rooftop solar systems across the country.

Therefore, all three statements are correct.

Explanation

Pair I: The National Automotive Board : Ministry of Commerce and Industry

• Incorrect. The National Automotive Board (NAB) functions under the Ministry of Heavy Industries, not the Ministry of Commerce and Industry. The Ministry of Heavy Industries is responsible for the automotive sector in India.

Pair II: The Coir Board : Ministry of Heavy Industries

• Incorrect. The Coir Board is under the Ministry of Micro, Small and Medium Enterprises (MSME), not the Ministry of Heavy Industries. The Coir Board promotes the coir industry in India and is a statutory body under the MSME Ministry.

Pair III: The National Centre for Trade Information : Ministry of Micro, Small and Medium Enterprises

• Incorrect. The National Centre for Trade Information (NCTI) is a joint venture between the Ministry of Commerce and Industry and the India Trade Promotion Organisation (ITPO). It is not under the Ministry of Micro, Small and Medium Enterprises.

Therefore, none of the pairs are correctly matched.

Explanation

I. List I–Union List, in the Seventh Schedule: Correct Article 368(2) of the Constitution states that if a constitutional amendment seeks to make any change in the Seventh Schedule (which includes the Union List), it requires ratification by not less than one-half of the State Legislatures. This is because changes to the distribution of powers between the Union and the States affect the federal structure.

II. Extent of the executive power of a State: Correct Any amendment that seeks to change the extent of the executive power of the State also requires ratification by at least half of the State Legislatures. This is because it directly affects the relationship between the Union and the States, which is a federal feature protected by the Constitution.

III. Conditions of the Governor’s office: Incorrect Amendments relating to the conditions of the Governor's office do not require ratification by the States. Only those provisions that affect the federal structure (like the election of the President, representation of States in Parliament, powers of the Supreme Court and High Courts, and the Seventh Schedule) require such ratification. The conditions of the Governor's office are not included in this list.

Therefore, only I and II require ratification by not less than one-half of the State Legislatures.

Explanation

Statement I: Correct Rare earth elements (REEs) are extensively used in manufacturing flat television screens and computer monitors. Specifically:

• Europium is used to produce red phosphors in CRT monitors and LED displays
• Terbium is used for green phosphors
• Yttrium is used in red phosphors and as a host material
• Cerium is used in glass polishing and as a component in some display technologies
• Neodymium is used in speakers and magnetic components of displays

These elements are crucial for the color reproduction and functionality of modern display technologies.

Statement II: Correct Several rare earth elements exhibit phosphorescent properties:

• Europium compounds show strong red phosphorescence
• Terbium compounds exhibit green phosphorescence
• Dysprosium shows yellow phosphorescence
• Samarium exhibits orange-red phosphorescence

Phosphorescence is the property of absorbing energy and then slowly releasing it as light over time, which is different from fluorescence where light emission stops immediately when the energy source is removed.

Relationship Between Statements: Statement II directly explains Statement I. The reason rare earth elements are used in flat screens and monitors is precisely because of their phosphorescent (and fluorescent) properties. These properties allow them to:

• Convert electrical energy into visible light
• Produce specific colors when excited
• Maintain color purity and brightness
• Enable the display of images on screens

The phosphorescent properties mentioned in Statement II are the fundamental reason why these elements are valuable in display technology mentioned in Statement I.

Explanation

The Petroleum and Natural Gas Regulatory Board (PNGRB) was established under the PNGRB Act, 2006. Its primary mandate is to regulate the downstream activities in the petroleum and natural gas sector. Let's analyze each activity:

1. I. Production of crude oil: This is an upstream activity (exploration and production). PNGRB does not regulate upstream activities. These are primarily overseen by the Ministry of Petroleum and Natural Gas (MoPNG) and the Directorate General of Hydrocarbons (DGH).

2. II. Refining, storage and distribution of petroleum products:

   • Refining: The PNGRB Act's preamble mentions regulating "refining". However, the Act's specific provisions for authorizing or licensing entities generally exclude the core refining operations. PNGRB may make regulations that impact refineries (e.g., quality standards for products entering pipelines, ensuring open access for evacuation), but the primary regulation of establishing and operating refineries is not its core licensing function.
   • Storage: PNGRB regulates the establishment of storage facilities for petroleum, petroleum products, and natural gas (excluding storage at crude oil producing fields and refineries themselves).
   • Distribution: PNGRB regulates the transportation pipelines for petroleum products and natural gas, as well as city or local natural gas distribution networks.

3. III. Marketing and sale of petroleum products: PNGRB regulates the marketing of notified petroleum, petroleum products, and natural gas, including authorizing entities for marketing.

4. IV. Production of natural gas: Similar to crude oil, this is an upstream activity and is not regulated by PNGRB.

Considering the listed activities:

• Item I (Production of crude oil) is not regulated by PNGRB.
• Item IV (Production of natural gas) is not regulated by PNGRB.
• Item III (Marketing and sale of petroleum products) is regulated by PNGRB.
• Item II (Refining, storage and distribution of petroleum products):
  • "Storage" (excluding at refineries) is regulated.
  • "Distribution" (pipelines, city gas networks) is regulated.
  • "Refining" itself is not directly licensed or authorized by PNGRB as a core function, though PNGRB can make regulations that touch upon aspects of it.

The question asks how many of the above activities (referring to the Roman numeral items) are regulated.

• Item III is clearly regulated.
• Item II contains significant components (storage and distribution) that are core regulatory areas for PNGRB. While "refining" is not directly licensed by PNGRB, the overall downstream activity encompassing storage and distribution is.

Given PNGRB's role in the downstream sector which prominently includes storage, transportation (distribution), and marketing:

• Activities related to storage and distribution (covered in item II) are regulated.
• Activities related to marketing and sale (covered in item III) are regulated.

Therefore, significant regulatory functions of PNGRB fall under items II and III.

Answer: B. Only two (referring to items II and III as categories containing activities regulated by PNGRB)

Explanation

The correct answer is (B) Both Statement II and Statement III are correct but only one of them explains Statement I

Here's why:

• Statement I: Studies indeed suggest that the cement industry is a significant contributor to global carbon emissions. The percentage is generally estimated to be around 5-8%. This statement is correct.

• Statement II: In cement manufacturing, raw materials like silica-bearing clay and limestone are mixed. This provides the necessary elements (calcium, silicon, aluminum, and iron) for the cement compounds. This statement is correct.

• Statement III: During the clinker production stage, limestone (calcium carbonate) is heated to high temperatures (calcination), which converts it into lime (calcium oxide) and releases carbon dioxide. This statement is also correct.

Explanation of why option B is the correct answer:

While Statements II and III are both correct, only Statement III directly explains Statement I. Statement III describes the calcination process where limestone is converted to lime releasing CO2, directly linking it to the cement industry's carbon emissions. Statement II provides information about the raw materials used, but it does not directly explain the carbon emissions.

Therefore, options A and C are incorrect as they suggest both or one statement explains statement I, but only Statement III does. Option D is incorrect because Statements II and III are both correct.

Explanation

The correct answer is (A) Mahendravarman I.

Let's analyze each option:

• A. Mahendravarman I: TRUE. Mahendravarman I was a Pallava king who ruled in the 7th century CE. He was a noted patron of art and literature and is well known for assuming the titles 'Mattavilasa' (the lover of drunken sport), 'Vichitrachitta' (the curious-minded or the one with a creative mind), and 'Gunabharata' (full of virtues). He authored the Sanskrit play 'Mattavilasa Prahasana'.

• B. Simhavishnu: FALSE. Simhavishnu was the father of Mahendravarman I and an earlier Pallava ruler, but there is no historical record of him assuming these titles.

• C. Narasimhavarman I: FALSE. Narasimhavarman I, also known as Mamalla, was the son of Mahendravarman I and famous for his military exploits and the construction of Mahabalipuram, but he did not assume these titles.

• D. Simhavarman: FALSE. Simhavarman was an earlier Pallava king, but he is not associated with these titles.

Therefore, the correct answer is A. Mahendravarman I, who was renowned for his literary and artistic contributions and assumed the titles 'Mattavilasa', 'Vichitrachitta', and 'Gunabharata'.

Explanation

Let's calculate each deficit based on the provided information:

1. Revenue Deficit (RD): RD = Revenue Expenditure - Revenue Receipts RD = ₹80,000 crores - ₹60,000 crores RD = ₹20,000 crores So, Statement I is correct.

2. Fiscal Deficit (FD): The fiscal deficit is equal to the total borrowings of the government. Given Borrowings = ₹10,000 crores FD = ₹10,000 crores So, Statement II is correct.

3. Primary Deficit (PD): PD = Fiscal Deficit - Interest Payments PD = ₹10,000 crores - ₹6,000 crores PD = ₹4,000 crores So, Statement III is correct.

Since all three statements (I, II, and III) are correct:

Answer: D. I, II and III

Explanation

Let's analyze each pair:

I. Cassava : Woody shrub — Correct Cassava (Manihot esculenta) is a perennial woody shrub native to South America. It is cultivated for its edible starchy tuberous root.

II. Ginger : Herb with pseudostem — Correct Ginger (Zingiber officinale) is a herbaceous plant. What appears to be a stem is actually a pseudostem formed by the rolled bases of the leaves.

III. Malabar spinach : Herbaceous climber — Correct Malabar spinach (Basella alba) is a fast-growing, soft-stemmed, perennial vine (climber) with succulent, herbaceous stems.

IV. Mint : Annual shrub — Incorrect Mint (Mentha spp.) is not a shrub. It is a perennial herb, not an annual shrub. Shrubs are woody, but mint is a soft-stemmed herb.

V. Papaya : Woody shrub — Incorrect Papaya (Carica papaya) is technically a large herbaceous plant, not a woody shrub. Its stem is soft and hollow, not woody.

Therefore, only three pairs are correctly matched.

Explanation

I. United Arab Emirates (UAE): Correct UPI international merchant payments are accepted in the UAE. NPCI International Payments Limited (NIPL) has partnered with several payment providers in the UAE to enable UPI payments at select merchants.

II. France: Correct France has recently started accepting UPI payments at select merchants, especially in tourist hotspots like the Eiffel Tower, as per announcements in 2023-24.

III. Germany: Incorrect As of June 2024, there is no official announcement or partnership enabling UPI merchant payments in Germany.

IV. Singapore: Correct Singapore has enabled person-to-person (P2P) remittances between PayNow and UPI, international merchant payments via UPI at physical stores are operational now.

V. Bangladesh: Incorrect There is no official rollout of UPI merchant payments in Bangladesh as of June 2024.

Therefore, only three countries from the list accept international merchant payments under UPI.

List of countries where international merchant payments are accepted at select merchant outlets:

Sr. No	Country Name
1	Bhutan
2	France
3	Mauritius
4	Nepal
5	Singapore
6	Sri Lanka
7	UAE

Explanation

The correct answer is (C) Only four.

Let me analyze each country to determine which ones the Andes Mountains pass through:

Countries through which Andes pass:

• I. Bolivia: ✓ YES - The Andes run through western Bolivia, forming the Altiplano plateau
• II. Brazil: ✗ NO - Brazil is primarily located on the Brazilian Plateau and Amazon Basin; the Andes do not extend into Brazil
• III. Colombia: ✓ YES - The Andes split into three ranges (Cordillera Occidental, Central, and Oriental) in Colombia
• IV. Ecuador: ✓ YES - The Andes run north-south through Ecuador, dividing it into coastal, highland, and Amazon regions
• V. Paraguay: ✗ NO - Paraguay is entirely located in the interior lowlands of South America, east of the Andes
• VI. Venezuela: ✓ YES - The Venezuelan Andes (part of the Cordillera de Mérida) extend into western Venezuela

Key Geographic Facts:

• The Andes Mountains form the longest continental mountain range in the world, stretching along South America's western coast
• They extend through seven countries total: Venezuela, Colombia, Ecuador, Peru, Bolivia, Chile, and Argentina
• From the given list, only Brazil and Paraguay do not have the Andes passing through them
• Brazil is separated from the Andes by other countries, while Paraguay lies in the interior plains

Therefore, option C is correct as exactly four of the listed countries have the Andes Mountains passing through them.

Explanation

Statement I: Incorrect When an area in a State is declared as a Scheduled Area under the Fifth Schedule, the State Government does NOT lose its executive power. The administration of such areas is carried out by the State Government, but it is subject to special provisions and the Governor has special powers to make regulations for the peace and good governance of these areas. There is no provision for a local body to assume total administration, nor does the State Government lose all its powers.

Statement II: Incorrect The Union Government does not take over the total administration of Scheduled Areas under the Fifth Schedule, even under special circumstances. The Governor of the State has special powers and can make regulations for the administration of these areas, but the Union Government does not directly administer them. The Governor can submit reports to the President regarding the administration of these areas, but there is no provision for the Union Government to take over total administration based on the Governor's recommendation.

Therefore, neither statement I nor II is correct.

Explanation

Pair I: International Year of the Woman Farmer : 2026 - Correct The UN General Assembly has designated 2026 as the International Year of the Woman Farmer to recognize the crucial role women play in agriculture and food security globally. This aims to highlight women's contributions to farming and address gender inequalities in agriculture.

Pair II: International Year of Sustainable and Resilient Tourism : 2027 - Correct The UN General Assembly has proclaimed 2027 as the International Year of Sustainable and Resilient Tourism. This designation aims to promote tourism that contributes to sustainable development while being resilient to various challenges including climate change and pandemics.

Pair III: International Year of Peace and Trust : 2025 - Correct The UN General Assembly has designated 2025 as the International Year of Peace and Trust. This initiative aims to promote peace, trust, and cooperation among nations and communities worldwide.

Pair IV: International Year of Asteroid Awareness and Planetary Defence : 2029 - Correct The United Nations General Assembly has declared 2029 as the International Year of Asteroid Awareness and Planetary Defence, to mark the close approach of asteroid Apophis in 2029.

Therefore, all four pairs are correctly matched.

Explanation

Statement 1: Incorrect Not all UAVs are capable of vertical landing. Vertical landing is a feature primarily associated with multirotor drones (like quadcopters) and some VTOL (Vertical Take-Off and Landing) fixed-wing aircraft. Fixed-wing UAVs typically require a runway for takeoff and landing.

Statement 2: Incorrect Automated hovering is not a standard capability across all UAV types. While many modern drones have sophisticated stabilization and GPS-assisted hovering capabilities, simpler or older UAV designs might lack this feature. Additionally, fixed-wing UAVs, by their nature, cannot hover.

Statement 3: Incorrect UAVs can utilize various power sources, not just batteries. While battery power is common, especially for smaller drones, larger UAVs can be powered by gasoline engines, hybrid systems (combining a gasoline engine with an electric generator), or even solar power. Fuel cells are also being explored as a power source for UAVs.

Explanation

I. Axiom-4: Correct Axiom-4 is a planned private crewed mission to the International Space Station (ISS) by Axiom Space. Such missions typically include micro-gravity research as a key component, with astronauts conducting various scientific experiments in the micro-gravity environment of the ISS.

II. SpaDeX: Correct SpaDeX (Space Docking Experiment) is an Indian mission by ISRO aimed at demonstrating autonomous docking technology. While its primary goal is technology demonstration, such missions often include micro-gravity research and experiments, as the environment is suitable for such studies.

III. Gaganyaan: Correct Gaganyaan is India's first human spaceflight mission. One of its objectives is to encourage and support micro-gravity research by allowing Indian scientists to conduct experiments in the micro-gravity environment of space.

Therefore, all three missions encourage and support micro-gravity research.

Explanation

Statement I: Correct The pardoning power of the President of India (Article 72) can be subjected to limited judicial review. The Supreme Court has held that while the President's power is broad, it is not absolute. The exercise of this power can be challenged in courts on limited grounds such as mala fide (bad faith), arbitrariness, or if it is exercised without application of mind.

Statement II: Incorrect The President cannot exercise the pardoning power independently. As per Article 74, the President is bound to act on the advice of the Council of Ministers (Central Government). The President does not have discretion to act without or against such advice.

Therefore, only Statement I is correct.

Explanation

• A. India to Central Asia to Europe via Iran: This is correct. The International North-South Transport Corridor (INSTC) is a multi-modal network (ship, rail, and road) that connects India (starting from Mumbai) to Iran (Bandar Abbas), then through Iran to Azerbaijan, Russia, and further to Central Asia and Europe. The main route is India–Iran–Azerbaijan–Russia–Europe, facilitating trade between India, Central Asia, and Europe.

• B. India to Central Asia via China: Incorrect. The INSTC does not pass through China. It is specifically designed as an alternative to routes passing through China and focuses on Iran, Azerbaijan, and Russia.

• C. India to South-East Asia through Bangladesh and Myanmar: Incorrect. This describes the India-Myanmar-Thailand Trilateral Highway or other regional connectivity projects, not the INSTC.

• D. India to Europe through Azerbaijan: Incorrect. While Azerbaijan is a part of the INSTC route, the corridor's main feature is the connection via Iran, not directly from India to Europe through Azerbaijan alone. The key is the multimodal link via Iran.

Therefore, option A is the most accurate answer as it correctly describes the INSTC's route and purpose.

Explanation

Statement I: Correct Direct Air Capture (DAC) is a technology that captures carbon dioxide (CO₂) directly from the atmosphere. The captured CO₂ can then be stored underground (carbon sequestration) or utilized in various industrial processes. Thus, DAC is indeed a method of carbon sequestration.

Statement II: Correct Captured CO₂ from DAC can be used as a feedstock in the production of plastics (such as polycarbonates and polyurethanes) and in food processing (for example, carbonation of beverages and as a preservative). Therefore, DAC can be valuable in both plastic production and food processing industries.

Statement III: Correct In aviation, synthetic fuels (also called e-fuels) can be produced by combining captured CO₂ with hydrogen (produced via electrolysis using renewable energy). This process creates synthetic hydrocarbons that can be used as low-carbon aviation fuels. Thus, DAC can provide the carbon source for such fuels.

Therefore, all three statements are correct.

Explanation

Statement I: Correct The International Bank for Reconstruction and Development (IBRD), which is part of the World Bank Group, primarily provides loans and guarantees to middle-income and creditworthy low-income countries. This is a core function of the IBRD.

Statement II: Incorrect While the IBRD works to reduce poverty and support development, it does not work 'single-handedly'. It is part of the World Bank Group, which includes other institutions like the International Development Association (IDA), International Finance Corporation (IFC), etc. The IBRD collaborates with these organizations and other partners to achieve its goals.

Statement III: Correct The IBRD was established in 1944, primarily to help Europe rebuild after the devastation of World War II. Its initial focus was on post-war reconstruction, especially in Europe, before expanding its mandate to development and poverty reduction globally.

Therefore, only statements I and III are correct.

Explanation

The correct answer is (B) a large wheel with earthen pots tied to the outer ends of its spokes.

Let's analyze each option:

• A. a water bag made of leather pulled over a pulley: This describes the 'moat' or 'mote', a Persian wheel or leather bag system, not the 'Araghatta'.

• B. a large wheel with earthen pots tied to the outer ends of its spokes: This is correct. The 'Araghatta' was an ancient Indian irrigation device, essentially a water-lifting wheel. It consisted of a large wheel with several earthen pots attached to its rim. As the wheel rotated (often by animal or human power), the pots would dip into the water source and lift water to the fields. This device is well-documented in ancient Indian texts and archaeological findings.

• C. a larger earthen pot driven by bullocks: This describes a different device, sometimes called 'charas' or 'rehat', but not the 'Araghatta'.

• D. a large water bucket pulled up by rope directly by hand: This is a simple manual method, not the 'Araghatta', which was a more sophisticated mechanical device.

Therefore, option B is correct as it accurately describes the 'Araghatta' irrigation device.

Explanation

I. Bonds: Incorrect Bonds are traditional investment instruments and are not classified as Alternative Investment Funds (AIFs). They are considered conventional debt securities.

II. Hedge Funds: Correct Hedge funds are a type of Alternative Investment Fund. In India, SEBI classifies hedge funds under Category III AIFs.

III. Stocks: Incorrect Stocks (equity shares) are traditional investment instruments and are not considered AIFs. They are direct investments in companies.

IV. Venture Capital: Correct Venture capital funds are a type of Alternative Investment Fund. In India, they are classified under Category I AIFs.

Conclusion: Only two of the above (Hedge Funds and Venture Capital) are treated as Alternative Investment Funds.

Explanation

Statement I: Correct RTGS (Real Time Gross Settlement) settles transactions individually and instantly, meaning the transfer of funds happens in real time. NEFT (National Electronic Funds Transfer), on the other hand, settles transactions in batches at specific intervals, so there is a time lag before the beneficiary receives the funds.

Statement II: Incorrect For both RTGS and NEFT, inward transactions (i.e., when you receive money) are not charged to the customer. Charges, if any, are usually levied on outward transactions (when you send money). The RBI has also mandated that banks should not levy any charges for inward transactions in both RTGS and NEFT.

Statement Ill: Incorrect Both RTGS and NEFT have similar operating schedules:

• RTGS: Available 24x7x365 (round the clock throughout the year)
• NEFT: Also available 24x7x365 since December 2019