Yemen and South Sudan faced severe humanitarian crises and famine conditions around 2017-2018 due to prolonged armed conflicts. In Yemen, the Saudi-led military intervention against Houthi rebels, coupled with air and naval blockades, severely restricted the import of food and medicine, leading to widespread starvation. In South Sudan, a civil war that began in 2013 between government and opposition forces displaced millions and disrupted agricultural production, resulting in the United Nations formally declaring a famine in parts of the country in early 2017.

The United Nations Framework Convention on Climate Change (UNFCCC) Secretariat launched the Climate Neutral Now initiative in 2015 to encourage individuals, businesses, and governments to take voluntary action towards climate neutrality.

In 2016, the Secretariat introduced a new pillar under its "Momentum for Change" initiative, focusing on Climate Neutral Now as part of broader efforts to highlight and promote successful climate action worldwide.

Climate neutrality is a three-step process, which requires individuals, companies, and governments to:

1. Measure their climate footprint (greenhouse gas emissions).
2. Reduce emissions as much as possible through sustainable practices and efficiency improvements.
3. Offset unavoidable emissions using UN-certified emission reductions (CERs).

This initiative aligns with global efforts to meet the Paris Agreement goals, fostering greater accountability and proactive engagement in combating climate change.

The scenario described involves various devices (smartphone, geyser, smart mirror, refrigerator, car, etc.) communicating with each other and with the user, and automatically performing tasks based on certain triggers. This is characteristic of the Internet of Things (IoT).

Internet of Things

Option B is correct: Internet of Things (IoT) is a system of interrelated computing devices, mechanical and digital machines, objects, animals or people that are provided with unique identifiers (UIDs) and the ability to transfer data over a network without requiring human-to-human or human-to-computer interaction.

Option A is incorrect: Border Gateway Protocol is a protocol used to exchange routing information across the internet and is not relevant to the scenario described.

Option C is incorrect: Internet Protocol is a set of rules for sending and receiving messages at the Internet address level, but it doesn't cover the broad range of device intercommunication described in the scenario.

Option D is incorrect: A Virtual Private Network is a technology for using the internet or another intermediate network to connect computers to isolated remote computer networks that would otherwise be inaccessible, which also doesn't fit the scenario.

The Champaran Satyagraha (1917) was Mahatma Gandhi’s first experiment with Satyagraha in India. It was launched to address the grievances of peasants in Bihar who were forced by European planters under the 'Tinkathia system' to cultivate indigo on 3/20th of their land. The most significant aspect of this movement was the joining of peasant unrest to the Indian National Movement. This marked a fundamental shift in the struggle for independence, transitioning it from an urban, middle-class intellectual movement to a mass-based movement that included the rural peasantry. While the movement was localized, its success provided Gandhi with a national platform and demonstrated the efficacy of non-violent resistance.

• Aral Sea: The Aral Sea was once one of the world's largest inland lakes, but due to extensive water diversion for irrigation projects, particularly from the Amu Darya and Syr Darya rivers, it has shrunk by over 75% since the 1960s. This has led to severe environmental, economic, and social consequences, including increased salinity, loss of marine life, and desertification.

Aral Sea

• Black Sea: While the Black Sea faces environmental challenges such as pollution, biodiversity loss, and reduced oxygen levels in deep waters, it has not experienced significant drying like the Aral Sea.

• Lake Baikal: Lake Baikal in Russia is the deepest and oldest freshwater lake in the world, containing about 20% of the world's unfrozen freshwater supply. Although it experiences natural fluctuations in water levels, it has not undergone severe drying like the Aral Sea.

Thus, the correct answer is option (d).

The correct chronological sequence is determined by the following historical events:

1. Air India Nationalisation (1953): Air India was nationalised following the enactment of the Air Corporations Act, 1953. The Government of India acquired a majority stake in the airline from the Tata Group, establishing it as the national carrier.

2. Renaming of Imperial Bank to SBI (1955): Based on the recommendations of the All India Rural Credit Survey Committee (Gorewala Committee), the State Bank of India Act was passed. On July 1, 1955, the Imperial Bank of India was renamed the State Bank of India (SBI).

3. First Communist Government in a State (1957): In the 1957 Kerala Legislative Assembly elections, the Communist Party of India (CPI) won a majority. E.M.S. Namboodiripad formed the government, marking the first time a Communist party was democratically elected to power in an Indian state.

4. Goa becoming part of India (1961): Goa was liberated from Portuguese rule on December 19, 1961, through 'Operation Vijay'. Following its liberation, Goa (along with Daman and Diu) was incorporated into India as a Union Territory by the 12th Constitutional Amendment Act, 1962. It attained full statehood much later, on May 30, 1987.

Chronological Order: 3 (1953) - 2 (1955) - 1 (1957) - 4 (1961).

The Committee on Subordinate Legislation (CSL) is specifically tasked with scrutinizing and reporting on the exercise of delegated powers by the executive branch. They ensure the government is acting within the legal boundaries set by Parliament when creating rules, regulations, etc.

Committee on Government Assurances (A) focuses on tracking the implementation of assurances, and promises made by the government in Parliament.

Rules Committee (C) deals with framing rules for the smooth functioning of the Houses of Parliament (Lok Sabha and Rajya Sabha).

Business Advisory Committee (D) allocates time for different kinds of legislative and other business of the House.

Therefore, only the Committee on Subordinate Legislation directly addresses the scrutiny of delegated powers.

Statement 1 is incorrect: In 2013, NFSA was enacted to provide food security to 67% of the population in the form of highly subsidized food grains at Rs. 2 and 3 per Kg for wheat and rice respectively. Beneficiaries are identified using Socio-economic Caste Census (SECC) methodology so even non-BPL will also benefit.

Statement 2 is correct: Under the NFSA, to issue ration cards the eldest woman of a household aged 18 years or above would be considered as head. Hence, this statement is correct.

Statement 3 is incorrect: Pregnant women and lactating mothers are entitled to a nutritious take home ration of 600 Calories and a maternity benefit of at least Rs 6,000 for six months, says the official act.

Statement 1 is Correct: Cereal grains that are hulled (meaning the outer husk is removed, such as shelled or rolled grains) are exempted from GST under HSN code 1104, provided they are not sold in branded unit containers. This exemption ensures that basic food staples remain affordable.

Statement 2 is Correct: According to GST Council notifications (HSN 0407), birds' eggs in shell, whether fresh, preserved, or cooked, are specifically exempted from GST. This classification keeps basic protein sources outside the tax net.

Statement 3 is Incorrect: While fresh, chilled, or frozen fish is exempt from GST, fish that has been processed and canned (HSN 1604) is considered a value-added product. Such processed items are subject to GST (typically at a rate of 5%).

Statement 4 is Correct: Newspapers, journals, and periodicals (HSN 4902) are exempt from GST. The law explicitly states that this exemption applies whether or not they contain advertising material, ensuring the free and affordable flow of information.

Capital Formation: This refers to the addition to the existing stock of physical and human capital in an economy.

High Savings: High savings provide the necessary funds for investment. However, savings alone do not guarantee growth; the efficiency with which those savings are converted into output is crucial.

Capital-Output Ratio (COR): This ratio indicates the amount of capital required to produce one unit of output.

• A low ratio means capital is efficient.
• A high ratio means capital is inefficient (more capital is needed for the same amount of output).

Why (D) is correct: Even if an economy saves and invests heavily (capital formation), if the Capital-Output Ratio is high, the resulting increase in output (GDP) will be low. This often happens due to technological backwardness, poor infrastructure, or inefficient management of resources.

3D printing, also known as additive manufacturing, is a process of making three dimensional solid objects from a digital file. It is used in a wide range of industries and has various applications.

It can be used to create intricate and customized shapes in confectionery items like chocolates, candies, and other desserts.

It has been used to create customized bionic ears for people with hearing impairments.

It is used in the automotive industry for rapid prototyping, manufacturing of customized parts, and even some production of vehicle components.

It is used in reconstructive surgeries to create patient-specific implants, prosthetics, and surgical guides.

It can be used to create specialized components and parts for data processing technologies, such as computer hardware.

Therefore, all the five statements are correct.

Statement 1 is incorrect: As per the RTE Act, the minimum qualification for teachers is set by the National Council for Teacher Education (NCTE), not the state council.

Statement 2 is correct: The RTE Act mandates that candidates must pass the Teacher Eligibility Test (TET) to qualify for teaching primary classes. The NCTE sets the guidelines for conducting this test.

Statement 3 is incorrect: According to the All India Survey on Higher Education (AISHE) 2019-20, approximately 67% of teacher education institutions in India are privately managed, while only around 33% are government-run.

Hence, the correct answer is option (b) 2 only.

Statement 1 is Correct: The Charter Act of 1813 was the first official measure by the British Parliament to sanction an annual sum of one lakh rupees for the promotion of education and modern sciences in India. Statement 2 is Correct: The General Committee of Public Instruction was established in 1823 to implement the educational grant of 1813 and to guide the educational policy of the East India Company. Statement 3 is Correct: The controversy between Orientalists (who favored traditional Indian learning) and Anglicists (who favored Western education in English) led to the adoption of English as the medium of instruction via Lord Macaulay’s Minute of 1835.

Incorrect (1) Most of Thyagaraja's kritis (compositions) are devotional songs in praise of Lord Rama, not Krishna.

Correct (2) Tyagaraja is credited with creating several new ragas (melodic scales) in Carnatic music.

Incorrect (3) Annamacharya and Tyagaraja were not contemporaries. Annamacharya lived in the 15th century, while Tyagaraja lived in the 18th-19th century.

Correct (4) Annamacharya's kirtanas (devotional songs) are indeed known for praising Lord Venkateshwara, a form of Vishnu.

Statement 1 is correct: According to Einstein's General Theory of Relativity, gravity can bend light. This phenomenon is known as gravitational lensing.

Statement 2 is correct: The General Theory of Relativity led to the prediction of an expanding universe, which has been confirmed by observational evidence.

Statement 3 is correct: According to the General Theory of Relativity, the presence of matter and energy warps the fabric of space and time around it, which is the underlying cause of the gravitational force.

So, all three statements are correct.

Statement 1 is Incorrect. The Ministry of Skill Development and Entrepreneurship (MSDE) is responsible for PMKVY, not the Ministry of Labour and Employment.

Statement 2 is Correct. PMKVY goes beyond technical skills training and incorporates soft skills, entrepreneurship, financial literacy, and digital literacy to make participants more employable.

Statement 3 is Correct. A core objective of PMKVY is to bridge the gap between the skills of the unregulated workforce and industry requirements by aligning them with the National Skill Qualification Framework (NSQF). This standardization helps ensure a minimum level of competency and improves employment opportunities.

Statement 1 is Incorrect: The term 'capital' in this context usually refers to physical or financial capital (like machinery or money), whereas human capital formation specifically focuses on the qualitative development of human beings. Statement 2 is Correct: Human capital formation is defined as the process of acquiring and increasing the number of persons who have the skills, education, and experience essential for the economic development of a country. Statement 3 is Incorrect: Tangible wealth refers to physical assets such as land, buildings, and gold. Human capital is an intangible asset and does not include the accumulation of physical goods. Statement 4 is Correct: Human capital is considered a form of intangible wealth because it represents the stock of knowledge, skills, and health embodied in the population, which lacks physical substance but has significant economic value.

The Pakhui Wildlife Sanctuary, located in Arunachal Pradesh, is part of the Kameng Elephant Reserve and is contiguous with the Pakke Tiger Reserve. It is known for its rich biodiversity and dense forests, making it a critical habitat for various wildlife species. The Bhareli (Pakke) and Bamadi rivers flow through the sanctuary, supporting its diverse ecosystem. Several indigenous tribes, including the Nyishi and Apatani, reside in the region, coexisting with the forest and its resources.

Wildlife Santuaries in Arunachal pradesh

• Santhals were the agricultural people settled in Rajmahal Hills of Jharkhand.
• They are native to the Indian states of predominantly Jharkhand, West Bengal and Odisha.

Creation of Santhal Paraganas: A separate administrative unit called the Santhal Paraganas was established in 1855. This aimed to isolate the Santhal community from the rest of the population and potentially prevent further uprisings.

Restriction on Land Transfer: The Santhal Parganas Tenancy Act was passed in 1876. This act made it illegal for a Santhal to sell or transfer land to a non-Santhal. This aimed to protect the Santhal community's economic interests and prevent further exploitation by outsiders called 'Dikus'.

All of the listed factors - birds, dust blowing, rain, and wind blowing - can contribute to the spread of plant diseases

Statement 1 is correct: Birds can act as vectors, carrying and spreading plant pathogens from one location to another through their feathers, feet, or droppings.

Statement 2 is correct: Dust and soil particles blown by the wind can carry and spread plant diseases, especially fungal spores and bacterial cells.

Statement 3 is correct: Rain can splash and disperse plant pathogens, such as fungi and bacteria, from the soil or infected plant parts to uninfected plants.

Statement 4 is correct: Wind can transport and spread airborne plant pathogens, such as fungal spores and bacterial cells, over long distances.

Statement 1 is correct: The value of the vote of each MLA varies from State to State. The value of an MLA's vote is based on the population of their state relative to the number of MLAs in the state assembly. States with larger populations have a higher value per MLA vote.

Statement 2 is incorrect: Both MPs (Lok Sabha and Rajya Sabha) have the same value for their vote in the presidential election.

Hence, the correct answer is option (c) 1 only.

• Statement 1 is not correct: The formation of India’s own internet companies, similar to China’s approach, is not an aim of the Digital India programme. The initiative focuses on creating digital infrastructure, providing digital services, and promoting digital literacy — not establishing government-backed internet firms.

• Statement 2 is not correct: The Digital India plan does not include any policy framework to attract foreign multinational corporations to build data centres in India. While data localisation and data centre policies have emerged later under different frameworks, they are not part of the original Digital India objectives.

• Statement 3 is correct: One of the key aims of Digital India is to connect villages through broadband and to provide Wi-Fi access in schools, public places, and tourist centres. This is part of its core pillars like Broadband Highways, Public Internet Access Programme, and Early Harvest Programmes.

The National Payments Corporation of India (NPCI)

The NPCI operates the National Financial Switch (NFS), which is the largest network connecting ATMs across various banks in India. This network facilitates inter-bank transactions and allows users to withdraw cash from ATMs even if they don't belong to the bank that owns the ATM.

The Cabinet Committee on Economic Affairs (CCEA) announces the Minimum Support Price (MSP) for 22 mandated crops and the Fair and Remunerative Price (FRP) for Sugarcane.

Statement 1 is Incorrect: Areca nut is a plantation crop and is not included in the list of 22 mandated crops for which MSP is announced.

Statement 2 is Correct: Barley is one of the seven cereals (Paddy, Wheat, Maize, Sorghum, Pearl millet, Barley, and Finger millet) for which MSP is announced.

Statement 3 is Incorrect: Coffee is a plantation/beverage crop and does not fall under the MSP regime.

Statement 4 is Correct: Finger millet (also known as Ragi) is a cereal crop included in the mandated list for MSP.

Statement 5 is Correct: Groundnut is one of the seven oilseeds (Groundnut, Rapeseed-Mustard, Soyabean, Sesamum, Sunflower, Safflower, and Nigerseed) covered under MSP.

Statement 6 is Correct: Sesamum is an oilseed crop for which the government officially announces MSP.

Statement 7 is Incorrect: Turmeric is a spice and is not among the 22 mandated crops for which MSP is announced by the CCEA.

The correctly matched pairs are:

1. Catalonia — Spain: Catalonia is an autonomous community in northeastern Spain. It is frequently in the news due to its distinct cultural identity and the regional independence movement.
2. Mindanao — Philippines: Mindanao is the second-largest island in the Philippines. It has been in the news primarily due to the Bangsamoro peace process and internal security matters.

Incorrectly matched pairs:

• Crimea: This is a peninsula located on the northern coast of the Black Sea. While internationally recognized as part of Ukraine, it was annexed by Russia in 2014. It has no geographical connection to Hungary.
• Oromia: This is the largest regional state in Ethiopia, not Nigeria. It is the homeland of the Oromo people, the largest ethnic group in Ethiopia.

The term "sixth mass extinction" is used in the context of discussions about the current rapid decline in biodiversity and the potential for it to be as significant as the five major extinction events in Earth's history.

Mass extinction events: Throughout Earth's history, there have been five major extinction events where a large percentage of species (estimated at 75% or more) disappeared in a geologically short period. Examples include the Cretaceous-Paleogene extinction event that wiped out non-avian dinosaurs.

Sixth mass extinction: Scientists are concerned that human activities like habitat destruction, climate change, pollution, and overexploitation of resources are causing a mass extinction event that could be as severe as the previous ones.

Thus, the correct answer is 'D'.

Statement 1 is correct: In the NSSO 70th Round survey, Rajasthan had the highest percentage of rural agricultural households at 78.4%, followed by Uttar Pradesh at 74.8% and Madhya Pradesh at 70.8%.

Statement 2 is incorrect: Among agricultural households, 45% were from Other Backward Classes (OBC), 16% from Scheduled Castes (SC), and 13% from Scheduled Tribes (ST).

Statement 3 is correct: In most major states, agricultural activities were the primary income source, except in Kerala, where 61% earned more from non-agricultural sources.

The 'Additional Protocol' is a legal document that grants the International Atomic Energy Agency (IAEA) expanded rights of access to information and locations in a state to ensure that nuclear materials are used for peaceful purposes.

• Option A is correct: By ratifying the Additional Protocol, India committed to placing its civilian nuclear facilities under IAEA safeguards. This allows the IAEA to verify that nuclear material in these specific facilities is not diverted for military use.
• Option B is incorrect: India maintains a separation between its civilian and military nuclear programs. The Additional Protocol applies only to civilian facilities; military installations remain outside the scope of IAEA inspections.
• Options C and D are incorrect: While the ratification of the Additional Protocol was a significant step in India's integration into the global nuclear order (following the Indo-US nuclear deal), it does not automatically grant membership to the Nuclear Suppliers Group (NSG) or provide an automatic privilege to buy uranium. Membership in the NSG requires a separate consensus-based admission process.

India signed the Additional Protocol in 2009, and it officially entered into force on July 25, 2014.

Under the Government of India Act of 1935, the legislative powers were divided into three lists: the Federal List (for the center), the Provincial List (for the provinces), and the Concurrent List (for both).

Residuary Powers: The subjects that were not included in any of these three lists were known as residuary powers. According to the Act, these residuary powers were vested in the Governor-General of India. He had the authority to decide whether the Federal or the Provincial Legislature would exercise power over such subjects.

Note: In the modern Constitution of India, residuary powers are vested in the Union Parliament (Article 248), which is a departure from the 1935 Act.

Statement 1 is correct. The Earth's magnetic field does reverse polarity every few hundred thousand years, on average.

Statement 2 is incorrect. The early Earth's atmosphere did not have significant oxygen and likely had a lot of carbon dioxide and other greenhouse gases.

Statement 3 is correct. The rise of photosynthetic organisms like cyanobacteria significantly increased the amount of oxygen in the atmosphere over time.

Therefore, the correct answer is (c) 1 and 3 only.

The availability of open APIs for Aadhaar means that the Aadhaar system can be easily integrated into various electronic devices, such as smartphones, laptops, point-of-sale terminals, etc. This allows these devices to leverage the Aadhaar platform for authentication and other services.

The Aadhaar APIs provide the capability to perform online authentication using biometric modalities like fingerprint and iris scans. This allows for secure identity verification and authentication through electronic devices and applications.

Therefore, both statements 1 and 2 are correct.

Pair 1 is not correct. Sanskrit College at Benaras: This college was established by Jonathan Duncan in 1791, not William Jones.

Pair 2 is correct. Calcutta Madrasa: Warren Hastings established the Calcutta Madrasa in 1781 for the study of Islamic subjects like Arabic and Persian.

Pair 3 is not correct. Fort William College: This college was founded by Lord Wellesley in 1800, primarily to train British civil servants in Indian languages and customs.

"Bani Thani" is a famous painting associated with the Kishangarh school of painting, which flourished in the princely state of Kishangarh in Rajasthan during the 18th century. This painting is particularly renowned for its elegance and depiction of Indian beauty. Some famous paintings from the other three schools:

Bundi School

• Ragamala Series – A set of paintings depicting various Indian musical modes (ragas).
• Chaugan Players – A painting showing women playing Polo, reflecting royal leisure.

Jaipur School

• Gita Govinda Series – Paintings depicting the love story of Radha and Krishna.
• Ganesh Stuti – A painting of Lord Ganesha, often seen in Jaipur miniatures.

Kangra School

• Gita Govinda Paintings – Like Jaipur, Kangra also depicted Radha-Krishna love stories, but with soft, delicate features.
• Nayika Bheda – A series showing different moods of a heroine (nayika) in love.

Art in States

Statement 1 is incorrect: India does not feature among the top three global manufacturers of silicon wafers used in photovoltaic (PV) units or solar cells. The top three manufacturers of silicon wafers for PV applications are China, Taiwan, and South Korea.

Statement 2 is incorrect: The Solar Energy Corporation of India (SECI) is a government-owned company that facilitates the implementation of solar energy projects in the country, but it does not determine the solar power tariffs. The solar power tariffs in India are determined through a competitive bidding process conducted by various agencies.

Hence, the correct answer is option (d) Neither 1 nor 2.

Statement 1 is correct. Capital Adequacy Ratio (CAR): This is a crucial regulatory tool used by central banks to ensure banks have sufficient capital reserves to absorb potential financial losses. It acts as a buffer to protect depositors' funds in case of loan defaults or other financial risks.

Statement 2 is Incorrect. CAR is not decided by individual banks. The CAR is mandated and regulated by the central bank of a country, in India's case, the Reserve Bank of India (RBI). The RBI sets a minimum CAR that all banks operating in the country must adhere to. This ensures a level playing field and safeguards the financial system's stability.

The future Buddha, yet to come to save the world according to Buddhist tradition, is referred to as Maitreya. Avalokiteshvara (Lokesvara/Padmapani) are all forms of the compassionate bodhisattva but are not future Buddhas.

Delhi and Bengaluru are located almost on the same longitude.

• Longitude of Delhi- 77.1025 E
• Longitude of Bengaluru- 77.5946 E
• Longitude of Hyderabad- 78.4867 E
• Longitude of Nagpur- 79.0882 E
• Llongitude of Pune- 73.8567 E

Cities on Map

Statement 1 is incorrect: The Aadhaar Act explicitly states that Aadhaar is meant only for identity and residence verification. It does not grant, confirm, or serve as proof of citizenship or domicile status.

Statement 2 is incorrect: While deactivation is temporary, the Unique Identification Authority of India (UIDAI) can deactivate an Aadhaar number under certain conditions. In specific cases, Aadhaar numbers can even be permanently omitted from the database.

Hence, the correct answer is option (d).

Aleppo is a city in Syria , serving as the capital of the Aleppo Governorate, the most populous Syrian governorate.

Kirkuk is a city in Iraq , serving as the capital of the Kirkuk Governorate, located 238 kilometres north of Baghdad.

Mosul is a major city in northern Iraq situated on the west bank of the Tigris, opposite the ancient Assyrian city of Nineveh on the east bank.

Mazar-e Sharif, the city is in Afghanistan , 35 miles south of the border with Uzbekistan. Hence, B is the correct option.

The Subsidiary Alliance was a strategic military-political system introduced by Lord Wellesley (1798–1805) to expand British influence in India.

Option A applies: A key feature was that the allied Indian state had to maintain a permanent British force within its territory and pay a subsidy for its maintenance, allowing the British to maintain a large standing army at the expense of the Indian ruler. Option C applies: The system was designed to counter the 'Napoleonic danger' by requiring Indian rulers to expel all non-British Europeans (especially the French) from their service and territory. Option D applies: By controlling the external relations and defense of the states, and placing a British Resident in the court, the Company effectively established British paramountcy (supreme authority) over the Indian states. Option B does not apply: Securing a 'fixed income' for the Company was the primary objective of land revenue systems, such as the Permanent Settlement introduced by Lord Cornwallis in 1793, rather than the Subsidiary Alliance which focused on military and diplomatic control.

Statement 1 is correct: India is the world's largest importer of edible oils. For the last several years, the domestic production of edible oils has been significantly lower than the quantity imported. Domestic production typically accounts for only about 35-40% of the total consumption, while imports fulfill the remaining 60-65% of the demand.

Statement 2 is incorrect: The Government of India does impose customs duties on imported edible oils. These duties (such as Basic Customs Duty and Agriculture Infrastructure and Development Cess) are adjusted periodically to balance the interests of domestic consumers and local oilseed farmers. The claim that the government does not impose 'any' customs duty on 'all' imported edible oils is factually incorrect.

Right to Privacy and Article 21: Article 21 of the Indian Constitution guarantees the right to life and personal liberty. In the landmark 2017 judgment of K.S. Puttaswamy (Retd.) vs. Union of India, the Supreme Court of India unanimously held that the right to privacy is an intrinsic part of Article 21. This ruling reinforced privacy as a fundamental right, ensuring protection against unwarranted state and private intrusions.

Part III of the Constitution covers Fundamental Rights, which include:

• Article 19: Right to freedom of speech and expression, freedom of movement, and other essential liberties.
• Article 21: Right to life and personal liberty, which now includes privacy after the Puttaswamy judgment.

Article 14: Ensures equality before the law, but does not explicitly deal with privacy.

Article 17: Abolishes untouchability. Directive Principles of State Policy (DPSPs) are non-enforceable guidelines, not fundamental rights.

Article 24: Prohibits child labor but has no relation to privacy.

Thus, the right to privacy is most closely linked to Article 21 and the freedoms guaranteed in Part III of the Indian Constitution. Hence the correct answer is option (c).

The Two-State Solution is used in the context of the Israel-Palestine issue.

It envisages an independent State of Palestine alongside the State of Israel west of the Jordan River.

Two State Solution

Statement 1 is correct: Bharat Interface for Money (BHIM) is a payment app that lets you make simple, easy, and quick transactions using Unified Payments Interface (UPI). You can make direct bank payments to anyone on UPI using their UPI ID or scanning their QR with the BHIM app. You can also request money through the app from a UPI ID.

Statement 2 is not correct: From a consumer point of view, three levels of authentication are required in this app.

1. The device ID and mobile number,
2. The bank account which you are linking to this app, and
3. The UPI Pin which is needed to complete the transaction.

There are three factors of authentication versus a normal net banking app or a chip-in debit card which will only have two factors of authentication.

Pair 1 is incorrect: The Belle II experiment is a particle physics experiment designed to study the properties of B mesons. It is not related to artificial intelligence.

Pair 2 s correct: Blockchain technology is the underlying technology behind cryptocurrencies like Bitcoin. It is a distributed ledger technology that ensures secure and transparent transactions.

Blockchain Technology

Pair 3 is incorrect: CRISPR-Cas9 is a gene-editing technology used in the field of molecular biology to edit genes. It is not related to particle physics.

CRISPR

Therefore, only pair 2 is correctly matched.

The Hind Mazdoor Sabha (HMS) wasn't founded by a single person, but by a group of socialists, Forward Bloc followers, and independent unionists in 1948.

Here's a list of some key figures involved

• Basawon Singh (Sinha)
• Ashok Mehta
• R.S. Ruikar
• Maniben Kara
• Shibnath Banerjee
• R.A. Khedgikar
• T.S. Ramanujam
• V.S. Mathur
• G.G. Mehta

It's important to note that R.S. Ruikar was elected as the first President and Ashok Mehta became the General Secretary of the HMS.

Statement 1 is correct. The Fiscal Responsibility and Budget Management (FRBM) Review Committee Report indeed recommended a debt-to-GDP ratio of 60% for the general (combined) government by 2023, with 40% for the Central Government and 20% for the State Governments. This recommendation aimed to ensure fiscal discipline and sustainability.

Statement 2 is not correct. The Central Government has domestic liabilities of 46.1% of GDP (2016-17) and as a percentage of GDP, States liabilities increased to 23.2 per cent at end-March 2016.

Statement 3 is correct. The Constitution of India empowers State Governments to borrow only from domestic sources (Article 293(1)). Further, as long as a State has outstanding borrowings from the Central Government, it is required to obtain the Central Government's prior approval before incurring debt (Article 293 (3)).

The terms 'WannaCry, Petya and EternalBlue' are all related to cyber attacks.

• 'WannaCry' is a ransomware that locks users' devices and prevents them from accessing data and software until a certain ransom is paid to its creator.

• 'Petya' is another type of ransomware that spreads rapidly through networks that use Microsoft Windows.

• The Petya and WannaCry cyber-attacks in May and June 2017 are two of the biggest in history and impacted the finances of companies throughout the globe.

• 'EternalBlue' is a cyber exploit developed by the U.S. National Security Agency (NSA). It was used in the 2017 WannaCry ransomware attack and exploits a vulnerability in the Microsoft implementation of the Server Message Block (SMB) Protocol.

Statement 1 is incorrect: The National Green Tribunal (NGT) was established under the National Green Tribunal Act, 2010, passed by Parliament, making it a statutory body. Similarly, the Central Pollution Control Board (CPCB) was constituted under the Water (Prevention and Control of Pollution) Act, 1974 and is also a statutory body. It plays a key role in environmental regulation in India.

Statement 2 is correct: The NGT’s primary role is to ensure the expeditious disposal of environmental cases related to forest conservation, natural resource protection, and pollution control, thereby reducing the burden on higher courts.

The CPCB, functioning under the Ministry of Environment, Forest and Climate Change (MoEFCC), is responsible for monitoring water and air quality, implementing pollution control measures, and enforcing environmental laws to promote a cleaner environment.

Thus, while both bodies deal with environmental protection, the NGT focuses on adjudication, whereas the CPCB handles regulatory and enforcement functions. Therefore, the correct answer is option (b) 2 only.

The World Trade Organization (WTO) has an agreement called the Agreement on Trade-Related Aspects of Intellectual Property Rights (TRIPS).

TRIPS requires member countries to protect Geographical Indications (GIs). GIs identify a product as originating from a specific geographical location where its qualities or reputation are essentially due to that origin.

India enacted the Geographical Indications of Goods (Registration and Protection) Act, 1999 to comply with its obligations under the TRIPS agreement of the WTO.

Option A is incorrect: When President's Rule is imposed, the State Assembly is not automatically dissolved. It can either be kept in suspended animation or dissolved later through a separate proclamation.

Option B is correct: Under President’s Rule, the legislative powers of the state legislature are transferred to Parliament, which can make laws for the state during this period. This is in line with Article 356, which allows the President to assume state functions when the constitutional machinery breaks down.

Option C is incorrect: Article 19, which guarantees fundamental rights such as freedom of speech, movement, and profession, is not automatically suspended under President’s Rule. Fundamental rights are only suspended during a national emergency under Article 352, not under Article 356.

Option D is incorrect: The President does not directly make laws for the state under Article 356. Instead, Parliament exercises legislative powers on behalf of the state during President’s Rule.

Statement 1 is Correct: Barren Island is the only confirmed active volcano in India and is located in the Andaman Sea, part of the Indian Union Territory of Andaman and Nicobar Islands.

Statement 2 is Incorrect: Barren Island is located approximately 135–140 km East of Port Blair, not Great Nicobar. Geographically, Barren Island (approx. 12.2° N) is located significantly North of Great Nicobar (approx. 7° N), which is the southernmost island of the archipelago.

Statement 3 is Incorrect: After the 1991 eruption, which occurred after nearly 150 years of dormancy, the volcano has erupted several times, including in 1994-95, 2005-07, and as recently as 2017. It has not remained inactive since 1991.

ASEAN has established Free Trade Agreements (FTAs) with six specific 'Dialogue Partners': China, Japan, South Korea, India, Australia, and New Zealand.

Statement 1 is Correct: Australia is a free-trade partner of ASEAN through the ASEAN-Australia-New Zealand Free Trade Area (AANZFTA).

Statement 2 is Incorrect: Canada is a Dialogue Partner of ASEAN but does not have a formal Free Trade Agreement with the bloc.

Statement 3 is Correct: China is a free-trade partner of ASEAN through the ASEAN-China Free Trade Area (ACFTA).

Statement 4 is Correct: India is a free-trade partner of ASEAN through the ASEAN-India Free Trade Area (AIFTA).

Statement 5 is Correct: Japan is a free-trade partner of ASEAN through the ASEAN-Japan Comprehensive Economic Partnership (AJCEP).

Statement 6 is Incorrect: The USA has been a Dialogue Partner of ASEAN since 1977, but it does not have a Free Trade Agreement with the ASEAN bloc.

Statement 1 is correct: The Ninth Schedule was introduced through the First Constitutional Amendment (1951) to protect certain laws from judicial review, even if they violated Fundamental Rights (Part III of the Constitution).

Statement 2 is incorrect: The protection under the Ninth Schedule is not absolute. As per the Kesavananda Bharati case (1973) and reaffirmed in the I.R. Coelho case (2007), laws placed in the Ninth Schedule after April 24, 1973, can still be challenged if they violate the "Basic Structure" of the Constitution.

Thus, while the Ninth Schedule provides a degree of protection, the Supreme Court retains the power to review laws that undermine the Constitution’s core principles.

Hence, the correct answer is option (a) 1 only.

Statement 1 (access to latest nuclear technology) is correct. This is a consequence of NSG membership. NSG members can trade nuclear materials, equipment, and technology for peaceful purposes. This access can be crucial for a country's nuclear energy program or medical isotope production.

Statement 2 (automatic NPT membership) is incorrect. Becoming an NSG member doesn't automatically qualify a country for NPT membership. NPT is a separate treaty focusing on nuclear non-proliferation, and membership has different requirements.

The correct answer is 1 only.

The Sthanakvasi sect is a subsect of Jainism. It is known for its emphasis on ascetic practices and the abandonment of idol worship.

Members of the Sthanakvasi sect believe in the concept of Sthanak or a place for meditation, hence the name "Sthanakvasi," which translates to "those who dwell in a place for meditation."

Jain Sects

Statement 1 is incorrect. In the first Lok Sabha, the single largest party in the opposition was not the Swatantra Party but the Communist Party of India.

Statement 2 is correct. In the Lok Sabha, a "Leader of the Opposition" was indeed recognized for the first time in 1969.

Statement 3 is incorrect. In the Lok Sabha, if a party does not have a minimum of 75 members, its leader cannot be recognized as the Leader of the Opposition. The requirement is not 75 members but 10% of the total strength of the house, which is 55 members. So, only statement 2 is correct.

IRNSS is an independent regional navigation satellite system being developed by India.

Statement 1 is correct: The Indian Regional Navigation Satellite System (IRNSS) indeed has three satellites in geostationary orbits and four satellites in geosynchronous orbits.

IRNSS

Statement 2 is incorrect: It is designed to provide accurate position information service to users in India as well as the region extending up to 1500 km from its boundary, which is its primary service area. An Extended Service Area lies between primary service area and area enclosed by the rectangle from Latitude 30 deg South to 50 deg North, Longitude 30 deg East to 130 deg East.

Statement 3 is incorrect: While India has been working on enhancing the coverage of its navigation system, as of the given timeframe (2019), it does not have full global coverage. The system is primarily regional, although there are plans for augmentation and expansion.

Opportunity cost: It refers to the potential benefit an individual or entity gives up when choosing one option over another. In simpler terms, it's what you miss out on by making a specific choice.

Free commodity by the government: When the government provides a good or service for free, it doesn't eliminate the opportunity cost. The resources used to provide that free good could have been used for something else.

Taxpayers bear the burden: The resources for "free" public goods come from somewhere, usually taxpayer money. So, the opportunity cost isn't eliminated, it's simply shifted. Taxpayers give up the potential use of those resources in exchange for a free good or service.

In essence, while the individual consumer might not directly pay for the good, the cost is still there and borne by the tax-paying public.

The most appropriate statement is: If there are no laws, there is no liberty.

Laws provide the foundation for liberty. Without laws, there would be no structured protection of individual rights, leading to a state of anarchy where the strong dominate the weak.

Liberty is meaningful only when protected by law. Laws define acceptable behavior, prevent exploitation, and ensure that one person's freedom does not infringe upon another's.

• Prosopis juliflora, commonly known as mesquite or thorn mimosa, frequently appears in discussions about invasive species due to its significant impact on ecosystems and biodiversity.

• Originally native to Central and South America, Prosopis juliflora was introduced to various parts of Africa, Asia, and Australia for purposes like afforestation, erosion control, and fuelwood supply.

• However, due to its rapid growth rate, tolerance for harsh conditions, and prolific seed production, it can become invasive.

• It can outcompete native plants, disrupt ecological balances, and form dense thickets that hinder other vegetation growth.

• In states like Tamil Nadu, Prosopis juliflora has been labelled an invasive species causing ecological damage. Efforts are underway to remove it from certain areas to restore native ecosystems.

In 1920, the All India Home Rule League changed its name to Swarajya Sabha. This marked a significant shift towards the goal of achieving Swaraj (self-rule).

Hindu Mahasabha: Founded by Madan Mohan Malaviya and others, it focused on issues related to Hindu identity and rights.

South Indian Liberal Federation: Also known as the Justice Party, it was founded to represent the interests of non-Brahmins in Tamil Nadu.

The Servants of India Society: Founded by Gopal Krishna Gokhale, it focused on social reform, education, and service to the nation.

Legal tender is any form of payment recognized by law that a creditor is legally obligated to accept for the settlement of a debt or financial obligation. In India, currency notes issued by the RBI and coins issued by the Government of India constitute legal tender.

Why Option B is correct: The defining characteristic of legal tender is the legal compulsion on the creditor. If a debtor offers legal tender to settle a claim, the creditor cannot refuse it and subsequently sue for non-payment of the debt.

Why Option C is incorrect: Bank money such as cheques, drafts, and bills of exchange are considered 'fiduciary money.' Their acceptance depends on the trust between the parties involved; a creditor is not legally compelled to accept a cheque and can insist on payment in cash (legal tender).

Why Option D is incorrect: While metallic coins are indeed legal tender (under the Coinage Act, 2011), legal tender also includes paper currency notes. Therefore, defining it solely as metallic money is incomplete.

Lala Lajpat Rai was a prolific nationalist leader and writer who authored biographies of Giuseppe Mazzini, Giuseppe Garibaldi, Shivaji, and Shrikrishna to inspire the Indian youth with ideals of patriotism and self-sacrifice. He stayed in the United States from 1914 to 1920, during which time he founded the Indian Home Rule League of America in New York (1917) and wrote 'Young India'. Following his return to India, he was elected to the Central Legislative Assembly in 1923 as a member of the Swaraj Party. It is a common historical distinction that while Lala Lajpat Rai was a prominent member of the Assembly, Vithalbhai Patel was the first Indian to be elected as its President (Speaker) in 1925.

Statement 1 is correct: The Speaker of the Legislative Assembly shall vacate their office if they cease to be a member of the Assembly. This is explicitly provided under Article 179 of the Indian Constitution.

Statement 2 is incorrect: It is incorrect to say that the Speaker vacates office immediately upon the dissolution of the Legislative Assembly.

When the Assembly is dissolved, the Speaker does not vacate office immediately. Instead, the Speaker continues in office until the newly elected Assembly convenes for the first time and elects a new Speaker. This ensures continuity in the legislative process and prevents a vacuum in constitutional functions. So, only the first statement is correct.

GPS, or Global Positioning System, is a satellite-based navigation system that provides geolocation and time information to a GPS receiver anywhere on or near the Earth. It has a wide range of applications.

Statement 1 is correct. GPS is used in mobile phones for various purposes such as location tracking, navigation, and location-based services.

Statement 2 is correct. GPS is used in banking operations for ATM location services and for time-stamping transactions, which is crucial for maintaining accurate records.

Statement 3 is correct. GPS is used for time-stamping power system measurements, which is vital for grid stability and synchronization. Therefore, GPS technology can be used in all the three areas mentioned.

Statement 1 is correct: Under Article 361 of the Indian Constitution, a Governor enjoys immunity from criminal proceedings while in office. No court can initiate proceedings against a Governor during their tenure for acts done in the exercise of their official duties. This provision ensures that the Governor can perform their constitutional responsibilities without fear of legal harassment. However, civil proceedings can be initiated with a two-month prior notice..

Statement 2 is correct: As per Article 158, the salary and allowances of a Governor are determined by law and cannot be reduced during their tenure. This provision guarantees the Governor's financial independence, preventing any undue influence on their functioning.

Hence, the correct answer is option (c) Both 1 and 2.

The main aim of the colonisation of India by the Britishers was the economic exploitation of India. The commercialisation of Agriculture was an outcome of colonial exploitation. Various cash crops such as Indigo, Tea, and Cotton were forced on Indian farmers to meet the needs for raw materials for the Industrial Revolution in England.

On the other hand, the Handicraft of India was ruined thus exports decreased. Ruralisation of India led to a decrease in factories in the 19th century.

The Rule of Law Index is published annually by the World Justice Project (WJP), an independent, multidisciplinary organization. It measures how the rule of law is experienced and perceived in countries worldwide based on eight primary factors: Constraints on Government Powers, Absence of Corruption, Open Government, Fundamental Rights, Order and Security, Regulatory Enforcement, Civil Justice, and Criminal Justice. The index relies on data from household and expert surveys to provide a comprehensive picture of the rule of law in practice.

Statement 1 is correct. PSLV (Polar Satellite Launch Vehicle) is primarily used to launch Earth observation/monitoring satellites, while GSLV (Geosynchronous Satellite Launch Vehicle) is designed to launch communication satellites into geosynchronous transfer orbits.

Statement 2 is incorrect. Satellites launched by PSLV are typically placed in polar or sun-synchronous orbits, which are not geosynchronous. These satellites appear to move across the sky as viewed from a particular location on Earth.

Statement 3 is incorrect. The GSLV Mk III is a three-stage launch vehicle, not a four-stage one. The first stage uses solid rocket motors, the second stage uses liquid rocket engines, and the third stage uses a cryogenic rocket engine.

Launching Vehicles

In the middle of the 18th century (c. 1750s), Bengal was the most prosperous province of the Mughal Empire and the primary base for the English East India Company's trade. The staple commodities exported from Bengal were:

• Cotton and Silk: Bengal was world-renowned for its high-quality textiles, including fine muslins and silk fabrics, which were the most sought-after Indian exports in European and Asian markets.
• Saltpetre: This was a strategic commodity used as a key ingredient in the manufacture of gunpowder. Bengal was the primary source of saltpetre for European powers during the frequent wars of the 18th century.
• Opium: Bengal was a major producer of opium, which the East India Company exported primarily to China and Southeast Asia. While the Company's formal monopoly was established in 1773, it was already a staple export item by the mid-18th century.

Note on other options: During this period, India was a 'sink' for precious metals; therefore, copper, silver, and gold (Option C) were typically imported into India as bullion to pay for Indian goods, rather than being exported.

Statement 1 is incorrect: High organic matter content in soil actually increases its water-holding capacity. Organic matter helps to bind soil particles together, creating pore spaces that can hold water. It acts like a sponge, absorbing and retaining moisture effectively.

Statement 2 is incorrect: Soil plays a crucial role in the sulphur cycle. Soil contains various forms of sulfur compounds, including sulfates, which are essential nutrients for plant growth. Microorganisms in the soil participate in the transformation of sulfur compounds through processes like mineralization and immobilization.

Statement 3 is correct: Excessive or improper irrigation practices can lead to the salinization of agricultural lands. When irrigation water contains high levels of dissolved salts, and there is inadequate drainage, these salts can accumulate in the soil over time, leading to soil salinization. This can adversely affect crop growth and productivity.

Therefore, among the given statements, only statement 3 is correct.

The chronological order of the events is as follows:

1. Dinabandhu Mitra wrote Neeldarpan (1858-59): This play, which depicted the oppression of indigo farmers by British planters, was published in 1858-59.
2. Satyendranath Tagore cleared the ICS (1863): He became the first Indian to succeed in the Indian Civil Service (ICS) examination in 1863. The examination was conducted by the Civil Service Commissioners in London.
3. Swami Dayanand established Arya Samaj (1875): This Vedic reform movement was founded by Swami Dayanand Saraswati in Bombay in 1875.
4. Bankim Chandra Chattopadhyay wrote Anandmath (1882): This famous Bengali novel, set against the backdrop of the Sannyasi Rebellion and containing the song 'Vande Mataram', was published in 1882.

Therefore, the writing of Neeldarpan is the earliest event among the choices provided.

Statement 1 is incorrect. The govt has been infusing large amounts in seven public sector banks through recapitalisation bonds but this has not been steady as statement 1 says.

Statement 2 is correct. To put the public sector banks in order, the merger of associate banks with the parent State Bank of India has been affected. For example, the merger of SBI associate banks will result in the creation of a stronger merger entity.

Hence, option C is the correct answer.

Statement 1 is incorrect. GACSA was launched in 2014 at the UN Climate Summit in New York, not at the Paris Climate Summit in 2015.

Statement 2 is correct. GACSA is a voluntary partnership, and membership does not create any legally binding obligations for its members.

Statement 3 is incorrect. GACSA was launched by the Netherlands and several other countries, but India was not among the founding members or instrumental in its creation.

The Rule of Law is a fundamental principle of governance that ensures all individuals, institutions, and the State itself are subject to and accountable under laws that are publicly known, equally enforced, and independently adjudicated. Let’s analyze each option in this context:

Limitation of powers: The Rule of Law restricts arbitrary use of power by ensuring that no person or authority, including the government, is above the law. This maintains a system of checks and balances.

Equality before law: A core principle of the Rule of Law is "equality before the law" (Article 14 of the Indian Constitution), ensuring that all individuals, irrespective of rank or status, are treated equally.

People's responsibility to the Government: The Rule of Law primarily focuses on the government's accountability to the people, ensuring that it functions within the legal framework. It does not impose an obligation on citizens to be accountable to the government in the same way.

Liberty and civil rights: The Rule of Law safeguards fundamental rights, protecting individual freedoms, justice, and civil liberties from arbitrary actions of the state.

Hence, the correct answer is option (C) 1, 2, and 4 only.

Statement 1 is Incorrect: Sand mining does not decrease salinity. In coastal and estuarine regions, excessive sand mining can lead to saltwater intrusion from the sea into the river system, which actually increases the salinity of the river water.

Statement 2 is Correct: River sand acts as a natural filter for water percolating through the riverbed. Removing this sand layer reduces the filtration capacity, allowing pollutants, heavy metals, and contaminants to seep more easily into the underlying groundwater aquifers.

Statement 3 is Correct: Heavy sand mining causes riverbed incision (deepening of the river channel). As the riverbed drops, the surrounding groundwater drains into the deepened channel to maintain hydrological equilibrium, leading to a significant lowering of the water table in the adjacent areas.

Option A is correct. A Bill shall be deemed a Money Bill if it contains only provisions related to the imposition, abolition, remission, alteration, or regulation of any tax. This statement is correct as per Article 110(1)(a) of the Indian Constitution, which defines the scope of a Money Bill.

Option B is correct. A Money Bill includes provisions regarding the custody of the Consolidated Fund of India or the Contingency Fund of India. This statement is correct. As per Article 110(1)(c) of the Constitution, a Money Bill may contain provisions related to the custody, withdrawal, and audit of funds from these financial accounts.

Option C is incorrect. A Money Bill is concerned with the appropriation of money out of the Contingency Fund of India. This statement is not correct. The Contingency Fund of India is under the disposal of the President of India to meet unforeseen expenditures, and its withdrawal is not governed by a Money Bill. Instead, Article 267(1) of the Constitution provides for its use, and the withdrawal of money from this fund is later regularized through an Appropriation Bill.

Option D is correct. A Money Bill deals with the regulation of borrowing of money or giving of any guarantee by the Government of India. This statement is correct. As per Article 110(1)(d), provisions regarding government borrowing, the issuance of guarantees, and financial obligations of the Government of India fall within the scope of a Money Bill.

Thus, statements (a), (b), and (d) are correct, while statement (c) is incorrect.

Puthukkuli shawls: These embroidered textiles are a traditional craft of the Toda people in the Nilgiri Hills of Tamil Nadu.

Sujni embroidery: This embroidery style originates from the Bhusura village in Bihar, not Maharashtra.

Uppada Jamdani saris: Uppada Jamdani saris are known for their diaphanous silk and are native to Uppada in Andhra Pradesh, not Karnataka.

Fabric of India

Statement 1 (Incorrect): Buland Darwaza and Khankah at Fatehpur Sikri were primarily constructed using red sandstone, not white marble. While the structures might incorporate some decorative elements with white marble inlay, red sandstone is the dominant material.

Statement 2 (Incorrect): Bara Imambara in Lucknow is primarily constructed using brick with stucco plaster, not red sandstone and marble. Rumi Darwaza, on the other hand, is built mainly with bricks and lime plaster.

The equalization levy on online advertisement services offered by non-resident entities is introduced as a separate tax under the Finance Act, not as a part of the Income Tax Act.

Non-resident entities cannot claim a tax credit in their home country under the "Double Taxation Avoidance Agreements" because the equalization levy is not an income tax. It is a separate tax levied on specified services provided by non-residents to residents.

Hence, option A is the correct answer.

Note: The Indian government has abolished the 6% Equalization Levy on online advertisements, with effective from April 1, 2025.

• THAAD is a missile defense system developed by the United States to intercept and destroy short, medium, and intermediate-range ballistic missiles during their terminal phase of flight.

• It is designed to defend against threats both within and outside the Earth's atmosphere, providing protection against potential missile attacks.

• THAAD has been deployed by the United States military and has also been sold to allied countries such as South Korea and Saudi Arabia.

Statement 1 is correct: Wood's Dispatch advocated for a Grant-in-aid system to support private schools alongside government schools. This aimed to expand educational opportunities even with limited government resources.

Statement 2 is correct: The Dispatch recommended establishing universities in major cities like Bombay, Calcutta, and Madras. These universities would follow the model of the University of London.

Statement 3 is incorrect: While Wood's Dispatch acknowledged the importance of vernacular languages in primary education, it did not recommend English as the medium of instruction at all levels.

The Dispatch proposed a tiered system

• Primary schools - Vernacular languages
• Secondary schools - Both English and vernacular languages
• Colleges - Primarily English

So, statements 1 and 2 are true, while statement 3 is not entirely accurate.

Statement 1 is Correct: The Food Safety and Standards Act, of 2006 did supersede the Prevention of Food Adulteration Act, of 1954. It established a more comprehensive framework for ensuring food safety and regulating the food industry in India.

Statement 2 is Incorrect: The Food Safety and Standards Authority of India (FSSAI) is an autonomous body, not under the direct control of the Director General of Health Services. While the Ministry of Health and Family Welfare oversees FSSAI, it functions independently with its own governing board and chairperson.

Therefore, the correct answer is option (a) 1 only.

The Partnership for Action on Green Economy (PAGE) was established in response to the United Nations Conference on Sustainable Development (UNCSD) 2012, also known as Rio+20, held in Rio de Janeiro, Brazil.

The Rio+20 conference aimed to reaffirm global commitment to sustainable development and highlight the importance of transitioning to green economies i.e. economic systems that promote environmental sustainability, social inclusion, and economic growth.

PAGE was launched as a collaborative initiative to support countries in developing policies and strategies for sustainable and inclusive economic growth.

Statement 1 is incorrect: The National Programme for Organic Production (NPOP) is operated under the guidelines and directions of the Ministry of Commerce and Industry, not the Ministry of Rural Development or the Ministry of Agriculture. It provides the framework for the accreditation of certification bodies and standards for organic production.

Statement 2 is correct: The Agricultural and Processed Food Products Export Development Authority (APEDA) functions as the Secretariat for the implementation of NPOP. APEDA is a statutory body under the Ministry of Commerce and Industry responsible for the export promotion of agricultural products.

Statement 3 is correct: In 2016, Sikkim became India's first fully organic state, having successfully converted all its cultivable land to organic farming practices.

Therefore, the correct answer is 2 and 3 only.

Plants in arid environments have evolved adaptive features to minimize water loss through transpiration:

Plant Modifications

• Hard and waxy leaves have a thick cuticle and fewer stomata, reducing water loss by limiting evaporation.
• Tiny leaves have a smaller surface area, which decreases the area exposed to transpiration.
• Thorns, though primarily modified branches for protection, can also replace leaves in some desert plants (e.g., cacti), further reducing transpiration by limiting leaf surface area.

Therefore, the correct answer is option (d) 1, 2 and 3.

The International Labour Organization's Conventions 138 and 182 are both related to child labour.

Convention No. 138 is the Minimum Age Convention. It requires member countries to set a minimum age for employment and work towards the elimination of child labour.

Convention No. 182 deals with the Worst Forms of Child Labour. It calls for the prohibition and elimination of the most severe forms of child labour, such as slavery, forced labour, and trafficking.

These conventions are considered fundamental by the ILO, meaning all member states must respect, promote, and work towards their aims regardless of ratification.

Statement 1 is Correct: Coral reefs primarily thrive in warm, shallow, clear tropical waters between 30°N and 30°S latitudes, where sea surface temperatures typically remain between 20°C and 30°C.

Statement 2 is Correct: These three countries account for over 40% of the world's coral reef area, with Indonesia holding approximately 18%, Australia 17%, and the Philippines 9%.

Statement 3 is Correct: While rainforests have a higher number of species, coral reefs have greater phyletic diversity, hosting 32 of the 34 recognized animal phyla compared to only about 9 phyla found in tropical rainforests.

Dhara Mustard Hybrid-11, otherwise known as DMH - 11, is a genetically modified hybrid variety of the mustard species Brassica juncea.

Statement 1 is incorrect. The GM mustard developed in India does not have the property of pest-resistance. It has been genetically modified for hybridization and increased yield, not for pest-resistance.

Statement 2 is correct. The GM mustard has been developed with genes that allow it to cross-pollinate, leading to hybridization and increased yield.

Statement 3 is incorrect. The GM mustard was developed by scientists at Delhi University’s Centre for Genetic Manipulation of Crop Plants (CGMCP), not by the IARI and Punjab Agricultural University.

So, only statement 2 is correct.

Genetic Engineering

Pair 1 is correct: Chapchar Kut is a harvest festival celebrated in Mizoram.

Pair 2 is correct: Khongjom Parba is a ballad commemorating the Battle of Khongjom, which took place in Manipur.

Pair 3 is incorrect: Thang-Ta is a martial art form that originated in Manipur, not Sikkim.

So, only options 1 and 2 are correct.

Jean-Baptiste Tavernier, a French traveller and gem merchant, extensively documented his travels to India in the 17th century. He wrote about various aspects of Indian society, culture, and economy, including detailed descriptions of diamond mines and the diamond trade in India. Tavernier's writings provided valuable insights into the diamond industry of India during his time.

Francois Bernier (1625–1688): A French physician and traveler who visited India during the reign of Mughal Emperor Aurangzeb

Jean de Thévenot (1633–1667): A French traveler who visited India in the 17th century.

Abbe Barthelemy Carre (17th Century): A French traveler and envoy who visited India in the late 17th century.

Foreign Travelers in Medieval India

Statement 1 is correct: The Scheduled Tribes and Other Traditional Forest Dwellers (Recognition of Forest Rights) Act, 2006, commonly known as the Forest Rights Act (FRA), 2006, introduces the concept of Critical Wildlife Habitat (CWH). These are areas within National Parks and Wildlife Sanctuaries that must be kept inviolate to ensure wildlife protection. CWHs can only be declared based on scientific evidence and after completing the due process of rehabilitation and resettlement of affected communities.

Critical wildlife habitat

Statement 2 is correct: In 2015, the Baiga tribal community in Madhya Pradesh became the first to be granted Habitat Rights under the Forest Rights Act, 2006. This recognition allowed them to continue living within the Kanha Tiger Reserve while accessing forest resources for their bonafide livelihood needs.

Statement 3 is incorrect: According to the Forest Rights Act, 2006, it is the respective State governments that have the authority to declare and vest Habitat Rights for Primitive Tribal Groups and pre-agricultural communities over critical wildlife habitats, after obtaining consent from the tribal communities and establishing measures for their resettlement and rehabilitation.

Hence, correct answer is option (a) 1 and 2 only.

Economic Growth vs. Economic Development: An increase in absolute and per capita real GNP signifies economic growth, which means the overall production of goods and services in a country is expanding.

Economic development is a broader concept that goes beyond just increasing production. It encompasses factors like

1. Improved living standards for citizens
2. Reduction in poverty and unemployment
3. Increased literacy and education levels
4. Improved healthcare and infrastructure

If poverty and unemployment are increasing even with economic growth (GNP increase), it suggests the benefits of growth are not being shared widely. This indicates a lack of true economic development.

• Carbon fertilization is the increased rate of photosynthesis in plants due to the higher concentration of carbon dioxide in the atmosphere.

• During Photosynthesis plants absorb carbon dioxide (CO₂) from the atmosphere, along with water and sunlight, to produce sugars (glucose) that provide energy for growth. This process releases oxygen (O₂) as a byproduct.

• The concentration of CO₂ in the atmosphere is currently at its highest level in millions of years, primarily due to human activities such as fossil fuel combustion and deforestation.

• Many plants respond to higher CO₂ levels with an increased rate of photosynthesis, enabling them to produce more sugars, which can lead to faster growth and higher biomass production.

Statement 1 is incorrect: The Reserve Bank of India (RBI) manages and services both Central (Government of India) and State Government securities. RBI acts as a debt manager for both levels of government under agreements with the states.

Statement 2 is correct: Treasury Bills (T-bills) are issued only by the Government of India, not by the State Governments. States instead issue State Development Loans (SDLs) for their borrowing needs.

Statement 3 is correct: Treasury Bills are zero-coupon instruments — they are issued at a discount to the par (face) value and redeemed at par on maturity. The difference represents the interest earned.

The correct statement is 3 only.

Statement 1 is incorrect. Under the Mines and Minerals (Development and Regulation) Amendment Act of 2015, state governments conduct auctions for non-coal mine licenses.

Statement 2 is incorrect. Both Andhra Pradesh and Jharkhand have gold deposits and ongoing mining activities.

Statement 3 is correct. Rajasthan is known for its rich iron ore deposits and mining.

Minerals in India

The Merchant Discount Rate (MDR) is a fee levied on merchants by payment processors for accepting debit and credit card transactions. It's typically a percentage of the transaction value. So, when a customer uses a debit card at a store, the store pays a fee to the bank that processes the transaction. Hence, option C is the correct answer.

Merchant Rate Discount Process

Conservation Agriculture is a set of practices aimed at minimizing soil disturbance, maintaining permanent soil cover, and adopting crop rotations or intercropping.

Conservation Agriculture

Avoiding monoculture practices: This does not directly fall under Conservation Agriculture. Monoculture refers to the cultivation of a single crop over a wide area.

Adopting minimum tillage: Minimum or no tillage is one of the key principles of Conservation Agriculture, as it reduces soil disturbance.

Avoiding the cultivation of plantation crops: This is not a part of Conservation Agriculture. Plantation crops like tea, coffee, or rubber can be cultivated using conservation agriculture practices.

Using crop residues to cover the soil surface: Maintaining soil cover with crop residues or mulches is a crucial component of Conservation Agriculture.

Adopting spatial and temporal crop sequencing/crop rotations: Crop rotations and intercropping are recommended practices under Conservation Agriculture to improve soil fertility and reduce pest and disease incidence.

Therefore, the correct options that fall under Conservation Agriculture are 2, 4, and 5.

Kodaikanal Lake, also known as Kodai Lake is a manmade lake located in the Kodaikanal city in Dindigul district in Tamil Nadu, India.

Sir Vere Henry Levinge, the then Collector of Madurai, was instrumental in creating the lake in 1863, amidst the Kodaikanal town which was developed by the British and early missionaries from the USA.

Artificial Lakes in India