Analyse & practice 14 years of PYQs to crack UPSCPractice Now

UPSC Prelims 2018 Analysis

Subject wise MCQ distribution

  • Economy (20 Questions): The highest weightage in the paper, covering macroeconomic indicators, policies, and economic development themes. Analytical abilities were essential to interpret trends.
  • Environment & Ecology (15 Questions): A significant presence, likely reflecting UPSC’s increasing focus on climate change, biodiversity, and sustainable development. Maps were useful in location-based questions.
  • Indian Polity (15 Questions): A core subject, testing governance, constitutional provisions, and landmark judgments. Many questions followed an assertion-reasoning pattern.
  • Modern History (13 Questions): A relatively high emphasis on the freedom struggle, key personalities, and movements.
  • Science & Technology (12 Questions): Covered advancements in AI, biotechnology, and space technology, requiring both static and current knowledge.
  • Art & Culture (7 Questions): More weightage than in some later years, indicating an expectation for deeper knowledge of cultural heritage.
  • International Relations (7 Questions): Focused on global organizations, treaties, and India's foreign policy.
  • Medieval History (1 Question): Minimal representation, following the usual trend of fewer medieval history questions.
  • Geography (Indian Geography: 4, Physical Geography: 2, World Geography: 0): The focus was on Indian geography, with limited physical geography and no direct world geography questions.
Prelims 2018
Subject-Wise Weightage in UPSC Prelims 2018

Difficulty analysis

  • Medium Difficulty (50 Questions): The largest segment, requiring a balance of factual knowledge and application skills.
  • Hard Questions (29 Questions): A significant portion of the paper, making elimination techniques and conceptual clarity essential.
  • Easy Questions (21 Questions): Fewer than in later years, indicating a relatively tougher paper.

The 2018 Prelims had tougher questions than before, which made them hard to solve. This is reflected in the final cut-off, which was only 98 marks.

Prelims 2018
Difficulty-Level Distribution in UPSC Prelims 2021

Variations in Question framing

Multi-Statement Questions (58%):

  • The most common type, requiring elimination techniques and conceptual clarity.
  • Particularly prevalent in Polity, Economy, and Environment sections.
  • Many followed match the following and assertion-reasoning formats.

Direct Questions (42%):

  • Straightforward factual questions, especially in History and Geography.
  • Easier to score but required precise knowledge.
12.PNG
Variations of Questions in UPSC Prelims 2021

Current Affairs vs. Static Questions

  • Current Affairs-Based (44 Questions): UPSC maintained a strong current affairs focus, particularly in Economy, Science & Technology, and International Relations.
  • Static (56 Questions): A balanced approach, with a considerable portion testing foundational knowledge, often derived from NCERT books.

Key learning for Future Preparation

  • Strengthen Economy and Polity: These subjects consistently hold high weightage and require an in-depth understanding of fundamental concepts.
  • Master Multi-Statement Questions: Since a majority of questions require elimination skills, practice structured reasoning techniques.
  • Balance Static and Current Affairs: While static knowledge remains crucial, integrating dynamic current developments is essential for scoring well.
  • Prepare for Moderate to Hard Questions: The paper had a higher proportion of challenging questions, so aspirants should refine their approach to conceptual application and strategic guessing.
  • History and Culture Awareness: Despite variations in different years, Art & Culture and Modern History continue to hold importance, making them key focus areas.
The Prelims 2018 paper had a strong focus on Economy, Environment, and Polity, with a majority of multi-statement questions requiring elimination techniques. A mix of current affairs and static knowledge highlighted the need for an integrated approach. The moderate-to-hard difficulty level and a low cutoff of 98 marks reflected the paper’s complexity.

QUESTION 1

GS

Easy

International Relations

Prelims 2018

Very recently, in which of the following countries have lakhs of people either suffered from severe famine/acute malnutrition or died due to starvation caused by war/ethnic conflicts?

A. Angola and Zambia

B. Morocco and Tunisia

C. Venezuela and Colombia

D. Yemen and South Sudan

Explanation

Yemen and South Sudan faced severe humanitarian crises and famine conditions around 2017-2018 due to prolonged armed conflicts. In Yemen, the Saudi-led military intervention against Houthi rebels, coupled with air and naval blockades, severely restricted the import of food and medicine, leading to widespread starvation. In South Sudan, a civil war that began in 2013 between government and opposition forces displaced millions and disrupted agricultural production, resulting in the United Nations formally declaring a famine in parts of the country in early 2017.


QUESTION 2

GS

Medium

International Relations

Prelims 2018

Consider the following pairs:

Regions sometimes mentioned in newsCountry
1. CataloniaSpain
2. CrimeaHungary
3. MindanaoPhilippines
4. OromiaNigeria

Which of the pairs given above are correctly matched?

A. 1, 2 and 3

B. 3 and 4 only

C. 1 and 3 only

D. 2 and 4 only

Explanation

The correctly matched pairs are:

  1. Catalonia — Spain: Catalonia is an autonomous community in northeastern Spain. It is frequently in the news due to its distinct cultural identity and the regional independence movement.
  2. Mindanao — Philippines: Mindanao is the second-largest island in the Philippines. It has been in the news primarily due to the Bangsamoro peace process and internal security matters.

Incorrectly matched pairs:

  • Crimea: This is a peninsula located on the northern coast of the Black Sea. While internationally recognized as part of Ukraine, it was annexed by Russia in 2014. It has no geographical connection to Hungary.
  • Oromia: This is the largest regional state in Ethiopia, not Nigeria. It is the homeland of the Oromo people, the largest ethnic group in Ethiopia.

QUESTION 3

GS

Hard

International Relations

Prelims 2018

In the Indian context, what is the implication of ratifying the 'Additional Protocol' with the 'International Atomic Energy Agency (IAEA)'?

A. The civilian nuclear reactors come under IAEA safeguards.

B. The military nuclear installations come under the inspection of IAEA.

C. The country will have the privilege to buy uranium from the Nuclear Suppliers Group NSG.

D. The country automatically becomes a member of the NSG.

Explanation

The 'Additional Protocol' is a legal document that grants the International Atomic Energy Agency (IAEA) expanded rights of access to information and locations in a state to ensure that nuclear materials are used for peaceful purposes.

  • Option A is correct: By ratifying the Additional Protocol, India committed to placing its civilian nuclear facilities under IAEA safeguards. This allows the IAEA to verify that nuclear material in these specific facilities is not diverted for military use.
  • Option B is incorrect: India maintains a separation between its civilian and military nuclear programs. The Additional Protocol applies only to civilian facilities; military installations remain outside the scope of IAEA inspections.
  • Options C and D are incorrect: While the ratification of the Additional Protocol was a significant step in India's integration into the global nuclear order (following the Indo-US nuclear deal), it does not automatically grant membership to the Nuclear Suppliers Group (NSG) or provide an automatic privilege to buy uranium. Membership in the NSG requires a separate consensus-based admission process.

India signed the Additional Protocol in 2009, and it officially entered into force on July 25, 2014.


QUESTION 4

GS

Medium

International Relations

Prelims 2018

Consider the following pairs:

TownSometime mentioned in news Country
1. AleppoSyria
2. KirkukYemen
3. MosulPalestine
4. Mazar-i-SharifAfghanistan

Which of the pairs given above are correctly matched?

A. 1 and 2

B. 1 and 4

C. 2 and 3

D. 3 and 4

Explanation

Aleppo is a city in Syria , serving as the capital of the Aleppo Governorate, the most populous Syrian governorate.

Kirkuk is a city in Iraq , serving as the capital of the Kirkuk Governorate, located 238 kilometres north of Baghdad.

Mosul is a major city in northern Iraq situated on the west bank of the Tigris, opposite the ancient Assyrian city of Nineveh on the east bank.

Mazar-e Sharif, the city is in Afghanistan , 35 miles south of the border with Uzbekistan. Hence, B is the correct option.


QUESTION 5

GS

Easy

International Relations

Prelims 2018

The term "two-state solution" is sometimes mentioned in the news in the context of the affairs of -

A. China

B. Israel

C. Iraq

D. Yemen

Explanation

The Two-State Solution is used in the context of the Israel-Palestine issue.

It envisages an independent State of Palestine alongside the State of Israel west of the Jordan River.

Two State Solution

Two State Solution


QUESTION 6

GS

Medium

International Relations

Prelims 2018

Consider the following countries :

  1. Australia
  2. Canada
  3. China
  4. India
  5. Japan
  6. USA

Which of the above are among the 'free-trade partners' of ASEAN?

A. 1, 2, 4 and 5

B. 3, 4, 5 and 6

C. 1, 3, 4 and 5

D. 2, 3, 4 and 6

Explanation

ASEAN has established Free Trade Agreements (FTAs) with six specific 'Dialogue Partners': China, Japan, South Korea, India, Australia, and New Zealand.

Statement 1 is Correct: Australia is a free-trade partner of ASEAN through the ASEAN-Australia-New Zealand Free Trade Area (AANZFTA).

Statement 2 is Incorrect: Canada is a Dialogue Partner of ASEAN but does not have a formal Free Trade Agreement with the bloc.

Statement 3 is Correct: China is a free-trade partner of ASEAN through the ASEAN-China Free Trade Area (ACFTA).

Statement 4 is Correct: India is a free-trade partner of ASEAN through the ASEAN-India Free Trade Area (AIFTA).

Statement 5 is Correct: Japan is a free-trade partner of ASEAN through the ASEAN-Japan Comprehensive Economic Partnership (AJCEP).

Statement 6 is Incorrect: The USA has been a Dialogue Partner of ASEAN since 1977, but it does not have a Free Trade Agreement with the ASEAN bloc.


QUESTION 7

GS

Medium

International Relations

Prelims 2018

What is/are the consequence/consequences of a country becoming a member of the 'Nuclear Suppliers Group'?

  1. It will have access to the latest and most efficient nuclear technologies.
  2. It automatically becomes a member of "The Treaty on the Non-Proliferation of Nuclear Weapons (NPT)".

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

A. 1 only

B. 2 only

C. Both 1 and 2

D. Neither 1 nor 2

Explanation

Statement 1 (access to latest nuclear technology) is correct. This is a consequence of NSG membership. NSG members can trade nuclear materials, equipment, and technology for peaceful purposes. This access can be crucial for a country's nuclear energy program or medical isotope production.

Statement 2 (automatic NPT membership) is incorrect. Becoming an NSG member doesn't automatically qualify a country for NPT membership. NPT is a separate treaty focusing on nuclear non-proliferation, and membership has different requirements.

The correct answer is 1 only.

Share
SuperKalam
SuperKalam is your personal mentor for UPSC preparation, guiding you at every step of the exam journey.

Download the App

Get it on Google PlayDownload on the App Store
Follow us

ⓒ Snapstack Technologies Private Limited