UPSC Prelims 2026 · GS Paper

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Q: Q1. Which one of the following Carnatic music ragas is similar to Raga Bilawal in Hindustani music ?

The correct answer is option (D). The Indian classical music system is broadly divided into the Hindustani (North Indian) and Carnatic (South Indian) traditions. While their styles and ornamentation differ, many foundational scales share exact equivalents between the Hindustani **Thaat** system (codified by V.N. Bhatkhande) and the

Q: Q2. The artificially fixed rupee-sterling exchange rate prescribed by the Hilton-Young Commission (1926) was adopted by the British Government for which one of the following reasons ?

The correct answer is option (A). The **Hilton-Young Commission (1926)**, officially known as the Royal Commission on Indian Currency and Finance, recommended fixing the rupee-sterling exchange rate at an artificially high ratio of **1s 6d** (1 shilling 6 pence) per rupee, instead of the pre-war rate of 1s 4d. **Option A is correc

Q: Q3. Consider the following statements : I. Pali texts contain the first definite references to coins, e.g., **kahapana**, **nikkha**, **kamsa**, and **kakanika**. II. The literary evidence from Pali text

The correct answer is option (C). The introduction of coinage in ancient India, as evidenced by Pali texts and archaeological finds of punch-marked coins, is a hallmark of the 6th century BCE. This period is associated with two major socio-economic developments: **1. Emergence of urban life:** The widespread use of metallic money i

Q: Q4. Which of the following temples has/have a Nagara-style shikhara ? 1. Malegitti Shivalaya, Badami 2. Huchimalligudi Temple, Aihole 3. Dashavatara Temple, Deogarh 4. Virupaksha Temple, Pattadakal Sele

The correct answer is option (B). **Statement 1 is Incorrect:** The Malegitti Shivalaya in Badami, built by the Early Chalukyas in the late 7th century CE, is a classic **Dravida-style** temple. Its shikhara is octagonal and features typical southern architectural elements (such as kutas and shalas), rather than a Nagara spire. **S

Q: Q5. Among the four main forms of existence of life recognized in Jainism, which one of the following is **not** included ?

The correct answer is option (B). In Jainism, the soul transmigrates through the cycle of birth and death (**Samsara**) based on its karmas. Upon death, a soul is reborn into one of four main destinies or states of existence, known as the **Four Gatis**. These four forms of existence are: 1. **Manushya Gati (Humans):** The most des

Q: Q6. The Hallisalasya painting in the Bagh Caves represents :

The correct answer is option (A). **Option A is correct:** The **Hallisalasya** painting, found on the outer wall of the continuous verandah connecting Caves 4 (known as the **Rang Mahal**) and 5 of the **Bagh Caves** in Madhya Pradesh, depicts a **joyous folk dance**. The mural vividly portrays a ring of female dancers keeping time

Q: Q7. Consider the following statements relating to the use of the place-value system in India : 1. The earliest epigraphic use of the place-value system in India is found in the Mankani plates from Gujara

The correct answer is option (D). **Statement 1 is Correct:** The earliest known epigraphic evidence of the decimal place-value system in India is found in the **Mankani copper-plate charter** of Taralasvamin from Gujarat, which is dated to the Kalachuri year 346 (approximately 594–596 CE). **Statement 2 is Correct:** Although the

Q: Q8. Consider the following statements about the archaeological findings in Harappan towns : I. There is wide occurrence of spindle-whorls in the houses but absence of spinning wheels. II. Weights and mea

The correct answer is option (A). **Inference 1 is Correct:** The wide occurrence of spindle-whorls in Harappan households indicates that spinning was a common domestic activity. The absence of the spinning wheel (which was introduced to India much later during the medieval period) meant that Harappans relied on hand-spinning using

Q: Q9. Which one of the following statements about the Eka Movement and Bardoli Satyagraha is correct ?

The correct answer is option (C). **Option A is Incorrect:** The **Eka Movement** was initially supported by Congress and Khilafat leaders, but the Congress withdrew its support when the movement adopted militant tactics under the leadership of Madari Pasi. Conversely, the **Bardoli Satyagraha** was deeply integrated with Congress l

Q: Q10. Consider the following statements about the Rigvedic period : I. Irrigation from wells allowed agriculture to expand away from flood plains and strips on river margins into the present Punjab and Har

The correct answer is option (C). **Statement 1 is Correct:** The Rigveda contains references to the use of an **ashma chakra** (stone pulley wheel) and **ahava** (strapped wooden pails) to draw water from wells. This supports the idea that irrigation from wells allowed agriculture to expand away from flood plains into areas like Pu

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Q1Art & Culture

Which one of the following Carnatic music ragas is similar to Raga Bilawal in Hindustani music ?

Nat Bhairavi

Kamavardhini

Hanumatodi

Dheera Shankarabharanam

Explanation

The Indian classical music system is broadly divided into the Hindustani (North Indian) and Carnatic (South Indian) traditions. While their styles and ornamentation differ, many foundational scales share exact equivalents between the Hindustani Thaat system (codified by V.N. Bhatkhande) and the Carnatic Melakarta system.

Dheera Shankarabharanam is the correct equivalent. In Carnatic music, it is a fundamental Melakarta raga that uses all natural (shuddha) notes. Its exact equivalent in Hindustani classical music is the Bilawal Thaat (and Raga Bilawal). Both of these correspond to the Western Major scale (Ionian mode).

Nat Bhairavi is incorrect. This Carnatic raga corresponds to the Asavari Thaat in Hindustani music.

Kamavardhini is incorrect. Also known as Pantuvarali, its Hindustani equivalent is the Poorvi Thaat (specifically similar to Raga Puriya Dhanashree).

Hanumatodi is incorrect. Often simply called Todi in the South, its notes correspond to the Bhairavi Thaat in Hindustani music. (Note that Carnatic Todi is completely different from Hindustani Todi, which corresponds to Shubhapantuvarali).

Therefore, the correct option is D.

Q2Modern History

The artificially fixed rupee-sterling exchange rate prescribed by the Hilton-Young Commission (1926) was adopted by the British Government for which one of the following reasons ?

Aiding the flow of remittances from India and maintaining India's creditworthiness

Providing support to Indian importers

Encouraging export of cotton produce from India

Preventing depreciation of the Rupee in terms of gold

Explanation

The Hilton-Young Commission (1926), officially known as the Royal Commission on Indian Currency and Finance, recommended fixing the rupee-sterling exchange rate at an artificially high ratio of 1s 6d (1 shilling 6 pence) per rupee, instead of the pre-war rate of 1s 4d.

Option A is correct: The colonial administration adopted this artificially high rate primarily to ease the burden of "Home Charges." These were massive, mandatory sterling-denominated remittances sent from India to Britain to cover administrative costs, pensions, military expenses, and interest on public debt. By keeping the rupee artificially strong against the sterling, the Government of India had to extract fewer rupees from the domestic economy to purchase the sterling required for these remittances. This facilitated the steady flow of funds to Britain and ensured India could easily service its sterling debt, thereby maintaining its financial creditworthiness in London.

Option B is incorrect: While an overvalued rupee did make imports cheaper (benefiting British manufacturers like Lancashire textiles), the primary motive of the British Government was to manage its own fiscal burden regarding remittances, not to provide support to Indian importers.

Option C is incorrect: The artificially high exchange rate actually harmed Indian exports. It made Indian goods, such as cotton produce, more expensive and uncompetitive in the international market, which sparked intense opposition from Indian nationalists and businessmen during the "Ratio Controversy."

Option D is incorrect: The primary objective of fixing the exchange rate at 1s 6d was to facilitate the transfer of sterling remittances (Home Charges) to Britain and manage the colonial government's budget, rather than merely preventing the depreciation of the Rupee in terms of gold.

Therefore, the correct option is A.

Q3Ancient History

Consider the following statements :

I. Pali texts contain the first definite references to coins, e.g., kahapana, nikkha, kamsa, and kakanika. II. The literary evidence from Pali texts is corroborated by archaeological evidence of punch-marked coins from many sites, most of them made of silver.

The above statements have been associated with which of the following ?

Emergence of urban life
Transition to money economy

Select the answer using the code given below :

1 only

2 only

Both 1 and 2

Neither 1 nor 2

Explanation

The introduction of coinage in ancient India, as evidenced by Pali texts and archaeological finds of punch-marked coins, is a hallmark of the 6th century BCE. This period is associated with two major socio-economic developments:

1. Emergence of urban life: The widespread use of metallic money is a defining feature of the Second Urbanization in the Gangetic valley. The rise of the Mahajanapadas was accompanied by the growth of fortified cities (nagaras), organized artisan guilds, and long-distance trade along routes like the Uttarapatha, all of which were facilitated by the use of coins.

2. Transition to money economy: The introduction of specific coin denominations like kahapana, nikkha, kamsa, and kakanika marked a definitive shift from a purely barter-based system to a money economy. This transition allowed for standardized pricing, wage payments, and the emergence of complex economic practices such as money-lending (usury), which are extensively documented in early Buddhist literature.

Therefore, the given statements are associated with both the emergence of urban life and the transition to a money economy.

Therefore, the correct option is C.

Q4Art & Culture

Which of the following temples has/have a Nagara-style shikhara ?

Malegitti Shivalaya, Badami
Huchimalligudi Temple, Aihole
Dashavatara Temple, Deogarh
Virupaksha Temple, Pattadakal

Select the answer using the code given below :

1 and 2

2 and 3

3 only

3 and 4

Explanation

Statement 1 is Incorrect: The Malegitti Shivalaya in Badami, built by the Early Chalukyas in the late 7th century CE, is a classic Dravida-style temple. Its shikhara is octagonal and features typical southern architectural elements (such as kutas and shalas), rather than a Nagara spire.

Statement 2 is Correct: The Huchimalligudi Temple in Aihole is an Early Chalukyan structure that demonstrates early architectural experimentation. It features a distinct curvilinear Nagara-style shikhara (Rekha-prasada type) over its square sanctum.

Statement 3 is Correct: The Dashavatara Temple in Deogarh is a Gupta-period monument (approx. 6th century CE) built in the Panchayatana layout. It is widely recognized as one of the earliest surviving structural temples in North India to feature a Nagara-style pyramidal shikhara.

Statement 4 is Incorrect: The Virupaksha Temple in Pattadakal was built around 740 CE by Queen Lokamahadevi to commemorate a victory over the Pallavas. It is the grandest temple at the Pattadakal UNESCO site and is built strictly in the Dravida style. It features a tiered, pyramidal southern vimana (shikhara), heavily influenced by the Kailasanatha temple in Kanchipuram.

Therefore, option B is the correct answer.

Q5Art & Culture

Among the four main forms of existence of life recognized in Jainism, which one of the following is not included ?

Deva (gods)

Yaksha (demi-gods)

Manushya (humans)

Tiryancha (animals and plants)

Explanation

In Jainism, the soul transmigrates through the cycle of birth and death (Samsara) based on its karmas. Upon death, a soul is reborn into one of four main destinies or states of existence, known as the Four Gatis. These four forms of existence are:

Manushya Gati (Humans): The most desirable state, as it is the only form of existence from which a soul can practice the necessary spiritual discipline to attain ultimate liberation (Moksha).
Deva Gati (Heavenly beings / Gods): A state of immense pleasure and bliss resulting from good karmas, though it is not permanent.
Tiryancha Gati (Animals, plants, and micro-organisms): A lower form of life resulting from moderate negative karmas, characterized by limited ability to practice spirituality.
Naraki Gati (Infernal / Hell beings): A state of immense suffering in hellish realms due to heavy negative karmas.

Yaksha (male demi-gods) and Yakshinis (female demi-gods) are prominent in Jain cosmology, typically serving as attendant guardian deities (Shasan Devatas) to the Tirthankaras. However, they do not constitute one of the four primary Gatis. Instead, they are classified as Vyantar Devas (intermediary or wandering celestial beings), which makes them a sub-category within the broader Deva Gati.

Therefore, Yaksha is not included among the four main forms of existence of life recognized in Jainism.

Q6Art & Culture

The Hallisalasya painting in the Bagh Caves represents :

A joyous folk dance

Buddha in a meditative pose

The depiction of Shiva and Parvati on Kailasha

Samudramanthan (Churning of the Ocean)

Explanation

Option A is correct: The Hallisalasya painting, found on the outer wall of the continuous verandah connecting Caves 4 (known as the Rang Mahal) and 5 of the Bagh Caves in Madhya Pradesh, depicts a joyous folk dance. The mural vividly portrays a ring of female dancers keeping time by striking small wooden sticks together, highly reminiscent of the modern Dandiya or Garba. They are accompanied by female musicians playing instruments such as the hand-drum (hudukka) and small cymbals (kamsyatalas). It is highly valued by historians for its detailed depiction of ancient central Indian social life.

Option B is incorrect: Although the Bagh Caves are ancient rock-cut Buddhist viharas dating back to the 5th–6th century CE (Gupta period), the Hallisalasya painting is a secular scene depicting social life, not a depiction of the Buddha in a meditative pose.

Option C is incorrect: The depiction of Shiva and Parvati on Mount Kailasha is a famous theme in Hindu cave architecture (such as at Ellora or Elephanta), but it is not the subject of the Hallisalasya mural in the Buddhist Bagh Caves.

Option D is incorrect: Samudramanthan (Churning of the Ocean) is a prominent Hindu mythological event depicted in various temples and sculptures, but it is not represented in the Hallisalasya painting.

Therefore, Option A is the correct answer.

Q7Ancient History

Consider the following statements relating to the use of the place-value system in India :

The earliest epigraphic use of the place-value system in India is found in the Mankani plates from Gujarat (AD 595 – 596).
In the ninth century, place-values become general in inscriptions all over India.
The place-values have been found in Sanskrit inscriptions in South-east Asia as early as the seventh century.

Which of the statements given above are correct ?

1 and 2 only

1 and 3 only

2 and 3 only

1, 2 and 3

Explanation

Statement 1 is Correct: The earliest known epigraphic evidence of the decimal place-value system in India is found in the Mankani copper-plate charter of Taralasvamin from Gujarat, which is dated to the Kalachuri year 346 (approximately 594–596 CE).

Statement 2 is Correct: Although the conceptual origins of the place-value system and zero date back much earlier in literary and mathematical texts (such as those by Aryabhata), their use in everyday epigraphy was not immediate. The decimal place-value notation became a general, widespread feature in inscriptions all over India only by the ninth century CE (e.g., the 876 CE Chaturbhuj Temple inscription in Gwalior).

Statement 3 is Correct: The Indian decimal place-value system spread rapidly to Southeast Asia. Epigraphists have found clear evidence of place-value numerals and the zero placeholder in Sanskrit and Sanskrit-influenced inscriptions in regions like Cambodia, Sumatra (Srivijaya), and Java dating as early as the seventh century CE (e.g., inscriptions dated to Saka years 605 and 606, corresponding to 683 and 684 CE).

Therefore, all three statements are correct.

Q8Ancient History

Consider the following statements about the archaeological findings in Harappan towns :

I. There is wide occurrence of spindle-whorls in the houses but absence of spinning wheels. II. Weights and measurement scales, complete with graduations have been discovered. III. There are houses built in large part with baked bricks, around relatively spacious courtyards, with their own wells, bathing platforms, and large rooms.

Which of the following inferences can be drawn from the above statements ?

Statement I suggests that spinning was a laborious activity done at home.
Statement II suggests the extent of the scientific knowledge that the Harappans possessed.
Statement III suggests the emergence of a common property system.

Select the answer using the code given below :

1 and 2 only

2 and 3 only

1 and 3 only

1, 2 and 3

Explanation

Inference 1 is Correct: The wide occurrence of spindle-whorls in Harappan households indicates that spinning was a common domestic activity. The absence of the spinning wheel (which was introduced to India much later during the medieval period) meant that Harappans relied on hand-spinning using drop spindles, which is a highly manual and laborious process.

Inference 2 is Correct: The discovery of highly standardized cubical chert weights and graduated measurement scales (such as the ivory scale at Lothal and shell scale at Mohenjo-Daro) reflects the advanced mathematical, metrological, and scientific knowledge possessed by the Harappans for trade, architecture, and construction.

Inference 3 is Incorrect: The presence of distinct, self-contained houses built with baked bricks, featuring their own private wells, bathing platforms, and large rooms, points toward a private property system and social stratification. A common property system would instead be characterized by shared, communal living spaces and collective ownership of resources.

Therefore, option A is the correct answer.

Q9Modern History

Which one of the following statements about the Eka Movement and Bardoli Satyagraha is correct ?

The Eka Movement was throughout supported and organized by the Congress while Bardoli Satyagraha was initially independent of Congress influence and was only in the last stages supported by the Congress.

The Eka Movement was provided leadership by the taluqdars of Awadh, whereas the Bardoli Satyagraha was a movement of the landless labourers.

The Bardoli Satyagraha was a campaign against the enhancement of land revenue, while the Eka Movement was a protest against excessive extraction of rents.

The Eka Movement was located in the Varanasi and Mirzapur districts of the present-day U.P., while the Bardoli Satyagraha took place in Saurashtra.

Explanation

Option A is Incorrect: The Eka Movement was initially supported by Congress and Khilafat leaders, but the Congress withdrew its support when the movement adopted militant tactics under the leadership of Madari Pasi. Conversely, the Bardoli Satyagraha was deeply integrated with Congress leadership from its inception and was spearheaded by Sardar Vallabhbhai Patel.

Option B is Incorrect: The Eka Movement was a grassroots peasant movement directed against oppressive taluqdars and zamindars, led by Madari Pasi, a low-caste peasant leader. The Bardoli Satyagraha was primarily a movement of landowning peasants (such as the Patidars) facing economic hardship, rather than a movement of landless labourers.

Option C is Correct: The Bardoli Satyagraha (1928) was a direct campaign against an arbitrary 22% enhancement of land revenue by the British Bombay Presidency government. The Eka Movement (1921–1922) was primarily a protest against the excessive and illegal extraction of rents (often exceeding 50% of the recorded rent) and the oppression by thekedars (contractors) and landlords.

Option D is Incorrect: The Eka Movement took place in the Awadh region of the United Provinces, specifically in districts like Hardoi, Bahraich, Barabanki, Sitapur, and Lucknow, not Varanasi or Mirzapur. The Bardoli Satyagraha occurred in the Bardoli taluka of the Surat district in Gujarat, not Saurashtra.

Therefore, Option C is the correct answer.

Q10Ancient History

Consider the following statements about the Rigvedic period :

I. Irrigation from wells allowed agriculture to expand away from flood plains and strips on river margins into the present Punjab and Haryana plains having underground water levels reasonably close to the surface. II. Draught-animal power was employed to draw up water out of the wells.

Which of the following information support/supports the above statements ?

There is evidence in the Rigveda of the use of ashma chakra (stone pulley wheel) and ahava (strapped wooden pails) to draw up water.
Mention has been made in the Rigveda of the use of implements like parashu / kulisha (axe) and datra / sreni (sickle).
There is a history of the use of ox, even before the Rigveda, for ploughing the land and pulling the carts.

Select the answer using the code given below :

1 and 2 only

1, 2 and 3

1 and 3 only

3 only

Explanation

Statement 1 is Correct: The Rigveda contains references to the use of an ashma chakra (stone pulley wheel) and ahava (strapped wooden pails) to draw water from wells. This supports the idea that irrigation from wells allowed agriculture to expand away from flood plains into areas like Punjab and Haryana, where groundwater was accessible.

Statement 2 is Correct: The use of draught-animal power, specifically oxen, to draw water from wells is supported by historical evidence. Oxen were domesticated and used for ploughing and pulling carts even before the Rigvedic period, as evidenced by archaeological finds from the Indus Valley Civilization. This supports the statement that draught-animal power was employed to draw water from wells.

Statement 3 is Incorrect: While the Rigveda mentions agricultural implements like parashu (axe) and datra (sickle), these references do not directly support the statements about irrigation and draught-animal power. They are more related to the tools used for clearing land and harvesting crops.

Therefore, the correct option is C, as statements 1 and 3 support the given statements about the Rigvedic period.

Q11Physical Geography

Consider the following assertion :

In the Pleistocene period either the Yamuna once flowed into the Indus, or the Sutlej flowed into the Yamuna and one major tributary of either had shifted from the Ganga to the Indus or vice versa.

Which of the following is/are the basis of the above assertion ?

The Nadi-Sukta of the Rigveda
The explorations of the Sutlej and the Yamuna by Robert Bruce Foote
The presence of the same species of dolphins in both the Indus and the Ganga river systems

Select the answer using the code given below :

1 only

2 only

1 and 2

Explanation

Statement 1 is Incorrect: The Nadi-Sukta of the Rigveda (Rigveda 10.75) lists rivers like the Ganga, Yamuna, Sarasvati, and Sutlej from east to west. It reflects Holocene (historical/human) geography, not Pleistocene geological shifts, which occurred long before the Vedic period.

Statement 2 is Incorrect: Robert Bruce Foote is known as the "Father of Indian Prehistory" for discovering India's first Paleolithic handaxe at Pallavaram (Tamil Nadu) in 1863. His explorations focused on stone-age archaeology in South India and Gujarat, not the geological mapping of the Sutlej and Yamuna river shifts.

Statement 3 is Correct: The presence of closely related blind river dolphins (Platanista gangetica minor in the Indus and Platanista gangetica gangetica in the Ganga) in two completely separated basins is a primary biological basis for asserting that these river systems were once physically connected. Geologists propose that during the Pleistocene epoch, a single massive river (the Indo-Brahma or Shiwalik river) connected the modern Indus and Ganga basins. Tectonic uplift (such as the Delhi Ridge) later separated them into distinct drainage systems, causing river avulsion (shifting) where the Yamuna shifted east to join the Ganga and the Sutlej shifted west to join the Indus.

Therefore, the correct option is D.

Q12Art & Culture

What does an empty seat represent in early Buddhist iconography ?

The meditation of the Buddha

The Buddha's First Sermon

The Buddha's Mahaparinibbana

The Buddha's Mahabhinishkramana

Explanation

In early Buddhist art (such as at Sanchi, Bharhut, and Amaravati), the Buddha was not depicted in human form. Instead, sculptors used specific physical symbols to represent his presence and the major events of his life. This is known as the aniconic phase of Buddhist iconography.

The meditation of the Buddha is represented by the Empty Seat (Vajrasana or Bodhimanda). It is often depicted under a parasol or the Bodhi tree, signifying the exact spot at Bodh Gaya where he sat in deep meditation to attain awakening.
The Buddha's First Sermon (Dharmachakrapravartana) is symbolized by the Wheel (Dharmachakra), representing the "turning of the wheel of law" at Sarnath.
The Buddha's Mahaparinibbana (his physical death and final liberation) is represented by the Stupa.
The Buddha's Mahabhinishkramana (the Great Departure or Renunciation) is represented by a Riderless Horse (Kanthaka), symbolizing Prince Siddhartha leaving his royal palace to seek truth.

Therefore, option A is the correct answer.

Q13Ancient History

Which of the following pairs of ancient and modern names of rivers is/are correctly matched ?

Vitasta : Chenab
Asikni : Jhelum
Parushni : Ravi
Yavyavati : Beas

Select the answer using the code given below :

1 and 2

3 and 4

3 only

4 only

Explanation

Pair 1 is incorrectly matched: The ancient Rigvedic name for the modern Jhelum river is Vitasta, not Chenab.

Pair 2 is incorrectly matched: The ancient Rigvedic name for the modern Chenab river is Asikni, which translates to "dark-colored waters."

Pair 3 is correctly matched: The ancient Rigvedic name for the modern Ravi river is Parushni. It is historically significant as the site of the "Battle of the Ten Kings" (Dasarajna) fought by King Sudas, as mentioned in the Rigveda.

Pair 4 is incorrectly matched: The ancient Rigvedic name for the modern Beas river is Vipasha. Yavyavati is another ancient river mentioned in the Rigveda, often associated by historians with the Zhob river in Balochistan or the ancient Drishadvati river, but it is definitively not the Beas.

Therefore, only pair 3 is correctly matched, making the correct option C.

Q14Art & Culture

Which of the following statements on the Amaravati Stupa and its relief sculpture is/are correct ?

It was located in the lower Krishna valley.
In India, it was next only to the Sanchi Stupa in size.
The Amaravati school of sculpture made a lasting impact on the later South Indian sculpture, and its products were carried to Sri Lanka and South-east Asia.

Select the answer using the code given below :

1 only

1 and 3 only

2 and 3 only

1, 2 and 3

Explanation

Statement 1 is Correct: The Amaravati Stupa, historically known as the Maha Chaitya, is located in the lower Krishna River valley in the Guntur district of modern-day Andhra Pradesh.

Statement 2 is Incorrect: The Amaravati Stupa was actually larger than the Great Stupa at Sanchi. At its peak, the Amaravati Stupa had a diameter of approximately 50 meters and a height of about 27 meters, making it the largest stupa in India. In contrast, the Sanchi Stupa has a diameter of roughly 36.5 meters. Therefore, it was not "next only to Sanchi" in size.

Statement 3 is Correct: The Amaravati school of art (also known as the Vengi or Andhra school) had a profound and lasting impact on later South Indian sculpture, including Pallava and Chola art. Facilitated by robust maritime trade networks along the eastern coast of India, the Amaravati style and its sculpted products were widely exported. Its influence is prominently visible in Sri Lanka (especially the Buddha images at Anuradhapura) and across various parts of Southeast Asia (such as Thailand and Java).

Therefore, option B is the correct answer.

Q15Ancient History

Which of the following pairs of the king and his dynasty in early historical Tamilakam is/are not correctly matched ?

Senguttuvan : Chera
Udiyanjeral : Chola
Nedunjeliyan : Pandya

Select the answer using the code given below :

1 and 2

2 only

1 and 3

3 only

Explanation

Pair 1 is correctly matched: Senguttuvan (also known as Cheran Senguttuvan or the Red Chera) was a prominent ruler of the Chera dynasty. He is celebrated in the Tamil epic Silappadikaram and is credited with establishing the Pattini (Kannagi) cult.

Pair 2 is incorrectly matched: Udiyanjeral (Uthiyan Cheralathan) belonged to the Chera dynasty, not the Chola dynasty. He is considered the first historically recorded Chera ruler of the Sangam period and is famous in Sangam literature for the legend of feeding the rival armies during the Mahabharata war.

Pair 3 is correctly matched: Nedunjeliyan was a famous king of the Pandya dynasty. Sangam literature mentions prominent Pandyan kings by this name, such as Nedunjeliyan II, who is renowned for his decisive victory at the Battle of Talaiyalanganam against a combined Chera and Chola force.

Since the question asks for the pair(s) that are not correctly matched, only Pair 2 fits this criterion. Therefore, the correct option is B.

Q16Modern History

Which of the following factors contributed to the formation of the Forward Bloc by Subhas Chandra Bose in 1939 ?

Bose failed to win the confidence of Mahatma Gandhi.
The Congress Left was disunited and failed to support Bose.
The Communists did not support Bose in his endeavours.
The supporters of M.N. Roy and socialist leaders like Jayaprakash Narayan preferred Congress unity to supporting Bose.

Select the answer using the code given below :

1, 2 and 3

1, 2 and 4

1, 3 and 4

2 and 4 only

Explanation

Statement 1 is Correct: Subhas Chandra Bose failed to win the confidence of Mahatma Gandhi. After Bose's re-election as INC President in 1939, Gandhi declared the defeat of his candidate, Pattabhi Sitaramayya, as his own defeat, indicating a lack of confidence in Bose.

Statement 2 is Correct: The Congress Left was disunited and failed to support Bose. The Congress Socialist Party, Communists, and Royists were fragmented and did not present a united front behind Bose during the Tripuri Crisis.

Statement 3 is Incorrect: While the Communists did not support Bose's radical approach, this was not a direct factor in the formation of the Forward Bloc. Their stance was more about maintaining unity under Gandhi rather than directly opposing Bose's endeavors.

Statement 4 is Correct: Supporters of M.N. Roy and socialist leaders like Jayaprakash Narayan preferred Congress unity over supporting Bose. They abstained from voting on the Govind Ballabh Pant resolution, which effectively withdrew their support from Bose to prevent a split in the Congress.

Therefore, the correct option is B, which includes statements 1, 2, and 4.

Q17Modern History

Consider the following statements regarding the British policy in Awadh immediately after its annexation in 1856 :

The taluqdars were dispossessed of their estates but allowed to retain their arms and forts.
A Summary Revenue Settlement was made in 1856 assuming that the taluqdars were outsiders.
The British believed in taking revenue directly from the peasants by removing the taluqdars.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct ?

2 and 3 only

1 and 3 only

1, 2 and 3

2 only

Explanation

Statement 1 is Incorrect: Prior to the annexation, Awadh's landed aristocracy (taluqdars) maintained private armies and forts. Immediately after the British took over in 1856, they were systematically dispossessed of their estates, disarmed, and their forts were completely destroyed.

Statement 2 is Correct: The first British land revenue settlement in Awadh was the Summary Settlement of 1856. It was explicitly based on the assumption that the taluqdars were "interlopers" (outsiders) who had no permanent or hereditary stakes in the land, having allegedly seized control through force and fraud.

Statement 3 is Correct: The primary objective of the Summary Settlement was to bypass the taluqdars and settle land revenue directly with the actual cultivators (peasants/ryots). British land revenue officers believed that removing the taluqdars would reduce peasant exploitation and increase the state's revenue streams.

Therefore, option A is the correct answer.

Q18Modern History

Consider the following assertion :

The genesis of political alliances based on community lay in the very nature of the Montague-Chelmsford Reforms, 1919.

Which of the following statements support/supports the above assertion ?

Reforms retained and extended the principle of separate electorates.
Separate electorates were supposed to counter Indian nationalism, which was growing stronger.
Deprived classes rallied around the favours inherent in separate electorates.

Select the answer using the code given below :

1 only

2 and 3 only

1 and 2 only

1, 2 and 3

Explanation

Statement 1 is Correct: The Montagu-Chelmsford Reforms (Government of India Act, 1919) not only retained the separate electorates for Muslims (first introduced by the Morley-Minto Reforms of 1909) but explicitly extended them to Sikhs, Indian Christians, Anglo-Indians, and Europeans. This institutionalized community-based representation, directly fostering political alliances based on community.

Statement 2 is Correct: The British utilized separate electorates as a strategic tool of "Divide and Rule." By institutionalizing communal and class divisions, the colonial government aimed to fragment and weaken the increasingly unified Indian nationalist movement, which was growing stronger at the time.

Statement 3 is Correct: The 1919 constitutional framework tied political representation, legislative power, and administrative favors directly to communal and class identities. Consequently, various minority groups and deprived classes began organizing politically around these specific identities to secure concessions and representation, which laid the genesis for community-based political alliances in India.

Therefore, all three statements support the assertion, making the correct option D.

Q19Art & Culture

Pandit Mallikarjun Mansur, the famous classical singer from Karnataka, represented the :

Agra Gharana

Gwalior Gharana

Patiala Gharana

Jaipur-Atrauli Gharana

Explanation

Pandit Mallikarjun Mansur (1910–1992) was a legendary Hindustani classical vocalist born in the Dharwad district of Karnataka. He is universally recognized as one of the foremost stalwarts of the Jaipur-Atrauli Gharana.

Agra Gharana is incorrect. This gharana was founded by Haji Sujan Khan and Ustad Ghagghe Khudabaksh, and is known for its rhythmic play and robust voice culture (e.g., Faiyaz Khan), but it was not Mansur's gharana.
Gwalior Gharana is incorrect. Although Mansur initially received some training in the Gwalior style under Nilkanth Bua Alurmath, he is not considered a representative of this gharana. He later transitioned completely to the Jaipur-Atrauli style.
Patiala Gharana is incorrect. Founded by Ustad Fateh Ali Khan and Ustad Ali Baksh, and popularized by Bade Ghulam Ali Khan, this gharana is known for its emotional appeal and complex taans, but it is unrelated to Mansur.
Jaipur-Atrauli Gharana is correct. Mansur received his most significant training from Ustad Manji Khan and Ustad Bhurji Khan, who were the sons of the gharana's founder, Ustad Alladiya Khan. His singing style reflected the core principles of the Jaipur-Atrauli tradition, characterized by a robust, open-throated voice, intricate taans, and complex rhythmic structures. He was highly celebrated for his mastery over rare and complex ragas.

Therefore, the correct option is D.

Q20Ancient History

In which one among the following texts does the term kshetra-patni ('mistress of the field') originate ?

Rigveda

Atharvaveda

Ashtadhyayi

Arthashastra

Explanation

The term kshetra-patni translates to "mistress of the field" (kshetra meaning field or land, and patni meaning mistress or wife). It is an agricultural deity associated with fertility and the evolving concept of land possession in ancient India.

Atharvaveda is the correct answer. The term explicitly originates in the Atharvaveda, where hymns (such as AV 2.12.1) invoke the "mistress of the field" to bless agricultural endeavors.

Rigveda is incorrect. While the Rigveda frequently invokes the masculine counterpart, Kshetrapati ("Lord of the Field," an agricultural deity found in hymns like RV 4.57), the feminine term Kshetra-patni is a later development that is absent from the Rigvedic text.

Ashtadhyayi is incorrect. Authored by Panini (approx. 4th century BCE), it is a foundational treatise on Sanskrit grammar and linguistic rules, not the origin source for Vedic agricultural deities.

Arthashastra is incorrect. Authored by Kautilya (approx. 3rd century BCE), this text deals with statecraft, economy, and land administration. While it extensively discusses agriculture (using terms like sitadhyaksha for the superintendent of agriculture), it post-dates the Vedas by centuries and is not the origin of the term.

Therefore, Option B is the correct answer.

Q1. Which one of the following Carnatic music ragas is similar to Raga Bilawal in Hindustani music ?

(A) Nat Bhairavi
(B) Kamavardhini
(C) Hanumatodi
(D) Dheera Shankarabharanam ✓ Correct

Answer: Option (D). The Indian classical music system is broadly divided into the Hindustani (North Indian) and Carnatic (South Indian) traditions. While their styles and ornamentation differ, many foundational scales share exact equivalents between the Hindustani **Thaat** system (codified by V.N. Bhatkhande) and the

Q2. The artificially fixed rupee-sterling exchange rate prescribed by the Hilton-Young Commission (1926) was adopted by the British Government for which one of the following reasons ?

(A) Aiding the flow of remittances from India and maintaining India's creditworthiness ✓ Correct
(B) Providing support to Indian importers
(C) Encouraging export of cotton produce from India
(D) Preventing depreciation of the Rupee in terms of gold

Answer: Option (A). The **Hilton-Young Commission (1926)**, officially known as the Royal Commission on Indian Currency and Finance, recommended fixing the rupee-sterling exchange rate at an artificially high ratio of **1s 6d** (1 shilling 6 pence) per rupee, instead of the pre-war rate of 1s 4d. **Option A is correc

Q3. Consider the following statements : I. Pali texts contain the first definite references to coins, e.g., kahapana, nikkha, kamsa, and kakanika. II. The literary evidence from Pali texts is corroborated by archaeological evidence of punch-marked coins from many sites, most of them made of silver. The above statements have been associated with which of the following ? 1. Emergence of urban life 2. Transition to money economy Select the answer using the code given below :

(A) 1 only
(B) 2 only
(C) Both 1 and 2 ✓ Correct
(D) Neither 1 nor 2

Answer: Option (C). The introduction of coinage in ancient India, as evidenced by Pali texts and archaeological finds of punch-marked coins, is a hallmark of the 6th century BCE. This period is associated with two major socio-economic developments: **1. Emergence of urban life:** The widespread use of metallic money i

Q4. Which of the following temples has/have a Nagara-style shikhara ? 1. Malegitti Shivalaya, Badami 2. Huchimalligudi Temple, Aihole 3. Dashavatara Temple, Deogarh 4. Virupaksha Temple, Pattadakal Select the answer using the code given below :

(A) 1 and 2
(B) 2 and 3 ✓ Correct
(C) 3 only
(D) 3 and 4

Answer: Option (B). **Statement 1 is Incorrect:** The Malegitti Shivalaya in Badami, built by the Early Chalukyas in the late 7th century CE, is a classic **Dravida-style** temple. Its shikhara is octagonal and features typical southern architectural elements (such as kutas and shalas), rather than a Nagara spire. **S

Q5. Among the four main forms of existence of life recognized in Jainism, which one of the following is not included ?

(A) Deva (gods)
(B) Yaksha (demi-gods) ✓ Correct
(C) Manushya (humans)
(D) Tiryancha (animals and plants)

Answer: Option (B). In Jainism, the soul transmigrates through the cycle of birth and death (**Samsara**) based on its karmas. Upon death, a soul is reborn into one of four main destinies or states of existence, known as the **Four Gatis**. These four forms of existence are: 1. **Manushya Gati (Humans):** The most des

Q6. The Hallisalasya painting in the Bagh Caves represents :

(A) A joyous folk dance ✓ Correct
(B) Buddha in a meditative pose
(C) The depiction of Shiva and Parvati on Kailasha
(D) Samudramanthan (Churning of the Ocean)

Answer: Option (A). **Option A is correct:** The **Hallisalasya** painting, found on the outer wall of the continuous verandah connecting Caves 4 (known as the **Rang Mahal**) and 5 of the **Bagh Caves** in Madhya Pradesh, depicts a **joyous folk dance**. The mural vividly portrays a ring of female dancers keeping time

Q7. Consider the following statements relating to the use of the place-value system in India : 1. The earliest epigraphic use of the place-value system in India is found in the Mankani plates from Gujarat (AD 595 – 596). 2. In the ninth century, place-values become general in inscriptions all over India. 3. The place-values have been found in Sanskrit inscriptions in South-east Asia as early as the seventh century. Which of the statements given above are correct ?

(A) 1 and 2 only
(B) 1 and 3 only
(C) 2 and 3 only
(D) 1, 2 and 3 ✓ Correct

Answer: Option (D). **Statement 1 is Correct:** The earliest known epigraphic evidence of the decimal place-value system in India is found in the **Mankani copper-plate charter** of Taralasvamin from Gujarat, which is dated to the Kalachuri year 346 (approximately 594–596 CE). **Statement 2 is Correct:** Although the

Q8. Consider the following statements about the archaeological findings in Harappan towns : I. There is wide occurrence of spindle-whorls in the houses but absence of spinning wheels. II. Weights and measurement scales, complete with graduations have been discovered. III. There are houses built in large part with baked bricks, around relatively spacious courtyards, with their own wells, bathing platforms, and large rooms. Which of the following inferences can be drawn from the above statements ? 1. Statement I suggests that spinning was a laborious activity done at home. 2. Statement II suggests the extent of the scientific knowledge that the Harappans possessed. 3. Statement III suggests the emergence of a common property system. Select the answer using the code given below :

(A) 1 and 2 only ✓ Correct
(B) 2 and 3 only
(C) 1 and 3 only
(D) 1, 2 and 3

Answer: Option (A). **Inference 1 is Correct:** The wide occurrence of spindle-whorls in Harappan households indicates that spinning was a common domestic activity. The absence of the spinning wheel (which was introduced to India much later during the medieval period) meant that Harappans relied on hand-spinning using

Q9. Which one of the following statements about the Eka Movement and Bardoli Satyagraha is correct ?

(A) The Eka Movement was throughout supported and organized by the Congress while Bardoli Satyagraha was initially independent of Congress influence and was only in the last stages supported by the Congress.
(B) The Eka Movement was provided leadership by the taluqdars of Awadh, whereas the Bardoli Satyagraha was a movement of the landless labourers.
(C) The Bardoli Satyagraha was a campaign against the enhancement of land revenue, while the Eka Movement was a protest against excessive extraction of rents. ✓ Correct
(D) The Eka Movement was located in the Varanasi and Mirzapur districts of the present-day U.P., while the Bardoli Satyagraha took place in Saurashtra.

Answer: Option (C). **Option A is Incorrect:** The **Eka Movement** was initially supported by Congress and Khilafat leaders, but the Congress withdrew its support when the movement adopted militant tactics under the leadership of Madari Pasi. Conversely, the **Bardoli Satyagraha** was deeply integrated with Congress l

Q10. Consider the following statements about the Rigvedic period : I. Irrigation from wells allowed agriculture to expand away from flood plains and strips on river margins into the present Punjab and Haryana plains having underground water levels reasonably close to the surface. II. Draught-animal power was employed to draw up water out of the wells. Which of the following information support/supports the above statements ? 1. There is evidence in the Rigveda of the use of ashma chakra (stone pulley wheel) and ahava (strapped wooden pails) to draw up water. 2. Mention has been made in the Rigveda of the use of implements like parashu / kulisha (axe) and datra / sreni (sickle). 3. There is a history of the use of ox, even before the Rigveda, for ploughing the land and pulling the carts. Select the answer using the code given below :

(A) 1 and 2 only
(B) 1, 2 and 3
(C) 1 and 3 only ✓ Correct
(D) 3 only

Answer: Option (C). **Statement 1 is Correct:** The Rigveda contains references to the use of an **ashma chakra** (stone pulley wheel) and **ahava** (strapped wooden pails) to draw water from wells. This supports the idea that irrigation from wells allowed agriculture to expand away from flood plains into areas like Pu

Q11. Consider the following assertion : In the Pleistocene period either the Yamuna once flowed into the Indus, or the Sutlej flowed into the Yamuna and one major tributary of either had shifted from the Ganga to the Indus or vice versa. Which of the following is/are the basis of the above assertion ? 1. The Nadi-Sukta of the Rigveda 2. The explorations of the Sutlej and the Yamuna by Robert Bruce Foote 3. The presence of the same species of dolphins in both the Indus and the Ganga river systems Select the answer using the code given below :

(A) 1 only
(B) 2 only
(C) 1 and 2
(D) 3 ✓ Correct

Answer: Option (D). **Statement 1 is Incorrect:** The **Nadi-Sukta** of the Rigveda (Rigveda 10.75) lists rivers like the Ganga, Yamuna, Sarasvati, and Sutlej from east to west. It reflects Holocene (historical/human) geography, not Pleistocene geological shifts, which occurred long before the Vedic period. **Statemen

Q12. What does an empty seat represent in early Buddhist iconography ?

(A) The meditation of the Buddha ✓ Correct
(B) The Buddha's First Sermon
(C) The Buddha's Mahaparinibbana
(D) The Buddha's Mahabhinishkramana

Answer: Option (A). In early Buddhist art (such as at Sanchi, Bharhut, and Amaravati), the Buddha was not depicted in human form. Instead, sculptors used specific physical symbols to represent his presence and the major events of his life. This is known as the aniconic phase of Buddhist iconography. - **The meditation

Q13. Which of the following pairs of ancient and modern names of rivers is/are correctly matched ? 1. Vitasta : Chenab 2. Asikni : Jhelum 3. Parushni : Ravi 4. Yavyavati : Beas Select the answer using the code given below :

(A) 1 and 2
(B) 3 and 4
(C) 3 only ✓ Correct
(D) 4 only

Answer: Option (C). **Pair 1 is incorrectly matched:** The ancient Rigvedic name for the modern **Jhelum** river is **Vitasta**, not Chenab. **Pair 2 is incorrectly matched:** The ancient Rigvedic name for the modern **Chenab** river is **Asikni**, which translates to "dark-colored waters." **Pair 3 is correctly matc

Q14. Which of the following statements on the Amaravati Stupa and its relief sculpture is/are correct ? 1. It was located in the lower Krishna valley. 2. In India, it was next only to the Sanchi Stupa in size. 3. The Amaravati school of sculpture made a lasting impact on the later South Indian sculpture, and its products were carried to Sri Lanka and South-east Asia. Select the answer using the code given below :

(A) 1 only
(B) 1 and 3 only ✓ Correct
(C) 2 and 3 only
(D) 1, 2 and 3

Answer: Option (B). **Statement 1 is Correct:** The Amaravati Stupa, historically known as the *Maha Chaitya*, is located in the **lower Krishna River valley** in the Guntur district of modern-day Andhra Pradesh. **Statement 2 is Incorrect:** The Amaravati Stupa was actually **larger** than the Great Stupa at Sanchi.

Q15. Which of the following pairs of the king and his dynasty in early historical Tamilakam is/are not correctly matched ? 1. Senguttuvan : Chera 2. Udiyanjeral : Chola 3. Nedunjeliyan : Pandya Select the answer using the code given below :

(A) 1 and 2
(B) 2 only ✓ Correct
(C) 1 and 3
(D) 3 only

Answer: Option (B). **Pair 1 is correctly matched:** Senguttuvan (also known as Cheran Senguttuvan or the Red Chera) was a prominent ruler of the **Chera dynasty**. He is celebrated in the Tamil epic *Silappadikaram* and is credited with establishing the Pattini (Kannagi) cult. **Pair 2 is incorrectly matched:** Udiya

Q16. Which of the following factors contributed to the formation of the Forward Bloc by Subhas Chandra Bose in 1939 ? 1. Bose failed to win the confidence of Mahatma Gandhi. 2. The Congress Left was disunited and failed to support Bose. 3. The Communists did not support Bose in his endeavours. 4. The supporters of M.N. Roy and socialist leaders like Jayaprakash Narayan preferred Congress unity to supporting Bose. Select the answer using the code given below :

(A) 1, 2 and 3
(B) 1, 2 and 4 ✓ Correct
(C) 1, 3 and 4
(D) 2 and 4 only

Answer: Option (B). **Statement 1 is Correct:** Subhas Chandra Bose failed to win the confidence of Mahatma Gandhi. After Bose's re-election as INC President in 1939, Gandhi declared the defeat of his candidate, Pattabhi Sitaramayya, as his own defeat, indicating a lack of confidence in Bose. **Statement 2 is Correct:

Q17. Consider the following statements regarding the British policy in Awadh immediately after its annexation in 1856 : 1. The taluqdars were dispossessed of their estates but allowed to retain their arms and forts. 2. A Summary Revenue Settlement was made in 1856 assuming that the taluqdars were outsiders. 3. The British believed in taking revenue directly from the peasants by removing the taluqdars. Which of the statements given above is/are correct ?

(A) 2 and 3 only ✓ Correct
(B) 1 and 3 only
(C) 1, 2 and 3
(D) 2 only

Answer: Option (A). **Statement 1 is Incorrect:** Prior to the annexation, Awadh's landed aristocracy (**taluqdars**) maintained private armies and forts. Immediately after the British took over in 1856, they were systematically dispossessed of their estates, **disarmed, and their forts were completely destroyed**. **

Q18. Consider the following assertion : The genesis of political alliances based on community lay in the very nature of the Montague-Chelmsford Reforms, 1919. Which of the following statements support/supports the above assertion ? 1. Reforms retained and extended the principle of separate electorates. 2. Separate electorates were supposed to counter Indian nationalism, which was growing stronger. 3. Deprived classes rallied around the favours inherent in separate electorates. Select the answer using the code given below :

(A) 1 only
(B) 2 and 3 only
(C) 1 and 2 only
(D) 1, 2 and 3 ✓ Correct

Answer: Option (D). **Statement 1 is Correct:** The Montagu-Chelmsford Reforms (Government of India Act, 1919) not only retained the separate electorates for Muslims (first introduced by the Morley-Minto Reforms of 1909) but explicitly extended them to Sikhs, Indian Christians, Anglo-Indians, and Europeans. This instit

Q19. Pandit Mallikarjun Mansur, the famous classical singer from Karnataka, represented the :

(A) Agra Gharana
(B) Gwalior Gharana
(C) Patiala Gharana
(D) Jaipur-Atrauli Gharana ✓ Correct

Answer: Option (D). **Pandit Mallikarjun Mansur** (1910–1992) was a legendary Hindustani classical vocalist born in the Dharwad district of Karnataka. He is universally recognized as one of the foremost stalwarts of the **Jaipur-Atrauli Gharana**. - **Agra Gharana** is incorrect. This gharana was founded by Haji Suja

Q20. In which one among the following texts does the term kshetra-patni ('mistress of the field') originate ?

(A) Rigveda
(B) Atharvaveda ✓ Correct
(C) Ashtadhyayi
(D) Arthashastra

Answer: Option (B). The term **kshetra-patni** translates to "mistress of the field" (**kshetra** meaning field or land, and **patni** meaning mistress or wife). It is an agricultural deity associated with fertility and the evolving concept of land possession in ancient India. **Atharvaveda** is the correct answer. Th

Q21. Consider the following statements with reference to India's response to climate change : I. India's Long-Term Low Emission Development Strategy (LT-LEDS) is a crucial tool for achieving net-zero emissions by 2070. II. India's 4th Biennial Update Report (BUR-4) submitted in December, 2024 recorded around 8% decrease in Greenhouse gas emissions in 2020 over 2019. III. Climate-resilient development necessarily depends on quick and short-term achievement of emission reduction targets. Which of the following relationships among the above statements is/are correct ? 1. Statement I is empirically supported by statement II. 2. Statement III contradicts the approach implicit in statement I. 3. Statement I and statement III together establish the premise of long-term sustainability. Select the answer using the code given below :

(A) 1 only
(B) 1 and 2 ✓ Correct
(C) 2 and 3
(D) 3 only

Answer: Option (B). **Statement I is Correct:** India's Long-Term Low Emission Development Strategy (LT-LEDS) is indeed a crucial tool for achieving net-zero emissions by 2070. It outlines the strategic framework necessary for sectoral transitions in energy, transport, industry, and forestry to meet this long-term goal

Q22. With respect to the Western Hoolock Gibbons, which of the following statements is/are correct? 1. A Sanctuary in North-east India is home to this ape species listed as Endangered in the International Union for Conservation of Nature (IUCN) Red List. 2. They have specialized brachiation and can easily swing between trees. 3. They possess a strong and heavy build like gorillas, yet are remarkably agile tree climbers. Select the answer using the code given below:

(A) 1 only
(B) 1 and 2 ✓ Correct
(C) 2 and 3
(D) 3 only

Answer: Option (B). **Statement 1 is Correct:** The Western Hoolock Gibbon is native to North-east India, and the **Hollongapar Gibbon Sanctuary** in Assam is a prominent protected area specifically dedicated to this species. Furthermore, the Western Hoolock Gibbon is classified as **Endangered** on the IUCN Red List.

Q23. Which of the following best explain(s) the rationale for protecting mangrove ecosystems in the context of climate resilience? 1. Mangroves reduce tidal energy and store freshwater, making them ideal sites for paddy cultivation in saline estuarine belts. 2. Their salt-sensitive roots filter seawater, making mangroves key to converting coastal land into freshwater aquaculture zones. 3. By withstanding tidal surges and offering biomass resources, mangroves function both as natural bio-shields and livelihood bases for rural communities. Select the answer using the code given below:

(A) 1 only
(B) 1 and 2
(C) 2 and 3
(D) 3 only ✓ Correct

Answer: Option (D). **Statement 1 is Incorrect:** Mangroves do not store freshwater, nor are they naturally suited for paddy cultivation. In fact, the clearing of mangrove forests to create agricultural land (like paddy fields) has historically been a primary driver of their destruction, rather than a reason for their

Q24. In what way(s) does the Vizhinjam International Seaport represent a structural shift in India's maritime trade and logistics policy? 1. By functioning exclusively as a domestic cargo hub to reduce reliance on coastal shipping and eliminate the need for foreign collaborations. 2. By focusing primarily on passenger cruise tourism and heritage shipping to increase Kerala's profile as a maritime heritage destination. 3. By leveraging its natural deep draft and strategic location to reduce dependence on foreign trans-shipment ports, enhance revenue retention, and reposition India in regional maritime trade. Select the answer using the code given below:

(A) 1 only
(B) 1 and 2
(C) 2 and 3
(D) 3 only ✓ Correct

Answer: Option (D). **Statement 1 is Incorrect:** The Vizhinjam International Seaport is designed as an international container transshipment hub, not an exclusively domestic cargo hub. Rather than reducing reliance on coastal shipping, a transshipment hub relies heavily on a "hub-and-spoke" model, where large mother s

Q25. Identify the river of the Indian sub-continent on the basis of the following information: 1. It has an antecedent drainage system. 2. It flows through three countries. 3. It originates in the Tibetan Plateau and is an important river for irrigation. 4. It does not form distributaries. Select the answer from the following:

(A) Brahmaputra
(B) Indus
(C) Sutlej ✓ Correct
(D) Teesta

Answer: Option (C). The **Sutlej** perfectly matches all the given criteria. - **Antecedent drainage system:** Rivers like the **Indus**, **Brahmaputra**, and **Sutlej** are classic examples of antecedent drainage, as they existed before the Himalayan upliftment and maintained their courses by cutting deep gorges. - *

Q26. Which of the following with reference to Indian States is/are not correct? 1. Uttar Pradesh shares its boundary with the highest number of other Indian States. 2. Rajasthan shares the longest international border among all Indian States. 3. Sikkim is the only State that shares its boundary with just one other Indian State. Select the answer using the code given below:

(A) 1 only
(B) 1 and 2
(C) 2 and 3 ✓ Correct
(D) 3 only

Answer: Option (C). **Statement 1 is Correct:** Uttar Pradesh shares its boundary with the highest number of Indian jurisdictions. It borders **8 states** (Uttarakhand, Himachal Pradesh, Haryana, Rajasthan, Madhya Pradesh, Chhattisgarh, Jharkhand, Bihar) and **1 Union Territory** (Delhi). **Statement 2 is Incorrect:**

Q27. Which of the following statements with regard to the arrival of Amur Falcons at Doyang Lake in Nagaland each year from Mongolia is/are correct? 1. It showcases how sustained local conservation efforts can contribute to the arrival and protection of international migratory birds. 2. It reflects the global success of advanced tracking technologies that guide migratory birds back to their stopover sites. 3. It confirms that Amur Falcons have adapted to permanent residency in India due to favourable habitat changes. Select the answer using the code given below:

(A) 1 only ✓ Correct
(B) 1 and 2
(C) 2 and 3
(D) 3 only

Answer: Option (A). **Statement 1 is Correct:** Doyang Lake in Nagaland represents a major community-led conservation victory. Previously, hundreds of thousands of Amur Falcons were trapped and hunted annually. Following sustained interventions by conservationists, NGOs, and the Nagaland Forest Department, local commun

Q28. Which among the following is/are the objective(s) of the Rainfed Area Development (RAD) initiative under the National Mission for Sustainable Agriculture (NMSA)? 1. Encouraging monoculture in rainfed areas 2. Increasing rice cultivation in irrigated regions 3. Enhancing productivity and minimising climatic risks through Integrated Farming Systems (IFS) Select the answer using the code given below:

(A) 1 only
(B) 1 and 2
(C) 2 and 3
(D) 3 only ✓ Correct

Answer: Option (D). **Statement 1 is Incorrect:** The Rainfed Area Development (RAD) scheme explicitly promotes **Integrated Farming Systems (IFS)** rather than monoculture. It integrates multi-cropping and rotational cropping with allied activities like horticulture, livestock, fishery, and agro-forestry to diversify

Q29. Which of the following is/are the most significant implication(s) of obtaining Oeko-Tex certification for Eri Silk in the global textile industry? 1. It allows Indian exporters to compete in high-end markets that prioritise chemical-free products. 2. It confirms that Eri Silk meets international safety, environmental, and quality standards, enabling its entry into premium eco-conscious markets. Select the answer using the code given below:

(A) 1 only
(B) 2 only
(C) Both 1 and 2 ✓ Correct
(D) Neither 1 nor 2

Answer: Option (C). **Statement 1 is Correct:** The **OEKO-TEX certification** ensures that textiles are rigorously tested and proven free from harmful substances, heavy metals, and toxic chemicals. This certification acts as a major endorsement, directly enhancing the global marketability of **Eri Silk** and allowing

Q30. Ships from which of the following countries have to cross the Strait of Hormuz to reach out to the Indian Ocean? 1. Bahrain 2. Syria 3. Qatar 4. Egypt Select the answer using the code given below:

(A) 1 and 2
(B) 1 and 3 ✓ Correct
(C) 2 and 3
(D) 3 and 4

Answer: Option (B). **Statement 1 is Correct:** **Bahrain** is an island nation situated entirely within the **Persian Gulf**. The **Strait of Hormuz** is the only sea passage connecting the Persian Gulf to the Gulf of Oman and the open ocean. Therefore, for a ship departing from Bahrain to reach the Indian Ocean, it m

Q31. Tungurahua Volcano, which was declared a Global Geopark by UNESCO in 2025, is situated in which one among the following countries ?

(A) Ecuador ✓ Correct
(B) Peru
(C) Bolivia
(D) Colombia

Answer: Option (A). **Ecuador** is the correct answer. The **Tungurahua Volcano**, whose name translates to "Throat of Fire" in the indigenous Quichua language, is a highly active stratovolcano located in the Cordillera Oriental of the central Andes in **Ecuador**. In April 2025, the volcano and its surrounding territo

Q32. With reference to Madhav National Park, which of the following statements is/are correct ? 1. It was declared a Tiger Reserve in India in 2025. 2. Sakhya Sagar, which is designated as a Ramsar Site, is situated within this National Park. 3. Its area is shared between Madhya Pradesh and Rajasthan. Select the answer using the code given below :

(A) 1 only
(B) 1 and 2 ✓ Correct
(C) 2 and 3
(D) 3 only

Answer: Option (B). **Statement 1 is Correct:** Madhav National Park was officially declared as India's **58th Tiger Reserve** (and the 9th in Madhya Pradesh) by the Union Environment Ministry in March 2025, following a successful tiger reintroduction program that began in 2023. **Statement 2 is Correct:** **Sakhya Sa

Q33. With reference to the climate of Andaman and Nicobar Islands, which of the following statements is/are correct ? 1. The climate can be defined as a humid, tropical coastal climate. 2. It receives rainfall from both South-west monsoon and North-east monsoon. 3. Maximum precipitation is between December and May. Select the answer using the code given below :

(A) 1 only
(B) 1 and 2 ✓ Correct
(C) 2 and 3
(D) 3 only

Answer: Option (B). **Statement 1 is Correct:** The Andaman and Nicobar Islands feature a **humid, tropical coastal climate**. Due to their equatorial proximity and oceanic surroundings, they experience uniform warm temperatures (averaging 23°C to 31°C) and high relative humidity (approximately 80%) year-round. **Stat

Q34. Which of the following geographical features or phenomena is/are associated with the Peninsular Block of India ? 1. Submergence of parts of the western coast due to tectonic activity 2. Presence of residual mountain ranges such as the Veliconda hills and Mahendragiri hills 3. Deep, V-shaped river valleys formed by fast-flowing rivers Select the answer using the code given below :

(A) 1 only
(B) 1 and 2 ✓ Correct
(C) 2 and 3
(D) 3 only

Answer: Option (B). **Statement 1 is Correct:** During the Early Tertiary period, the western flank of the Peninsular block underwent tectonic subsidence (sinking). This led to its partial submergence beneath the sea, which formed the current submerged western coastline and disturbed the original symmetrical river patt

Q35. Consider the following statements with reference to the Sagarmala Programme of the Government of India : I. The Sagarmala Programme seeks to achieve port-led economic growth through cost-effective and sustainable coastal infrastructure. II. The success of the Sagarmala Programme is reflected in significant growth in coastal and inland waterway shipping, along with improved global port rankings. III. Sagarmala 2.0 aims to position India as a global maritime innovation hub aligned with Atmanirbhar Bharat and Viksit Bharat 2047 visions. Which of the following relationships among the above statements is/are correct ? 1. Statement II validates the effectiveness of the strategies envisioned in statement I. 2. Statement III extends the objectives of statement I by embedding them into a future-oriented innovation framework. 3. Statement I contradicts statement III by focusing only on traditional infrastructure instead of modern innovation. Select the answer using the code given below :

(A) 1 only
(B) 1 and 2 ✓ Correct
(C) 2 and 3
(D) 3 only

Answer: Option (B). **Relationship 1 is Correct:** Statement I outlines the core objective of the Sagarmala Programme, launched in 2015, which is **port-led economic development** through cost-effective and sustainable coastal infrastructure. Statement II provides empirical evidence of its success, such as the 118% gro

Q36. Consider the following statements about Rhynchostylis retusa (Foxtail orchid) : 1. It is an epiphytic orchid. 2. The species is endemic to North-east India. 3. It is the State flower of Arunachal Pradesh and Assam. Which of the statements given above is/are correct ?

(A) 1 only
(B) 1 and 3 ✓ Correct
(C) 2 and 3
(D) 3 only

Answer: Option (B). **Statement 1 is Correct:** *Rhynchostylis retusa* (commonly known as the Foxtail orchid) is an **epiphytic orchid**. It grows on the trunks and branches of trees in open forests, using the host tree for physical support and absorbing moisture from the air, rather than acting as a parasite. **State

Q37. Which one of the following statements with regard to the Moidams, built by the Tai-Ahom kingdom and inscribed as a World Heritage Site by UNESCO, is/are correct ? 1. They acted as army fortresses. 2. They were recreation centres of the Royals and Nobles. 3. They were burial grounds of the Royals and Nobles. 4. They were battle drill centres of the Royals and Nobles. Select the answer using the code given below :

(A) 1 only
(B) 1 and 3
(C) 3 only ✓ Correct
(D) 2 and 4

Answer: Option (C). **Statement 1 is Incorrect:** **Moidams** (or Maidams) were not used as army fortresses. They are traditional mound-burial systems (tumuli) of the Tai-Ahom religion. **Statement 2 is Incorrect:** They did not serve as recreation centres for the Royals and Nobles. **Statement 3 is Correct:** **Moid

Q38. At the United Nations Ocean Conference (UNOC) held in June, 2025 in France, the Food and Agricultural Organization (FAO) of the United Nations demonstrated its leading voice on marine and ocean issues, especially on sustainable fisheries and aquaculture for resilient livelihood and "Blue Transformation". Which of the following combinations about the "Four Betters" proposed by FAO for "Blue Transformation" is correct ?

(A) Better production, better nutrition, better environment and better ocean
(B) Better production, better nutrition, better environment and better life ✓ Correct
(C) Better coral reefs, better nutrition, better environment and better life
(D) Better estuaries, better nutrition, better environment and better mangrove vegetation

Answer: Option (B). The **Food and Agriculture Organization (FAO)** of the United Nations guides its global work through a strategic framework aimed at supporting the 2030 Agenda for Sustainable Development. The core organizing principle of this framework is the transformation to more efficient, inclusive, resilient, a

Q39. Which of the following statements with reference to Lake Turkana is/are correct ? 1. It is the largest desert lake in the world. 2. The lake is situated in South Sudan along the eastern fringe of the Sahara desert. 3. The lake is listed as a UNESCO World Heritage Site and is also referred to as the 'Jade Sea'. Select the answer using the code given below :

(A) 1 only
(B) 1 and 3 only ✓ Correct
(C) 2 and 3 only
(D) 1, 2 and 3

Answer: Option (B). **Statement 1 is correct:** Lake Turkana is the world's largest permanent desert lake and the world's largest alkaline lake. By volume, it is also the fourth-largest salt lake globally. **Statement 2 is incorrect:** The lake is situated in the Great Rift Valley of East Africa. It lies predominantly

Q40. Which one of the following is the first Plan Vivo certified Reducing Emissions from Deforestation and Forest Degradation (REDD+) project in India ?

(A) Uttarakhand REDD+ project
(B) ICFRE-ICIMOD Transboundary REDD+ project in North-Eastern Himalayas
(C) Khasi Hills Community REDD+ project ✓ Correct
(D) Sikkim Mamley Kamrang Community REDD+ project

Answer: Option (C). The **Khasi Hills Community REDD+ Project** holds the distinction of being India’s very first REDD+ (Reducing Emissions from Deforestation and Forest Degradation) project. It is certified under the **Plan Vivo Standard**, a globally recognized, fair-trade-styled framework specifically designed for

Q41. Which of the following statements with regard to genetic medicine is/are correct ? 1. Genetic medicines correct/compensate for the faulty genes responsible for disease. 2. Engineered viruses and lipid nanoparticles are used as carriers of the genetic medicine. 3. Genetic medicines alter the entire DNA sequence. Select the answer using the code given below :

(A) 1 only
(B) 2 and 3 only
(C) 1 and 2 only ✓ Correct
(D) 1, 2 and 3

Answer: Option (C). **Statement 1 is Correct:** Genetic medicines (such as gene therapy and gene editing) treat or prevent diseases at their root cause. They work by introducing, removing, or changing genetic material to **correct or compensate for faulty or missing genes** responsible for a disease. **Statement 2 is

Q42. Which of the following statements with regard to Large Language Models (LLMs) used in machine learning is/are correct ? 1. LLMs assign probabilities to the next possible words and then pick the one with the highest probability. 2. LLMs process data through mathematical optimization to minimise prediction errors. 3. LLMs produce unbiased outputs. Select the answer using the code given below :

(A) 1 only
(B) 1 and 2 only ✓ Correct
(C) 2 and 3 only
(D) 1, 2 and 3

Answer: Option (B). **Statement 1 is Correct:** At their core, Large Language Models (LLMs) function by analyzing input context and calculating a statistical probability distribution for the next possible words (tokens) in a sequence. In their most basic form of text generation (known as "greedy decoding"), they pick t

Q43. Which of the following statements with regard to stealth technology is/are correct ? 1. Stealth objects have a very small radar cross-section and are coated with Radar Absorbing Material. 2. Stealth objects can be detected using specific frequencies. 3. Stealth objects are coated with metamaterials to increase the scattering of electromagnetic radiation. Select the answer using the code given below :

(A) 1 only
(B) 2 and 3 only
(C) 1 and 2 only ✓ Correct
(D) 1, 2 and 3

Answer: Option (C). **Statement 1 is Correct:** The primary goal of stealth technology is to minimize an object's **Radar Cross-Section (RCS)**, making it appear as small as a bird or insect on enemy screens. This is achieved through geometric shaping (to deflect waves away from the source) and by coating the surface w

Q44. Which of the following statements with regard to Black Boxes used in modern aircrafts is/are correct ? 1. They carry a beacon emitting red light pulses to facilitate underwater detection. 2. They record both the cockpit voice and flight data. 3. Their memory units are made using either stainless steel or titanium. Select the answer using the code given below :

(A) 1 only
(B) 2 and 3 only ✓ Correct
(C) 1 and 2 only
(D) 1, 2 and 3

Answer: Option (B). **Statement 1 is Incorrect:** Black boxes are equipped with an Underwater Locator Beacon (ULB). When immersed in water, the ULB activates and emits an **acoustic (ultrasonic) pulse** (typically at 37.5 kHz) to guide sonar-equipped searchers. It does not emit light pulses, as light cannot travel effe

Q45. Which of the following statements with regard to Green Hydrogen is/are correct ? 1. It is decarbonized hydrogen obtained from natural gas reforming combined with carbon capture and storage (CCS). 2. It is produced using electrolysis of water with electricity generated by renewable energy. 3. National Green Hydrogen Mission of India aims for abatement of nearly 50 MMT of annual greenhouse gas emissions by 2030. Select the answer using the code given below :

(A) 1 only
(B) 2 and 3 only ✓ Correct
(C) 2 only
(D) 1, 2 and 3

Answer: Option (B). **Statement 1 is Incorrect:** Hydrogen obtained from fossil fuels (primarily natural gas) through steam methane reforming, where the resulting carbon emissions are captured and stored using Carbon Capture and Storage (CCS) technologies, is known as **Blue Hydrogen**, not Green Hydrogen. **Statement

Q46. Consider the following statements with regard to involvement of private entities in India's space programme : 1. The Indian National Space Promotion and Authorisation Centre (IN-SPACe) is an autonomous agency formed to facilitate participation of private entities. 2. Agnikul Cosmos launched the world's first flight using 3D-printed rocket engine. 3. Skyroot Aerospace has developed liquid fuel for GSLV. Which of the statements given above is/are correct ?

(A) 1 only
(B) 2 and 3 only
(C) 1 and 2 only ✓ Correct
(D) 1, 2 and 3

Answer: Option (C). **Statement 1 is Correct:** The **Indian National Space Promotion and Authorisation Centre (IN-SPACe)** was established in 2020 as an autonomous, single-window nodal agency under the **Department of Space (DOS)**. Its primary mandate is to promote, authorize, and facilitate the participation of priv

Q47. Which of the following statements with regard to drone swarms is/are correct ? 1. They use Terahertz band of frequency to communicate with the command centre. 2. Individual drones in the swarm can communicate with other drones in the swarm. 3. GPS Spoofing is a commonly used technique to counter drone swarm attack. Select the answer using the code given below :

(A) 1 only
(B) 2 and 3 only ✓ Correct
(C) 1 and 2 only
(D) 1, 2 and 3

Answer: Option (B). **Statement 1 is Incorrect:** Drones typically communicate with ground command centres using standard **Radio Frequency (RF) bands** (e.g., UHF, S-band, L-band) or **Satellite Communications (SATCOM)** to ensure reliable, long-range connectivity. The **Terahertz (THz) band** is an emerging, highly e

Q48. Which of the following statements with regard to GenomeIndia Project is/are correct ? 1. It is a part of the Human Genome Project. 2. The project is funded by the Department of Biotechnology (DBT), Government of India. 3. Its primary aim is to build a catalogue of genetic diversity of the Indian population. Select the answer using the code given below :

(A) 1 only
(B) 2 and 3 only ✓ Correct
(C) 1 and 2 only
(D) 1, 2 and 3

Answer: Option (B). **Statement 1 is Incorrect:** The **GenomeIndia Project** is an independent, pan-India initiative launched in January 2020. It is not a part of the international **Human Genome Project** (which was a global effort that ran from 1990 to 2003). Instead, it was inspired by the Human Genome Project to a

Q49. Which of the following statements with regard to the National Quantum Mission (NQM) is/are correct? 1. It aims at developing intermediate-scale quantum computers with 50-1000 physical qubits. 2. Its implementation includes setting up of four Thematic Hubs (T-Hubs) in academic and national R&D institutes across India. Select the answer using the code given below:

(A) 1 only
(B) 2 only
(C) Both 1 and 2 ✓ Correct
(D) Neither 1 nor 2

Answer: Option (C). **Statement 1 is Correct:** The **National Quantum Mission (NQM)** aims to develop intermediate-scale quantum computers with **50 to 1000 physical qubits** within 8 years. Specifically, it targets 50–100 physical qubits in 5 years and scales up to 50–1000 physical qubits in 8 years using platforms l

Q50. Which of the following statements with regard to India's Deep Ocean Mission is/are correct? 1. It was launched by the Ministry of Ports, Shipping and Waterways, Government of India. 2. Matsya-6000 has been designed to carry 3 people for deep sea exploration. 3. Samudrayaan is a project under this mission. Select the answer using the code given below:

(A) 1 only
(B) 2 and 3 only ✓ Correct
(C) 1 and 2 only
(D) 1, 2 and 3

Answer: Option (B). **Statement 1 is Incorrect:** The **Deep Ocean Mission (DOM)** is a flagship initiative launched and implemented by the **Ministry of Earth Sciences (MoES)**, Government of India, not the Ministry of Ports, Shipping and Waterways. **Statement 2 is Correct:** **Matsya-6000** is an indigenous manned

Q51. Mr. X, a senior officer, was overseeing a critical vaccination programme during a pandemic. He found that a private service provider responsible for vaccine distribution was compromising on quality to make profits. Despite immense pressure to manage the issue due to vested interests, he raised his voice based on the principles of public administration which he learnt during various training programmes attended across his career. He reported the issue to the appropriate vigilance authority and halted the contract to ensure citizen welfare. Which one among the following principles of public administration was most strongly demonstrated by Mr. X's actions?

(A) Esprit de corps
(B) Equity
(C) Accountability ✓ Correct
(D) Delegation

Answer: Option (C). **Accountability** is the obligation of public officials to take responsibility for their actions, ensure transparency, and answer to oversight bodies (such as vigilance authorities). It involves actively protecting the public interest, reporting misconduct, and ensuring that private contractors uti

Q52. In a multi-ethnic district where both economic competition and historical grievances frequently led to community tensions, a flashpoint has arisen with a Government decision to allocate land for a waste management facility near a tribal hamlet, sparking protests by the tribal community, which claimed that the land was sacred and critical to their cultural identity. At the same time, urban residents and local industries supported the project, citing severe solid waste challenges and health concerns due to lack of a proper disposal site. The conflict has escalated with road blockades, social media campaigns, and allegations of police excesses. As a responsible Government official, you are tasked with resolving the situation through mediation, ensuring a sustainable outcome that balances environmental needs, tribal rights, and urban public health. Consider the following statements with reference to the above: 1. A successful conflict resolution process must begin with acknowledging the cultural concerns of the protesting tribal community before discussing technical alternatives. 2. The Government should move ahead with the project without delay to address urban health concerns, which outweigh the sentiments of a small group. 3. Creating a multi-stakeholder dialogue platform — including tribal leaders, environmental experts, and municipal representatives — to build mutual understanding and help de-escalate tensions. 4. Conducting an independent Environmental and Social Impact Assessment (ESIA) and sharing findings transparently with both sides to facilitate evidence-based decision-making. Which of the statements given above would contribute to the resolution process?

(A) 1, 3 and 4 only ✓ Correct
(B) 2, 3 and 4 only
(C) 1 and 2 only
(D) 1, 2, 3 and 4

Answer: Option (A). **Statement 1 is Correct:** In standard mediation and conflict resolution practices, acknowledging the emotional, historical, and cultural grievances of marginalized groups is a necessary first step. Validating the tribal community's cultural concerns helps build trust and creates a conducive enviro

Q53. Ms. X is a mid-level civil service official working in the urban development department of a major city. Recently, she was involved in approving a contract for a public infrastructure project — a new community park. During the approval process, she received a piece of confidential information indicating that one of the shortlisted contractors had a history of poor workmanship and allegations of corruption in other cities, though nothing had been legally proven. The Head of the Department, Mr. Y, advised her not to disclose this information to the project committee or the public because it could delay the project and damage the city's reputation. However, Ms. X believed that withholding such information compromised transparency and public trust. What amongst the following should Ms. X do now? 1. Immediately disclose the information to the project committee and the public 2. Recommend removing the contractor from the shortlist to protect the project's integrity 3. Propose a 'limited disclosure' to an oversight committee, while keeping the information confidential from the public for the time being Select the answer using the code given below:

(A) 1 and 2 only
(B) 3 only ✓ Correct
(C) 2 and 3 only
(D) 1, 2 and 3

Answer: Option (B). **Statement 1 is Incorrect:** The information received by Ms. X is confidential and the allegations are legally unproven. Immediately disclosing unverified information to the public violates the **Central Civil Services (Conduct) Rules** regarding confidentiality. It could lead to defamation, unwarr

Q54. X' was addressing a seminar on the meaning of the term 'law' as provided under Article 13, Part III of the Constitution of India. 'X' explained that the meaning of the term 'law' in the Constitution of India was very comprehensive. It included ordinances, orders and even rules and regulations. 'Y' pointed out that the term 'law' in Article 13 also included custom or usage having in the territory of India the force of law, to which 'X' was not convinced. Based on the above, select the correct conclusion from the options given below :

(A) 'X' is correct in the interpretation of law, including the view on non-inclusion of custom.
(B) The view of 'Y' that 'law' included custom is not correct.
(C) The views of both 'X' and 'Y' are correct.
(D) The view of only 'Y' is correct. ✓ Correct

Answer: Option (D). Article 13 of the Indian Constitution provides for the protection of Fundamental Rights and declares that any law inconsistent with or in derogation of Part III of the Constitution shall be void to the extent of the inconsistency. To prevent the State from bypassing Fundamental Rights through execu

Q55. Consider the following statements with reference to the Constitution of India : 1. There is no Article in the Constitution of India that specifies that the Constitution of India will be officially called the 'Constitution of India'. 2. There is no Article in the Constitution of India that specifies that the Indian Independence Act, 1947 and the Government of India Act, 1935 stand repealed. 3. There is no Article in the Constitution of India that mentions 26th January, 1950 as the date of the commencement of the Constitution of India. Which one of the following conclusions based on the above statements is correct ?

(A) All three statements are correct.
(B) There is no correct statement. ✓ Correct
(C) There are two correct statements that include statement 3.
(D) There is only one correct statement.

Answer: Option (B). **Statement 1 is Incorrect:** Article 393 of the Constitution explicitly specifies its short title. It states verbatim, "This Constitution may be called the Constitution of India." **Statement 2 is Incorrect:** Article 395 of the Constitution contains a specific provision repealing foundational col

Q56. Which of the following statements with regard to the persons with disabilities in India is/are correct ? 1. The Rights of Persons with Disabilities Act, an Act passed by the Parliament of India in 2018, mandates reservation in education and employment, places a legal duty on Governments to ensure accessibility and non-discrimination. 2. The Sugamya Bharat Abhiyan focuses on achieving universal accessibility for Persons with Disabilities across three key domains — built infrastructure, transport systems and information and communication technology. 3. The National Divyangjan Finance and Development Corporation (NDFDC) is a public sector organisation set up by the Ministry of Corporate Affairs as a not-for-profit company to promote entrepreneurship among Persons with Disabilities (PwDs). Select the answer using the code given below :

(A) 1 and 2
(B) 2 only ✓ Correct
(C) 1 and 3
(D) 1 only

Answer: Option (B). **Statement 1 is Incorrect:** The **Rights of Persons with Disabilities (RPwD) Act** was passed by the Parliament of India in **2016**, not 2018. It aligns with the UN Convention on the Rights of Persons with Disabilities and places a legal obligation on governments to ensure non-discrimination and

Q57. Consider the following statements about the provisions pertaining to the Scheduled Castes and the Scheduled Tribes in India : 1. Provisions regarding the administration of the Tribal Areas in the States of Assam, Meghalaya, Tripura and Mizoram are given in the Fifth Schedule of the Constitution of India. 2. Some tribes of India are entitled to exemption from paying Income Tax on certain incomes. 3. The Constitution of India provides for reservation of seats in Panchayats for women belonging to the Scheduled Castes and the Scheduled Tribes. Which one of the following conclusions based on the above statements is correct ?

(A) There are two correct statements, that include statement 2. ✓ Correct
(B) There are two correct statements, that are statements 1 and 3.
(C) There is only one correct statement.
(D) All three statements are correct.

Answer: Option (A). **Statement 1 is Incorrect:** The **Sixth Schedule** (Article 244(2)) of the Indian Constitution specifically governs the administration of Tribal Areas in the four northeastern states of **Assam, Meghalaya, Tripura, and Mizoram**. The **Fifth Schedule** (Article 244(1)) applies to the administratio

Q58. Consider the following statements in respect of questions asked by the Members in the Parliament of India : 1. Unstarred questions are those to which a Member desires an oral answer in the House. 2. Starred questions are those to which a Member desires a written answer. 3. No supplementary question can be asked on an unstarred question. Which one of the following conclusions based on the above statements is correct ?

(A) All the three statements are correct.
(B) There are two correct statements, that include statement 2.
(C) There is only one correct statement. ✓ Correct
(D) There is no correct statement.

Answer: Option (C). **Statement 1 is Incorrect:** **Unstarred questions** are those to which a Member desires a **written answer**, not an oral answer. The written reply is deemed to be laid on the Table of the House by the concerned Minister. **Statement 2 is Incorrect:** **Starred questions** (distinguished by an as

Q59. Consider the following statements about the Committee on the Welfare of Scheduled Castes and Scheduled Tribes of the Parliament of India: 1. Although members of this Committee are elected from both Houses of Parliament, the Chairperson of this Committee is appointed by the Chairman of the Rajya Sabha. 2. Twenty members are elected by the Rajya Sabha and ten members by the Lok Sabha. 3. No Minister, except for the Union Minister of Social Justice and Empowerment, is eligible to be a member of this Committee. 4. Members are elected for a fixed term of two years from the date they enter their office. Which one of the following conclusions based on the above statements is correct ?

(A) There are four correct statements.
(B) There is only one correct statement, that is statement 2.
(C) There are two correct statements, that include statement 1.
(D) There is no correct statement. ✓ Correct

Answer: Option (D). **Statement 1 is Incorrect:** The Chairperson of the Committee on the Welfare of Scheduled Castes and Scheduled Tribes is appointed by the **Speaker of the Lok Sabha** from amongst its members, not by the Chairman of the Rajya Sabha. **Statement 2 is Incorrect:** The Committee consists of **30 memb

Q60. Consider the following statements about Mission Sudarshan Chakra of India: 1. It aims to enhance India's air defence, ballistic missile defence and aerial offensive capabilities. 2. This Mission is being designed to enhance rapid, precise, and powerful defence responses, reinforcing India's strategic autonomy. 3. One of the aims of this Mission is to cover all public places of India by an expanded nationwide security shield by 2035. Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

(A) 1, 2 and 3 ✓ Correct
(B) 1 and 2 only
(C) 2 and 3 only
(D) 1 only

Answer: Option (A). **Statement 1 is Correct:** Mission Sudarshan Chakra is designed as a multi-domain security umbrella. It explicitly aims to enhance India's **air defence, ballistic missile defence, and aerial offensive capabilities**, acting as both a defensive shield and an offensive sword. **Statement 2 is Corre

Q61. Consider the following statements about river bridges connecting India with neighbouring countries: 1. 'Maitri Setu', built over Feni river, connects Ramgarh in India with Sabroom in Bangladesh. 2. Jhulaghat suspension bridge connects India with Myanmar. 3. Mechi bridge and its approaches connect Panitanki Bypass in India with Kakarvitta in Nepal. Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

(A) 1 and 2
(B) 2 and 3
(C) 1 only
(D) 3 only ✓ Correct

Answer: Option (D). **Statement 1 is Incorrect:** 'Maitri Setu' (Friendship Bridge) is built over the **Feni River**, which forms a natural boundary between India and Bangladesh. However, it connects **Sabroom in Tripura, India**, with **Ramgarh in Bangladesh**, not the other way around. **Statement 2 is Incorrect:**

Q62. Which of the following statements about a Zero First Information Report (Zero FIR) under the Bharatiya Nagarik Suraksha Sanhita (BNSS), 2023 is/are correct? 1. A Zero FIR can be lodged at a police station, even though the place of commission of a cognizable/non-cognizable offence is outside the territorial jurisdiction of that police station. 2. The Officer-in-Charge of the police station where a Zero FIR has been lodged may, with the permission of the competent authority, initiate a preliminary enquiry. 3. Under Zero FIR, it is obligatory for the informant to furnish information electronically. Select the answer using the code given below:

(A) 1, 2 and 3
(B) 2 and 3 only
(C) 1 only ✓ Correct
(D) 2 only

Answer: Option (C). **Statement 1 is Correct:** A Zero FIR can indeed be lodged at any police station, regardless of the territorial jurisdiction, for cognizable offences. This is in line with Section 173(1) of the BNSS, 2023, which allows for the registration of a Zero FIR for cognizable offences irrespective of juris

Q63. With reference to the organisations under the Government of India, consider the following details: | Sl. No. | Organisation | Function | Controlling Union Ministry | |---|---|---|---| | 1. | Central Economic Intelligence Bureau (CEIB) | To coordinate between various law enforcement agencies | Ministry of Home Affairs | | 2. | Serious Fraud Investigation Office (SFIO) | To investigate complex corporate frauds | Ministry of Finance | | 3. | Central Bureau of Investigation (CBI) | To preserve values in public life and ensure the health of the national economy | Ministry of Personnel, Public Grievances and Pension | In how many of the above rows are the given details correctly matched ?

(A) 1 ✓ Correct
(B) 2
(C) 3
(D) None

Answer: Option (A). **Row 1 is Incorrect:** The Central Economic Intelligence Bureau (CEIB) acts as the nodal agency for gathering and coordinating economic intelligence among various law enforcement agencies to combat economic offenses. However, it functions under the **Ministry of Finance** (Department of Revenue), n

Q64. Which of the following international conventions have not been ratified by India? 1. Employment Policy Convention 2. Abolition of Forced Labour Convention 3. International Convention on the Protection of the Rights of All Migrant Workers and Members of Their Families 4. Geneva Convention Relative to the Protection of Civilian Persons in Time of War 5. Convention on Reduction of Statelessness Select the answer using the code given below:

(A) 2 and 4
(B) 1 and 2
(C) 3 and 4 only
(D) 3, 4 and 5 ✓ Correct

Answer: Option (D). **Statement 1 is Incorrect:** The **Employment Policy Convention, 1964 (ILO No. 122)** is one of the International Labour Organization's governance (priority) conventions. India ratified it on November 17, 1998. **Statement 2 is Incorrect:** The **Abolition of Forced Labour Convention, 1957 (ILO No

Q65. Consider the following statements with respect to the AI Impact Summit, 2026 held in New Delhi : 1. The Summit's intellectual framework was based on three foundational Sutras : People, Planning, and Progress. 2. The Preamble of the Summit stresses Democratising AI Resources, which acknowledges the Charter for Democratic Diffusion of AI as a binding framework to support locally relevant innovation and strengthen resilient AI ecosystems while respecting national laws. 3. The New Delhi Declaration on AI Impact was structured around seven Chakras (Pillars), which included Access for Social Empowerment, AI for Science, and Secure and Trusted AI. Which of the statements given above is/are correct ?

(A) 1, 2 and 3
(B) 1 and 2 only
(C) 2 and 3 only
(D) 3 only ✓ Correct

Answer: Option (D). **Statement 1 is Incorrect:** The Summit's intellectual framework and core philosophy were anchored in three foundational principles (Sutras): **People, Planet, and Progress**, not People, Planning, and Progress. **Statement 2 is Incorrect:** The New Delhi Declaration introduced the Charter for Dem

Q66. Which of the following connectivity projects is/are a part of cooperation between India and the ASEAN member countries ? 1. Kaladan Multi-Modal Transit Transport Project 2. IMT Trilateral Highway 3. Agartala-Akhaura Rail Line Select the answer using the code given below :

(A) 1 and 2 ✓ Correct
(B) 2 and 3
(C) 1 and 3
(D) 2 only

Answer: Option (A). **Statement 1 is Correct:** The **Kaladan Multi-Modal Transit Transport Project** connects the eastern Indian seaport of Kolkata with the Sittwe seaport in **Myanmar** by sea, and then links Sittwe to Mizoram in India via river and road. Since Myanmar is an **ASEAN** member, this project is a key co

Q67. Match List I with List II and select the answer using the code given below the Lists : | List I (Project Supported by India) | List II (Country) | |---|---| | A. Mangdechhu Hydroelectric Project | 1. Maldives | | B. Restoration of Stor Palace | 2. Afghanistan | | C. District Hospital at Dickoya | 3. Bhutan | | D. Institute of Security and Law Enforcement Studies | 4. Sri Lanka |

(A) A: 1, B: 4, C: 2, D: 3
(B) A: 3, B: 2, C: 4, D: 1 ✓ Correct
(C) A: 3, B: 4, C: 2, D: 1
(D) A: 1, B: 2, C: 4, D: 3

Answer: Option (B). **Mangdechhu Hydroelectric Project** is a 720 MW run-of-river power plant located on the Mangdechhu River in central **Bhutan**. It was developed with Indian financial and technical assistance and jointly inaugurated by the Prime Ministers of India and Bhutan in 2019. Therefore, A matches with 3. *

Q68. Which of the following items of defence hardware is/are manufactured in India ? 1. Su-30 MKI Fighter Jets 2. T-90 MK-III Tanks 3. Akula Class Submarine Select the answer using the code given below :

(A) 1 and 2 ✓ Correct
(B) 1 and 3
(C) 1 only
(D) 2 only

Answer: Option (A). **Statement 1 is Correct:** The **Su-30 MKI Fighter Jets** are manufactured in India. They are produced by **Hindustan Aeronautics Limited (HAL)** at its Nashik facility under a licensing and technology-transfer agreement with Russia's Sukhoi. Recent contracts for the jets feature over 60% indigenou

Q69. Consider the following statements about platforms for multilateral co-operation : 1. The 'Colombo Process' is a regional consultative process in which member states take binding decisions by consensus. 2. The 'Abu Dhabi Dialogue' is a voluntary non-binding consultative process among Asian countries of labour origin and destination to facilitate regional cooperation on contractual labour mobility. 3. The 'Global Forum for Migration and Development', created upon the proposal of a former UN Secretary General, is a voluntary forum whose decisions are non-binding in nature. Which of the statements given above is/are correct ?

(A) 1, 2 and 3
(B) 1 and 3 only
(C) 2 and 3 only ✓ Correct
(D) 2 only

Answer: Option (C). **Statement 1 is Incorrect:** The **Colombo Process** is a Regional Consultative Process comprising 12 Asian member states that are primarily countries of origin for migrant workers. It operates as a voluntary forum where decisions are made by consensus, but they are strictly **non-binding** in natu

Q70. Consider the following UN organisations/agencies : 1. World Food Programme 2. United Nations Children's Fund 3. United Nations High Commissioner for Refugees 4. International Labour Organisation How many of the above has/have been awarded the Nobel Prize twice ?

(A) 1 ✓ Correct
(B) 2
(C) 3
(D) 4

Answer: Option (A). **World Food Programme (WFP)** was awarded the Nobel Peace Prize **once** in 2020 for its efforts to combat hunger and prevent its use as a weapon of war and conflict. **United Nations Children's Fund (UNICEF)** was awarded the Nobel Peace Prize **once** in 1965 for its humanitarian work and effort

Q71. Match List I with List II and select the answer using the code given below the Lists : | List I (UN Peacekeeping Operation) | List II (Period of Operation) | |---|---| | A. UNMIL | 1. 2007 - 2010 | | B. MINURCAT | 2. 2002 - 2005 | | C. MINUSTAH | 3. 2003 - 2018 | | D. UNMISET | 4. 2004 - 2017 |

(A) A: 3, B: 4, C: 1, D: 2
(B) A: 3, B: 1, C: 4 , D: 2 ✓ Correct
(C) A: 2, B: 1, C: 4, D: 3
(D) A: 2, B: 4, C: 1, D: 3

Answer: Option (B). The correct matching of the United Nations Peacekeeping Operations with their respective periods of operation is as follows: * **UNMIL (United Nations Mission in Liberia):** Established in September 2003 following the end of the Second Liberian Civil War, this mission aimed to support the impleme

Q72. Match List I with List II and select the answer using the code given below the Lists : | List I (BIMSTEC Centre/Establishment) | List II (Location) | |---|---| | A. BIMSTEC Cultural Industries Observatory | 1. NOIDA | | B. BIMSTEC Energy Centre | 2. Bengaluru | | C. BIMSTEC Centre for Weather and Climate | 3. Colombo | | D. BIMSTEC Technology Transfer Facility | 4. Thimphu |

(A) A: 3, B: 2, C: 1, D: 4
(B) A: 3, B: 1, C: 2, D: 4
(C) A: 4, B: 2, C: 1, D: 3 ✓ Correct
(D) A: 4, B: 1, C: 2, D: 3

Answer: Option (C). The Bay of Bengal Initiative for Multi-Sectoral Technical and Economic Cooperation (**BIMSTEC**) has established several specialized centres to foster regional cooperation. The correct matching of these centres with their locations is as follows: * **BIMSTEC Cultural Industries Observatory (BCIO)

Q73. Which one of the following pairs is not correctly matched ? (Indian Army Corps) : (Headquarters)

(A) 3 Corps : Dimapur
(B) 4 Corps : Tezpur
(C) 14 Corps : Leh
(D) 33 Corps : Srinagar ✓ Correct

Answer: Option (D). **Option A is correctly matched:** The **3 Corps (Spear Corps)** is headquartered at Rangapahar Military Station in **Dimapur**, Nagaland. It operates under the Eastern Command and handles counter-insurgency and border defense in the Northeast. **Option B is correctly matched:** The **4 Corps (Gajr

Q74. Which of the following statements with respect to the Revamped Rashtriya Gram Swaraj Abhiyan (RGSA) is/are correct ? 1. The period of its implementation is 1st April, 2021 to 31st March, 2026. 2. The key objective of the Revamped RGSA is to develop the governance capabilities of the Panchayati Raj Institutions to deliver on the Sustainable Development Goals. 3. The share of the Central funding for the Revamped RGSA is 100% for all States and Union Territories. Select the answer using the code given below :

(A) 1 and 2
(B) 2 only ✓ Correct
(C) 1 and 3
(D) 2 and 3

Answer: Option (B). **Statement 1 is Incorrect:** The Revamped Rashtriya Gram Swaraj Abhiyan (RGSA) was approved by the Cabinet Committee on Economic Affairs for implementation from **1st April 2022 to 31st March 2026** (co-terminus with the 15th Finance Commission period), not from 1st April 2021. **Statement 2 is Co

Q75. Which of the following countries are members of the European Union ? 1. Belarus 2. Poland 3. Germany 4. Switzerland Select the answer using the code given below :

(A) 1, 2 and 4
(B) 1 and 4 only
(C) 2 and 3 ✓ Correct
(D) 2 and 4 only

Answer: Option (C). **Statement 1 is Incorrect:** Belarus is an Eastern European country that is **not** a member of the European Union. It maintains close political and economic ties with Russia and has never formally applied for EU membership. **Statement 2 is Correct:** Poland is a full member state of the European

Q76. Match List I with List II and select the answer using the code given below the Lists : | List I (INTERPOL Notice) | List II (Description) | |---|---| | A. Silver Notice | 1. To seek information on unidentified bodies | | B. Blue Notice | 2. To collect additional information about a person's identity, location, or activities in relation to a criminal investigation | | C. Black Notice | 3. To provide warning about a person's criminal activities, where the person is considered to be a possible threat to public safety | | D. Green Notice | 4. To identify and trace criminal assets |

(A) A: 3, B: 1, C: 2, D: 4
(B) A: 3, B: 2, C: 1, D: 4
(C) A: 4, B: 2, C: 1, D: 3 ✓ Correct
(D) A: 4, B: 1, C: 2, D: 3

Answer: Option (C). The INTERPOL uses a colour-coded system of notices to enable countries to share alerts and requests for information worldwide. The correct matching of the notices with their descriptions is as follows: **Silver Notice:** It is a recently introduced intelligence tool designed specifically to identif

Q77. Which of the following statements in relation to NIRANTAR (National Institute for Research and Application of Natural Resources to Transform, Adapt and Build Resilience), a platform of institutions under the Ministry of Environment, Forest and Climate Change, is/are correct ? 1. Ecosystem Survey and Analysis is a vertical under this platform, the lead institute of which is Botanical Survey of India, Kolkata. 2. Research and Management of Ecosystem Service is a vertical under this platform, the lead institute of which is Central Zoo Authority, New Delhi. 3. Capacity Development Support is a vertical under this platform, the lead institute of which is Indian Institute of Forest Management, Bhopal. Select the answer using the code given below :

(A) 1, 2 and 3
(B) 1 and 3 only ✓ Correct
(C) 2 only
(D) 3 only

Answer: Option (B). **Statement 1 is Correct:** The National Institute for Research and Application of Natural Resources to Transform, Adapt and Build Resilience (**NIRANTAR**) is a collaborative platform under the Ministry of Environment, Forest and Climate Change (MoEFCC). **Ecosystem Survey & Analysis** is one of it

Q78. The Chancellor of the Federal Republic of Germany visited India in January, 2026. Which of the following is/are not correct in terms of outcomes of this visit ? 1. Signing of a Memorandum of Understanding between the All India Institute of Ayurveda and the University of Hamburg 2. Signing of a Memorandum of Understanding on Youth Hockey Development between Hockey India and the German Hockey Federation 3. Establishment of a bilateral dialogue mechanism on the Indo-Pacific 4. Opening of an Honorary Consul of Germany in Lucknow Select the answer using the code given below :

(A) 2 and 3
(B) 1 and 4 ✓ Correct
(C) 3 and 4
(D) 1 only

Answer: Option (B). **Statement 1 is Incorrect:** During the visit, an MoU was signed to strengthen cooperation in traditional medicine between **Gujarat Ayurveda University** and German institutions. (An earlier MoU in late 2025 was agreed upon between the All India Institute of Ayurveda and Charité Universitätsmedizi

Q79. Which of the following statements about DHRUV64 is/are correct ? 1. It is the third chip fabricated under the DIR-V Programme with an overall aim to enable the creation of microprocessors for India. 2. It is India's first homegrown 1.0 GHz, 64-bit dual-core microprocessor. Select the answer using the code given below :

(A) 1 only
(B) 2 only
(C) Both 1 and 2 ✓ Correct
(D) Neither 1 nor 2

Answer: Option (C). **Statement 1 is Correct:** DHRUV64 is the third chip to be fabricated under the **Digital India RISC-V (DIR-V) Programme**. The first chip was THEJAS32 and the second was THEJAS64. The DIR-V programme aims to create a complete portfolio of future-ready, indigenous RISC-V-based microprocessors to re

Q80. The Bureau of Indian Standard (BIS) recently introduced a national standard to test and assess bomb disposal system. Which of the following statements with regard to this system is/are correct ? 1. The new standard is known as IS 19445 : 2025. 2. It will improve interoperability of equipment across agencies. 3. It was developed by TBRL, DRDO in collaboration with the 30th Central Scientific Research Institute, Russia. Select the answer using the code given below :

(A) 1, 2 and 3
(B) 2 and 3 only
(C) 1 and 2 only ✓ Correct
(D) 1 only

Answer: Option (C). **Statement 1 is Correct:** In December 2025, the Bureau of Indian Standards (BIS) notified India's first dedicated national standard for bomb disposal systems, officially designated as **IS 19445:2025**. **Statement 2 is Correct:** The standard establishes comprehensive guidelines for evaluating b

Q81. X', born in the UK, was conferred the Nobel Prize in 2025. He was a professor in an American university when this prize was announced. Identify 'X' :

(A) Michel H. Devoret
(B) Richard Robson
(C) John Clarke ✓ Correct
(D) Joel Mokyr

Answer: Option (C). **John Clarke** is the correct answer. He was born in Cambridge, United Kingdom, and was jointly awarded the **2025 Nobel Prize in Physics** for the discovery of macroscopic quantum mechanical tunneling in an electric circuit. At the time of the announcement, he was a Professor Emeritus at the **Uni

Q82. Which of the following statements with regard to the Grand Slam Tennis Tournaments is/are correct? 1. The tournaments have a shared governance structure establishing the partnership among the four Grand Slam tournaments. 2. They are open for entry to all internationally ranked tennis players above the age of 14. 3. There is a limitation on the number of 'Wild Cards' a player may receive to compete in a Grand Slam Tournament. Select the answer using the code given below:

(A) 1 and 2 only
(B) 2 and 3 only
(C) 1 only ✓ Correct
(D) 1, 2 and 3

Answer: Option (C). **Statement 1 is Correct:** The four Grand Slam tournaments (Australian Open, Roland-Garros, Wimbledon, and US Open) collaborate through a shared governance structure called the **Grand Slam Board (GSB)**. The GSB is responsible for coordinating activities of mutual interest, including maintaining t

Q83. Which one of the following pairs of semiconductor plants in India and their locations is not correctly matched? | Semiconductor Plant | Location | |---|---| | (a) CG Power and Industrial Solutions Pvt. Ltd. in partnership with Renesas Electronics and STARS Microelectronics | Gujarat | | (b) Tata Semiconductor Assembly and Test Pvt. Ltd. | Assam | | (c) HCL-Foxconn Joint Venture India Chip Ltd. | Madhya Pradesh | | (d) SicSem Pvt. Ltd. | Odisha |

(A) CG Power and Industrial Solutions Pvt. Ltd. in partnership with Renesas Electronics and STARS Microelectronics : Gujarat
(B) Tata Semiconductor Assembly and Test Pvt. Ltd. : Assam
(C) HCL-Foxconn Joint Venture India Chip Ltd. : Madhya Pradesh ✓ Correct
(D) SicSem Pvt. Ltd. : Odisha

Answer: Option (C). **Option A is correctly matched:** The Union Cabinet approved the Outsourced Semiconductor Assembly and Test (OSAT) facility by CG Power and Industrial Solutions (in partnership with Renesas Electronics and STARS Microelectronics) to be set up in **Sanand, Gujarat**. **Option B is correctly matched

Q84. Which of the following statements with regard to India's indigenous new high resolution weather model, the 'Bharat Forecast System,' is/are correct? 1. Its objective is to generate forecasts at the Panchayats cluster level. 2. It was developed by IIT Delhi. Select the answer using the code given below:

(A) 1 only ✓ Correct
(B) 2 only
(C) Both 1 and 2
(D) Neither 1 nor 2

Answer: Option (A). **Statement 1 is Correct:** A primary objective of the Bharat Forecast System (BFS) is to generate hyper-local, highly accurate weather forecasts down to the **Panchayat cluster level** (village and block level) to aid rural communities, agriculture, and disaster management. It operates on an ultra-

Q85. Consider the following statements with regard to the film 'Boong': 1. The film has recently won the British Academy of Film and Television Arts (BAFTA) Award in the Children's and Family Film category. 2. The film is directed by Lakshmipriya Devi. 3. This is the first Indian film to win a BAFTA award in the Children's and Family Film category. Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

(A) 1, 2 and 3 ✓ Correct
(B) 2 and 3 only
(C) 1 and 2 only
(D) 3 only

Answer: Option (A). **Statement 1 is Correct:** The Manipuri-language coming-of-age drama film *Boong* recently won the **British Academy of Film and Television Arts (BAFTA) Award** in the **Best Children's and Family Film** category, competing against major international studio productions like *Zootopia 2* and *Lilo

Q86. Which of the following statements regarding the features of blockchain technology are correct? 1. Records stored in the database may be made visible to relevant stakeholders without risk of alteration. 2. Copies of the entire database are stored on multiple computers on a network, syncing within seconds. 3. Consortium blockchain is a blend of public and private blockchains allowing selective data access. 4. Mathematical algorithms make it impossible to change or delete any data once recorded and accepted. Select the answer using the code given below:

(A) 1 and 3
(B) 2 and 4 only
(C) 1, 2 and 4 ✓ Correct
(D) 1 and 4 only

Answer: Option (C). **Statement 1 is Correct:** Blockchain's architecture allows data to be shared transparently with relevant stakeholders. Because the ledger is append-only and secured by network consensus, users can view records without the risk of unauthorized alteration. **Statement 2 is Correct:** Blockchain ope

Q87. An e-commerce revenue model where the seller has control over pricing but doesn't keep products in stock and instead transfers customer orders and shipment details to a third-party supplier, who then ships the goods directly to the customer, is called:

(A) Dropshipping Model ✓ Correct
(B) Affiliate Revenue Model
(C) Transaction Fee Revenue Model
(D) Agency Revenue Model

Answer: Option (A). **Dropshipping Model** is an e-commerce fulfillment method where a retail store does not keep the products it sells in stock. Instead, when a store sells a product, it purchases the item from a third-party supplier or wholesaler and has it shipped directly to the customer. The seller does not handle

Q88. Which one of the following correctly represents the three key sub-indices of the Financial Inclusion Index (FI-Index) of the Reserve Bank of India (RBI)?

(A) Credit access, Insurance depth, and Pension coverage
(B) Banking access, GDP contribution, and Financial literacy
(C) Access, Usage, and Quality ✓ Correct
(D) Access, Affordability, and Transparency

Answer: Option (C). The Reserve Bank of India (RBI) introduced the composite **Financial Inclusion Index (FI-Index)** in August 2021 to comprehensively measure the extent of financial inclusion across the country. The index incorporates data from the banking, investments, insurance, postal, and pension sectors. The FI

Q89. Which one of the following best describes the key objective of India's 'Open Network for Digital Commerce' (ONDC) initiative?

(A) To allow government control over all digital commerce transactions
(B) To replace private e-commerce players
(C) To break the dominance of large e-commerce platforms by enabling interoperability across networks ✓ Correct
(D) To mandate UPI-based payments for all online transactions

Answer: Option (C). **Option A is Incorrect:** ONDC does not mandate government control over transactions; rather, it promotes a decentralized, open market framework. **Option B is Incorrect:** It does not seek to replace private e-commerce players. Instead, private applications and platforms integrate into the ONDC n

Q90. Which one of the following statements about Unified Payments Interface (UPI) and Central Bank Digital Currency (Digital Rupee) is not correct?

(A) UPI is a real-time payment system but Digital Rupee is akin to sovereign paper currency.
(B) In case of UPI, settlement for end users happens instantly as the money gets immediately debited or credited but in case of Digital Rupee, there is no settlement as the wallet balance gets transferred to another wallet.
(C) UPI transactions are recorded by banks and reflected in bank statements but in case of Digital Rupee, no data is captured in bank statements as transactions are from one wallet to another.
(D) In both the cases (UPI and Digital Rupee), the liability lies with the users and their respective banks. ✓ Correct

Answer: Option (D). **Option A is a correct statement:** UPI is a real-time payment interface that facilitates the transfer of fiat money already held in bank accounts. The Digital Rupee (e₹) is actual sovereign digital currency (legal tender) issued by the Reserve Bank of India (RBI), functioning as the digital equiva

Q91. Which of the following statements about Real-World Assets (RWA) Tokenization are correct? 1. Tokenization is the process of turning real world assets into digital tokens using blockchain technology. 2. Tokenization of real world assets offers 24x7 access, promoting financial inclusion. 3. Tokenization of real world assets will allow the access to high growth investment opportunities for individuals in India. Select the answer using the code given below:

(A) 1, 2 and 3 ✓ Correct
(B) 2 and 3 only
(C) 1 and 2 only
(D) 1 and 3 only

Answer: Option (A). **Statement 1 is Correct:** **Real-World Asset (RWA) Tokenization** is the process of converting the ownership rights of physical or traditional financial assets (such as real estate, gold, commodities, or bonds) into digital tokens on a distributed ledger or **blockchain**. Each token represents a

Q92. A bond whose proceeds are used only to finance or refinance a combination of both environmental and social projects is called :

(A) Green Bond
(B) Social Bond
(C) Sustainability Bond ✓ Correct
(D) Sovereign Bond

Answer: Option (C). **Sustainability Bonds** are fixed-income instruments where the proceeds are exclusively applied to finance or re-finance a combination of both **environmental (green)** and **social** projects. **Green Bonds** are specifically earmarked to raise money exclusively for climate and environmental pro

Q93. Which of the following statements about M1xchange's role in Micro, Small & Medium Enterprises (MSMEs) financing is/are correct ? 1. M1xchange provides collateral based loans to MSMEs. 2. M1xchange facilitates discounting of invoices and Bills of Exchange for MSMEs. 3. M1xchange functions as a credit rating agency for MSMEs. Select the answer using the code given below :

(A) 1, 2 and 3
(B) 2 only ✓ Correct
(C) 2 and 3 only
(D) 1 only

Answer: Option (B). **Statement 1 is Incorrect:** M1xchange is an RBI-regulated Trade Receivables Discounting System (TReDS) platform. Financing on M1xchange is strictly **collateral-free** and "without recourse" to the MSME. The transaction is driven by the creditworthiness of the corporate buyer, meaning the MSME doe

Q94. Which one of the following best describes the 'Crowding Out Effect' in the context of fiscal policy ?

(A) A situation where private investment increases due to increased Government spending
(B) A situation where Government borrowing leads to higher interest rates, which reduces private investment ✓ Correct
(C) A situation where an increase in taxes leads to increased private sector investment
(D) A situation where Government spending has no impact on aggregate demand

Answer: Option (B). The **Crowding Out Effect** is a prominent macroeconomic concept associated with expansionary fiscal policy and deficit financing. **Option A is incorrect:** A situation where private investment increases due to increased government spending is known as the **Crowding In Effect**. This typically ha

Q95. Which of the following statements about Rare Earth Elements (REEs) and Critical Minerals is/are correct ? 1. Modern technological innovations including Artificial Intelligence, robotics and space exploration extensively utilise Rare Earth Elements (REEs). 2. China has the highest share in mining of REEs followed by India. 3. The Government of India launched the National Critical Mineral Mission (NCMM) in 2025 to establish a robust framework for self-reliance in the critical mineral sector. 4. Rare Earth Elements are a set of 13 metallic elements. Select the answer using the code given below :

(A) 1 and 3 only ✓ Correct
(B) 3 only
(C) 1, 3 and 4
(D) 1, 2 and 4

Answer: Option (A). **Statement 1 is Correct:** Rare Earth Elements (REEs) are indispensable for modern technological innovations. Their unique magnetic, luminescent, and electrochemical properties make them critical for artificial intelligence hardware, robotics, space exploration, electric vehicles, and advanced defe

Q96. Which of the following statements about insurance in aviation sector is/are correct ? 1. 'Aviation Hull Insurance' covers the physical aircraft, including the body, engine, and on-board equipment. 2. Under the Montreal Convention, adopted in 1999 by over 130 countries, including India, airlines are strictly liable to pay compensation to the family/nominee of every deceased passenger without requiring the family to prove fault. Select the answer using the code given below :

(A) 1 only
(B) 2 only
(C) Both 1 and 2 ✓ Correct
(D) Neither 1 nor 2

Answer: Option (C). **Statement 1 is Correct:** **Aviation Hull Insurance** is a specialized property insurance policy designed to cover physical loss or damage to the aircraft itself. Standard hull policies cover the aircraft's fuselage (body), wings, propulsion systems (engines), avionics, and on-board instruments or

Q97. Which of the following statements about Crowdfunding is/are correct ? 1. Crowdfunding is solicitation of funds (small amount) from multiple investors through a web-based platform or social networking site for a specific project. 2. Small and Medium Enterprises (SMEs) are able to raise funds at lower cost of capital without undergoing rigorous procedures. Select the answer using the code given below :

(A) 1 only
(B) 2 only
(C) Both 1 and 2 ✓ Correct
(D) Neither 1 nor 2

Answer: Option (C). **Statement 1 is Correct:** According to the Securities and Exchange Board of India (SEBI), **Crowdfunding** is officially defined as the solicitation of funds (usually small amounts) from multiple investors through a web-based platform or social networking site for a specific project, business vent

Q98. With reference to different Committees in India, consider the following details : | Sl. No. | Committee | Objective | Organization under which it was formed | |---|---|---|---| | 1. | R.N. Malhotra Committee | Comprehensive reforms of Insurance sector in India | Insurance Regulatory and Development Authority of India | | 2. | L.C. Gupta Committee | Preparing a roadmap for the introduction of derivatives trading in India | Securities and Exchange Board of India | | 3. | Urjit R. Patel Committee | Preparing a roadmap for reforming bank lending to the Housing sector | Reserve Bank of India | | 4. | Y.H. Malegam Committee | Preparing a roadmap for reforms in Microfinance sector in India | Reserve Bank of India | In which of the above rows are all the details correctly matched ?

(A) 2 only
(B) 2 and 3
(C) 1, 3 and 4
(D) 2 and 4 ✓ Correct

Answer: Option (D). **Row 1 is Incorrect:** The **R.N. Malhotra Committee** was constituted in 1993 by the **Government of India**, not the Insurance Regulatory and Development Authority of India (IRDAI). In fact, the IRDAI was established in 1999 as a direct result of this committee's recommendations to reform the ins

Q99. Consider the following statements about the Non-Banking Financial Companies (NBFCs) in India : 1. NBFCs cannot accept demand deposits. 2. All the NBFCs operating in India have to be registered with the RBI. 3. NBFCs form part of the payment and settlement system and can issue cheque drawn on itself. 4. Deposit insurance facility of Deposit Insurance and Credit Guarantee Corporation (DICGC) is not available to the depositors of deposit taking NBFCs. Which of the statements given above is/are correct ?

(A) 1 and 4 ✓ Correct
(B) 1, 2 and 3
(C) 4 only
(D) 2, 3 and 4

Answer: Option (A). **Statement 1 is Correct:** Non-Banking Financial Companies (**NBFCs**) are strictly prohibited from accepting demand deposits (such as savings or current accounts that are repayable on demand). While certain NBFCs can accept term/fixed deposits, they can only do so if they hold a specific deposit-t

Q100. Consider the following statements about Multidimensional Poverty Index (MPI) : 1. MPI is calculated using Alkire-Foster methodology. 2. MPI calculated by NITI Aayog has a total of twelve indicators. 3. Maternal Health and Bank Account are common indicators in the MPI of NITI Aayog and MPI of United Nations Development Programme (UNDP). Which of the statements given above is/are correct ?

(A) 1 and 2 only ✓ Correct
(B) 1, 2 and 3
(C) 1 and 3 only
(D) 2 only

Answer: Option (A). **Statement 1 is Correct:** Both the Global Multidimensional Poverty Index (MPI) and India's National MPI are calculated using the **Alkire-Foster (AF) methodology**. This method measures acute poverty by counting the overlapping deprivations that individuals experience simultaneously. **Statement

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