UPSC Prelims 2026 · GS Paper

Set B Answer Key

Q: Q1. Consider the following statements with reference to India's response to climate change : I. India's Long-Term Low Emission Development Strategy (LT-LEDS) is a crucial tool for achieving net-zero emis

The correct answer is option (B). **Statement I is Correct:** India's Long-Term Low Emission Development Strategy (LT-LEDS) is indeed a crucial tool for achieving net-zero emissions by 2070. It outlines the strategic framework necessary for sectoral transitions in energy, transport, industry, and forestry to meet this long-term goal

Q: Q2. With respect to the Western Hoolock Gibbons, which of the following statements is/are correct? 1. A Sanctuary in North-east India is home to this ape species listed as Endangered in the International

The correct answer is option (B). **Statement 1 is Correct:** The Western Hoolock Gibbon is native to North-east India, and the **Hollongapar Gibbon Sanctuary** in Assam is a prominent protected area specifically dedicated to this species. Furthermore, the Western Hoolock Gibbon is classified as **Endangered** on the IUCN Red List.

Q: Q3. Which of the following best explain(s) the rationale for protecting mangrove ecosystems in the context of climate resilience? 1. Mangroves reduce tidal energy and store freshwater, making them ideal

The correct answer is option (D). **Statement 1 is Incorrect:** Mangroves do not store freshwater, nor are they naturally suited for paddy cultivation. In fact, the clearing of mangrove forests to create agricultural land (like paddy fields) has historically been a primary driver of their destruction, rather than a reason for their

Q: Q4. In what way(s) does the Vizhinjam International Seaport represent a structural shift in India's maritime trade and logistics policy? 1. By functioning exclusively as a domestic cargo hub to reduce re

The correct answer is option (D). **Statement 1 is Incorrect:** The Vizhinjam International Seaport is designed as an international container transshipment hub, not an exclusively domestic cargo hub. Rather than reducing reliance on coastal shipping, a transshipment hub relies heavily on a "hub-and-spoke" model, where large mother s

Q: Q5. Identify the river of the Indian sub-continent on the basis of the following information: 1. It has an antecedent drainage system. 2. It flows through three countries. 3. It originates in the Tibetan

The correct answer is option (C). The **Sutlej** perfectly matches all the given criteria. - **Antecedent drainage system:** Rivers like the **Indus**, **Brahmaputra**, and **Sutlej** are classic examples of antecedent drainage, as they existed before the Himalayan upliftment and maintained their courses by cutting deep gorges. - *

Q: Q6. Which of the following with reference to Indian States is/are **not** correct? 1. Uttar Pradesh shares its boundary with the highest number of other Indian States. 2. Rajasthan shares the longest int

The correct answer is option (C). **Statement 1 is Correct:** Uttar Pradesh shares its boundary with the highest number of Indian jurisdictions. It borders **8 states** (Uttarakhand, Himachal Pradesh, Haryana, Rajasthan, Madhya Pradesh, Chhattisgarh, Jharkhand, Bihar) and **1 Union Territory** (Delhi). **Statement 2 is Incorrect:**

Q: Q7. Which of the following statements with regard to the arrival of Amur Falcons at Doyang Lake in Nagaland each year from Mongolia is/are correct? 1. It showcases how sustained local conservation effort

The correct answer is option (A). **Statement 1 is Correct:** Doyang Lake in Nagaland represents a major community-led conservation victory. Previously, hundreds of thousands of Amur Falcons were trapped and hunted annually. Following sustained interventions by conservationists, NGOs, and the Nagaland Forest Department, local commun

Q: Q8. Which among the following is/are the objective(s) of the Rainfed Area Development (RAD) initiative under the National Mission for Sustainable Agriculture (NMSA)? 1. Encouraging monoculture in rainfed

The correct answer is option (D). **Statement 1 is Incorrect:** The Rainfed Area Development (RAD) scheme explicitly promotes **Integrated Farming Systems (IFS)** rather than monoculture. It integrates multi-cropping and rotational cropping with allied activities like horticulture, livestock, fishery, and agro-forestry to diversify

Q: Q9. Which of the following is/are the most significant implication(s) of obtaining Oeko-Tex certification for Eri Silk in the global textile industry? 1. It allows Indian exporters to compete in high-end

The correct answer is option (C). **Statement 1 is Correct:** The **OEKO-TEX certification** ensures that textiles are rigorously tested and proven free from harmful substances, heavy metals, and toxic chemicals. This certification acts as a major endorsement, directly enhancing the global marketability of **Eri Silk** and allowing

Q: Q10. Ships from which of the following countries have to cross the Strait of Hormuz to reach out to the Indian Ocean? 1. Bahrain 2. Syria 3. Qatar 4. Egypt Select the answer using the code given below:

The correct answer is option (B). **Statement 1 is Correct:** **Bahrain** is an island nation situated entirely within the **Persian Gulf**. The **Strait of Hormuz** is the only sea passage connecting the Persian Gulf to the Gulf of Oman and the open ocean. Therefore, for a ship departing from Bahrain to reach the Indian Ocean, it m

Correct options and explanations for GS Paper Set B, organized by subject for fast review.

Set A Set B Set C Set D

Subject

100 of 100 questions shown

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Set A Set B Set C Set D

Q1Environment & Ecology

Consider the following statements with reference to India's response to climate change :

I. India's Long-Term Low Emission Development Strategy (LT-LEDS) is a crucial tool for achieving net-zero emissions by 2070. II. India's 4th Biennial Update Report (BUR-4) submitted in December, 2024 recorded around 8% decrease in Greenhouse gas emissions in 2020 over 2019. III. Climate-resilient development necessarily depends on quick and short-term achievement of emission reduction targets.

Which of the following relationships among the above statements is/are correct ?

Statement I is empirically supported by statement II.
Statement III contradicts the approach implicit in statement I.
Statement I and statement III together establish the premise of long-term sustainability.

Select the answer using the code given below :

1 only

1 and 2

2 and 3

3 only

Explanation

Statement I is Correct: India's Long-Term Low Emission Development Strategy (LT-LEDS) is indeed a crucial tool for achieving net-zero emissions by 2070. It outlines the strategic framework necessary for sectoral transitions in energy, transport, industry, and forestry to meet this long-term goal.

Statement II is Incorrect: While India's 4th Biennial Update Report (BUR-4) does record an approximately 8% decrease in greenhouse gas emissions in 2020 compared to 2019, this decrease is attributed to the economic slowdown and lockdowns during the COVID-19 pandemic, not to structural or strategic efforts towards long-term emission reductions. Therefore, it does not empirically support the strategic framework of LT-LEDS.

Statement III is Correct: The IPCC emphasizes that climate-resilient development depends on rapid, deep, and immediate emission reductions in the short term. This approach can be seen as contradicting the long-term focus of strategies like LT-LEDS if they do not also incorporate aggressive short-term actions.

Therefore, the correct relationship is that Statement III contradicts the approach implicit in Statement I, making option B correct.

Q2Environment & Ecology

With respect to the Western Hoolock Gibbons, which of the following statements is/are correct?

A Sanctuary in North-east India is home to this ape species listed as Endangered in the International Union for Conservation of Nature (IUCN) Red List.
They have specialized brachiation and can easily swing between trees.
They possess a strong and heavy build like gorillas, yet are remarkably agile tree climbers.

Select the answer using the code given below:

1 only

1 and 2

2 and 3

3 only

Explanation

Statement 1 is Correct: The Western Hoolock Gibbon is native to North-east India, and the Hollongapar Gibbon Sanctuary in Assam is a prominent protected area specifically dedicated to this species. Furthermore, the Western Hoolock Gibbon is classified as Endangered on the IUCN Red List.

Statement 2 is Correct: They are highly arboreal canopy-dwellers. They move primarily through brachiation—a specialized mode of locomotion where they use their exceptionally long arms to swing swiftly and effortlessly from tree branch to tree branch.

Statement 3 is Incorrect: Gibbons are classified as "lesser apes" (family Hylobatidae). Unlike "great apes" such as gorillas which possess massive, heavy builds, Hoolock gibbons are small, slender, and lightweight. Adults typically weigh only 6 to 9 kg, a physical adaptation that is essential for their remarkable aerial agility in the forest canopy.

Therefore, option B is the correct answer.

Q3Environment & Ecology

Which of the following best explain(s) the rationale for protecting mangrove ecosystems in the context of climate resilience?

Mangroves reduce tidal energy and store freshwater, making them ideal sites for paddy cultivation in saline estuarine belts.
Their salt-sensitive roots filter seawater, making mangroves key to converting coastal land into freshwater aquaculture zones.
By withstanding tidal surges and offering biomass resources, mangroves function both as natural bio-shields and livelihood bases for rural communities.

Select the answer using the code given below:

1 only

1 and 2

2 and 3

3 only

Explanation

Statement 1 is Incorrect: Mangroves do not store freshwater, nor are they naturally suited for paddy cultivation. In fact, the clearing of mangrove forests to create agricultural land (like paddy fields) has historically been a primary driver of their destruction, rather than a reason for their protection.

Statement 2 is Incorrect: Mangroves are halophytes, meaning they are highly salt-tolerant, not salt-sensitive. While their specialized root systems have ultrafiltration mechanisms to exclude salt, they do not convert coastal lands into freshwater zones. Furthermore, clearing mangroves for shrimp and aquaculture farms is a major threat to these ecosystems, not a conservation rationale.

Statement 3 is Correct: In the context of climate resilience, mangroves act as natural bio-shields. Their dense root networks (such as stilt roots and pneumatophores) stabilize coastal soils and dissipate tidal energy, protecting coasts from storm surges and cyclones. Additionally, they are highly productive ecosystems that provide sustainable biomass resources (like timber, honey, and fish breeding grounds), forming a crucial livelihood base for rural coastal communities.

Therefore, option D is the correct answer.

Q4Economy

In what way(s) does the Vizhinjam International Seaport represent a structural shift in India's maritime trade and logistics policy?

By functioning exclusively as a domestic cargo hub to reduce reliance on coastal shipping and eliminate the need for foreign collaborations.
By focusing primarily on passenger cruise tourism and heritage shipping to increase Kerala's profile as a maritime heritage destination.
By leveraging its natural deep draft and strategic location to reduce dependence on foreign trans-shipment ports, enhance revenue retention, and reposition India in regional maritime trade.

Select the answer using the code given below:

1 only

1 and 2

2 and 3

3 only

Explanation

Statement 1 is Incorrect: The Vizhinjam International Seaport is designed as an international container transshipment hub, not an exclusively domestic cargo hub. Rather than reducing reliance on coastal shipping, a transshipment hub relies heavily on a "hub-and-spoke" model, where large mother ships offload cargo that is then distributed to other Indian ports via smaller coastal feeder vessels. Furthermore, it actively seeks to attract foreign shipping lines and global integration, rather than eliminating foreign collaborations.

Statement 2 is Incorrect: While the port has provisions for a cruise terminal, its primary focus is handling international container transshipment and multi-purpose cargo. It is not primarily focused on passenger cruise tourism or heritage shipping.

Statement 3 is Correct: Vizhinjam leverages its natural deep draft of 18 to 24 meters, allowing it to berth Ultra Large Container Ships (ULCS) that previously bypassed Indian ports. Situated just 10 nautical miles from the busy East-West international shipping corridor, it aims to reclaim transshipment cargo historically handled by foreign hubs like Colombo, Singapore, and Jebel Ali. This structural shift reduces dependence on foreign ports, retains an estimated $200 to $400 million annually in transshipment revenues, and repositions India in regional maritime trade.

Therefore, option D is the correct answer.

Q5Indian Geography

Identify the river of the Indian sub-continent on the basis of the following information:

It has an antecedent drainage system.
It flows through three countries.
It originates in the Tibetan Plateau and is an important river for irrigation.
It does not form distributaries.

Select the answer from the following:

Brahmaputra

Indus

Sutlej

Teesta

Explanation

The Sutlej perfectly matches all the given criteria.

Antecedent drainage system: Rivers like the Indus, Brahmaputra, and Sutlej are classic examples of antecedent drainage, as they existed before the Himalayan upliftment and maintained their courses by cutting deep gorges.
Flows through three countries: The Sutlej flows through China (Tibet), India, and Pakistan. The Indus (China, India, Pakistan) and Brahmaputra (China, India, Bangladesh) also flow through three countries. The Teesta flows through only two (India and Bangladesh), making it incorrect.
Originates in the Tibetan Plateau: The Sutlej originates from Rakshastal near Mansarovar in the Tibetan Plateau. It is a crucial source of irrigation, feeding major projects like the Bhakra-Nangal Dam and the Indira Gandhi Canal.
Does not form distributaries: This is the defining characteristic that eliminates the other options. Both the Brahmaputra and the Indus form large deltas with multiple distributaries before emptying into the Bay of Bengal and the Arabian Sea, respectively. The Sutlej, on the other hand, is a tributary that merges with the Chenab River to form the Panjnad, which subsequently flows into the Indus River. It does not form distributaries.

Therefore, the correct option is C.

Q6Indian Geography

Which of the following with reference to Indian States is/are not correct?

Uttar Pradesh shares its boundary with the highest number of other Indian States.
Rajasthan shares the longest international border among all Indian States.
Sikkim is the only State that shares its boundary with just one other Indian State.

Select the answer using the code given below:

1 only

1 and 2

2 and 3

3 only

Explanation

Statement 1 is Correct: Uttar Pradesh shares its boundary with the highest number of Indian jurisdictions. It borders 8 states (Uttarakhand, Himachal Pradesh, Haryana, Rajasthan, Madhya Pradesh, Chhattisgarh, Jharkhand, Bihar) and 1 Union Territory (Delhi).

Statement 2 is Incorrect: West Bengal has the longest international border among all Indian states, totaling approximately 2,509 km. It borders Bangladesh (over 2,216 km alone), Bhutan, and Nepal. Rajasthan's international border with Pakistan is much shorter at 1,070 km.

Statement 3 is Incorrect: Sikkim is not the only Indian state sharing its boundary with just one other state. There are exactly two such states in India: Sikkim (borders only West Bengal) and Meghalaya (borders only Assam).

Therefore, statements 2 and 3 are not correct, making the correct option C.

Q7Environment & Ecology

Which of the following statements with regard to the arrival of Amur Falcons at Doyang Lake in Nagaland each year from Mongolia is/are correct?

It showcases how sustained local conservation efforts can contribute to the arrival and protection of international migratory birds.
It reflects the global success of advanced tracking technologies that guide migratory birds back to their stopover sites.
It confirms that Amur Falcons have adapted to permanent residency in India due to favourable habitat changes.

Select the answer using the code given below:

1 only

1 and 2

2 and 3

3 only

Explanation

Statement 1 is Correct: Doyang Lake in Nagaland represents a major community-led conservation victory. Previously, hundreds of thousands of Amur Falcons were trapped and hunted annually. Following sustained interventions by conservationists, NGOs, and the Nagaland Forest Department, local communities completely stopped the hunting, turning into protectors. This safe passage earned Nagaland the title "Falcon Capital of the World."

Statement 2 is Incorrect: Scientists use advanced tracking technologies (like lightweight solar-powered satellite transmitters) to monitor and study the falcons' migration routes, stopover durations, and flight speeds. These devices collect data for researchers; they do not guide the birds. The falcons rely entirely on natural navigation and environmental cues to find their way back to stopover sites.

Statement 3 is Incorrect: Amur Falcons are long-distance migratory raptors, not permanent residents of India. They breed in Siberia and Northern China and migrate annually to their wintering grounds in Southern Africa. During their approximately 22,000 km journey, they use Northeast India—specifically Doyang Lake in Nagaland—as a temporary stopover for a few weeks (October–November) to build fat reserves before undertaking a massive non-stop flight across the Arabian Sea.

Therefore, option A is the correct answer.

Q8Social Issues & Schemes

Which among the following is/are the objective(s) of the Rainfed Area Development (RAD) initiative under the National Mission for Sustainable Agriculture (NMSA)?

Encouraging monoculture in rainfed areas
Increasing rice cultivation in irrigated regions
Enhancing productivity and minimising climatic risks through Integrated Farming Systems (IFS)

Select the answer using the code given below:

1 only

1 and 2

2 and 3

3 only

Explanation

Statement 1 is Incorrect: The Rainfed Area Development (RAD) scheme explicitly promotes Integrated Farming Systems (IFS) rather than monoculture. It integrates multi-cropping and rotational cropping with allied activities like horticulture, livestock, fishery, and agro-forestry to diversify income and build resilience. Official guidelines actively discourage single-cropping (monoculture) systems.

Statement 2 is Incorrect: As the name implies, RAD targets rainfed areas (regions lacking assured irrigation) to build resilience against climate variability. It does not focus on expanding water-intensive crops like rice in already irrigated regions.

Statement 3 is Correct: The core objective of RAD is to make rainfed agriculture more productive, sustainable, remunerative, and climate-resilient. By diversifying income sources through Integrated Farming Systems (IFS), RAD aims to minimize the risks associated with climatic variability (such as droughts, heat stress, or floods) and crop failure, ensuring stable livelihoods for farmers.

Therefore, option D is the correct answer.

Q9Economy

Which of the following is/are the most significant implication(s) of obtaining Oeko-Tex certification for Eri Silk in the global textile industry?

It allows Indian exporters to compete in high-end markets that prioritise chemical-free products.
It confirms that Eri Silk meets international safety, environmental, and quality standards, enabling its entry into premium eco-conscious markets.

Select the answer using the code given below:

1 only

2 only

Both 1 and 2

Neither 1 nor 2

Explanation

Statement 1 is Correct: The OEKO-TEX certification ensures that textiles are rigorously tested and proven free from harmful substances, heavy metals, and toxic chemicals. This certification acts as a major endorsement, directly enhancing the global marketability of Eri Silk and allowing Indian exporters to confidently compete in high-end international markets that prioritize sustainable, chemical-free, and ethically produced textiles.

Statement 2 is Correct: The certification confirms that a textile meets strict international safety, environmental, and human health standards. This is highly valued by buyers in premium, eco-conscious global markets, particularly in Europe and North America. Combined with its Geographical Indication (GI) status and reputation as a cruelty-free "peace silk," the certification cements Eri Silk's position as a premium eco-friendly fabric, enabling its entry into these premium markets.

Therefore, both statements are correct, making the correct option C.

Q10World Geography

Ships from which of the following countries have to cross the Strait of Hormuz to reach out to the Indian Ocean?

Bahrain
Syria
Qatar
Egypt

Select the answer using the code given below:

1 and 2

1 and 3

2 and 3

3 and 4

Explanation

Statement 1 is Correct: Bahrain is an island nation situated entirely within the Persian Gulf. The Strait of Hormuz is the only sea passage connecting the Persian Gulf to the Gulf of Oman and the open ocean. Therefore, for a ship departing from Bahrain to reach the Indian Ocean, it must exit the Persian Gulf by passing through this strait.

Statement 2 is Incorrect: Syria is located on the eastern coast of the Mediterranean Sea and has no coastline on the Persian Gulf. Ships departing from Syria would reach the Indian Ocean by traveling through the Suez Canal, down the Red Sea, and out through the Bab el-Mandeb Strait, completely bypassing the Strait of Hormuz.

Statement 3 is Correct: Qatar is a peninsular country located on the northeastern coast of the Arabian Peninsula, surrounded by the waters of the Persian Gulf. Like Bahrain, its ships must cross the Strait of Hormuz to access the Indian Ocean.

Statement 4 is Incorrect: Egypt borders the Mediterranean Sea to the north and the Red Sea to the east. Ships from Egypt can access the Indian Ocean directly by sailing south through the Red Sea and the Bab el-Mandeb Strait, without entering the Persian Gulf or crossing the Strait of Hormuz.

Therefore, the correct option is B.

Q11Physical Geography

Tungurahua Volcano, which was declared a Global Geopark by UNESCO in 2025, is situated in which one among the following countries ?

Ecuador

Peru

Bolivia

Colombia

Explanation

Ecuador is the correct answer. The Tungurahua Volcano, whose name translates to "Throat of Fire" in the indigenous Quichua language, is a highly active stratovolcano located in the Cordillera Oriental of the central Andes in Ecuador. In April 2025, the volcano and its surrounding territory were officially designated as a UNESCO Global Geopark. The newly designated geopark spans over 2,300 square kilometers across the Tungurahua and Chimborazo provinces, preserving over 417 million years of geological history, including volcanic formations and glacial activity. It sits within Sangay National Park and towers over the town of Baños de Agua Santa.

Peru, Bolivia, and Colombia are incorrect. While these are all South American nations that share the Andes mountain range and possess their own significant volcanic peaks (such as Nevado del Ruiz in Colombia or Ubinas in Peru), the Tungurahua Volcano is located exclusively within the borders of Ecuador.

Therefore, the correct option is A.

Q12Environment & Ecology

With reference to Madhav National Park, which of the following statements is/are correct ?

It was declared a Tiger Reserve in India in 2025.
Sakhya Sagar, which is designated as a Ramsar Site, is situated within this National Park.
Its area is shared between Madhya Pradesh and Rajasthan.

Select the answer using the code given below :

1 only

1 and 2

2 and 3

3 only

Explanation

Statement 1 is Correct: Madhav National Park was officially declared as India's 58th Tiger Reserve (and the 9th in Madhya Pradesh) by the Union Environment Ministry in March 2025, following a successful tiger reintroduction program that began in 2023.

Statement 2 is Correct: Sakhya Sagar, a human-made reservoir created in 1918, is situated inside Madhav National Park. It was officially designated as a Ramsar Wetland of International Importance in 2022 and is known for its abundant marsh crocodile population and migratory waterfowl.

Statement 3 is Incorrect: Madhav National Park is located entirely within the Shivpuri district of Madhya Pradesh, situated on the northern fringe of the Central Highlands. It does not share its area with Rajasthan.

Therefore, option B is the correct answer.

Q13Indian Geography

With reference to the climate of Andaman and Nicobar Islands, which of the following statements is/are correct ?

The climate can be defined as a humid, tropical coastal climate.
It receives rainfall from both South-west monsoon and North-east monsoon.
Maximum precipitation is between December and May.

Select the answer using the code given below :

1 only

1 and 2

2 and 3

3 only

Explanation

Statement 1 is Correct: The Andaman and Nicobar Islands feature a humid, tropical coastal climate. Due to their equatorial proximity and oceanic surroundings, they experience uniform warm temperatures (averaging 23°C to 31°C) and high relative humidity (approximately 80%) year-round.

Statement 2 is Correct: The archipelago is unique in its rainfall pattern, as it receives substantial precipitation from both the South-West Monsoon and the North-East Monsoon.

Statement 3 is Incorrect: The maximum precipitation occurs during the South-West monsoon season, specifically between May and September (peaking heavily in July and August). The period between December and May is actually the driest part of the year, making it the peak tourist season. It does not receive the maximum precipitation during this time.

Therefore, the correct option is B.

Q14Indian Geography

Which of the following geographical features or phenomena is/are associated with the Peninsular Block of India ?

Submergence of parts of the western coast due to tectonic activity
Presence of residual mountain ranges such as the Veliconda hills and Mahendragiri hills
Deep, V-shaped river valleys formed by fast-flowing rivers

Select the answer using the code given below :

1 only

1 and 2

2 and 3

3 only

Explanation

Statement 1 is Correct: During the Early Tertiary period, the western flank of the Peninsular block underwent tectonic subsidence (sinking). This led to its partial submergence beneath the sea, which formed the current submerged western coastline and disturbed the original symmetrical river pattern.

Statement 2 is Correct: The Peninsular Block is an ancient, rigid, and stable landmass. It primarily consists of highly denuded relict and residual mountains (remnants of older mountains). Standard geographical texts explicitly list the Aravali, Nallamala, Javadi, Veliconda, Palkonda, and Mahendragiri hills as key examples of these residual ranges.

Statement 3 is Incorrect: Because the Peninsular drainage system is much older than the Himalayan one, its rivers have reached maturity. They are characterized by broad, shallow, graded valleys with low gradients, rather than deep cuts. Deep gorges, V-shaped valleys, rapids, and waterfalls are indicative of youthful topography and active vertical erosion. These features are characteristic of the fast-flowing Himalayan river system, which cuts through young, weak, and flexible geological structures, unlike the stable Peninsular Block.

Therefore, option B is the correct answer.

Q15Economy

Consider the following statements with reference to the Sagarmala Programme of the Government of India :

I. The Sagarmala Programme seeks to achieve port-led economic growth through cost-effective and sustainable coastal infrastructure. II. The success of the Sagarmala Programme is reflected in significant growth in coastal and inland waterway shipping, along with improved global port rankings. III. Sagarmala 2.0 aims to position India as a global maritime innovation hub aligned with Atmanirbhar Bharat and Viksit Bharat 2047 visions.

Which of the following relationships among the above statements is/are correct ?

Statement II validates the effectiveness of the strategies envisioned in statement I.
Statement III extends the objectives of statement I by embedding them into a future-oriented innovation framework.
Statement I contradicts statement III by focusing only on traditional infrastructure instead of modern innovation.

Select the answer using the code given below :

1 only

1 and 2

2 and 3

3 only

Explanation

Relationship 1 is Correct: Statement I outlines the core objective of the Sagarmala Programme, launched in 2015, which is port-led economic development through cost-effective and sustainable coastal infrastructure. Statement II provides empirical evidence of its success, such as the 118% growth in coastal shipping, a 700% surge in inland waterway cargo movement, and improved global port rankings (with nine Indian ports now in the global top 100). Thus, the tangible achievements in Statement II directly validate the effectiveness of the foundational strategies mentioned in Statement I.

Relationship 2 is Correct: Statement III highlights the goals of Sagarmala 2.0, which focuses on smart ports, green shipping, and positioning India as a global maritime innovation hub aligned with the Viksit Bharat 2047 and Atmanirbhar Bharat visions. This acts as an evolutionary extension of the foundational infrastructure goals in Statement I, embedding them into a broader, future-oriented innovation framework rather than replacing them.

Relationship 3 is Incorrect: Statement I does not contradict Statement III. The initial focus on traditional and sustainable coastal infrastructure in the original Sagarmala Programme serves as the necessary physical base upon which the modern innovation and technology-driven goals of Sagarmala 2.0 are built. The two phases are complementary and represent a progressive policy evolution, not a contradiction.

Therefore, relationships 1 and 2 are correct, making Option B the correct choice.

Q16Environment & Ecology

Consider the following statements about Rhynchostylis retusa (Foxtail orchid) :

It is an epiphytic orchid.
The species is endemic to North-east India.
It is the State flower of Arunachal Pradesh and Assam.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct ?

1 only

1 and 3

2 and 3

3 only

Explanation

Statement 1 is Correct: Rhynchostylis retusa (commonly known as the Foxtail orchid) is an epiphytic orchid. It grows on the trunks and branches of trees in open forests, using the host tree for physical support and absorbing moisture from the air, rather than acting as a parasite.

Statement 2 is Incorrect: The species is not endemic to North-east India. It has a vast native range across Tropical Asia, including China, Nepal, Sri Lanka, Bhutan, Myanmar, Thailand, Malaysia, Indonesia, and the Philippines. Within India, while it is highly prominent in the North-east, it is also naturally distributed in Odisha, Andhra Pradesh, the Andaman and Nicobar Islands, and several other states.

Statement 3 is Correct: It is officially recognized as the State flower of both Assam and Arunachal Pradesh. In Assam, it is culturally significant, known locally as Kopou Phool, and is an essential part of traditional Bihu dance attire and local wedding ceremonies.

Therefore, option B is the correct answer.

Q17Art & Culture

Which one of the following statements with regard to the Moidams, built by the Tai-Ahom kingdom and inscribed as a World Heritage Site by UNESCO, is/are correct ?

They acted as army fortresses.
They were recreation centres of the Royals and Nobles.
They were burial grounds of the Royals and Nobles.
They were battle drill centres of the Royals and Nobles.

Select the answer using the code given below :

1 only

1 and 3

3 only

2 and 4

Explanation

Statement 1 is Incorrect: Moidams (or Maidams) were not used as army fortresses. They are traditional mound-burial systems (tumuli) of the Tai-Ahom religion.

Statement 2 is Incorrect: They did not serve as recreation centres for the Royals and Nobles.

Statement 3 is Correct: Moidams served exclusively as the royal necropolis (burial grounds) for Ahom kings, queens, and nobles. The vaults enshrine the mortal remains of the deceased along with cherished objects, food, horses, elephants, and historically even attendants, reflecting Tai-Ahom cosmological beliefs about the afterlife. The most prominent concentration of these is located in Charaideo, Assam, which was the first capital of the Ahom kingdom. In July 2024, they were officially inscribed as India's 43rd UNESCO World Heritage Site.

Statement 4 is Incorrect: They were not battle drill centres.

Therefore, only statement 3 is correct.

Q18Environment & Ecology

At the United Nations Ocean Conference (UNOC) held in June, 2025 in France, the Food and Agricultural Organization (FAO) of the United Nations demonstrated its leading voice on marine and ocean issues, especially on sustainable fisheries and aquaculture for resilient livelihood and "Blue Transformation".

Which of the following combinations about the "Four Betters" proposed by FAO for "Blue Transformation" is correct ?

Better production, better nutrition, better environment and better ocean

Better production, better nutrition, better environment and better life

Better coral reefs, better nutrition, better environment and better life

Better estuaries, better nutrition, better environment and better mangrove vegetation

Explanation

The Food and Agriculture Organization (FAO) of the United Nations guides its global work through a strategic framework aimed at supporting the 2030 Agenda for Sustainable Development. The core organizing principle of this framework is the transformation to more efficient, inclusive, resilient, and sustainable agrifood systems to achieve the "Four Betters".

The "Four Betters" are officially defined as:

Better Production: Ensuring sustainable consumption and production patterns.
Better Nutrition: Ending hunger, achieving food security, and improving access to healthy diets.
Better Environment: Protecting, restoring, and promoting the sustainable use of terrestrial and marine ecosystems.
Better Life: Promoting inclusive economic growth and reducing inequalities, leaving no one behind.

The Blue Transformation is a specific FAO vision and programmatic priority area that aims to secure and maximize the contribution of aquatic food systems (fisheries and aquaculture) to achieve these overarching "Four Betters".

Options A, C, and D are incorrect because they include fabricated pillars such as "better ocean", "better coral reefs", "better estuaries", or "better mangrove vegetation", which are not part of the FAO's official strategic framework.

Therefore, Option B is the correct answer.

Q19World Geography

Which of the following statements with reference to Lake Turkana is/are correct ?

It is the largest desert lake in the world.
The lake is situated in South Sudan along the eastern fringe of the Sahara desert.
The lake is listed as a UNESCO World Heritage Site and is also referred to as the 'Jade Sea'.

Select the answer using the code given below :

1 only

1 and 3 only

2 and 3 only

1, 2 and 3

Explanation

Statement 1 is correct: Lake Turkana is the world's largest permanent desert lake and the world's largest alkaline lake. By volume, it is also the fourth-largest salt lake globally.

Statement 2 is incorrect: The lake is situated in the Great Rift Valley of East Africa. It lies predominantly in northern Kenya, with its northernmost tip crossing into Ethiopia. It is not located in South Sudan, nor is it associated with the Sahara Desert.

Statement 3 is correct: The Lake Turkana National Parks (comprising Sibiloi, South Island, and Central Island National Parks) are collectively designated as a UNESCO World Heritage Site. The lake is famously nicknamed the 'Jade Sea' due to its striking turquoise/greenish-blue waters, a color produced by the abundant presence of blue-green algae (cyanobacteria).

Therefore, option B is the correct answer.

Q20Environment & Ecology

Which one of the following is the first Plan Vivo certified Reducing Emissions from Deforestation and Forest Degradation (REDD+) project in India ?

Uttarakhand REDD+ project

ICFRE-ICIMOD Transboundary REDD+ project in North-Eastern Himalayas

Khasi Hills Community REDD+ project

Sikkim Mamley Kamrang Community REDD+ project

Explanation

The Khasi Hills Community REDD+ Project holds the distinction of being India’s very first REDD+ (Reducing Emissions from Deforestation and Forest Degradation) project.

It is certified under the Plan Vivo Standard, a globally recognized, fair-trade-styled framework specifically designed for community-based forest carbon projects. The project is located in the East Khasi Hills District of Meghalaya, situated along the Umiam River watershed. It is managed by a federation of 10 indigenous Khasi tribal kingdoms (comprising over 60 local communities), locally known as a Synjuk. The project utilizes REDD+ to protect existing dense forests and ancient indigenous sacred groves, and Assisted Natural Regeneration (ANR) to restore degraded open forests.

Uttarakhand REDD+ project is incorrect as, while Uttarakhand has engaged in REDD+ readiness and pilot initiatives, it does not hold the title of the first Plan Vivo certified project in India.

ICFRE-ICIMOD Transboundary REDD+ project in North-Eastern Himalayas is incorrect. This is a broader transboundary initiative focused on capacity building and REDD+ readiness across Himalayan countries, rather than a specific, first-of-its-kind Plan Vivo certified community project in India.

Sikkim Mamley Kamrang Community REDD+ project is incorrect. Although Sikkim has undertaken significant forest conservation and climate mitigation efforts, the Khasi Hills project is officially recognized as India's first Plan Vivo certified REDD+ project.

Therefore, the correct option is C.

Q1. Consider the following statements with reference to India's response to climate change : I. India's Long-Term Low Emission Development Strategy (LT-LEDS) is a crucial tool for achieving net-zero emissions by 2070. II. India's 4th Biennial Update Report (BUR-4) submitted in December, 2024 recorded around 8% decrease in Greenhouse gas emissions in 2020 over 2019. III. Climate-resilient development necessarily depends on quick and short-term achievement of emission reduction targets. Which of the following relationships among the above statements is/are correct ? 1. Statement I is empirically supported by statement II. 2. Statement III contradicts the approach implicit in statement I. 3. Statement I and statement III together establish the premise of long-term sustainability. Select the answer using the code given below :

(A) 1 only
(B) 1 and 2 ✓ Correct
(C) 2 and 3
(D) 3 only

Answer: Option (B). **Statement I is Correct:** India's Long-Term Low Emission Development Strategy (LT-LEDS) is indeed a crucial tool for achieving net-zero emissions by 2070. It outlines the strategic framework necessary for sectoral transitions in energy, transport, industry, and forestry to meet this long-term goal

Q2. With respect to the Western Hoolock Gibbons, which of the following statements is/are correct? 1. A Sanctuary in North-east India is home to this ape species listed as Endangered in the International Union for Conservation of Nature (IUCN) Red List. 2. They have specialized brachiation and can easily swing between trees. 3. They possess a strong and heavy build like gorillas, yet are remarkably agile tree climbers. Select the answer using the code given below:

(A) 1 only
(B) 1 and 2 ✓ Correct
(C) 2 and 3
(D) 3 only

Answer: Option (B). **Statement 1 is Correct:** The Western Hoolock Gibbon is native to North-east India, and the **Hollongapar Gibbon Sanctuary** in Assam is a prominent protected area specifically dedicated to this species. Furthermore, the Western Hoolock Gibbon is classified as **Endangered** on the IUCN Red List.

Q3. Which of the following best explain(s) the rationale for protecting mangrove ecosystems in the context of climate resilience? 1. Mangroves reduce tidal energy and store freshwater, making them ideal sites for paddy cultivation in saline estuarine belts. 2. Their salt-sensitive roots filter seawater, making mangroves key to converting coastal land into freshwater aquaculture zones. 3. By withstanding tidal surges and offering biomass resources, mangroves function both as natural bio-shields and livelihood bases for rural communities. Select the answer using the code given below:

(A) 1 only
(B) 1 and 2
(C) 2 and 3
(D) 3 only ✓ Correct

Answer: Option (D). **Statement 1 is Incorrect:** Mangroves do not store freshwater, nor are they naturally suited for paddy cultivation. In fact, the clearing of mangrove forests to create agricultural land (like paddy fields) has historically been a primary driver of their destruction, rather than a reason for their

Q4. In what way(s) does the Vizhinjam International Seaport represent a structural shift in India's maritime trade and logistics policy? 1. By functioning exclusively as a domestic cargo hub to reduce reliance on coastal shipping and eliminate the need for foreign collaborations. 2. By focusing primarily on passenger cruise tourism and heritage shipping to increase Kerala's profile as a maritime heritage destination. 3. By leveraging its natural deep draft and strategic location to reduce dependence on foreign trans-shipment ports, enhance revenue retention, and reposition India in regional maritime trade. Select the answer using the code given below:

(A) 1 only
(B) 1 and 2
(C) 2 and 3
(D) 3 only ✓ Correct

Answer: Option (D). **Statement 1 is Incorrect:** The Vizhinjam International Seaport is designed as an international container transshipment hub, not an exclusively domestic cargo hub. Rather than reducing reliance on coastal shipping, a transshipment hub relies heavily on a "hub-and-spoke" model, where large mother s

Q5. Identify the river of the Indian sub-continent on the basis of the following information: 1. It has an antecedent drainage system. 2. It flows through three countries. 3. It originates in the Tibetan Plateau and is an important river for irrigation. 4. It does not form distributaries. Select the answer from the following:

(A) Brahmaputra
(B) Indus
(C) Sutlej ✓ Correct
(D) Teesta

Answer: Option (C). The **Sutlej** perfectly matches all the given criteria. - **Antecedent drainage system:** Rivers like the **Indus**, **Brahmaputra**, and **Sutlej** are classic examples of antecedent drainage, as they existed before the Himalayan upliftment and maintained their courses by cutting deep gorges. - *

Q6. Which of the following with reference to Indian States is/are not correct? 1. Uttar Pradesh shares its boundary with the highest number of other Indian States. 2. Rajasthan shares the longest international border among all Indian States. 3. Sikkim is the only State that shares its boundary with just one other Indian State. Select the answer using the code given below:

(A) 1 only
(B) 1 and 2
(C) 2 and 3 ✓ Correct
(D) 3 only

Answer: Option (C). **Statement 1 is Correct:** Uttar Pradesh shares its boundary with the highest number of Indian jurisdictions. It borders **8 states** (Uttarakhand, Himachal Pradesh, Haryana, Rajasthan, Madhya Pradesh, Chhattisgarh, Jharkhand, Bihar) and **1 Union Territory** (Delhi). **Statement 2 is Incorrect:**

Q7. Which of the following statements with regard to the arrival of Amur Falcons at Doyang Lake in Nagaland each year from Mongolia is/are correct? 1. It showcases how sustained local conservation efforts can contribute to the arrival and protection of international migratory birds. 2. It reflects the global success of advanced tracking technologies that guide migratory birds back to their stopover sites. 3. It confirms that Amur Falcons have adapted to permanent residency in India due to favourable habitat changes. Select the answer using the code given below:

(A) 1 only ✓ Correct
(B) 1 and 2
(C) 2 and 3
(D) 3 only

Answer: Option (A). **Statement 1 is Correct:** Doyang Lake in Nagaland represents a major community-led conservation victory. Previously, hundreds of thousands of Amur Falcons were trapped and hunted annually. Following sustained interventions by conservationists, NGOs, and the Nagaland Forest Department, local commun

Q8. Which among the following is/are the objective(s) of the Rainfed Area Development (RAD) initiative under the National Mission for Sustainable Agriculture (NMSA)? 1. Encouraging monoculture in rainfed areas 2. Increasing rice cultivation in irrigated regions 3. Enhancing productivity and minimising climatic risks through Integrated Farming Systems (IFS) Select the answer using the code given below:

(A) 1 only
(B) 1 and 2
(C) 2 and 3
(D) 3 only ✓ Correct

Answer: Option (D). **Statement 1 is Incorrect:** The Rainfed Area Development (RAD) scheme explicitly promotes **Integrated Farming Systems (IFS)** rather than monoculture. It integrates multi-cropping and rotational cropping with allied activities like horticulture, livestock, fishery, and agro-forestry to diversify

Q9. Which of the following is/are the most significant implication(s) of obtaining Oeko-Tex certification for Eri Silk in the global textile industry? 1. It allows Indian exporters to compete in high-end markets that prioritise chemical-free products. 2. It confirms that Eri Silk meets international safety, environmental, and quality standards, enabling its entry into premium eco-conscious markets. Select the answer using the code given below:

(A) 1 only
(B) 2 only
(C) Both 1 and 2 ✓ Correct
(D) Neither 1 nor 2

Answer: Option (C). **Statement 1 is Correct:** The **OEKO-TEX certification** ensures that textiles are rigorously tested and proven free from harmful substances, heavy metals, and toxic chemicals. This certification acts as a major endorsement, directly enhancing the global marketability of **Eri Silk** and allowing

Q10. Ships from which of the following countries have to cross the Strait of Hormuz to reach out to the Indian Ocean? 1. Bahrain 2. Syria 3. Qatar 4. Egypt Select the answer using the code given below:

(A) 1 and 2
(B) 1 and 3 ✓ Correct
(C) 2 and 3
(D) 3 and 4

Answer: Option (B). **Statement 1 is Correct:** **Bahrain** is an island nation situated entirely within the **Persian Gulf**. The **Strait of Hormuz** is the only sea passage connecting the Persian Gulf to the Gulf of Oman and the open ocean. Therefore, for a ship departing from Bahrain to reach the Indian Ocean, it m

Q11. Tungurahua Volcano, which was declared a Global Geopark by UNESCO in 2025, is situated in which one among the following countries ?

(A) Ecuador ✓ Correct
(B) Peru
(C) Bolivia
(D) Colombia

Answer: Option (A). **Ecuador** is the correct answer. The **Tungurahua Volcano**, whose name translates to "Throat of Fire" in the indigenous Quichua language, is a highly active stratovolcano located in the Cordillera Oriental of the central Andes in **Ecuador**. In April 2025, the volcano and its surrounding territo

Q12. With reference to Madhav National Park, which of the following statements is/are correct ? 1. It was declared a Tiger Reserve in India in 2025. 2. Sakhya Sagar, which is designated as a Ramsar Site, is situated within this National Park. 3. Its area is shared between Madhya Pradesh and Rajasthan. Select the answer using the code given below :

(A) 1 only
(B) 1 and 2 ✓ Correct
(C) 2 and 3
(D) 3 only

Answer: Option (B). **Statement 1 is Correct:** Madhav National Park was officially declared as India's **58th Tiger Reserve** (and the 9th in Madhya Pradesh) by the Union Environment Ministry in March 2025, following a successful tiger reintroduction program that began in 2023. **Statement 2 is Correct:** **Sakhya Sa

Q13. With reference to the climate of Andaman and Nicobar Islands, which of the following statements is/are correct ? 1. The climate can be defined as a humid, tropical coastal climate. 2. It receives rainfall from both South-west monsoon and North-east monsoon. 3. Maximum precipitation is between December and May. Select the answer using the code given below :

(A) 1 only
(B) 1 and 2 ✓ Correct
(C) 2 and 3
(D) 3 only

Answer: Option (B). **Statement 1 is Correct:** The Andaman and Nicobar Islands feature a **humid, tropical coastal climate**. Due to their equatorial proximity and oceanic surroundings, they experience uniform warm temperatures (averaging 23°C to 31°C) and high relative humidity (approximately 80%) year-round. **Stat

Q14. Which of the following geographical features or phenomena is/are associated with the Peninsular Block of India ? 1. Submergence of parts of the western coast due to tectonic activity 2. Presence of residual mountain ranges such as the Veliconda hills and Mahendragiri hills 3. Deep, V-shaped river valleys formed by fast-flowing rivers Select the answer using the code given below :

(A) 1 only
(B) 1 and 2 ✓ Correct
(C) 2 and 3
(D) 3 only

Answer: Option (B). **Statement 1 is Correct:** During the Early Tertiary period, the western flank of the Peninsular block underwent tectonic subsidence (sinking). This led to its partial submergence beneath the sea, which formed the current submerged western coastline and disturbed the original symmetrical river patt

Q15. Consider the following statements with reference to the Sagarmala Programme of the Government of India : I. The Sagarmala Programme seeks to achieve port-led economic growth through cost-effective and sustainable coastal infrastructure. II. The success of the Sagarmala Programme is reflected in significant growth in coastal and inland waterway shipping, along with improved global port rankings. III. Sagarmala 2.0 aims to position India as a global maritime innovation hub aligned with Atmanirbhar Bharat and Viksit Bharat 2047 visions. Which of the following relationships among the above statements is/are correct ? 1. Statement II validates the effectiveness of the strategies envisioned in statement I. 2. Statement III extends the objectives of statement I by embedding them into a future-oriented innovation framework. 3. Statement I contradicts statement III by focusing only on traditional infrastructure instead of modern innovation. Select the answer using the code given below :

(A) 1 only
(B) 1 and 2 ✓ Correct
(C) 2 and 3
(D) 3 only

Answer: Option (B). **Relationship 1 is Correct:** Statement I outlines the core objective of the Sagarmala Programme, launched in 2015, which is **port-led economic development** through cost-effective and sustainable coastal infrastructure. Statement II provides empirical evidence of its success, such as the 118% gro

Q16. Consider the following statements about Rhynchostylis retusa (Foxtail orchid) : 1. It is an epiphytic orchid. 2. The species is endemic to North-east India. 3. It is the State flower of Arunachal Pradesh and Assam. Which of the statements given above is/are correct ?

(A) 1 only
(B) 1 and 3 ✓ Correct
(C) 2 and 3
(D) 3 only

Answer: Option (B). **Statement 1 is Correct:** *Rhynchostylis retusa* (commonly known as the Foxtail orchid) is an **epiphytic orchid**. It grows on the trunks and branches of trees in open forests, using the host tree for physical support and absorbing moisture from the air, rather than acting as a parasite. **State

Q17. Which one of the following statements with regard to the Moidams, built by the Tai-Ahom kingdom and inscribed as a World Heritage Site by UNESCO, is/are correct ? 1. They acted as army fortresses. 2. They were recreation centres of the Royals and Nobles. 3. They were burial grounds of the Royals and Nobles. 4. They were battle drill centres of the Royals and Nobles. Select the answer using the code given below :

(A) 1 only
(B) 1 and 3
(C) 3 only ✓ Correct
(D) 2 and 4

Answer: Option (C). **Statement 1 is Incorrect:** **Moidams** (or Maidams) were not used as army fortresses. They are traditional mound-burial systems (tumuli) of the Tai-Ahom religion. **Statement 2 is Incorrect:** They did not serve as recreation centres for the Royals and Nobles. **Statement 3 is Correct:** **Moid

Q18. At the United Nations Ocean Conference (UNOC) held in June, 2025 in France, the Food and Agricultural Organization (FAO) of the United Nations demonstrated its leading voice on marine and ocean issues, especially on sustainable fisheries and aquaculture for resilient livelihood and "Blue Transformation". Which of the following combinations about the "Four Betters" proposed by FAO for "Blue Transformation" is correct ?

(A) Better production, better nutrition, better environment and better ocean
(B) Better production, better nutrition, better environment and better life ✓ Correct
(C) Better coral reefs, better nutrition, better environment and better life
(D) Better estuaries, better nutrition, better environment and better mangrove vegetation

Answer: Option (B). The **Food and Agriculture Organization (FAO)** of the United Nations guides its global work through a strategic framework aimed at supporting the 2030 Agenda for Sustainable Development. The core organizing principle of this framework is the transformation to more efficient, inclusive, resilient, a

Q19. Which of the following statements with reference to Lake Turkana is/are correct ? 1. It is the largest desert lake in the world. 2. The lake is situated in South Sudan along the eastern fringe of the Sahara desert. 3. The lake is listed as a UNESCO World Heritage Site and is also referred to as the 'Jade Sea'. Select the answer using the code given below :

(A) 1 only
(B) 1 and 3 only ✓ Correct
(C) 2 and 3 only
(D) 1, 2 and 3

Answer: Option (B). **Statement 1 is correct:** Lake Turkana is the world's largest permanent desert lake and the world's largest alkaline lake. By volume, it is also the fourth-largest salt lake globally. **Statement 2 is incorrect:** The lake is situated in the Great Rift Valley of East Africa. It lies predominantly

Q20. Which one of the following is the first Plan Vivo certified Reducing Emissions from Deforestation and Forest Degradation (REDD+) project in India ?

(A) Uttarakhand REDD+ project
(B) ICFRE-ICIMOD Transboundary REDD+ project in North-Eastern Himalayas
(C) Khasi Hills Community REDD+ project ✓ Correct
(D) Sikkim Mamley Kamrang Community REDD+ project

Answer: Option (C). The **Khasi Hills Community REDD+ Project** holds the distinction of being India’s very first REDD+ (Reducing Emissions from Deforestation and Forest Degradation) project. It is certified under the **Plan Vivo Standard**, a globally recognized, fair-trade-styled framework specifically designed for

Q21. Which one of the following Carnatic music ragas is similar to Raga Bilawal in Hindustani music ?

(A) Nat Bhairavi
(B) Kamavardhini
(C) Hanumatodi
(D) Dheera Shankarabharanam ✓ Correct

Answer: Option (D). The Indian classical music system is broadly divided into the Hindustani (North Indian) and Carnatic (South Indian) traditions. While their styles and ornamentation differ, many foundational scales share exact equivalents between the Hindustani **Thaat** system (codified by V.N. Bhatkhande) and the

Q22. The artificially fixed rupee-sterling exchange rate prescribed by the Hilton-Young Commission (1926) was adopted by the British Government for which one of the following reasons ?

(A) Aiding the flow of remittances from India and maintaining India's creditworthiness ✓ Correct
(B) Providing support to Indian importers
(C) Encouraging export of cotton produce from India
(D) Preventing depreciation of the Rupee in terms of gold

Answer: Option (A). The **Hilton-Young Commission (1926)**, officially known as the Royal Commission on Indian Currency and Finance, recommended fixing the rupee-sterling exchange rate at an artificially high ratio of **1s 6d** (1 shilling 6 pence) per rupee, instead of the pre-war rate of 1s 4d. **Option A is correc

Q23. Consider the following statements : I. Pali texts contain the first definite references to coins, e.g., kahapana, nikkha, kamsa, and kakanika. II. The literary evidence from Pali texts is corroborated by archaeological evidence of punch-marked coins from many sites, most of them made of silver. The above statements have been associated with which of the following ? 1. Emergence of urban life 2. Transition to money economy Select the answer using the code given below :

(A) 1 only
(B) 2 only
(C) Both 1 and 2 ✓ Correct
(D) Neither 1 nor 2

Answer: Option (C). The introduction of coinage in ancient India, as evidenced by Pali texts and archaeological finds of punch-marked coins, is a hallmark of the 6th century BCE. This period is associated with two major socio-economic developments: **1. Emergence of urban life:** The widespread use of metallic money i

Q24. Which of the following temples has/have a Nagara-style shikhara ? 1. Malegitti Shivalaya, Badami 2. Huchimalligudi Temple, Aihole 3. Dashavatara Temple, Deogarh 4. Virupaksha Temple, Pattadakal Select the answer using the code given below :

(A) 1 and 2
(B) 2 and 3 ✓ Correct
(C) 3 only
(D) 3 and 4

Answer: Option (B). **Statement 1 is Incorrect:** The Malegitti Shivalaya in Badami, built by the Early Chalukyas in the late 7th century CE, is a classic **Dravida-style** temple. Its shikhara is octagonal and features typical southern architectural elements (such as kutas and shalas), rather than a Nagara spire. **S

Q25. Among the four main forms of existence of life recognized in Jainism, which one of the following is not included ?

(A) Deva (gods)
(B) Yaksha (demi-gods) ✓ Correct
(C) Manushya (humans)
(D) Tiryancha (animals and plants)

Answer: Option (B). In Jainism, the soul transmigrates through the cycle of birth and death (**Samsara**) based on its karmas. Upon death, a soul is reborn into one of four main destinies or states of existence, known as the **Four Gatis**. These four forms of existence are: 1. **Manushya Gati (Humans):** The most des

Q26. The Hallisalasya painting in the Bagh Caves represents :

(A) A joyous folk dance ✓ Correct
(B) Buddha in a meditative pose
(C) The depiction of Shiva and Parvati on Kailasha
(D) Samudramanthan (Churning of the Ocean)

Answer: Option (A). **Option A is correct:** The **Hallisalasya** painting, found on the outer wall of the continuous verandah connecting Caves 4 (known as the **Rang Mahal**) and 5 of the **Bagh Caves** in Madhya Pradesh, depicts a **joyous folk dance**. The mural vividly portrays a ring of female dancers keeping time

Q27. Consider the following statements relating to the use of the place-value system in India : 1. The earliest epigraphic use of the place-value system in India is found in the Mankani plates from Gujarat (AD 595 – 596). 2. In the ninth century, place-values become general in inscriptions all over India. 3. The place-values have been found in Sanskrit inscriptions in South-east Asia as early as the seventh century. Which of the statements given above are correct ?

(A) 1 and 2 only
(B) 1 and 3 only
(C) 2 and 3 only
(D) 1, 2 and 3 ✓ Correct

Answer: Option (D). **Statement 1 is Correct:** The earliest known epigraphic evidence of the decimal place-value system in India is found in the **Mankani copper-plate charter** of Taralasvamin from Gujarat, which is dated to the Kalachuri year 346 (approximately 594–596 CE). **Statement 2 is Correct:** Although the

Q28. Consider the following statements about the archaeological findings in Harappan towns : I. There is wide occurrence of spindle-whorls in the houses but absence of spinning wheels. II. Weights and measurement scales, complete with graduations have been discovered. III. There are houses built in large part with baked bricks, around relatively spacious courtyards, with their own wells, bathing platforms, and large rooms. Which of the following inferences can be drawn from the above statements ? 1. Statement I suggests that spinning was a laborious activity done at home. 2. Statement II suggests the extent of the scientific knowledge that the Harappans possessed. 3. Statement III suggests the emergence of a common property system. Select the answer using the code given below :

(A) 1 and 2 only ✓ Correct
(B) 2 and 3 only
(C) 1 and 3 only
(D) 1, 2 and 3

Answer: Option (A). **Inference 1 is Correct:** The wide occurrence of spindle-whorls in Harappan households indicates that spinning was a common domestic activity. The absence of the spinning wheel (which was introduced to India much later during the medieval period) meant that Harappans relied on hand-spinning using

Q29. Which one of the following statements about the Eka Movement and Bardoli Satyagraha is correct ?

(A) The Eka Movement was throughout supported and organized by the Congress while Bardoli Satyagraha was initially independent of Congress influence and was only in the last stages supported by the Congress.
(B) The Eka Movement was provided leadership by the taluqdars of Awadh, whereas the Bardoli Satyagraha was a movement of the landless labourers.
(C) The Bardoli Satyagraha was a campaign against the enhancement of land revenue, while the Eka Movement was a protest against excessive extraction of rents. ✓ Correct
(D) The Eka Movement was located in the Varanasi and Mirzapur districts of the present-day U.P., while the Bardoli Satyagraha took place in Saurashtra.

Answer: Option (C). **Option A is Incorrect:** The **Eka Movement** was initially supported by Congress and Khilafat leaders, but the Congress withdrew its support when the movement adopted militant tactics under the leadership of Madari Pasi. Conversely, the **Bardoli Satyagraha** was deeply integrated with Congress l

Q30. Consider the following statements about the Rigvedic period : I. Irrigation from wells allowed agriculture to expand away from flood plains and strips on river margins into the present Punjab and Haryana plains having underground water levels reasonably close to the surface. II. Draught-animal power was employed to draw up water out of the wells. Which of the following information support/supports the above statements ? 1. There is evidence in the Rigveda of the use of ashma chakra (stone pulley wheel) and ahava (strapped wooden pails) to draw up water. 2. Mention has been made in the Rigveda of the use of implements like parashu / kulisha (axe) and datra / sreni (sickle). 3. There is a history of the use of ox, even before the Rigveda, for ploughing the land and pulling the carts. Select the answer using the code given below :

(A) 1 and 2 only
(B) 1, 2 and 3
(C) 1 and 3 only ✓ Correct
(D) 3 only

Answer: Option (C). **Statement 1 is Correct:** The Rigveda contains references to the use of an **ashma chakra** (stone pulley wheel) and **ahava** (strapped wooden pails) to draw water from wells. This supports the idea that irrigation from wells allowed agriculture to expand away from flood plains into areas like Pu

Q31. Consider the following assertion : In the Pleistocene period either the Yamuna once flowed into the Indus, or the Sutlej flowed into the Yamuna and one major tributary of either had shifted from the Ganga to the Indus or vice versa. Which of the following is/are the basis of the above assertion ? 1. The Nadi-Sukta of the Rigveda 2. The explorations of the Sutlej and the Yamuna by Robert Bruce Foote 3. The presence of the same species of dolphins in both the Indus and the Ganga river systems Select the answer using the code given below :

(A) 1 only
(B) 2 only
(C) 1 and 2
(D) 3 ✓ Correct

Answer: Option (D). **Statement 1 is Incorrect:** The **Nadi-Sukta** of the Rigveda (Rigveda 10.75) lists rivers like the Ganga, Yamuna, Sarasvati, and Sutlej from east to west. It reflects Holocene (historical/human) geography, not Pleistocene geological shifts, which occurred long before the Vedic period. **Statemen

Q32. What does an empty seat represent in early Buddhist iconography ?

(A) The meditation of the Buddha ✓ Correct
(B) The Buddha's First Sermon
(C) The Buddha's Mahaparinibbana
(D) The Buddha's Mahabhinishkramana

Answer: Option (A). In early Buddhist art (such as at Sanchi, Bharhut, and Amaravati), the Buddha was not depicted in human form. Instead, sculptors used specific physical symbols to represent his presence and the major events of his life. This is known as the aniconic phase of Buddhist iconography. - **The meditation

Q33. Which of the following pairs of ancient and modern names of rivers is/are correctly matched ? 1. Vitasta : Chenab 2. Asikni : Jhelum 3. Parushni : Ravi 4. Yavyavati : Beas Select the answer using the code given below :

(A) 1 and 2
(B) 3 and 4
(C) 3 only ✓ Correct
(D) 4 only

Answer: Option (C). **Pair 1 is incorrectly matched:** The ancient Rigvedic name for the modern **Jhelum** river is **Vitasta**, not Chenab. **Pair 2 is incorrectly matched:** The ancient Rigvedic name for the modern **Chenab** river is **Asikni**, which translates to "dark-colored waters." **Pair 3 is correctly matc

Q34. Which of the following statements on the Amaravati Stupa and its relief sculpture is/are correct ? 1. It was located in the lower Krishna valley. 2. In India, it was next only to the Sanchi Stupa in size. 3. The Amaravati school of sculpture made a lasting impact on the later South Indian sculpture, and its products were carried to Sri Lanka and South-east Asia. Select the answer using the code given below :

(A) 1 only
(B) 1 and 3 only ✓ Correct
(C) 2 and 3 only
(D) 1, 2 and 3

Answer: Option (B). **Statement 1 is Correct:** The Amaravati Stupa, historically known as the *Maha Chaitya*, is located in the **lower Krishna River valley** in the Guntur district of modern-day Andhra Pradesh. **Statement 2 is Incorrect:** The Amaravati Stupa was actually **larger** than the Great Stupa at Sanchi.

Q35. Which of the following pairs of the king and his dynasty in early historical Tamilakam is/are not correctly matched ? 1. Senguttuvan : Chera 2. Udiyanjeral : Chola 3. Nedunjeliyan : Pandya Select the answer using the code given below :

(A) 1 and 2
(B) 2 only ✓ Correct
(C) 1 and 3
(D) 3 only

Answer: Option (B). **Pair 1 is correctly matched:** Senguttuvan (also known as Cheran Senguttuvan or the Red Chera) was a prominent ruler of the **Chera dynasty**. He is celebrated in the Tamil epic *Silappadikaram* and is credited with establishing the Pattini (Kannagi) cult. **Pair 2 is incorrectly matched:** Udiya

Q36. Which of the following factors contributed to the formation of the Forward Bloc by Subhas Chandra Bose in 1939 ? 1. Bose failed to win the confidence of Mahatma Gandhi. 2. The Congress Left was disunited and failed to support Bose. 3. The Communists did not support Bose in his endeavours. 4. The supporters of M.N. Roy and socialist leaders like Jayaprakash Narayan preferred Congress unity to supporting Bose. Select the answer using the code given below :

(A) 1, 2 and 3
(B) 1, 2 and 4 ✓ Correct
(C) 1, 3 and 4
(D) 2 and 4 only

Answer: Option (B). **Statement 1 is Correct:** Subhas Chandra Bose failed to win the confidence of Mahatma Gandhi. After Bose's re-election as INC President in 1939, Gandhi declared the defeat of his candidate, Pattabhi Sitaramayya, as his own defeat, indicating a lack of confidence in Bose. **Statement 2 is Correct:

Q37. Consider the following statements regarding the British policy in Awadh immediately after its annexation in 1856 : 1. The taluqdars were dispossessed of their estates but allowed to retain their arms and forts. 2. A Summary Revenue Settlement was made in 1856 assuming that the taluqdars were outsiders. 3. The British believed in taking revenue directly from the peasants by removing the taluqdars. Which of the statements given above is/are correct ?

(A) 2 and 3 only ✓ Correct
(B) 1 and 3 only
(C) 1, 2 and 3
(D) 2 only

Answer: Option (A). **Statement 1 is Incorrect:** Prior to the annexation, Awadh's landed aristocracy (**taluqdars**) maintained private armies and forts. Immediately after the British took over in 1856, they were systematically dispossessed of their estates, **disarmed, and their forts were completely destroyed**. **

Q38. Consider the following assertion : The genesis of political alliances based on community lay in the very nature of the Montague-Chelmsford Reforms, 1919. Which of the following statements support/supports the above assertion ? 1. Reforms retained and extended the principle of separate electorates. 2. Separate electorates were supposed to counter Indian nationalism, which was growing stronger. 3. Deprived classes rallied around the favours inherent in separate electorates. Select the answer using the code given below :

(A) 1 only
(B) 2 and 3 only
(C) 1 and 2 only
(D) 1, 2 and 3 ✓ Correct

Answer: Option (D). **Statement 1 is Correct:** The Montagu-Chelmsford Reforms (Government of India Act, 1919) not only retained the separate electorates for Muslims (first introduced by the Morley-Minto Reforms of 1909) but explicitly extended them to Sikhs, Indian Christians, Anglo-Indians, and Europeans. This instit

Q39. Pandit Mallikarjun Mansur, the famous classical singer from Karnataka, represented the :

(A) Agra Gharana
(B) Gwalior Gharana
(C) Patiala Gharana
(D) Jaipur-Atrauli Gharana ✓ Correct

Answer: Option (D). **Pandit Mallikarjun Mansur** (1910–1992) was a legendary Hindustani classical vocalist born in the Dharwad district of Karnataka. He is universally recognized as one of the foremost stalwarts of the **Jaipur-Atrauli Gharana**. - **Agra Gharana** is incorrect. This gharana was founded by Haji Suja

Q40. In which one among the following texts does the term kshetra-patni ('mistress of the field') originate ?

(A) Rigveda
(B) Atharvaveda ✓ Correct
(C) Ashtadhyayi
(D) Arthashastra

Answer: Option (B). The term **kshetra-patni** translates to "mistress of the field" (**kshetra** meaning field or land, and **patni** meaning mistress or wife). It is an agricultural deity associated with fertility and the evolving concept of land possession in ancient India. **Atharvaveda** is the correct answer. Th

Q41. Mr. X, a senior officer, was overseeing a critical vaccination programme during a pandemic. He found that a private service provider responsible for vaccine distribution was compromising on quality to make profits. Despite immense pressure to manage the issue due to vested interests, he raised his voice based on the principles of public administration which he learnt during various training programmes attended across his career. He reported the issue to the appropriate vigilance authority and halted the contract to ensure citizen welfare. Which one among the following principles of public administration was most strongly demonstrated by Mr. X's actions?

(A) Esprit de corps
(B) Equity
(C) Accountability ✓ Correct
(D) Delegation

Answer: Option (C). **Accountability** is the obligation of public officials to take responsibility for their actions, ensure transparency, and answer to oversight bodies (such as vigilance authorities). It involves actively protecting the public interest, reporting misconduct, and ensuring that private contractors uti

Q42. In a multi-ethnic district where both economic competition and historical grievances frequently led to community tensions, a flashpoint has arisen with a Government decision to allocate land for a waste management facility near a tribal hamlet, sparking protests by the tribal community, which claimed that the land was sacred and critical to their cultural identity. At the same time, urban residents and local industries supported the project, citing severe solid waste challenges and health concerns due to lack of a proper disposal site. The conflict has escalated with road blockades, social media campaigns, and allegations of police excesses. As a responsible Government official, you are tasked with resolving the situation through mediation, ensuring a sustainable outcome that balances environmental needs, tribal rights, and urban public health. Consider the following statements with reference to the above: 1. A successful conflict resolution process must begin with acknowledging the cultural concerns of the protesting tribal community before discussing technical alternatives. 2. The Government should move ahead with the project without delay to address urban health concerns, which outweigh the sentiments of a small group. 3. Creating a multi-stakeholder dialogue platform — including tribal leaders, environmental experts, and municipal representatives — to build mutual understanding and help de-escalate tensions. 4. Conducting an independent Environmental and Social Impact Assessment (ESIA) and sharing findings transparently with both sides to facilitate evidence-based decision-making. Which of the statements given above would contribute to the resolution process?

(A) 1, 3 and 4 only ✓ Correct
(B) 2, 3 and 4 only
(C) 1 and 2 only
(D) 1, 2, 3 and 4

Answer: Option (A). **Statement 1 is Correct:** In standard mediation and conflict resolution practices, acknowledging the emotional, historical, and cultural grievances of marginalized groups is a necessary first step. Validating the tribal community's cultural concerns helps build trust and creates a conducive enviro

Q43. Ms. X is a mid-level civil service official working in the urban development department of a major city. Recently, she was involved in approving a contract for a public infrastructure project — a new community park. During the approval process, she received a piece of confidential information indicating that one of the shortlisted contractors had a history of poor workmanship and allegations of corruption in other cities, though nothing had been legally proven. The Head of the Department, Mr. Y, advised her not to disclose this information to the project committee or the public because it could delay the project and damage the city's reputation. However, Ms. X believed that withholding such information compromised transparency and public trust. What amongst the following should Ms. X do now? 1. Immediately disclose the information to the project committee and the public 2. Recommend removing the contractor from the shortlist to protect the project's integrity 3. Propose a 'limited disclosure' to an oversight committee, while keeping the information confidential from the public for the time being Select the answer using the code given below:

(A) 1 and 2 only
(B) 3 only ✓ Correct
(C) 2 and 3 only
(D) 1, 2 and 3

Answer: Option (B). **Statement 1 is Incorrect:** The information received by Ms. X is confidential and the allegations are legally unproven. Immediately disclosing unverified information to the public violates the **Central Civil Services (Conduct) Rules** regarding confidentiality. It could lead to defamation, unwarr

Q44. X' was addressing a seminar on the meaning of the term 'law' as provided under Article 13, Part III of the Constitution of India. 'X' explained that the meaning of the term 'law' in the Constitution of India was very comprehensive. It included ordinances, orders and even rules and regulations. 'Y' pointed out that the term 'law' in Article 13 also included custom or usage having in the territory of India the force of law, to which 'X' was not convinced. Based on the above, select the correct conclusion from the options given below :

(A) 'X' is correct in the interpretation of law, including the view on non-inclusion of custom.
(B) The view of 'Y' that 'law' included custom is not correct.
(C) The views of both 'X' and 'Y' are correct.
(D) The view of only 'Y' is correct. ✓ Correct

Answer: Option (D). Article 13 of the Indian Constitution provides for the protection of Fundamental Rights and declares that any law inconsistent with or in derogation of Part III of the Constitution shall be void to the extent of the inconsistency. To prevent the State from bypassing Fundamental Rights through execu

Q45. Consider the following statements with reference to the Constitution of India : 1. There is no Article in the Constitution of India that specifies that the Constitution of India will be officially called the 'Constitution of India'. 2. There is no Article in the Constitution of India that specifies that the Indian Independence Act, 1947 and the Government of India Act, 1935 stand repealed. 3. There is no Article in the Constitution of India that mentions 26th January, 1950 as the date of the commencement of the Constitution of India. Which one of the following conclusions based on the above statements is correct ?

(A) All three statements are correct.
(B) There is no correct statement. ✓ Correct
(C) There are two correct statements that include statement 3.
(D) There is only one correct statement.

Answer: Option (B). **Statement 1 is Incorrect:** Article 393 of the Constitution explicitly specifies its short title. It states verbatim, "This Constitution may be called the Constitution of India." **Statement 2 is Incorrect:** Article 395 of the Constitution contains a specific provision repealing foundational col

Q46. Which of the following statements with regard to the persons with disabilities in India is/are correct ? 1. The Rights of Persons with Disabilities Act, an Act passed by the Parliament of India in 2018, mandates reservation in education and employment, places a legal duty on Governments to ensure accessibility and non-discrimination. 2. The Sugamya Bharat Abhiyan focuses on achieving universal accessibility for Persons with Disabilities across three key domains — built infrastructure, transport systems and information and communication technology. 3. The National Divyangjan Finance and Development Corporation (NDFDC) is a public sector organisation set up by the Ministry of Corporate Affairs as a not-for-profit company to promote entrepreneurship among Persons with Disabilities (PwDs). Select the answer using the code given below :

(A) 1 and 2
(B) 2 only ✓ Correct
(C) 1 and 3
(D) 1 only

Answer: Option (B). **Statement 1 is Incorrect:** The **Rights of Persons with Disabilities (RPwD) Act** was passed by the Parliament of India in **2016**, not 2018. It aligns with the UN Convention on the Rights of Persons with Disabilities and places a legal obligation on governments to ensure non-discrimination and

Q47. Consider the following statements about the provisions pertaining to the Scheduled Castes and the Scheduled Tribes in India : 1. Provisions regarding the administration of the Tribal Areas in the States of Assam, Meghalaya, Tripura and Mizoram are given in the Fifth Schedule of the Constitution of India. 2. Some tribes of India are entitled to exemption from paying Income Tax on certain incomes. 3. The Constitution of India provides for reservation of seats in Panchayats for women belonging to the Scheduled Castes and the Scheduled Tribes. Which one of the following conclusions based on the above statements is correct ?

(A) There are two correct statements, that include statement 2. ✓ Correct
(B) There are two correct statements, that are statements 1 and 3.
(C) There is only one correct statement.
(D) All three statements are correct.

Answer: Option (A). **Statement 1 is Incorrect:** The **Sixth Schedule** (Article 244(2)) of the Indian Constitution specifically governs the administration of Tribal Areas in the four northeastern states of **Assam, Meghalaya, Tripura, and Mizoram**. The **Fifth Schedule** (Article 244(1)) applies to the administratio

Q48. Consider the following statements in respect of questions asked by the Members in the Parliament of India : 1. Unstarred questions are those to which a Member desires an oral answer in the House. 2. Starred questions are those to which a Member desires a written answer. 3. No supplementary question can be asked on an unstarred question. Which one of the following conclusions based on the above statements is correct ?

(A) All the three statements are correct.
(B) There are two correct statements, that include statement 2.
(C) There is only one correct statement. ✓ Correct
(D) There is no correct statement.

Answer: Option (C). **Statement 1 is Incorrect:** **Unstarred questions** are those to which a Member desires a **written answer**, not an oral answer. The written reply is deemed to be laid on the Table of the House by the concerned Minister. **Statement 2 is Incorrect:** **Starred questions** (distinguished by an as

Q49. Consider the following statements about the Committee on the Welfare of Scheduled Castes and Scheduled Tribes of the Parliament of India: 1. Although members of this Committee are elected from both Houses of Parliament, the Chairperson of this Committee is appointed by the Chairman of the Rajya Sabha. 2. Twenty members are elected by the Rajya Sabha and ten members by the Lok Sabha. 3. No Minister, except for the Union Minister of Social Justice and Empowerment, is eligible to be a member of this Committee. 4. Members are elected for a fixed term of two years from the date they enter their office. Which one of the following conclusions based on the above statements is correct ?

(A) There are four correct statements.
(B) There is only one correct statement, that is statement 2.
(C) There are two correct statements, that include statement 1.
(D) There is no correct statement. ✓ Correct

Answer: Option (D). **Statement 1 is Incorrect:** The Chairperson of the Committee on the Welfare of Scheduled Castes and Scheduled Tribes is appointed by the **Speaker of the Lok Sabha** from amongst its members, not by the Chairman of the Rajya Sabha. **Statement 2 is Incorrect:** The Committee consists of **30 memb

Q50. Consider the following statements about Mission Sudarshan Chakra of India: 1. It aims to enhance India's air defence, ballistic missile defence and aerial offensive capabilities. 2. This Mission is being designed to enhance rapid, precise, and powerful defence responses, reinforcing India's strategic autonomy. 3. One of the aims of this Mission is to cover all public places of India by an expanded nationwide security shield by 2035. Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

(A) 1, 2 and 3 ✓ Correct
(B) 1 and 2 only
(C) 2 and 3 only
(D) 1 only

Answer: Option (A). **Statement 1 is Correct:** Mission Sudarshan Chakra is designed as a multi-domain security umbrella. It explicitly aims to enhance India's **air defence, ballistic missile defence, and aerial offensive capabilities**, acting as both a defensive shield and an offensive sword. **Statement 2 is Corre

Q51. Consider the following statements about river bridges connecting India with neighbouring countries: 1. 'Maitri Setu', built over Feni river, connects Ramgarh in India with Sabroom in Bangladesh. 2. Jhulaghat suspension bridge connects India with Myanmar. 3. Mechi bridge and its approaches connect Panitanki Bypass in India with Kakarvitta in Nepal. Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

(A) 1 and 2
(B) 2 and 3
(C) 1 only
(D) 3 only ✓ Correct

Answer: Option (D). **Statement 1 is Incorrect:** 'Maitri Setu' (Friendship Bridge) is built over the **Feni River**, which forms a natural boundary between India and Bangladesh. However, it connects **Sabroom in Tripura, India**, with **Ramgarh in Bangladesh**, not the other way around. **Statement 2 is Incorrect:**

Q52. Which of the following statements about a Zero First Information Report (Zero FIR) under the Bharatiya Nagarik Suraksha Sanhita (BNSS), 2023 is/are correct? 1. A Zero FIR can be lodged at a police station, even though the place of commission of a cognizable/non-cognizable offence is outside the territorial jurisdiction of that police station. 2. The Officer-in-Charge of the police station where a Zero FIR has been lodged may, with the permission of the competent authority, initiate a preliminary enquiry. 3. Under Zero FIR, it is obligatory for the informant to furnish information electronically. Select the answer using the code given below:

(A) 1, 2 and 3
(B) 2 and 3 only
(C) 1 only ✓ Correct
(D) 2 only

Answer: Option (C). **Statement 1 is Correct:** A Zero FIR can indeed be lodged at any police station, regardless of the territorial jurisdiction, for cognizable offences. This is in line with Section 173(1) of the BNSS, 2023, which allows for the registration of a Zero FIR for cognizable offences irrespective of juris

Q53. With reference to the organisations under the Government of India, consider the following details: | Sl. No. | Organisation | Function | Controlling Union Ministry | |---|---|---|---| | 1. | Central Economic Intelligence Bureau (CEIB) | To coordinate between various law enforcement agencies | Ministry of Home Affairs | | 2. | Serious Fraud Investigation Office (SFIO) | To investigate complex corporate frauds | Ministry of Finance | | 3. | Central Bureau of Investigation (CBI) | To preserve values in public life and ensure the health of the national economy | Ministry of Personnel, Public Grievances and Pension | In how many of the above rows are the given details correctly matched ?

(A) 1 ✓ Correct
(B) 2
(C) 3
(D) None

Answer: Option (A). **Row 1 is Incorrect:** The Central Economic Intelligence Bureau (CEIB) acts as the nodal agency for gathering and coordinating economic intelligence among various law enforcement agencies to combat economic offenses. However, it functions under the **Ministry of Finance** (Department of Revenue), n

Q54. Which of the following international conventions have not been ratified by India? 1. Employment Policy Convention 2. Abolition of Forced Labour Convention 3. International Convention on the Protection of the Rights of All Migrant Workers and Members of Their Families 4. Geneva Convention Relative to the Protection of Civilian Persons in Time of War 5. Convention on Reduction of Statelessness Select the answer using the code given below:

(A) 2 and 4
(B) 1 and 2
(C) 3 and 4 only
(D) 3, 4 and 5 ✓ Correct

Answer: Option (D). **Statement 1 is Incorrect:** The **Employment Policy Convention, 1964 (ILO No. 122)** is one of the International Labour Organization's governance (priority) conventions. India ratified it on November 17, 1998. **Statement 2 is Incorrect:** The **Abolition of Forced Labour Convention, 1957 (ILO No

Q55. Consider the following statements with respect to the AI Impact Summit, 2026 held in New Delhi : 1. The Summit's intellectual framework was based on three foundational Sutras : People, Planning, and Progress. 2. The Preamble of the Summit stresses Democratising AI Resources, which acknowledges the Charter for Democratic Diffusion of AI as a binding framework to support locally relevant innovation and strengthen resilient AI ecosystems while respecting national laws. 3. The New Delhi Declaration on AI Impact was structured around seven Chakras (Pillars), which included Access for Social Empowerment, AI for Science, and Secure and Trusted AI. Which of the statements given above is/are correct ?

(A) 1, 2 and 3
(B) 1 and 2 only
(C) 2 and 3 only
(D) 3 only ✓ Correct

Answer: Option (D). **Statement 1 is Incorrect:** The Summit's intellectual framework and core philosophy were anchored in three foundational principles (Sutras): **People, Planet, and Progress**, not People, Planning, and Progress. **Statement 2 is Incorrect:** The New Delhi Declaration introduced the Charter for Dem

Q56. Which of the following connectivity projects is/are a part of cooperation between India and the ASEAN member countries ? 1. Kaladan Multi-Modal Transit Transport Project 2. IMT Trilateral Highway 3. Agartala-Akhaura Rail Line Select the answer using the code given below :

(A) 1 and 2 ✓ Correct
(B) 2 and 3
(C) 1 and 3
(D) 2 only

Answer: Option (A). **Statement 1 is Correct:** The **Kaladan Multi-Modal Transit Transport Project** connects the eastern Indian seaport of Kolkata with the Sittwe seaport in **Myanmar** by sea, and then links Sittwe to Mizoram in India via river and road. Since Myanmar is an **ASEAN** member, this project is a key co

Q57. Match List I with List II and select the answer using the code given below the Lists : | List I (Project Supported by India) | List II (Country) | |---|---| | A. Mangdechhu Hydroelectric Project | 1. Maldives | | B. Restoration of Stor Palace | 2. Afghanistan | | C. District Hospital at Dickoya | 3. Bhutan | | D. Institute of Security and Law Enforcement Studies | 4. Sri Lanka |

(A) A: 1, B: 4, C: 2, D: 3
(B) A: 3, B: 2, C: 4, D: 1 ✓ Correct
(C) A: 3, B: 4, C: 2, D: 1
(D) A: 1, B: 2, C: 4, D: 3

Answer: Option (B). **Mangdechhu Hydroelectric Project** is a 720 MW run-of-river power plant located on the Mangdechhu River in central **Bhutan**. It was developed with Indian financial and technical assistance and jointly inaugurated by the Prime Ministers of India and Bhutan in 2019. Therefore, A matches with 3. *

Q58. Which of the following items of defence hardware is/are manufactured in India ? 1. Su-30 MKI Fighter Jets 2. T-90 MK-III Tanks 3. Akula Class Submarine Select the answer using the code given below :

(A) 1 and 2 ✓ Correct
(B) 1 and 3
(C) 1 only
(D) 2 only

Answer: Option (A). **Statement 1 is Correct:** The **Su-30 MKI Fighter Jets** are manufactured in India. They are produced by **Hindustan Aeronautics Limited (HAL)** at its Nashik facility under a licensing and technology-transfer agreement with Russia's Sukhoi. Recent contracts for the jets feature over 60% indigenou

Q59. Consider the following statements about platforms for multilateral co-operation : 1. The 'Colombo Process' is a regional consultative process in which member states take binding decisions by consensus. 2. The 'Abu Dhabi Dialogue' is a voluntary non-binding consultative process among Asian countries of labour origin and destination to facilitate regional cooperation on contractual labour mobility. 3. The 'Global Forum for Migration and Development', created upon the proposal of a former UN Secretary General, is a voluntary forum whose decisions are non-binding in nature. Which of the statements given above is/are correct ?

(A) 1, 2 and 3
(B) 1 and 3 only
(C) 2 and 3 only ✓ Correct
(D) 2 only

Answer: Option (C). **Statement 1 is Incorrect:** The **Colombo Process** is a Regional Consultative Process comprising 12 Asian member states that are primarily countries of origin for migrant workers. It operates as a voluntary forum where decisions are made by consensus, but they are strictly **non-binding** in natu

Q60. Consider the following UN organisations/agencies : 1. World Food Programme 2. United Nations Children's Fund 3. United Nations High Commissioner for Refugees 4. International Labour Organisation How many of the above has/have been awarded the Nobel Prize twice ?

(A) 1 ✓ Correct
(B) 2
(C) 3
(D) 4

Answer: Option (A). **World Food Programme (WFP)** was awarded the Nobel Peace Prize **once** in 2020 for its efforts to combat hunger and prevent its use as a weapon of war and conflict. **United Nations Children's Fund (UNICEF)** was awarded the Nobel Peace Prize **once** in 1965 for its humanitarian work and effort

Q61. Match List I with List II and select the answer using the code given below the Lists : | List I (UN Peacekeeping Operation) | List II (Period of Operation) | |---|---| | A. UNMIL | 1. 2007 - 2010 | | B. MINURCAT | 2. 2002 - 2005 | | C. MINUSTAH | 3. 2003 - 2018 | | D. UNMISET | 4. 2004 - 2017 |

(A) A: 3, B: 4, C: 1, D: 2
(B) A: 3, B: 1, C: 4 , D: 2 ✓ Correct
(C) A: 2, B: 1, C: 4, D: 3
(D) A: 2, B: 4, C: 1, D: 3

Answer: Option (B). The correct matching of the United Nations Peacekeeping Operations with their respective periods of operation is as follows: * **UNMIL (United Nations Mission in Liberia):** Established in September 2003 following the end of the Second Liberian Civil War, this mission aimed to support the impleme

Q62. Match List I with List II and select the answer using the code given below the Lists : | List I (BIMSTEC Centre/Establishment) | List II (Location) | |---|---| | A. BIMSTEC Cultural Industries Observatory | 1. NOIDA | | B. BIMSTEC Energy Centre | 2. Bengaluru | | C. BIMSTEC Centre for Weather and Climate | 3. Colombo | | D. BIMSTEC Technology Transfer Facility | 4. Thimphu |

(A) A: 3, B: 2, C: 1, D: 4
(B) A: 3, B: 1, C: 2, D: 4
(C) A: 4, B: 2, C: 1, D: 3 ✓ Correct
(D) A: 4, B: 1, C: 2, D: 3

Answer: Option (C). The Bay of Bengal Initiative for Multi-Sectoral Technical and Economic Cooperation (**BIMSTEC**) has established several specialized centres to foster regional cooperation. The correct matching of these centres with their locations is as follows: * **BIMSTEC Cultural Industries Observatory (BCIO)

Q63. Which one of the following pairs is not correctly matched ? (Indian Army Corps) : (Headquarters)

(A) 3 Corps : Dimapur
(B) 4 Corps : Tezpur
(C) 14 Corps : Leh
(D) 33 Corps : Srinagar ✓ Correct

Answer: Option (D). **Option A is correctly matched:** The **3 Corps (Spear Corps)** is headquartered at Rangapahar Military Station in **Dimapur**, Nagaland. It operates under the Eastern Command and handles counter-insurgency and border defense in the Northeast. **Option B is correctly matched:** The **4 Corps (Gajr

Q64. Which of the following statements with respect to the Revamped Rashtriya Gram Swaraj Abhiyan (RGSA) is/are correct ? 1. The period of its implementation is 1st April, 2021 to 31st March, 2026. 2. The key objective of the Revamped RGSA is to develop the governance capabilities of the Panchayati Raj Institutions to deliver on the Sustainable Development Goals. 3. The share of the Central funding for the Revamped RGSA is 100% for all States and Union Territories. Select the answer using the code given below :

(A) 1 and 2
(B) 2 only ✓ Correct
(C) 1 and 3
(D) 2 and 3

Answer: Option (B). **Statement 1 is Incorrect:** The Revamped Rashtriya Gram Swaraj Abhiyan (RGSA) was approved by the Cabinet Committee on Economic Affairs for implementation from **1st April 2022 to 31st March 2026** (co-terminus with the 15th Finance Commission period), not from 1st April 2021. **Statement 2 is Co

Q65. Which of the following countries are members of the European Union ? 1. Belarus 2. Poland 3. Germany 4. Switzerland Select the answer using the code given below :

(A) 1, 2 and 4
(B) 1 and 4 only
(C) 2 and 3 ✓ Correct
(D) 2 and 4 only

Answer: Option (C). **Statement 1 is Incorrect:** Belarus is an Eastern European country that is **not** a member of the European Union. It maintains close political and economic ties with Russia and has never formally applied for EU membership. **Statement 2 is Correct:** Poland is a full member state of the European

Q66. Match List I with List II and select the answer using the code given below the Lists : | List I (INTERPOL Notice) | List II (Description) | |---|---| | A. Silver Notice | 1. To seek information on unidentified bodies | | B. Blue Notice | 2. To collect additional information about a person's identity, location, or activities in relation to a criminal investigation | | C. Black Notice | 3. To provide warning about a person's criminal activities, where the person is considered to be a possible threat to public safety | | D. Green Notice | 4. To identify and trace criminal assets |

(A) A: 3, B: 1, C: 2, D: 4
(B) A: 3, B: 2, C: 1, D: 4
(C) A: 4, B: 2, C: 1, D: 3 ✓ Correct
(D) A: 4, B: 1, C: 2, D: 3

Answer: Option (C). The INTERPOL uses a colour-coded system of notices to enable countries to share alerts and requests for information worldwide. The correct matching of the notices with their descriptions is as follows: **Silver Notice:** It is a recently introduced intelligence tool designed specifically to identif

Q67. Which of the following statements in relation to NIRANTAR (National Institute for Research and Application of Natural Resources to Transform, Adapt and Build Resilience), a platform of institutions under the Ministry of Environment, Forest and Climate Change, is/are correct ? 1. Ecosystem Survey and Analysis is a vertical under this platform, the lead institute of which is Botanical Survey of India, Kolkata. 2. Research and Management of Ecosystem Service is a vertical under this platform, the lead institute of which is Central Zoo Authority, New Delhi. 3. Capacity Development Support is a vertical under this platform, the lead institute of which is Indian Institute of Forest Management, Bhopal. Select the answer using the code given below :

(A) 1, 2 and 3
(B) 1 and 3 only ✓ Correct
(C) 2 only
(D) 3 only

Answer: Option (B). **Statement 1 is Correct:** The National Institute for Research and Application of Natural Resources to Transform, Adapt and Build Resilience (**NIRANTAR**) is a collaborative platform under the Ministry of Environment, Forest and Climate Change (MoEFCC). **Ecosystem Survey & Analysis** is one of it

Q68. The Chancellor of the Federal Republic of Germany visited India in January, 2026. Which of the following is/are not correct in terms of outcomes of this visit ? 1. Signing of a Memorandum of Understanding between the All India Institute of Ayurveda and the University of Hamburg 2. Signing of a Memorandum of Understanding on Youth Hockey Development between Hockey India and the German Hockey Federation 3. Establishment of a bilateral dialogue mechanism on the Indo-Pacific 4. Opening of an Honorary Consul of Germany in Lucknow Select the answer using the code given below :

(A) 2 and 3
(B) 1 and 4 ✓ Correct
(C) 3 and 4
(D) 1 only

Answer: Option (B). **Statement 1 is Incorrect:** During the visit, an MoU was signed to strengthen cooperation in traditional medicine between **Gujarat Ayurveda University** and German institutions. (An earlier MoU in late 2025 was agreed upon between the All India Institute of Ayurveda and Charité Universitätsmedizi

Q69. Which of the following statements about DHRUV64 is/are correct ? 1. It is the third chip fabricated under the DIR-V Programme with an overall aim to enable the creation of microprocessors for India. 2. It is India's first homegrown 1.0 GHz, 64-bit dual-core microprocessor. Select the answer using the code given below :

(A) 1 only
(B) 2 only
(C) Both 1 and 2 ✓ Correct
(D) Neither 1 nor 2

Answer: Option (C). **Statement 1 is Correct:** DHRUV64 is the third chip to be fabricated under the **Digital India RISC-V (DIR-V) Programme**. The first chip was THEJAS32 and the second was THEJAS64. The DIR-V programme aims to create a complete portfolio of future-ready, indigenous RISC-V-based microprocessors to re

Q70. The Bureau of Indian Standard (BIS) recently introduced a national standard to test and assess bomb disposal system. Which of the following statements with regard to this system is/are correct ? 1. The new standard is known as IS 19445 : 2025. 2. It will improve interoperability of equipment across agencies. 3. It was developed by TBRL, DRDO in collaboration with the 30th Central Scientific Research Institute, Russia. Select the answer using the code given below :

(A) 1, 2 and 3
(B) 2 and 3 only
(C) 1 and 2 only ✓ Correct
(D) 1 only

Answer: Option (C). **Statement 1 is Correct:** In December 2025, the Bureau of Indian Standards (BIS) notified India's first dedicated national standard for bomb disposal systems, officially designated as **IS 19445:2025**. **Statement 2 is Correct:** The standard establishes comprehensive guidelines for evaluating b

Q71. X', born in the UK, was conferred the Nobel Prize in 2025. He was a professor in an American university when this prize was announced. Identify 'X' :

(A) Michel H. Devoret
(B) Richard Robson
(C) John Clarke ✓ Correct
(D) Joel Mokyr

Answer: Option (C). **John Clarke** is the correct answer. He was born in Cambridge, United Kingdom, and was jointly awarded the **2025 Nobel Prize in Physics** for the discovery of macroscopic quantum mechanical tunneling in an electric circuit. At the time of the announcement, he was a Professor Emeritus at the **Uni

Q72. Which of the following statements with regard to the Grand Slam Tennis Tournaments is/are correct? 1. The tournaments have a shared governance structure establishing the partnership among the four Grand Slam tournaments. 2. They are open for entry to all internationally ranked tennis players above the age of 14. 3. There is a limitation on the number of 'Wild Cards' a player may receive to compete in a Grand Slam Tournament. Select the answer using the code given below:

(A) 1 and 2 only
(B) 2 and 3 only
(C) 1 only ✓ Correct
(D) 1, 2 and 3

Answer: Option (C). **Statement 1 is Correct:** The four Grand Slam tournaments (Australian Open, Roland-Garros, Wimbledon, and US Open) collaborate through a shared governance structure called the **Grand Slam Board (GSB)**. The GSB is responsible for coordinating activities of mutual interest, including maintaining t

Q73. Which one of the following pairs of semiconductor plants in India and their locations is not correctly matched? | Semiconductor Plant | Location | |---|---| | (a) CG Power and Industrial Solutions Pvt. Ltd. in partnership with Renesas Electronics and STARS Microelectronics | Gujarat | | (b) Tata Semiconductor Assembly and Test Pvt. Ltd. | Assam | | (c) HCL-Foxconn Joint Venture India Chip Ltd. | Madhya Pradesh | | (d) SicSem Pvt. Ltd. | Odisha |

(A) CG Power and Industrial Solutions Pvt. Ltd. in partnership with Renesas Electronics and STARS Microelectronics : Gujarat
(B) Tata Semiconductor Assembly and Test Pvt. Ltd. : Assam
(C) HCL-Foxconn Joint Venture India Chip Ltd. : Madhya Pradesh ✓ Correct
(D) SicSem Pvt. Ltd. : Odisha

Answer: Option (C). **Option A is correctly matched:** The Union Cabinet approved the Outsourced Semiconductor Assembly and Test (OSAT) facility by CG Power and Industrial Solutions (in partnership with Renesas Electronics and STARS Microelectronics) to be set up in **Sanand, Gujarat**. **Option B is correctly matched

Q74. Which of the following statements with regard to India's indigenous new high resolution weather model, the 'Bharat Forecast System,' is/are correct? 1. Its objective is to generate forecasts at the Panchayats cluster level. 2. It was developed by IIT Delhi. Select the answer using the code given below:

(A) 1 only ✓ Correct
(B) 2 only
(C) Both 1 and 2
(D) Neither 1 nor 2

Answer: Option (A). **Statement 1 is Correct:** A primary objective of the Bharat Forecast System (BFS) is to generate hyper-local, highly accurate weather forecasts down to the **Panchayat cluster level** (village and block level) to aid rural communities, agriculture, and disaster management. It operates on an ultra-

Q75. Consider the following statements with regard to the film 'Boong': 1. The film has recently won the British Academy of Film and Television Arts (BAFTA) Award in the Children's and Family Film category. 2. The film is directed by Lakshmipriya Devi. 3. This is the first Indian film to win a BAFTA award in the Children's and Family Film category. Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

(A) 1, 2 and 3 ✓ Correct
(B) 2 and 3 only
(C) 1 and 2 only
(D) 3 only

Answer: Option (A). **Statement 1 is Correct:** The Manipuri-language coming-of-age drama film *Boong* recently won the **British Academy of Film and Television Arts (BAFTA) Award** in the **Best Children's and Family Film** category, competing against major international studio productions like *Zootopia 2* and *Lilo

Q76. Which of the following statements regarding the features of blockchain technology are correct? 1. Records stored in the database may be made visible to relevant stakeholders without risk of alteration. 2. Copies of the entire database are stored on multiple computers on a network, syncing within seconds. 3. Consortium blockchain is a blend of public and private blockchains allowing selective data access. 4. Mathematical algorithms make it impossible to change or delete any data once recorded and accepted. Select the answer using the code given below:

(A) 1 and 3
(B) 2 and 4 only
(C) 1, 2 and 4 ✓ Correct
(D) 1 and 4 only

Answer: Option (C). **Statement 1 is Correct:** Blockchain's architecture allows data to be shared transparently with relevant stakeholders. Because the ledger is append-only and secured by network consensus, users can view records without the risk of unauthorized alteration. **Statement 2 is Correct:** Blockchain ope

Q77. An e-commerce revenue model where the seller has control over pricing but doesn't keep products in stock and instead transfers customer orders and shipment details to a third-party supplier, who then ships the goods directly to the customer, is called:

(A) Dropshipping Model ✓ Correct
(B) Affiliate Revenue Model
(C) Transaction Fee Revenue Model
(D) Agency Revenue Model

Answer: Option (A). **Dropshipping Model** is an e-commerce fulfillment method where a retail store does not keep the products it sells in stock. Instead, when a store sells a product, it purchases the item from a third-party supplier or wholesaler and has it shipped directly to the customer. The seller does not handle

Q78. Which one of the following correctly represents the three key sub-indices of the Financial Inclusion Index (FI-Index) of the Reserve Bank of India (RBI)?

(A) Credit access, Insurance depth, and Pension coverage
(B) Banking access, GDP contribution, and Financial literacy
(C) Access, Usage, and Quality ✓ Correct
(D) Access, Affordability, and Transparency

Answer: Option (C). The Reserve Bank of India (RBI) introduced the composite **Financial Inclusion Index (FI-Index)** in August 2021 to comprehensively measure the extent of financial inclusion across the country. The index incorporates data from the banking, investments, insurance, postal, and pension sectors. The FI

Q79. Which one of the following best describes the key objective of India's 'Open Network for Digital Commerce' (ONDC) initiative?

(A) To allow government control over all digital commerce transactions
(B) To replace private e-commerce players
(C) To break the dominance of large e-commerce platforms by enabling interoperability across networks ✓ Correct
(D) To mandate UPI-based payments for all online transactions

Answer: Option (C). **Option A is Incorrect:** ONDC does not mandate government control over transactions; rather, it promotes a decentralized, open market framework. **Option B is Incorrect:** It does not seek to replace private e-commerce players. Instead, private applications and platforms integrate into the ONDC n

Q80. Which one of the following statements about Unified Payments Interface (UPI) and Central Bank Digital Currency (Digital Rupee) is not correct?

(A) UPI is a real-time payment system but Digital Rupee is akin to sovereign paper currency.
(B) In case of UPI, settlement for end users happens instantly as the money gets immediately debited or credited but in case of Digital Rupee, there is no settlement as the wallet balance gets transferred to another wallet.
(C) UPI transactions are recorded by banks and reflected in bank statements but in case of Digital Rupee, no data is captured in bank statements as transactions are from one wallet to another.
(D) In both the cases (UPI and Digital Rupee), the liability lies with the users and their respective banks. ✓ Correct

Answer: Option (D). **Option A is a correct statement:** UPI is a real-time payment interface that facilitates the transfer of fiat money already held in bank accounts. The Digital Rupee (e₹) is actual sovereign digital currency (legal tender) issued by the Reserve Bank of India (RBI), functioning as the digital equiva

Q81. Which of the following statements about Real-World Assets (RWA) Tokenization are correct? 1. Tokenization is the process of turning real world assets into digital tokens using blockchain technology. 2. Tokenization of real world assets offers 24x7 access, promoting financial inclusion. 3. Tokenization of real world assets will allow the access to high growth investment opportunities for individuals in India. Select the answer using the code given below:

(A) 1, 2 and 3 ✓ Correct
(B) 2 and 3 only
(C) 1 and 2 only
(D) 1 and 3 only

Answer: Option (A). **Statement 1 is Correct:** **Real-World Asset (RWA) Tokenization** is the process of converting the ownership rights of physical or traditional financial assets (such as real estate, gold, commodities, or bonds) into digital tokens on a distributed ledger or **blockchain**. Each token represents a

Q82. A bond whose proceeds are used only to finance or refinance a combination of both environmental and social projects is called :

(A) Green Bond
(B) Social Bond
(C) Sustainability Bond ✓ Correct
(D) Sovereign Bond

Answer: Option (C). **Sustainability Bonds** are fixed-income instruments where the proceeds are exclusively applied to finance or re-finance a combination of both **environmental (green)** and **social** projects. **Green Bonds** are specifically earmarked to raise money exclusively for climate and environmental pro

Q83. Which of the following statements about M1xchange's role in Micro, Small & Medium Enterprises (MSMEs) financing is/are correct ? 1. M1xchange provides collateral based loans to MSMEs. 2. M1xchange facilitates discounting of invoices and Bills of Exchange for MSMEs. 3. M1xchange functions as a credit rating agency for MSMEs. Select the answer using the code given below :

(A) 1, 2 and 3
(B) 2 only ✓ Correct
(C) 2 and 3 only
(D) 1 only

Answer: Option (B). **Statement 1 is Incorrect:** M1xchange is an RBI-regulated Trade Receivables Discounting System (TReDS) platform. Financing on M1xchange is strictly **collateral-free** and "without recourse" to the MSME. The transaction is driven by the creditworthiness of the corporate buyer, meaning the MSME doe

Q84. Which one of the following best describes the 'Crowding Out Effect' in the context of fiscal policy ?

(A) A situation where private investment increases due to increased Government spending
(B) A situation where Government borrowing leads to higher interest rates, which reduces private investment ✓ Correct
(C) A situation where an increase in taxes leads to increased private sector investment
(D) A situation where Government spending has no impact on aggregate demand

Answer: Option (B). The **Crowding Out Effect** is a prominent macroeconomic concept associated with expansionary fiscal policy and deficit financing. **Option A is incorrect:** A situation where private investment increases due to increased government spending is known as the **Crowding In Effect**. This typically ha

Q85. Which of the following statements about Rare Earth Elements (REEs) and Critical Minerals is/are correct ? 1. Modern technological innovations including Artificial Intelligence, robotics and space exploration extensively utilise Rare Earth Elements (REEs). 2. China has the highest share in mining of REEs followed by India. 3. The Government of India launched the National Critical Mineral Mission (NCMM) in 2025 to establish a robust framework for self-reliance in the critical mineral sector. 4. Rare Earth Elements are a set of 13 metallic elements. Select the answer using the code given below :

(A) 1 and 3 only ✓ Correct
(B) 3 only
(C) 1, 3 and 4
(D) 1, 2 and 4

Answer: Option (A). **Statement 1 is Correct:** Rare Earth Elements (REEs) are indispensable for modern technological innovations. Their unique magnetic, luminescent, and electrochemical properties make them critical for artificial intelligence hardware, robotics, space exploration, electric vehicles, and advanced defe

Q86. Which of the following statements about insurance in aviation sector is/are correct ? 1. 'Aviation Hull Insurance' covers the physical aircraft, including the body, engine, and on-board equipment. 2. Under the Montreal Convention, adopted in 1999 by over 130 countries, including India, airlines are strictly liable to pay compensation to the family/nominee of every deceased passenger without requiring the family to prove fault. Select the answer using the code given below :

(A) 1 only
(B) 2 only
(C) Both 1 and 2 ✓ Correct
(D) Neither 1 nor 2

Answer: Option (C). **Statement 1 is Correct:** **Aviation Hull Insurance** is a specialized property insurance policy designed to cover physical loss or damage to the aircraft itself. Standard hull policies cover the aircraft's fuselage (body), wings, propulsion systems (engines), avionics, and on-board instruments or

Q87. Which of the following statements about Crowdfunding is/are correct ? 1. Crowdfunding is solicitation of funds (small amount) from multiple investors through a web-based platform or social networking site for a specific project. 2. Small and Medium Enterprises (SMEs) are able to raise funds at lower cost of capital without undergoing rigorous procedures. Select the answer using the code given below :

(A) 1 only
(B) 2 only
(C) Both 1 and 2 ✓ Correct
(D) Neither 1 nor 2

Answer: Option (C). **Statement 1 is Correct:** According to the Securities and Exchange Board of India (SEBI), **Crowdfunding** is officially defined as the solicitation of funds (usually small amounts) from multiple investors through a web-based platform or social networking site for a specific project, business vent

Q88. With reference to different Committees in India, consider the following details : | Sl. No. | Committee | Objective | Organization under which it was formed | |---|---|---|---| | 1. | R.N. Malhotra Committee | Comprehensive reforms of Insurance sector in India | Insurance Regulatory and Development Authority of India | | 2. | L.C. Gupta Committee | Preparing a roadmap for the introduction of derivatives trading in India | Securities and Exchange Board of India | | 3. | Urjit R. Patel Committee | Preparing a roadmap for reforming bank lending to the Housing sector | Reserve Bank of India | | 4. | Y.H. Malegam Committee | Preparing a roadmap for reforms in Microfinance sector in India | Reserve Bank of India | In which of the above rows are all the details correctly matched ?

(A) 2 only
(B) 2 and 3
(C) 1, 3 and 4
(D) 2 and 4 ✓ Correct

Answer: Option (D). **Row 1 is Incorrect:** The **R.N. Malhotra Committee** was constituted in 1993 by the **Government of India**, not the Insurance Regulatory and Development Authority of India (IRDAI). In fact, the IRDAI was established in 1999 as a direct result of this committee's recommendations to reform the ins

Q89. Consider the following statements about the Non-Banking Financial Companies (NBFCs) in India : 1. NBFCs cannot accept demand deposits. 2. All the NBFCs operating in India have to be registered with the RBI. 3. NBFCs form part of the payment and settlement system and can issue cheque drawn on itself. 4. Deposit insurance facility of Deposit Insurance and Credit Guarantee Corporation (DICGC) is not available to the depositors of deposit taking NBFCs. Which of the statements given above is/are correct ?

(A) 1 and 4 ✓ Correct
(B) 1, 2 and 3
(C) 4 only
(D) 2, 3 and 4

Answer: Option (A). **Statement 1 is Correct:** Non-Banking Financial Companies (**NBFCs**) are strictly prohibited from accepting demand deposits (such as savings or current accounts that are repayable on demand). While certain NBFCs can accept term/fixed deposits, they can only do so if they hold a specific deposit-t

Q90. Consider the following statements about Multidimensional Poverty Index (MPI) : 1. MPI is calculated using Alkire-Foster methodology. 2. MPI calculated by NITI Aayog has a total of twelve indicators. 3. Maternal Health and Bank Account are common indicators in the MPI of NITI Aayog and MPI of United Nations Development Programme (UNDP). Which of the statements given above is/are correct ?

(A) 1 and 2 only ✓ Correct
(B) 1, 2 and 3
(C) 1 and 3 only
(D) 2 only

Answer: Option (A). **Statement 1 is Correct:** Both the Global Multidimensional Poverty Index (MPI) and India's National MPI are calculated using the **Alkire-Foster (AF) methodology**. This method measures acute poverty by counting the overlapping deprivations that individuals experience simultaneously. **Statement

Q91. Which of the following statements with regard to genetic medicine is/are correct ? 1. Genetic medicines correct/compensate for the faulty genes responsible for disease. 2. Engineered viruses and lipid nanoparticles are used as carriers of the genetic medicine. 3. Genetic medicines alter the entire DNA sequence. Select the answer using the code given below :

(A) 1 only
(B) 2 and 3 only
(C) 1 and 2 only ✓ Correct
(D) 1, 2 and 3

Answer: Option (C). **Statement 1 is Correct:** Genetic medicines (such as gene therapy and gene editing) treat or prevent diseases at their root cause. They work by introducing, removing, or changing genetic material to **correct or compensate for faulty or missing genes** responsible for a disease. **Statement 2 is

Q92. Which of the following statements with regard to Large Language Models (LLMs) used in machine learning is/are correct ? 1. LLMs assign probabilities to the next possible words and then pick the one with the highest probability. 2. LLMs process data through mathematical optimization to minimise prediction errors. 3. LLMs produce unbiased outputs. Select the answer using the code given below :

(A) 1 only
(B) 1 and 2 only ✓ Correct
(C) 2 and 3 only
(D) 1, 2 and 3

Answer: Option (B). **Statement 1 is Correct:** At their core, Large Language Models (LLMs) function by analyzing input context and calculating a statistical probability distribution for the next possible words (tokens) in a sequence. In their most basic form of text generation (known as "greedy decoding"), they pick t

Q93. Which of the following statements with regard to stealth technology is/are correct ? 1. Stealth objects have a very small radar cross-section and are coated with Radar Absorbing Material. 2. Stealth objects can be detected using specific frequencies. 3. Stealth objects are coated with metamaterials to increase the scattering of electromagnetic radiation. Select the answer using the code given below :

(A) 1 only
(B) 2 and 3 only
(C) 1 and 2 only ✓ Correct
(D) 1, 2 and 3

Answer: Option (C). **Statement 1 is Correct:** The primary goal of stealth technology is to minimize an object's **Radar Cross-Section (RCS)**, making it appear as small as a bird or insect on enemy screens. This is achieved through geometric shaping (to deflect waves away from the source) and by coating the surface w

Q94. Which of the following statements with regard to Black Boxes used in modern aircrafts is/are correct ? 1. They carry a beacon emitting red light pulses to facilitate underwater detection. 2. They record both the cockpit voice and flight data. 3. Their memory units are made using either stainless steel or titanium. Select the answer using the code given below :

(A) 1 only
(B) 2 and 3 only ✓ Correct
(C) 1 and 2 only
(D) 1, 2 and 3

Answer: Option (B). **Statement 1 is Incorrect:** Black boxes are equipped with an Underwater Locator Beacon (ULB). When immersed in water, the ULB activates and emits an **acoustic (ultrasonic) pulse** (typically at 37.5 kHz) to guide sonar-equipped searchers. It does not emit light pulses, as light cannot travel effe

Q95. Which of the following statements with regard to Green Hydrogen is/are correct ? 1. It is decarbonized hydrogen obtained from natural gas reforming combined with carbon capture and storage (CCS). 2. It is produced using electrolysis of water with electricity generated by renewable energy. 3. National Green Hydrogen Mission of India aims for abatement of nearly 50 MMT of annual greenhouse gas emissions by 2030. Select the answer using the code given below :

(A) 1 only
(B) 2 and 3 only ✓ Correct
(C) 2 only
(D) 1, 2 and 3

Answer: Option (B). **Statement 1 is Incorrect:** Hydrogen obtained from fossil fuels (primarily natural gas) through steam methane reforming, where the resulting carbon emissions are captured and stored using Carbon Capture and Storage (CCS) technologies, is known as **Blue Hydrogen**, not Green Hydrogen. **Statement

Q96. Consider the following statements with regard to involvement of private entities in India's space programme : 1. The Indian National Space Promotion and Authorisation Centre (IN-SPACe) is an autonomous agency formed to facilitate participation of private entities. 2. Agnikul Cosmos launched the world's first flight using 3D-printed rocket engine. 3. Skyroot Aerospace has developed liquid fuel for GSLV. Which of the statements given above is/are correct ?

(A) 1 only
(B) 2 and 3 only
(C) 1 and 2 only ✓ Correct
(D) 1, 2 and 3

Answer: Option (C). **Statement 1 is Correct:** The **Indian National Space Promotion and Authorisation Centre (IN-SPACe)** was established in 2020 as an autonomous, single-window nodal agency under the **Department of Space (DOS)**. Its primary mandate is to promote, authorize, and facilitate the participation of priv

Q97. Which of the following statements with regard to drone swarms is/are correct ? 1. They use Terahertz band of frequency to communicate with the command centre. 2. Individual drones in the swarm can communicate with other drones in the swarm. 3. GPS Spoofing is a commonly used technique to counter drone swarm attack. Select the answer using the code given below :

(A) 1 only
(B) 2 and 3 only ✓ Correct
(C) 1 and 2 only
(D) 1, 2 and 3

Answer: Option (B). **Statement 1 is Incorrect:** Drones typically communicate with ground command centres using standard **Radio Frequency (RF) bands** (e.g., UHF, S-band, L-band) or **Satellite Communications (SATCOM)** to ensure reliable, long-range connectivity. The **Terahertz (THz) band** is an emerging, highly e

Q98. Which of the following statements with regard to GenomeIndia Project is/are correct ? 1. It is a part of the Human Genome Project. 2. The project is funded by the Department of Biotechnology (DBT), Government of India. 3. Its primary aim is to build a catalogue of genetic diversity of the Indian population. Select the answer using the code given below :

(A) 1 only
(B) 2 and 3 only ✓ Correct
(C) 1 and 2 only
(D) 1, 2 and 3

Answer: Option (B). **Statement 1 is Incorrect:** The **GenomeIndia Project** is an independent, pan-India initiative launched in January 2020. It is not a part of the international **Human Genome Project** (which was a global effort that ran from 1990 to 2003). Instead, it was inspired by the Human Genome Project to a

Q99. Which of the following statements with regard to the National Quantum Mission (NQM) is/are correct? 1. It aims at developing intermediate-scale quantum computers with 50-1000 physical qubits. 2. Its implementation includes setting up of four Thematic Hubs (T-Hubs) in academic and national R&D institutes across India. Select the answer using the code given below:

(A) 1 only
(B) 2 only
(C) Both 1 and 2 ✓ Correct
(D) Neither 1 nor 2

Answer: Option (C). **Statement 1 is Correct:** The **National Quantum Mission (NQM)** aims to develop intermediate-scale quantum computers with **50 to 1000 physical qubits** within 8 years. Specifically, it targets 50–100 physical qubits in 5 years and scales up to 50–1000 physical qubits in 8 years using platforms l

Q100. Which of the following statements with regard to India's Deep Ocean Mission is/are correct? 1. It was launched by the Ministry of Ports, Shipping and Waterways, Government of India. 2. Matsya-6000 has been designed to carry 3 people for deep sea exploration. 3. Samudrayaan is a project under this mission. Select the answer using the code given below:

(A) 1 only
(B) 2 and 3 only ✓ Correct
(C) 1 and 2 only
(D) 1, 2 and 3

Answer: Option (B). **Statement 1 is Incorrect:** The **Deep Ocean Mission (DOM)** is a flagship initiative launched and implemented by the **Ministry of Earth Sciences (MoES)**, Government of India, not the Ministry of Ports, Shipping and Waterways. **Statement 2 is Correct:** **Matsya-6000** is an indigenous manned

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