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UPSC Prelims 2026 · GS Paper

Set C Answer Key

Correct options and explanations for GS Paper Set C, organized by subject for fast review.

100 of 100 questions shown

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Q1Physical Geography

Tungurahua Volcano, which was declared a Global Geopark by UNESCO in 2025, is situated in which one among the following countries ?

A

Ecuador

B

Peru

C

Bolivia

D

Colombia

Explanation

Ecuador is the correct answer. The Tungurahua Volcano, whose name translates to "Throat of Fire" in the indigenous Quichua language, is a highly active stratovolcano located in the Cordillera Oriental of the central Andes in Ecuador. In April 2025, the volcano and its surrounding territory were officially designated as a UNESCO Global Geopark. The newly designated geopark spans over 2,300 square kilometers across the Tungurahua and Chimborazo provinces, preserving over 417 million years of geological history, including volcanic formations and glacial activity. It sits within Sangay National Park and towers over the town of Baños de Agua Santa.

Peru, Bolivia, and Colombia are incorrect. While these are all South American nations that share the Andes mountain range and possess their own significant volcanic peaks (such as Nevado del Ruiz in Colombia or Ubinas in Peru), the Tungurahua Volcano is located exclusively within the borders of Ecuador.

Therefore, the correct option is A.

Q2Environment & Ecology

With reference to Madhav National Park, which of the following statements is/are correct ?

  1. It was declared a Tiger Reserve in India in 2025.
  2. Sakhya Sagar, which is designated as a Ramsar Site, is situated within this National Park.
  3. Its area is shared between Madhya Pradesh and Rajasthan.

Select the answer using the code given below :

A

1 only

B

1 and 2

C

2 and 3

D

3 only

Explanation

Statement 1 is Correct: Madhav National Park was officially declared as India's 58th Tiger Reserve (and the 9th in Madhya Pradesh) by the Union Environment Ministry in March 2025, following a successful tiger reintroduction program that began in 2023.

Statement 2 is Correct: Sakhya Sagar, a human-made reservoir created in 1918, is situated inside Madhav National Park. It was officially designated as a Ramsar Wetland of International Importance in 2022 and is known for its abundant marsh crocodile population and migratory waterfowl.

Statement 3 is Incorrect: Madhav National Park is located entirely within the Shivpuri district of Madhya Pradesh, situated on the northern fringe of the Central Highlands. It does not share its area with Rajasthan.

Therefore, option B is the correct answer.

Q3Indian Geography

With reference to the climate of Andaman and Nicobar Islands, which of the following statements is/are correct ?

  1. The climate can be defined as a humid, tropical coastal climate.
  2. It receives rainfall from both South-west monsoon and North-east monsoon.
  3. Maximum precipitation is between December and May.

Select the answer using the code given below :

A

1 only

B

1 and 2

C

2 and 3

D

3 only

Explanation

Statement 1 is Correct: The Andaman and Nicobar Islands feature a humid, tropical coastal climate. Due to their equatorial proximity and oceanic surroundings, they experience uniform warm temperatures (averaging 23°C to 31°C) and high relative humidity (approximately 80%) year-round.

Statement 2 is Correct: The archipelago is unique in its rainfall pattern, as it receives substantial precipitation from both the South-West Monsoon and the North-East Monsoon.

Statement 3 is Incorrect: The maximum precipitation occurs during the South-West monsoon season, specifically between May and September (peaking heavily in July and August). The period between December and May is actually the driest part of the year, making it the peak tourist season. It does not receive the maximum precipitation during this time.

Therefore, the correct option is B.

Q4Indian Geography

Which of the following geographical features or phenomena is/are associated with the Peninsular Block of India ?

  1. Submergence of parts of the western coast due to tectonic activity
  2. Presence of residual mountain ranges such as the Veliconda hills and Mahendragiri hills
  3. Deep, V-shaped river valleys formed by fast-flowing rivers

Select the answer using the code given below :

A

1 only

B

1 and 2

C

2 and 3

D

3 only

Explanation

Statement 1 is Correct: During the Early Tertiary period, the western flank of the Peninsular block underwent tectonic subsidence (sinking). This led to its partial submergence beneath the sea, which formed the current submerged western coastline and disturbed the original symmetrical river pattern.

Statement 2 is Correct: The Peninsular Block is an ancient, rigid, and stable landmass. It primarily consists of highly denuded relict and residual mountains (remnants of older mountains). Standard geographical texts explicitly list the Aravali, Nallamala, Javadi, Veliconda, Palkonda, and Mahendragiri hills as key examples of these residual ranges.

Statement 3 is Incorrect: Because the Peninsular drainage system is much older than the Himalayan one, its rivers have reached maturity. They are characterized by broad, shallow, graded valleys with low gradients, rather than deep cuts. Deep gorges, V-shaped valleys, rapids, and waterfalls are indicative of youthful topography and active vertical erosion. These features are characteristic of the fast-flowing Himalayan river system, which cuts through young, weak, and flexible geological structures, unlike the stable Peninsular Block.

Therefore, option B is the correct answer.

Q5Economy

Consider the following statements with reference to the Sagarmala Programme of the Government of India :

I. The Sagarmala Programme seeks to achieve port-led economic growth through cost-effective and sustainable coastal infrastructure. II. The success of the Sagarmala Programme is reflected in significant growth in coastal and inland waterway shipping, along with improved global port rankings. III. Sagarmala 2.0 aims to position India as a global maritime innovation hub aligned with Atmanirbhar Bharat and Viksit Bharat 2047 visions.

Which of the following relationships among the above statements is/are correct ?

  1. Statement II validates the effectiveness of the strategies envisioned in statement I.
  2. Statement III extends the objectives of statement I by embedding them into a future-oriented innovation framework.
  3. Statement I contradicts statement III by focusing only on traditional infrastructure instead of modern innovation.

Select the answer using the code given below :

A

1 only

B

1 and 2

C

2 and 3

D

3 only

Explanation

Relationship 1 is Correct: Statement I outlines the core objective of the Sagarmala Programme, launched in 2015, which is port-led economic development through cost-effective and sustainable coastal infrastructure. Statement II provides empirical evidence of its success, such as the 118% growth in coastal shipping, a 700% surge in inland waterway cargo movement, and improved global port rankings (with nine Indian ports now in the global top 100). Thus, the tangible achievements in Statement II directly validate the effectiveness of the foundational strategies mentioned in Statement I.

Relationship 2 is Correct: Statement III highlights the goals of Sagarmala 2.0, which focuses on smart ports, green shipping, and positioning India as a global maritime innovation hub aligned with the Viksit Bharat 2047 and Atmanirbhar Bharat visions. This acts as an evolutionary extension of the foundational infrastructure goals in Statement I, embedding them into a broader, future-oriented innovation framework rather than replacing them.

Relationship 3 is Incorrect: Statement I does not contradict Statement III. The initial focus on traditional and sustainable coastal infrastructure in the original Sagarmala Programme serves as the necessary physical base upon which the modern innovation and technology-driven goals of Sagarmala 2.0 are built. The two phases are complementary and represent a progressive policy evolution, not a contradiction.

Therefore, relationships 1 and 2 are correct, making Option B the correct choice.

Q6Environment & Ecology

Consider the following statements about Rhynchostylis retusa (Foxtail orchid) :

  1. It is an epiphytic orchid.
  2. The species is endemic to North-east India.
  3. It is the State flower of Arunachal Pradesh and Assam.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct ?

A

1 only

B

1 and 3

C

2 and 3

D

3 only

Explanation

Statement 1 is Correct: Rhynchostylis retusa (commonly known as the Foxtail orchid) is an epiphytic orchid. It grows on the trunks and branches of trees in open forests, using the host tree for physical support and absorbing moisture from the air, rather than acting as a parasite.

Statement 2 is Incorrect: The species is not endemic to North-east India. It has a vast native range across Tropical Asia, including China, Nepal, Sri Lanka, Bhutan, Myanmar, Thailand, Malaysia, Indonesia, and the Philippines. Within India, while it is highly prominent in the North-east, it is also naturally distributed in Odisha, Andhra Pradesh, the Andaman and Nicobar Islands, and several other states.

Statement 3 is Correct: It is officially recognized as the State flower of both Assam and Arunachal Pradesh. In Assam, it is culturally significant, known locally as Kopou Phool, and is an essential part of traditional Bihu dance attire and local wedding ceremonies.

Therefore, option B is the correct answer.

Q7Art & Culture

Which one of the following statements with regard to the Moidams, built by the Tai-Ahom kingdom and inscribed as a World Heritage Site by UNESCO, is/are correct ?

  1. They acted as army fortresses.
  2. They were recreation centres of the Royals and Nobles.
  3. They were burial grounds of the Royals and Nobles.
  4. They were battle drill centres of the Royals and Nobles.

Select the answer using the code given below :

A

1 only

B

1 and 3

C

3 only

D

2 and 4

Explanation

Statement 1 is Incorrect: Moidams (or Maidams) were not used as army fortresses. They are traditional mound-burial systems (tumuli) of the Tai-Ahom religion.

Statement 2 is Incorrect: They did not serve as recreation centres for the Royals and Nobles.

Statement 3 is Correct: Moidams served exclusively as the royal necropolis (burial grounds) for Ahom kings, queens, and nobles. The vaults enshrine the mortal remains of the deceased along with cherished objects, food, horses, elephants, and historically even attendants, reflecting Tai-Ahom cosmological beliefs about the afterlife. The most prominent concentration of these is located in Charaideo, Assam, which was the first capital of the Ahom kingdom. In July 2024, they were officially inscribed as India's 43rd UNESCO World Heritage Site.

Statement 4 is Incorrect: They were not battle drill centres.

Therefore, only statement 3 is correct.

Q8Environment & Ecology

At the United Nations Ocean Conference (UNOC) held in June, 2025 in France, the Food and Agricultural Organization (FAO) of the United Nations demonstrated its leading voice on marine and ocean issues, especially on sustainable fisheries and aquaculture for resilient livelihood and "Blue Transformation".

Which of the following combinations about the "Four Betters" proposed by FAO for "Blue Transformation" is correct ?

A

Better production, better nutrition, better environment and better ocean

B

Better production, better nutrition, better environment and better life

C

Better coral reefs, better nutrition, better environment and better life

D

Better estuaries, better nutrition, better environment and better mangrove vegetation

Explanation

The Food and Agriculture Organization (FAO) of the United Nations guides its global work through a strategic framework aimed at supporting the 2030 Agenda for Sustainable Development. The core organizing principle of this framework is the transformation to more efficient, inclusive, resilient, and sustainable agrifood systems to achieve the "Four Betters".

The "Four Betters" are officially defined as:

  1. Better Production: Ensuring sustainable consumption and production patterns.
  2. Better Nutrition: Ending hunger, achieving food security, and improving access to healthy diets.
  3. Better Environment: Protecting, restoring, and promoting the sustainable use of terrestrial and marine ecosystems.
  4. Better Life: Promoting inclusive economic growth and reducing inequalities, leaving no one behind.

The Blue Transformation is a specific FAO vision and programmatic priority area that aims to secure and maximize the contribution of aquatic food systems (fisheries and aquaculture) to achieve these overarching "Four Betters".

Options A, C, and D are incorrect because they include fabricated pillars such as "better ocean", "better coral reefs", "better estuaries", or "better mangrove vegetation", which are not part of the FAO's official strategic framework.

Therefore, Option B is the correct answer.

Q9World Geography

Which of the following statements with reference to Lake Turkana is/are correct ?

  1. It is the largest desert lake in the world.
  2. The lake is situated in South Sudan along the eastern fringe of the Sahara desert.
  3. The lake is listed as a UNESCO World Heritage Site and is also referred to as the 'Jade Sea'.

Select the answer using the code given below :

A

1 only

B

1 and 3 only

C

2 and 3 only

D

1, 2 and 3

Explanation

Statement 1 is correct: Lake Turkana is the world's largest permanent desert lake and the world's largest alkaline lake. By volume, it is also the fourth-largest salt lake globally.

Statement 2 is incorrect: The lake is situated in the Great Rift Valley of East Africa. It lies predominantly in northern Kenya, with its northernmost tip crossing into Ethiopia. It is not located in South Sudan, nor is it associated with the Sahara Desert.

Statement 3 is correct: The Lake Turkana National Parks (comprising Sibiloi, South Island, and Central Island National Parks) are collectively designated as a UNESCO World Heritage Site. The lake is famously nicknamed the 'Jade Sea' due to its striking turquoise/greenish-blue waters, a color produced by the abundant presence of blue-green algae (cyanobacteria).

Therefore, option B is the correct answer.

Q10Environment & Ecology

Which one of the following is the first Plan Vivo certified Reducing Emissions from Deforestation and Forest Degradation (REDD+) project in India ?

A

Uttarakhand REDD+ project

B

ICFRE-ICIMOD Transboundary REDD+ project in North-Eastern Himalayas

C

Khasi Hills Community REDD+ project

D

Sikkim Mamley Kamrang Community REDD+ project

Explanation

The Khasi Hills Community REDD+ Project holds the distinction of being India’s very first REDD+ (Reducing Emissions from Deforestation and Forest Degradation) project.

It is certified under the Plan Vivo Standard, a globally recognized, fair-trade-styled framework specifically designed for community-based forest carbon projects. The project is located in the East Khasi Hills District of Meghalaya, situated along the Umiam River watershed. It is managed by a federation of 10 indigenous Khasi tribal kingdoms (comprising over 60 local communities), locally known as a Synjuk. The project utilizes REDD+ to protect existing dense forests and ancient indigenous sacred groves, and Assisted Natural Regeneration (ANR) to restore degraded open forests.

Uttarakhand REDD+ project is incorrect as, while Uttarakhand has engaged in REDD+ readiness and pilot initiatives, it does not hold the title of the first Plan Vivo certified project in India.

ICFRE-ICIMOD Transboundary REDD+ project in North-Eastern Himalayas is incorrect. This is a broader transboundary initiative focused on capacity building and REDD+ readiness across Himalayan countries, rather than a specific, first-of-its-kind Plan Vivo certified community project in India.

Sikkim Mamley Kamrang Community REDD+ project is incorrect. Although Sikkim has undertaken significant forest conservation and climate mitigation efforts, the Khasi Hills project is officially recognized as India's first Plan Vivo certified REDD+ project.

Therefore, the correct option is C.

Q11Environment & Ecology

Consider the following statements with reference to India's response to climate change :

I. India's Long-Term Low Emission Development Strategy (LT-LEDS) is a crucial tool for achieving net-zero emissions by 2070. II. India's 4th Biennial Update Report (BUR-4) submitted in December, 2024 recorded around 8% decrease in Greenhouse gas emissions in 2020 over 2019. III. Climate-resilient development necessarily depends on quick and short-term achievement of emission reduction targets.

Which of the following relationships among the above statements is/are correct ?

  1. Statement I is empirically supported by statement II.
  2. Statement III contradicts the approach implicit in statement I.
  3. Statement I and statement III together establish the premise of long-term sustainability.

Select the answer using the code given below :

A

1 only

B

1 and 2

C

2 and 3

D

3 only

Explanation

Statement I is Correct: India's Long-Term Low Emission Development Strategy (LT-LEDS) is indeed a crucial tool for achieving net-zero emissions by 2070. It outlines the strategic framework necessary for sectoral transitions in energy, transport, industry, and forestry to meet this long-term goal.

Statement II is Incorrect: While India's 4th Biennial Update Report (BUR-4) does record an approximately 8% decrease in greenhouse gas emissions in 2020 compared to 2019, this decrease is attributed to the economic slowdown and lockdowns during the COVID-19 pandemic, not to structural or strategic efforts towards long-term emission reductions. Therefore, it does not empirically support the strategic framework of LT-LEDS.

Statement III is Correct: The IPCC emphasizes that climate-resilient development depends on rapid, deep, and immediate emission reductions in the short term. This approach can be seen as contradicting the long-term focus of strategies like LT-LEDS if they do not also incorporate aggressive short-term actions.

Therefore, the correct relationship is that Statement III contradicts the approach implicit in Statement I, making option B correct.

Q12Environment & Ecology

With respect to the Western Hoolock Gibbons, which of the following statements is/are correct?

  1. A Sanctuary in North-east India is home to this ape species listed as Endangered in the International Union for Conservation of Nature (IUCN) Red List.
  2. They have specialized brachiation and can easily swing between trees.
  3. They possess a strong and heavy build like gorillas, yet are remarkably agile tree climbers.

Select the answer using the code given below:

A

1 only

B

1 and 2

C

2 and 3

D

3 only

Explanation

Statement 1 is Correct: The Western Hoolock Gibbon is native to North-east India, and the Hollongapar Gibbon Sanctuary in Assam is a prominent protected area specifically dedicated to this species. Furthermore, the Western Hoolock Gibbon is classified as Endangered on the IUCN Red List.

Statement 2 is Correct: They are highly arboreal canopy-dwellers. They move primarily through brachiation—a specialized mode of locomotion where they use their exceptionally long arms to swing swiftly and effortlessly from tree branch to tree branch.

Statement 3 is Incorrect: Gibbons are classified as "lesser apes" (family Hylobatidae). Unlike "great apes" such as gorillas which possess massive, heavy builds, Hoolock gibbons are small, slender, and lightweight. Adults typically weigh only 6 to 9 kg, a physical adaptation that is essential for their remarkable aerial agility in the forest canopy.

Therefore, option B is the correct answer.

Q13Environment & Ecology

Which of the following best explain(s) the rationale for protecting mangrove ecosystems in the context of climate resilience?

  1. Mangroves reduce tidal energy and store freshwater, making them ideal sites for paddy cultivation in saline estuarine belts.
  2. Their salt-sensitive roots filter seawater, making mangroves key to converting coastal land into freshwater aquaculture zones.
  3. By withstanding tidal surges and offering biomass resources, mangroves function both as natural bio-shields and livelihood bases for rural communities.

Select the answer using the code given below:

A

1 only

B

1 and 2

C

2 and 3

D

3 only

Explanation

Statement 1 is Incorrect: Mangroves do not store freshwater, nor are they naturally suited for paddy cultivation. In fact, the clearing of mangrove forests to create agricultural land (like paddy fields) has historically been a primary driver of their destruction, rather than a reason for their protection.

Statement 2 is Incorrect: Mangroves are halophytes, meaning they are highly salt-tolerant, not salt-sensitive. While their specialized root systems have ultrafiltration mechanisms to exclude salt, they do not convert coastal lands into freshwater zones. Furthermore, clearing mangroves for shrimp and aquaculture farms is a major threat to these ecosystems, not a conservation rationale.

Statement 3 is Correct: In the context of climate resilience, mangroves act as natural bio-shields. Their dense root networks (such as stilt roots and pneumatophores) stabilize coastal soils and dissipate tidal energy, protecting coasts from storm surges and cyclones. Additionally, they are highly productive ecosystems that provide sustainable biomass resources (like timber, honey, and fish breeding grounds), forming a crucial livelihood base for rural coastal communities.

Therefore, option D is the correct answer.

Q14Economy

In what way(s) does the Vizhinjam International Seaport represent a structural shift in India's maritime trade and logistics policy?

  1. By functioning exclusively as a domestic cargo hub to reduce reliance on coastal shipping and eliminate the need for foreign collaborations.
  2. By focusing primarily on passenger cruise tourism and heritage shipping to increase Kerala's profile as a maritime heritage destination.
  3. By leveraging its natural deep draft and strategic location to reduce dependence on foreign trans-shipment ports, enhance revenue retention, and reposition India in regional maritime trade.

Select the answer using the code given below:

A

1 only

B

1 and 2

C

2 and 3

D

3 only

Explanation

Statement 1 is Incorrect: The Vizhinjam International Seaport is designed as an international container transshipment hub, not an exclusively domestic cargo hub. Rather than reducing reliance on coastal shipping, a transshipment hub relies heavily on a "hub-and-spoke" model, where large mother ships offload cargo that is then distributed to other Indian ports via smaller coastal feeder vessels. Furthermore, it actively seeks to attract foreign shipping lines and global integration, rather than eliminating foreign collaborations.

Statement 2 is Incorrect: While the port has provisions for a cruise terminal, its primary focus is handling international container transshipment and multi-purpose cargo. It is not primarily focused on passenger cruise tourism or heritage shipping.

Statement 3 is Correct: Vizhinjam leverages its natural deep draft of 18 to 24 meters, allowing it to berth Ultra Large Container Ships (ULCS) that previously bypassed Indian ports. Situated just 10 nautical miles from the busy East-West international shipping corridor, it aims to reclaim transshipment cargo historically handled by foreign hubs like Colombo, Singapore, and Jebel Ali. This structural shift reduces dependence on foreign ports, retains an estimated $200 to $400 million annually in transshipment revenues, and repositions India in regional maritime trade.

Therefore, option D is the correct answer.

Q15Indian Geography

Identify the river of the Indian sub-continent on the basis of the following information:

  1. It has an antecedent drainage system.
  2. It flows through three countries.
  3. It originates in the Tibetan Plateau and is an important river for irrigation.
  4. It does not form distributaries.

Select the answer from the following:

A

Brahmaputra

B

Indus

C

Sutlej

D

Teesta

Explanation

The Sutlej perfectly matches all the given criteria.

  • Antecedent drainage system: Rivers like the Indus, Brahmaputra, and Sutlej are classic examples of antecedent drainage, as they existed before the Himalayan upliftment and maintained their courses by cutting deep gorges.
  • Flows through three countries: The Sutlej flows through China (Tibet), India, and Pakistan. The Indus (China, India, Pakistan) and Brahmaputra (China, India, Bangladesh) also flow through three countries. The Teesta flows through only two (India and Bangladesh), making it incorrect.
  • Originates in the Tibetan Plateau: The Sutlej originates from Rakshastal near Mansarovar in the Tibetan Plateau. It is a crucial source of irrigation, feeding major projects like the Bhakra-Nangal Dam and the Indira Gandhi Canal.
  • Does not form distributaries: This is the defining characteristic that eliminates the other options. Both the Brahmaputra and the Indus form large deltas with multiple distributaries before emptying into the Bay of Bengal and the Arabian Sea, respectively. The Sutlej, on the other hand, is a tributary that merges with the Chenab River to form the Panjnad, which subsequently flows into the Indus River. It does not form distributaries.

Therefore, the correct option is C.

Q16Indian Geography

Which of the following with reference to Indian States is/are not correct?

  1. Uttar Pradesh shares its boundary with the highest number of other Indian States.
  2. Rajasthan shares the longest international border among all Indian States.
  3. Sikkim is the only State that shares its boundary with just one other Indian State.

Select the answer using the code given below:

A

1 only

B

1 and 2

C

2 and 3

D

3 only

Explanation

Statement 1 is Correct: Uttar Pradesh shares its boundary with the highest number of Indian jurisdictions. It borders 8 states (Uttarakhand, Himachal Pradesh, Haryana, Rajasthan, Madhya Pradesh, Chhattisgarh, Jharkhand, Bihar) and 1 Union Territory (Delhi).

Statement 2 is Incorrect: West Bengal has the longest international border among all Indian states, totaling approximately 2,509 km. It borders Bangladesh (over 2,216 km alone), Bhutan, and Nepal. Rajasthan's international border with Pakistan is much shorter at 1,070 km.

Statement 3 is Incorrect: Sikkim is not the only Indian state sharing its boundary with just one other state. There are exactly two such states in India: Sikkim (borders only West Bengal) and Meghalaya (borders only Assam).

Therefore, statements 2 and 3 are not correct, making the correct option C.

Q17Environment & Ecology

Which of the following statements with regard to the arrival of Amur Falcons at Doyang Lake in Nagaland each year from Mongolia is/are correct?

  1. It showcases how sustained local conservation efforts can contribute to the arrival and protection of international migratory birds.
  2. It reflects the global success of advanced tracking technologies that guide migratory birds back to their stopover sites.
  3. It confirms that Amur Falcons have adapted to permanent residency in India due to favourable habitat changes.

Select the answer using the code given below:

A

1 only

B

1 and 2

C

2 and 3

D

3 only

Explanation

Statement 1 is Correct: Doyang Lake in Nagaland represents a major community-led conservation victory. Previously, hundreds of thousands of Amur Falcons were trapped and hunted annually. Following sustained interventions by conservationists, NGOs, and the Nagaland Forest Department, local communities completely stopped the hunting, turning into protectors. This safe passage earned Nagaland the title "Falcon Capital of the World."

Statement 2 is Incorrect: Scientists use advanced tracking technologies (like lightweight solar-powered satellite transmitters) to monitor and study the falcons' migration routes, stopover durations, and flight speeds. These devices collect data for researchers; they do not guide the birds. The falcons rely entirely on natural navigation and environmental cues to find their way back to stopover sites.

Statement 3 is Incorrect: Amur Falcons are long-distance migratory raptors, not permanent residents of India. They breed in Siberia and Northern China and migrate annually to their wintering grounds in Southern Africa. During their approximately 22,000 km journey, they use Northeast India—specifically Doyang Lake in Nagaland—as a temporary stopover for a few weeks (October–November) to build fat reserves before undertaking a massive non-stop flight across the Arabian Sea.

Therefore, option A is the correct answer.

Q18Social Issues & Schemes

Which among the following is/are the objective(s) of the Rainfed Area Development (RAD) initiative under the National Mission for Sustainable Agriculture (NMSA)?

  1. Encouraging monoculture in rainfed areas
  2. Increasing rice cultivation in irrigated regions
  3. Enhancing productivity and minimising climatic risks through Integrated Farming Systems (IFS)

Select the answer using the code given below:

A

1 only

B

1 and 2

C

2 and 3

D

3 only

Explanation

Statement 1 is Incorrect: The Rainfed Area Development (RAD) scheme explicitly promotes Integrated Farming Systems (IFS) rather than monoculture. It integrates multi-cropping and rotational cropping with allied activities like horticulture, livestock, fishery, and agro-forestry to diversify income and build resilience. Official guidelines actively discourage single-cropping (monoculture) systems.

Statement 2 is Incorrect: As the name implies, RAD targets rainfed areas (regions lacking assured irrigation) to build resilience against climate variability. It does not focus on expanding water-intensive crops like rice in already irrigated regions.

Statement 3 is Correct: The core objective of RAD is to make rainfed agriculture more productive, sustainable, remunerative, and climate-resilient. By diversifying income sources through Integrated Farming Systems (IFS), RAD aims to minimize the risks associated with climatic variability (such as droughts, heat stress, or floods) and crop failure, ensuring stable livelihoods for farmers.

Therefore, option D is the correct answer.

Q19Economy

Which of the following is/are the most significant implication(s) of obtaining Oeko-Tex certification for Eri Silk in the global textile industry?

  1. It allows Indian exporters to compete in high-end markets that prioritise chemical-free products.
  2. It confirms that Eri Silk meets international safety, environmental, and quality standards, enabling its entry into premium eco-conscious markets.

Select the answer using the code given below:

A

1 only

B

2 only

C

Both 1 and 2

D

Neither 1 nor 2

Explanation

Statement 1 is Correct: The OEKO-TEX certification ensures that textiles are rigorously tested and proven free from harmful substances, heavy metals, and toxic chemicals. This certification acts as a major endorsement, directly enhancing the global marketability of Eri Silk and allowing Indian exporters to confidently compete in high-end international markets that prioritize sustainable, chemical-free, and ethically produced textiles.

Statement 2 is Correct: The certification confirms that a textile meets strict international safety, environmental, and human health standards. This is highly valued by buyers in premium, eco-conscious global markets, particularly in Europe and North America. Combined with its Geographical Indication (GI) status and reputation as a cruelty-free "peace silk," the certification cements Eri Silk's position as a premium eco-friendly fabric, enabling its entry into these premium markets.

Therefore, both statements are correct, making the correct option C.

Q20World Geography

Ships from which of the following countries have to cross the Strait of Hormuz to reach out to the Indian Ocean?

  1. Bahrain
  2. Syria
  3. Qatar
  4. Egypt

Select the answer using the code given below:

A

1 and 2

B

1 and 3

C

2 and 3

D

3 and 4

Explanation

Statement 1 is Correct: Bahrain is an island nation situated entirely within the Persian Gulf. The Strait of Hormuz is the only sea passage connecting the Persian Gulf to the Gulf of Oman and the open ocean. Therefore, for a ship departing from Bahrain to reach the Indian Ocean, it must exit the Persian Gulf by passing through this strait.

Statement 2 is Incorrect: Syria is located on the eastern coast of the Mediterranean Sea and has no coastline on the Persian Gulf. Ships departing from Syria would reach the Indian Ocean by traveling through the Suez Canal, down the Red Sea, and out through the Bab el-Mandeb Strait, completely bypassing the Strait of Hormuz.

Statement 3 is Correct: Qatar is a peninsular country located on the northeastern coast of the Arabian Peninsula, surrounded by the waters of the Persian Gulf. Like Bahrain, its ships must cross the Strait of Hormuz to access the Indian Ocean.

Statement 4 is Incorrect: Egypt borders the Mediterranean Sea to the north and the Red Sea to the east. Ships from Egypt can access the Indian Ocean directly by sailing south through the Red Sea and the Bab el-Mandeb Strait, without entering the Persian Gulf or crossing the Strait of Hormuz.

Therefore, the correct option is B.

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