UPSC Prelims 2011 Analysis

Subject-Wise MCQ Distribution

  • Environment & Ecology (21 Questions): The highest weightage, emphasizing UPSC’s growing focus on environmental issues, biodiversity, climate change, and global agreements. Aspirants must focus on analytical abilities and map-based learning in this section.
  • Economy (17 Questions): Focused on core economic concepts, banking, financial institutions, and policies, with minimal emphasis on current economic developments. Aspirants should master "match the following" questions related to economic policies.
  • Science & Technology (15 Questions): Covered biotechnology, space research, defense technology, and general scientific concepts, requiring both static and applied knowledge. A deep understanding is crucial for answering these questions.
  • Indian Polity (11 Questions): Included constitutional provisions, governance mechanisms, federalism, and judicial independence. A static-heavy approach requires thorough study of NCERTs and reference books.
  • Modern History (9 Questions): Concentrated on India’s freedom struggle, British policies, revolutionary movements, and social reform efforts. Familiarity with key events and leaders is essential.
  • Geography (Indian Geography: 7, Physical Geography: 4, World Geography: 3): A strong focus on Indian geography, especially rivers, agriculture, monsoons, and resource distribution. Maps and geographical concepts must be well-prepared.
  • International Relations (5 Questions): Covered India’s foreign policy, international organizations, and global treaties, focusing on institutional aspects and global affairs.
  • Art & Culture (1 Question) and Ancient History (3 Questions): Minimal representation, covering temple architecture, Vedic texts, and early Indian civilizations.
  • Medieval History (0 Questions): No questions in this section, continuing the trend of reduced emphasis on medieval history in UPSC Prelims.
Prelims 2011
Subject-Wise MCQ Distribution in UPSC Prelims 2011

Difficulty Analysis

  • Medium Difficulty (60 Questions): The largest segment, requiring conceptual clarity and deeper understanding rather than rote memorization.
  • Easy Questions (20 Questions): A fair portion, offering scoring opportunities for well-prepared aspirants.
  • Hard Questions (20 Questions): Required advanced understanding and critical thinking, particularly in Science & Technology and Economy.
Prelims 2011
Difficulty Analysis in UPSC Prelims 2011

Variations in Question Framing

  • Multi-Statement Questions (50%): Required careful evaluation and elimination strategies, particularly in subjects like Environment, Economy, and Polity. Analytical abilities were critical in solving these questions.
  • Direct Questions (50%): Straightforward factual recall, mostly in History and Geography. Focused on well-established concepts, such as those from NCERT.
  • Assertion-Reasoning Questions (0%): Unlike some later years, there were no assertion-reasoning questions, making the paper more direct in approach.
Prelims 2011
Variations in Question Framing in UPSC Prelims 2011

Current Affairs vs. Static Questions

  • Static-Based (81 Questions): Dominated the paper, highlighting the importance of foundational knowledge from standard sources like NCERTs, Laxmikanth, and GC Leong.
  • Current Affairs-Based (19 Questions): A relatively low proportion, indicating that UPSC in 2011 focused more on long-term concepts rather than recent events.

Key Learnings for Future Preparation

  • Focus on Environment & Ecology: The high number of questions in this section suggests that it has been a priority for UPSC since the early 2010s. Topics like climate change, biodiversity, and conservation efforts should be well-prepared.
  • Strengthen Conceptual Understanding: A significant portion of the paper required deeper knowledge rather than memorization, especially in Economy, Science & Technology, and Polity.
  • Master Multi-Statement Questions: Since half the paper consisted of multi-statement questions, aspirants should develop elimination techniques and improve analytical abilities.
  • Prioritize Static Subjects: With 81% of the paper based on static knowledge, aspirants must have a strong foundation in NCERTs, standard textbooks, and conceptual clarity in traditional subjects.
  • Be Prepared for Moderate to Hard Questions: With 80 questions falling in the medium-to-hard category, the focus should be on understanding the "why" behind concepts, rather than just factual recall.
  • Adopt an Interdisciplinary Approach: Questions often combined elements from multiple subjects, reinforcing the need for integrated study, including a balance of map-based learning, assertion-based reasoning, and analytical thinking.
UPSC Prelims 2011 emphasized Environment, Economy, and Science & Technology, with a strong focus on static subjects and conceptual clarity. Multi-statement questions were significant, requiring analytical reasoning and elimination techniques. Current affairs played a minor role, reinforcing the need for NCERT-based preparation. Moderate to hard questions dominated, making an interdisciplinary approach essential.

QUESTION 1

MediumScience & TechnologyPrelims 2011

The function of heavy water in a nuclear reactor is to -

A. Slow down the speed of neutrons

B. Increase the speed of neutrons

C. Cool down the reactor

D. Stop the nuclear reaction

Answer: A

Explanation

Heavy water is employed in nuclear reactors as a neutron moderator , slowing down neutron production and bringing stability to the fission reaction .


QUESTION 2

HardEnvironment & EcologyPrelims 2011

In the context of ecosystem productivity, marine upwelling zones are important as they increase the marine productivity by bringing the:

  1. decomposer microorganisms to the surface.
  2. nutrients to the surface.
  3. bottom-dwelling organisms to- the surface.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

A. 1 and 2

B. 2 only

C. 2 and 3

D. 3 only

Answer: B

Explanation

Marine upwelling zones are regions where deep, cold water rises towards the surface. This upwelling water is rich in nutrients that "fertilize" the surface waters, promoting the growth of phytoplankton, which forms the base of the marine food chain. Therefore, statement 2 is correct.

However, upwelling does not necessarily bring decomposer microorganisms or bottom-dwelling organisms to the surface. Decomposer microorganisms are found throughout the water column, not just in deep waters, and bottom-dwelling organisms are typically adapted to life at the seafloor and do not rise to the surface. Therefore, statements 1 and 3 are not correct.


QUESTION 3

MediumIndian PolityPrelims 2011

All revenues received by the Union Government by way of taxes and other receipts for the conduct of Government business are credited to the:

A. Contingency Fund of India

B. Public Account

C. Consolidated Fund of India

D. Deposits and Advances Fund

Answer: C

Explanation

The Consolidated Fund of India is the most important of all government accounts.

This fund was constituted under Article 266 (1) of the Constitution of India. All revenues received by the government by way of direct taxes and indirect taxes, money borrowed and receipts from loans given by the government flow into the Consolidated Fund of India.

All government expenditure is made from this fund, except for some items which are met from the Contingency Fund or the Public Account.


QUESTION 4

MediumIndian PolityPrelims 2011

In India, if a religious sect/community is given the status of a national minority, what special advantages it is entitled to?

  1. It can establish and administer exclusive educational institutions.
  2. The President of India automatically nominates a representative of the community to Lok Sabha.
  3. It can derive benefits from the Prime Minister’s 15-Point Programme.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

A. 1 only

B. 2 and 3 only

C. 1 and 3 only

D. 1, 2 and 3

Answer: C

Explanation

In India, if a religious sect/community is designated as a national minority, it is entitled to establish and administer its exclusive educational institutions under Article 30 of the Indian Constitution. Hence, statement 1 is correct.

There is no provision for the automatic nomination of a representative to the Lok Sabha for a national minority. Hence, statement 2 is incorrect.

Minorities can take benefits out of the benefits from the Prime Minister's 15-Point Programme. Therefore, only statement 3 is correct.


QUESTION 5

MediumIndian GeographyPrelims 2011

The lower Gangetic plain is characterized by a humid climate with high temperature throughout the year. Which one among the following pairs of crops is most suitable for this region?

A. Paddy and cotton

B. Wheat and Jute

C. Paddy and Jute

D. Wheat and cotton

Answer: C

Explanation

The lower deltaic plains of the Ganges and Brahmaputra rivers are characterized by swamps and Sundarbans

Paddy (rice) The lower Gangetic plain has a humid climate with high temperatures and fertile alluvial soil, which are ideal conditions for growing rice. Rice is a staple food crop in India and this region is a major producer.

Jute Jute is a fiber crop that thrives in warm and humid climates with ample water. The riverine delta of the Ganges provides the necessary moisture and fertile land for jute cultivation. India is a leading producer of jute, and a significant portion comes from the lower Gangetic plain.

Other crops like wheat and cotton might not be as suitable due to the year-round high temperatures. While wheat prefers cooler winters, cotton requires drier conditions.


QUESTION 6

MediumScience & TechnologyPrelims 2011

A genetically engineered form of brinjal, known as the Bt-brinjal, has been developed. The objective of this is -

A. To make it pest-resistant

B. To improve its taste and nutritive qualities

C. To make it drought-resistant

D. To make its shelf-life longer

Answer: A

Explanation

The Bt-brinjal is a genetically modified form of the traditional brinjal.

The 'Bt' in Bt-brinjal stands for Bacillus thuringiensis, a bacterium that naturally produces a toxin that is harmful to certain pests. The gene from this bacterium is inserted into the brinjal, making it resistant to certain pests.

This modification does not aim to improve its taste, make it drought-resistant, or extend its shelf-life. Therefore, the primary objective of developing Bt-brinjal is to make it pest-resistant.


QUESTION 7

MediumIndian GeographyPrelims 2011

A state in India has the following characteristics:

  1. Its northern part is arid and semi-arid.
  2. Its central part produces cotton.
  3. Cultivation of cash crops is predominant over food crops.

Which one of the following states has all of the above characteristics?

A. Andhra Pradesh

B. Gujarat

C. Karnataka

D. Tamil Nadu

Answer: B

Explanation

The state in India with the characteristics described is Gujarat

Northern Arid and Semi-Arid The northern part of Gujarat, bordering Rajasthan, experiences a dry climate.

Central Cotton Production Gujarat is a major producer of cotton in India, and the central part of the state is known for its cotton cultivation.

Cash Crop Predominance Gujarat's agricultural sector focuses heavily on cash crops like cotton, groundnut, and castor oilseed, compared to food crops like rice and wheat.


QUESTION 8

MediumEnvironment & EcologyPrelims 2011

Consider the following:

  1. Carbon dioxide
  2. Oxides of Nitrogen
  3. Oxides of Sulphur

Which of the above is/are the emission/ emissions from coal combustion at thermal power plants?

A. 1 only

B. 2 and 3 only

C. 1 and 3 only

D. 1, 2 and 3

Answer: D

Explanation

When coal is burned in thermal power plants, it releases several types of emissions. One of the primary emissions is Carbon dioxide (CO2), which is a result of the combustion of the carbon present in the coal. In addition to this, the combustion process also results in the formation of Oxides of Nitrogen (NOx) and Oxides of Sulphur (SOx). These are formed due to the reaction of nitrogen and sulphur present in the coal with oxygen in the air. Therefore, all three - Carbon dioxide, Oxides of Nitrogen, and Oxides of Sulphur - are emissions from coal combustion at thermal power plants.


QUESTION 9

EasyIndian PolityPrelims 2011

Under the Constitution of India, which one of the following is not a fundamental duty?

A. To vote in public elections

B. To develop the scientific temper

C. To safeguard public property

D. To abide by the Constitution and respect its ideals

Answer: A

Explanation

To develop the scientific temper This duty encourages rationality and critical thinking.

To safeguard public property This duty promotes responsible citizenship and discourages vandalism.

To abide by the constitution and respect its ideals This is a foundational duty, emphasizing respect for the law and the core values of the Constitution.

To vote in public elections (Not a fundamental duty) While voting is a vital right and responsibility in a democracy, the Constitution doesn't list it as a fundamental duty. It emphasizes respecting the Constitution and its ideals, which might encompass upholding democratic processes like voting.


QUESTION 10

MediumSocial Issues & SchemesPrelims 2011

With reference to “Aam Admi Bima Yojana”, consider the following statements:

  1. The member insured under the scheme must be the head of the family or an earning member of the family in a rural landless household.
  2. The member insured must be in the age group of 30 to 65 years.
  3. There is a provision for a free scholarship for up to two children of the insured who are studying between classes 9 and 12.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

A. 1 only

B. 2 and 3 only

C. 1 and 3 only

D. 1, 2 and 3

Answer: C

Explanation

The merged social security scheme renamed Aam Admi Bima Yojana came into effect from 01.01.2013.

  • The member should normally be the head of the family or one earning member of the below-the-poverty-line family (BPL) or marginally above the poverty line under an identified vocational group/rural landless household.
  • The members should be aged between 18 years completed and 59 years nearer birthday.
  • Scholarship as a Free Add-on benefit will be provided to a maximum of two children of the beneficiary studying between 9th to 12th Standard @ Rs.100 per month for each child payable half yearly on 1st July and on 1st January, each year.

Hence, only statements 1 and 3 are correct.


QUESTION 11

MediumPhysical GeographyPrelims 2011

La Nina is suspected to have caused recent floods in Australia. How is La Nina different from El Nino?

  1. La Nina is characterised by unusually cold ocean temperature in the equatorial Indian Ocean whereas El Nino is characterised by unusually warm ocean temperatures in the equatorial Pacific Ocean.
  2. El Nino has an adverse effect on south-west monsoon of India, but La Nina has no effect on monsoon climate.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

A. 1 only

B. 2 only

C. Both 1 and 2

D. Neither 1 nor 2

Answer: D

Explanation

La Nina and El Nino are both part of the El Nio-Southern Oscillation (ENSO) cycle, which affects weather patterns around the world. La Nina is characterized by unusually cold ocean temperatures in the Equatorial Pacific, not the Indian Ocean as stated in statement 1. Therefore, statement 1 is incorrect. On the other hand, El Nino is characterized by unusually warm ocean temperatures in the Equatorial Pacific. Regarding statement 2, both El Nino and La Nina have effects on the monsoon climate. El Nino tends to weaken the monsoon, leading to drought conditions in India, while La Nina tends to strengthen the monsoon, leading to above-normal rainfall. Therefore, statement 2 is also incorrect.


QUESTION 12

MediumEnvironment & EcologyPrelims 2011

Salinization occurs when the irrigation water accumulated in the soil evaporates, leaving behind salts and minerals. What are the effects of salinization on the irrigated land?

A. It greatly increases the crop production

B. It makes some soils impermeable

C. It raises the water table

D. It fills the air spaces in the soil with water

Answer: B

Explanation

Soil salinization occurs when water-soluble salts accumulate in the soil to a level that impacts on agricultural production, environmental health, and economics.

  • Salt at higher level causes soil aggregates to break down, collapsing soil pores and reducing the movement of water and air. This makes soil impermeable.
  • In the early stages, salinity affects the metabolism of soil organisms and reduces soil productivity, but in advanced stages it destroys all vegetation and other organisms living in the soil, consequently transforming fertile and productive land into barren and desertified lands.

QUESTION 13

MediumIndian GeographyPrelims 2011

The Brahmaputra, Irrawaddy and Mekong rivers originate in Tibet and flow through narrow and parallel mountain ranges in their upper reaches. Of these rivers, Brahmaputra makes a “U” turn in its course to flow into India. This “U” turn is due to -

A. Uplift of folded Himalayan series

B. Syntaxial bending of geologically young Himalayas

C. Geo-tectonic disturbance in the tertiary folded mountain chains

D. Both a and b above

Answer: B

Explanation

The "U" turn made by the Brahmaputra River in its course to flow into India is primarily due to the geological phenomenon known as "syntaxial bending" of the geologically young Himalayas.

Syntaxial bending refers to the bending or folding of rock layers that occurs as a result of the collision and convergence of tectonic plates. In the case of the Brahmaputra River, the collision of the Indian Plate with the Eurasian Plate has resulted in the uplift of the Himalayas and the bending of the river's course.

The Brahmaputra River flows from Tibet into India, and as it encounters the geologically young Himalayas, it undergoes a sharp bend in its course, forming the characteristic "U" shape.


QUESTION 14

HardScience & TechnologyPrelims 2011

The surface of a lake is frozen in severe winter, but the water at its bottom is still liquid. What is the reason?

A. Ice is a bad conductor of heat

B. Since the surface of the lake is at the same temperature as the air, no heat is lost

C. The density of water is maximum at 4°C

D. None of the statements a, b and c given above is correct

Answer: C

Explanation

The reason why the surface of a lake freezes in severe winter, but the water at its bottom is still liquid is due to the unique property of water. Water attains its maximum density at 4C. When a lake cools, the surface water loses heat, becomes denser and sinks. This process continues until all the water in the lake is at 4C. With further cooling, a stable, lighter layer of water forms at the surface. When this surface water freezes, it floats and stays at the surface of the lake until a solid sheet of ice is formed. The water at the bottom remains liquid because it is denser and hence, does not rise to the surface to freeze.


QUESTION 15

HardScience & TechnologyPrelims 2011

Regular intake of fresh fruits and vegetables is recommended in the diet since they are a good source of antioxidants. How do antioxidants help a person maintain health and promote longevity?

A. They activate the enzymes necessary for vitamin synthesis in the body and help prevent vitamin deficiency.

B. They prevent excessive oxidation of carbohydrates, fats and proteins in the body and help avoid unnecessary wastage of energy.

C. They neutralize the free radicals produced in the body during metabolism.

D. They activate certain genes in the cells of the body and help delay the ageing process.

Answer: C

Explanation

Antioxidants are substances that can prevent or slow damage to cells caused by free radicals, unstable molecules that the body produces as a reaction to environmental and other pressures. They are sometimes called free-radical scavengers".

They can protect against the cell damage that free radicals cause, reducing the risk of many non-communicable diseases. Therefore, the option that best describes the role of antioxidants is that they neutralize the free radicals produced in the body during metabolism.


QUESTION 16

HardModern HistoryPrelims 2011

The tendency for increased litigation was visible after the introduction of the land settlement system of Lord Cornwallis in 1793. The reason for this is normally traced to which of the following provisions?

A. Making zamindar’s position stronger vis-à-vis the ryot.

B. Making east India company an overlord of zamindars.

C. Making the judicial system more efficient.

D. None of the a, b and c above.

Answer: D

Explanation

The reforms of Cornwallis had increased the litigation after the introduction of the land settlement system, and the main reason for this was the removal of Court Fee, and now everybody could drag anybody to the courts. Also, the extension of the right to appeal made it easier for people to take their disputes to court.


QUESTION 17

MediumEnvironment & EcologyPrelims 2011

In the Union Budget 2011-12, a full exemption from basic customs duty was extended to the bio-based asphalt (bioasphalt). What is the importance of this material?

  1. Unlike traditional asphalt, bio-asphalt is not based on fossil fuels.
  2. Bioasphalt can be made from non-renewable resources.
  3. Bioasphalt can be made from organic waste materials.
  4. It is eco-friendly to use bioasphalt for surfacing of the roads.

Which of the statements given above are correct?

A. 1, 2 and 3 only

B. 1, 3 and 4 only

C. 2 and 4 only

D. 1, 2, 3 and 4

Answer: B

Explanation

Bioasphalt is an asphalt alternative made from non-petroleum based renewable resources. (Asphalt or bitumen is a sticky, black and highly viscous liquid or semi-solid form of petroleum.)

These sources include

  • sugar, molasses and rice, corn and potato starches
  • natural tree and gum resins
  • natural latex rubber and vegetable oils
  • lignin, cellulose
  • palm oil waste, coconut waste, peanut oil waste, canola oil waste
  • dried sewage effluent and so on.

It is eco-friendly and hence used for surfacing of roads.


QUESTION 18

HardEconomyPrelims 2011

In the context of global oil prices, “Brent crude oil” is frequently referred to in the news. What does this term imply?

  1. It is a major classification of crude oil.
  2. It is sourced from the north sea.
  3. It does not contain sulphur.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

A. 2 only.

B. 1 and 2 only.

C. 1 and 3 only.

D. 1,2, and 3.

Answer: B

Explanation

Brent crude oil is indeed a major classification of crude oil, which makes statement 1 correct. It serves as a benchmark for global oil prices and is used to set prices for a significant portion of global crude oil.

Statement 2 is also correct. Brent crude oil is sourced from oil fields in the North Sea, between the Shetland Islands and Norway.

However, statement 3 is incorrect. Brent crude oil does contain sulphur. It has a sulphur content of 0.37%, which is why it is considered less "sweet" compared to West Texas Intermediate (WTI) oil, which has a lower sulphur content of 0.24%.


QUESTION 19

EasyEconomyPrelims 2011

Which one of the following is not a feature of “Value Added Tax”?

A. It is a multi-point destination-based system of taxation

B. It is a tax levied on value addition at each stage of the transaction in the production-distribution chain

C. It is a tax on the final consumption of goods or services and must ultimately be borne by the consumer

D. It is basically a subject of the Central Government and the State Governments are only a facilitator for its successful implementation

Answer: D

Explanation

A Value Added Tax (VAT) is indeed a multi-point destination-based system of taxation, which means it is levied at each stage of the production and distribution process, and the tax is ultimately borne by the final consumer.

The implementation of VAT is primarily the responsibility of the state governments in India. While the central government provides the legal and policy framework, the state governments are responsible for the actual implementation, administration, and collection of VAT within their respective states.

Therefore, it is not accurate to say that the State Governments are only facilitators for its successful implementation.


QUESTION 20

EasyEconomyPrelims 2011

Economic growth is usually coupled with -

A. Deflation

B. Inflation

C. Stagflation

D. Hyperinflation

Answer: B

Explanation

Economic growth has inflation as a usual consequence as prices rise for goods with people having higher purchasing power and more money circulation in the system. But the contrary is not true i.e., inflation in the economy does not mean that growth is happening. It's a one-way causal relationship and not two-way.


QUESTION 21

EasyEconomyPrelims 2011

Both Foreign Direct Investment (FDI) and Foreign Institutional Investor (FII) are related to investment in a country. Which one of the following statements best represents an important difference between the two?

A. FII helps bring better management skills and technology, while FDI only brings in capital

B. FII helps in increasing capital availability in general, while FDI only targets specific sectors

C. FDI flows only into the secondary market, while FII targets primary market

D. FII is considered to be more stable than FDI

Answer: B

Explanation

FDI involves direct investment in physical assets or a significant degree of control or influence in the management of a company in a foreign country. It often focuses on specific sectors, such as manufacturing or infrastructure.

On the other hand, FII refers to investments made by foreign institutions, such as mutual funds, hedge funds, and pension funds, into the financial markets of a country. FIIs usually invest in a broader range of securities, and their investments can help increase capital availability across various sectors of the economy.


QUESTION 22

MediumEconomyPrelims 2011

In the context of Indian economy consider the following statements :

  1. The growth rate of GDP has steadily increased in the last five years.
  2. The growth rate in per capita income has steadily increased in the last five years.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

A. 1 only

B. 2 only

C. Both 1 and 2

D. Neither 1 nor 2

Answer: D

Explanation

The growth rate in GDP had gone down and came up, several times in the five years preceding 2011. Same had been the case with the growth rate of per capita income.


QUESTION 23

HardEnvironment & EcologyPrelims 2011

Human activities in the recent past have caused the increased concentration of carbon dioxide in the atmosphere, but a lot of it does not remain in the lower atmosphere because of :

  1. its escape into the outer stratosphere.
  2. the photosynthesis by phytoplankton in the oceans.
  3. the trapping of air in the polar ice caps.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

A. 1 and 2

B. 2 only

C. 2 and 3

D. 3 only

Answer: B

Explanation

One of the significant processes that remove carbon dioxide from the atmosphere is photosynthesis by phytoplankton in the oceans. Phytoplankton, through photosynthesis, absorb carbon dioxide from the atmosphere and convert it into organic carbon, which can then be stored in the ocean or passed through the marine food web.

Carbon dioxide does not typically escape into the outer stratosphere as a mechanism to reduce its concentration in the atmosphere. While trapping of air in the polar ice caps may occur, it is not a significant process for reducing the concentration of carbon dioxide in the atmosphere.


QUESTION 24

EasyIndian PolityPrelims 2011

When the annual Union Budget is not passed by the LokSabha -

A. the Budget is modified and presented again

B. the Budget is referred to the RajyaSabha for suggestions

C. the Union Finance Minister is asked to resign,

D. the Prime Minister submits the resignation of Council of Ministers

Answer: D

Explanation

In India, if the annual Union Budget is not passed by the Lok Sabha (the lower house of Parliament), the most likely consequence is

The Prime Minister submits the resignation of Council of Ministers.

This is because passing the budget is a crucial function of the government, and failing to do so signifies a loss of confidence in the ruling party's ability to manage the country's finances.


QUESTION 25

EasyIndian GeographyPrelims 2011

India is regarded as a country with “Demographic Dividend”. This is due to:

A. Its high population in the age group below 15 years

B. Its high population in the age group of 15-64 years

C. Its high population in the age group above 65 years

D. Its high total population

Answer: B

Explanation

India is regarded as a country with a "demographic dividend" due to its large working-age population compared to its dependent population (young and old).

Working-age population This refers to the population segment that is traditionally in the workforce, typically between the ages of 15 and 64. Dependent population This includes children (usually below 15 years) and older adults (usually above 64 years) who are financially reliant on the working-age population.

A large working-age population relative to the dependent population creates a potential for economic growth. This is because more people are contributing to the economy through their labour and taxes, while fewer are relying on social services.


QUESTION 26

MediumEnvironment & EcologyPrelims 2011

There is a concern over the increase in harmful algal blooms in the seawaters of India. What could be the causative factors for this phenomenon?

  1. Discharge of nutrients from the estuaries.
  2. Run-off from the land during the monsoon.
  3. Upwelling in the seas.

Select the correct answer from the codes given below:

A. 1 only

B. 1 and 2 only

C. 2 and 3 only

D. 1, 2 and 3

Answer: D

Explanation

Nutrients such as nitrogen and phosphorus from agricultural run-off, sewage, and industrial waste can feed algal blooms, leading to their increase.

The monsoon brings heavy rains that wash more nutrients from the land into the sea, further contributing to nutrient enrichment of coastal waters and stimulating algal blooms.

Upwelling brings nutrient-rich cold water from the deep sea to the surface. These nutrients can fuel the growth of algae, leading to blooms. While upwelling is a natural process, its effects can exacerbate the conditions that lead to harmful algal blooms when combined with excessive nutrient levels from human activities.

Therefore, all three factors mentioned in the options can contribute to the increase in harmful algal blooms in the seawaters of India.


QUESTION 27

EasyEconomyPrelims 2011

A “closed economy” is an economy in which -

A. the money supply is fully controlled

B. deficit financing takes place

C. only exports take place

D. neither exports nor imports take place

Answer: D

Explanation

A closed economy is one that has no trade activity with outside economies. It is self-sufficient, which means no imports come into the country and no exports leave the country.

A closed economy's intent is to provide domestic consumers with everything they need from within the country's borders.


QUESTION 28

MediumIndian PolityPrelims 2011

Consider the following statements : In India, a Metropolitan Planning Committee -

  1. is constituted under the provisions of the Constitution of India.
  2. prepares the draft development plans for the metropolitan area.
  3. has sole responsibility for implementing Government sponsored schemes in the metropolitan area.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

A. 1 and 2 only

B. 2 only

C. 1 and 3 only

D. 1, 2 and 3

Answer: A

Explanation

The Constitution of India makes it mandatory for the States to set up Metropolitan Planning Committees (MPCs) in the metropolitan areas of the country. A metropolitan area is defined as an area having a population of 1 million.

According to Article 243ZE(1), there shall be constituted in every Metropolitan area a Metropolitan Planning Committee to prepare a draft development plan for the Metropolitan area as a whole.

It does not have the sole responsibility of implemneting government sponsored schemes, which is rather the responsivility of the city administration.


QUESTION 29

EasyInternational RelationsPrelims 2011

Regarding the international monetary fund, which one of the following statements is correct?

A. It can grant to any country.

B. It can grant loans to only developed countries.

C. It grants loans to only member countries.

D. It can grant loans to the central bank of a country.

Answer: C

Explanation

The International Monetary Fund (IMF) is an intergovernmental organization that focuses in particular on policies that have an impact on the exchange rate and the balance of payments.

The organization's stated objectives are to promote international economic cooperation, international trade, employment, and exchange rate stability, including by making resources available to member countries to meet balance of payments needs.


QUESTION 30

MediumEnvironment & EcologyPrelims 2011

The “Red Data Book” published by the International Union for Conservation of Nature and Natural Resources (IUCN) contain lists of -

  1. Endemic plant and animal species present in the biodiversity hotspots,
  2. Threatened plant and animal species.
  3. Protected sites for conservation of nature and natural resources in various countries.

Select the correct answer using the codes given below:

A. 1 and 3

B. 2 only

C. 2 and 3

D. 3 only

Answer: B

Explanation

The "Red Data Book" published by the International Union for Conservation of Nature and Natural Resources (IUCN) is a comprehensive inventory of the global conservation status of plant and animal species. It primarily contains lists of threatened plant and animal species.

It does not list endemic species present in biodiversity hotspots or protected sites for conservation of nature and natural resources in various countries.

Therefore, the correct answer is that the Red Data Book contains lists of threatened plant and animal species only.


QUESTION 31

HardScience & TechnologyPrelims 2011

A company marketing food products advertises that its items do not contain trans-fats. What does this campaign signify to the customers?

  1. The food products are not made out of hydrogenated oils.
  2. The food products are not made out of animal fats/oils.
  3. The oils used are not likely to damage the cardiovascular health of the consumers.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

A. 1 only.

B. 2 and 3 only.

C. 1 and 3 only.

D. 1,2 and 3.

Answer: A

Explanation

It signifies to the customers that the food products are not made out of hydrogenated oils. Trans fat is an unsaturated fatty acid which is obtained by adding hydrogen to liquid vegetable oils to make them more solid. Trans fat is considered to be unhealthy as they increase the risk of heart disease .


QUESTION 32

EasyEconomyPrelims 2011

Which one of the following statements appropriately describes the “fiscal stimulus”?

A. It is a massive investment by the Government in the manufacturing sector to ensure the supply of goods to meet the demand surge caused by rapid economic growth

B. It is an intense affirmative action of the Government to boost economic activity in the country

C. It is the Government’s intensive action on financial institutions to ensure disbursement of loans to agriculture and allied sectors to promote greater food production and contain food inflation

D. It is an extreme affirmative action by the Government to pursue its policy of financial inclusion

Answer: B

Explanation

Fiscal stimulus is essentially an increase in public spending or a reduction in the level of taxation that might be performed by a government to encourage and support economic growth.

  • Fiscal stimulus may refer to either greater public spending or tax cuts. In both cases, the government aims to boost economic growth.

QUESTION 33

MediumIndian GeographyPrelims 2011

With reference to micro-irrigation, which of the following statements is/are correct?

  1. Fertilizer/nutrient loss can be reduced.
  2. It is the only means of irrigation in dryland farming.
  3. In some areas of farming, the receding of the groundwater table can be checked.

Select the correct answer using the codes given below:

A. 1 only

B. 2 and 3 only

C. 1 and 3 only

D. 1, 2 and 3

Answer: C

Explanation

Statement 1 (Correct) Micro-irrigation delivers water directly to the plant's root zone, minimizing evaporation and water wastage. This allows for a more targeted application of fertilizers and nutrients, reducing their loss in the soil.

Statement 2 (Incorrect) While micro-irrigation is very efficient in water usage, it's not the only option for dryland farming. Other methods like drip irrigation or rainwater harvesting can also be used.

Statement 3 (Correct) Micro-irrigation uses less water compared to traditional methods like flood irrigation. This can help conserve groundwater resources and potentially slow down the receding water table in some areas, depending on the specific water management practices employed.


QUESTION 34

MediumAncient HistoryPrelims 2011

Regarding the Indus Valley Civilization, consider the following statements:

  1. It was predominantly a secular civilization and the religious element, though present, did not dominate the scene,
  2. During this period, cotton was used for manufacturing textiles in India.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

A. 1 only

B. 2 only

C. Both 1 and 2

D. Neither 1 nor 2

Answer: C

Explanation

The Indus Valley Civilization, also known as the Harappan Civilization, was indeed a predominantly secular civilization. The religious element, though present, did not dominate the scene. This is evident from the archaeological findings from the sites of this civilization. Therefore, statement 1 is correct.

In 1929, archaeologists recovered fragments of cotton textiles at Mohenjo-Daro. Cottonseeds found at nearby Mehrgarh have been dated to 5000 BCE. Hence, statement 2 is correct.


QUESTION 35

HardIndian GeographyPrelims 2011

Two important rivers — one with its source in Jharkhand (and known by a different name in Odisha), and another, with its source in Odisha — merge at a place only a short distance from the coast of the Bay of Bengal before flowing into the sea. This is an important site of wildlife and biodiversity and a protected area. Which one of the following could be this?

A. Bhitarkanika

B. Chandipur-on-sea

C. Gopalpur-on-sea

D. Simlipal

Answer: A

Explanation

Analysis

  • Major rivers flowing into the Bay of Bengal from Jharkhand are the Subarnarekha and North Koel.
  • The Subarnarekha changes its name to Brahmani in Odisha.
  • The Brahmani merges with the Baitarani river, which originates in Odisha.
  • The confluence of Brahmani and Baitarani forms the delta that feeds into the Bay of Bengal.
  • Bhitarkanika National Park is a protected area located in this delta region, known for its rich wildlife and biodiversity, particularly saltwater crocodiles.

QUESTION 36

MediumEnvironment & EcologyPrelims 2011

The Himalayan Range is very rich in species diversity. Which one among the following is the most appropriate reason for this phenomenon?

A. It has a high rainfall that supports luxuriant vegetative growth

B. It is a confluence of different biogeographical zones

C. Exotic and invasive species have not been introduced in this region

D. It has less human interference

Answer: B

Explanation

The Himalayan Range is indeed very rich in species diversity. This is primarily due to the fact that it is a confluence of different biogeographical zones. Each of these zones has its unique features, which contribute to the differences in climate conditions. These varying climate conditions, in turn, support a wide variety of plants and animals, leading to high species diversity.

While high rainfall, absence of exotic and invasive species, and less human interference can contribute to species diversity, they are not the primary reasons for the high species diversity in the Himalayan Range.

Therefore, the most appropriate reason is that the Himalayan Range is a confluence of different biogeographical zones.


QUESTION 37

MediumModern HistoryPrelims 2011

With reference to the period of Indian freedom struggle, which of the following was/were recommended by the Nehru report?

  1. Complete Independence for India.
  2. Joint electorates for reservation of seats for minorities.
  3. Provision of fundamental rights for the people of India in the Constitution.

Select the correct answer using the codes given below:

A. 1 only

B. 2 and 3 only

C. 1 and 3 only

D. 1, 2 and 3

Answer: B

Explanation

The Nehru Report was prepared by a committee headed by Motilal Nehru and presented in 1928. The report aimed to propose a constitution for India and had several recommendations related to the political and constitutional framework of the country.

The Nehru Report did not recommend complete independence for India. Instead, it proposed dominion status for India within the British Empire, which is a semi-independent polity under the British Crown.

The Nehru Report did recommend joint electorates with reservation of seats for minorities. The Nehru Report also recommended the provision of fundamental rights for the people of India in the Constitution.


QUESTION 38

EasyModern HistoryPrelims 2011

With reference to the Indian freedom struggle, Usha Mehta is well-known for:

A. Running the secret Congress Radio in the wake of Quit India Movement

B. Participating in the Second Round Table Conference

C. Leading a contingent of Indian National Army

D. Assisting in the formation of Interim Government under Pandit Jawaharlal Nehru

Answer: A

Explanation

Usha Mehta is renowned for her role in running the secret Congress Radio during the Quit India Movement in 1942. The Congress Radio was an underground radio station that broadcasted news and messages of the freedom struggle, bypassing British censorship and crackdowns on Indian nationalist activities.


QUESTION 39

MediumEnvironment & EcologyPrelims 2011

The formation of the ozone hole in the Antarctic region has been a cause of concern. What could be the reason for the formation of this hole?

A. Presence of prominent tropospheric turbulence; and inflow of chlorofluorocarbons

B. Presence of prominent polar front and stratospheric’ clouds; and inflow of chlorofluorocarbons

C. The absence of polar front and stratospheric clouds; and inflow of methane and chlorofluorocarbons

D. Increased temperature in the polar region due to global warming

Answer: B

Explanation

The formation of the ozone hole over the Antarctic is primarily due to the presence of stratospheric clouds that form in the extremely cold Antarctic winter. These clouds provide a surface for chlorine and bromine compounds to convert into their active forms, which can then rapidly destroy ozone molecules.

The polar front isolates the Antarctic stratosphere, allowing these reactions to proceed more extensively.

The chlorofluorocarbons (CFCs), which are man-made chemicals, release chlorine atoms when they are broken down by UV light, leading to the depletion of the ozone layer. This process is particularly intense in the Antarctic spring (August to October), leading to the formation of the ozone hole.


QUESTION 40

MediumPhysical GeographyPrelims 2011

Westerlies in the southern hemisphere are stronger and persistent than in northern hemisphere. Why?

  1. The Southern hemisphere has less landmass as compared to the Northern hemisphere.
  2. Coriolis force is higher in Southern hemisphere as compared to the Northern hemisphere

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

A. 1 only

B. 2 only

C. Both 1 and 2

D. Neither 1 nor 2

Answer: A

Explanation

The westerlies in the southern hemisphere are indeed stronger and more persistent than in the northern hemisphere.

This is primarily due to the fact that the southern hemisphere has less landmass compared to the northern hemisphere. The vast expanses of open ocean in the southern hemisphere allow the westerlies to maintain their strength and persistence without being interrupted by landmasses.

On the other hand, the Coriolis force, which is a result of Earth's rotation, is not stronger in the southern hemisphere compared to the northern hemisphere. The strength of the Coriolis force is not determined by the hemisphere, but by the latitude. The Coriolis force is strongest at the poles and weakest at the equator.

Therefore, only Statement 1 is true.


QUESTION 41

MediumModern HistoryPrelims 2011

Which amongst the following provided a common factor for tribal insurrection in India in the 19th century?

A. Introduction of a new system of land revenue and taxation of tribal products

B. Influence of foreign religious missionaries in tribal areas

C. Rise of a large number of money lenders, traders and revenue farmers as middlemen in tribal areas

D. The complete disruption of the old agrarian order of the tribal communities

Answer: D

Explanation

The common factor for tribal insurrection in India in the 19th century was the complete disruption of the old agrarian order of the tribal communities.

The agrarian order was essential for the livelihood and social structure of tribal communities. The disruption of this order led to widespread dissatisfaction and eventually insurrection among the tribes.

This change was more impactful than other factors like new taxation systems, influence of missionaries, or the rise of middlemen in tribal areas.


QUESTION 42

MediumSocial Issues & SchemesPrelims 2011

Among the following who are eligible to benefit from the “Mahatma Gandhi National Rural Employment Guarantee Act”?

A. Adult members of only the scheduled caste and scheduled tribe households

B. Adult members of below poverty line BPL households

C. Adult members of households of all backward communities

D. Adult members of any household

Answer: D

Explanation

National Rural Employment Guarantee Act 2005, is an Indian labour law and social security measure that aims to guarantee the 'right to work'.

It aims to enhance livelihood security in rural areas by providing at least 100 days of wage employment in a financial year to every rural household whose adult members volunteer to do unskilled manual work.


QUESTION 43

MediumIndian PolityPrelims 2011

What is the difference between “vote-on-account” and “interim budget”?

  1. The provision of a “vote-on-account” is used by a regular Government, while an “interim budget” is a provision used by a caretaker Government.
  2. A “vote-on-account” only deals with the expenditure in Government’s budget, while an “interim budget” includes both expenditure and receipts.

Which of the statements; given above is/are correct?

A. 1 only

B. 2 only

C. Both 1 and 2

D. Neither 1 nor 2

Answer: B

Explanation

A vote-on-account contains only the expenditure of the government's budget while an Interim Budget is a complete set of accounts i.e. it includes both expenditure and receipts. Hence, statement 2 is correct.

Vote-on-account is passed every year and is used by both the regular and caretaker government. An interim budget essentially means the government seeks the approval of Parliament for meeting expenditure until a new government takes over and presents a full Budget. An Interim Budget gives a complete financial statement that is very similar to a full Budget. Interim Budgets also can be presented by all governments whether incumbent or regular or caretaker. Hence, statement 1 is incorrect.


QUESTION 44

MediumPhysical GeographyPrelims 2011

A layer in the Earth’s atmosphere called Ionosphere facilitates radio communication. Why?

  1. The presence of ozone causes the reflection of radio waves to Earth.
  2. Radio waves have a very long wavelength.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

A. 1 only

B. 2 only

C. Both 1 and 2

D. Neither 1 nor 2

Answer: D

Explanation

The Ionosphere is a layer in the Earth's atmosphere that is ionised by solar radiation. It plays a crucial role in radio communication as it reflects radio waves back to Earth. This reflection is not due to the presence of ozone but rather due to the ionisation of atoms in the Ionosphere. Therefore, statement 1 is incorrect.

As for statement 2, while it is true that radio waves have a long wavelength, this is not the reason why the Ionosphere facilitates radio communication. The reflection of radio waves by the Ionosphere is due to the ionisation of atoms, not the wavelength of the radio waves. Therefore, statement 2 is also incorrect.


QUESTION 45

MediumEnvironment & EcologyPrelims 2011

The 2004 Tsunami made people realize that mangroves can serve as a reliable safety hedge against coastal calamities. How do mangroves function as a safety hedge?

A. The mangrove swamps separate the human settlements from the sea by a wide zone in which people neither live nor venture out

B. The mangroves provide both food and medicines which people are in need of after any natural disaster

C. The mangrove trees are tall with dense canopies and serve as art excellent shelter during a cyclone or tsunami

D. The mangrove trees do not get uprooted by storms and tides because of their extensive roots

Answer: D

Explanation

Mangroves function as a safety hedge against coastal calamities like cyclones and tsunamis due to their unique adaptations. Their extensive root systems help anchor them firmly in the soil, preventing them from being uprooted by strong winds and tides.

This characteristic makes them an excellent natural barrier that can help reduce the impact of such disasters on coastal communities.


QUESTION 46

MediumInternational RelationsPrelims 2011

Recently, the USA decided to support India’s membership in multilateral export control regimes called the “Australia group” and the “Wassenaar Arrangement. What is the difference between them?

  1. The Australia Group is an informal arrangement which aims to allow exporting countries to minimize the risk of assisting chemical and biological weapons proliferation, whereas the Wassenaar Arrangement is a formal group under the OECD holding identical objectives.
  2. The Australia group comprises predominantly of Asian, African and North American countries, whereas the member countries of the Wassenaar arrangement are predominantly from the European Union and American continents.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

A. 1 only.

B. 2 only.

C. Both 1 and 2.

D. Neither 1 nor 2.

Answer: D

Explanation

The Australia Group is an informal arrangement, which aims to allows exporting countries to minimize the risk of assisting chemical and biological weapons proliferation, whereas the Wassenaar Arrangement is a formal group under the OECD holding identical objectives. The Wassenaar Arrangement is a group tasked with fostering transparency and increased responsibility in the transfer of dual-use goods and technology and conventional armaments.


QUESTION 47

MediumEconomyPrelims 2011

Consider the following actions which the Government can take:

  1. Devaluing the domestic currency.
  2. Reduction in the export subsidy.

Which of the above action/actions can help in reducing the current account deficit?

A. 1 only

B. 2 only

C. 1 and 2 only

D. None of the above

Answer: A

Explanation

The current account deficit is a measurement of a country's trade where the value of the goods and services it imports exceeds the value of the goods and services it exports.

Devaluation is a deliberate reduction in the value of a country's currency. Devaluing the domestic currency can help in reducing the current account deficit as it makes exports cheaper and imports more expensive, thereby reducing the deficit.

On the other hand, a reduction in export subsidy might not help in reducing the current account deficit. This is because export subsidies make exports cheaper, thereby promoting exports. If these subsidies are reduced, exports might become more expensive leading to a decrease in exports and potentially increasing the current account deficit.

Therefore, only action 1 can help in reducing the current account deficit.


QUESTION 48

HardScience & TechnologyPrelims 2011

Aspartame is an artificial sweetener sold in the market. It consists of amino acids and provides calories like other amino acids. Yet, it is used as a low-calorie sweetening agent in food items. What is the basis of this use ?

A. Aspartame is as sweet as table sugar, but unlike table sugar, it is not readily oxidized in human body due to lack of requisite enzymes.

B. When aspartame is used in food processing, the sweet taste remains, but it becomes resistant to oxidation.

C. Aspartame is as sweet as sugar, but after ingestion into the body, it is converted into metabolites that yield no calories.

D. Aspartame is several times sweeter than table sugar, hence food items made with small quantities of aspartame yield fewer calories on oxidation.

Answer: D

Explanation

Aspartame is indeed several times sweeter than table sugar, meaning that a smaller amount of aspartame is required to achieve the same level of sweetness in food items compared to sugar. Since aspartame is used in smaller quantities due to its high sweetness, the overall calorie content of the food item is reduced. This is because aspartame provides fewer calories per unit weight compared to sugar. Upon ingestion, aspartame is metabolized in the body into compounds that do not yield calories. Therefore, even though it is sweet, it does not contribute significantly to the calorie intake, making it suitable for use in low-calorie food products


QUESTION 49

HardIndian PolityPrelims 2011

Karl Marx explained the process of class struggle with the help of which one of the following theories?

A. Empirical liberalism.

B. Existentialism.

C. Darwin’s theory of evolution.

D. Dialectical materialism.

Answer: D

Explanation

Karl Marx explained the process of class struggle with the help of Dialectical Materialism.

  • Dialectical materialism is a philosophical and sociological theory that emphasizes the role of social conflict in historical change.
  • It argues that history progresses through a series of clashes between opposing forces, such as the ruling class and the working class.
  • Marx believed that these conflicts would ultimately lead to a socialist revolution and a classless society.

The other options are not as relevant to Marx's theory of class struggle

  • Empirical Liberalism focuses on individual rights and freedoms, not class conflict.
  • Existentialism is a philosophical movement that emphasizes individual freedom and responsibility.
  • Darwin's theory of evolution explains the development of species through natural selection, not social change.

QUESTION 50

HardAncient HistoryPrelims 2011

India maintained its early cultural contacts and trade links with Southeast Asia across the Bay of Bengal. For this preeminence of early maritime history of the Bay of Bengal, which of the following could be the most convincing explanation/explanations?

A. As compared to other countries, India had a better ship-building technology in ancient and medieval times.

B. The rulers of southern India always patronized traders, Brahmin priests and Buddhist monks in this context.

C. Monsoon winds across the bay of Bengal facilitated sea voyages.

D. Both a and b are convincing explanations in this context.

Answer: D

Explanation

India's ship-building technology was highly advanced during ancient and medieval times. The country had great expertise in constructing and navigating ships, which allowed them to sail across the Bay of Bengal. The Indians were skilled in building sturdy and efficient vessels that could withstand the challenges of long sea voyages.

The rulers of southern India played a significant role in facilitating and encouraging maritime trade and cultural exchanges across the Bay of Bengal. They actively patronized traders, Brahmin priests, and Buddhist monks, providing them with support and protection. The rulers recognized the importance of these interactions for both economic and religious purposes.


QUESTION 51

MediumSocial Issues & SchemesPrelims 2011

India is home to lakhs of persons with disabilities. What are the benefits available to them under the law?

  1. Free schooling till the age of 18 years in government-run schools.
  2. Preferential allotment of land for getting up business.
  3. Ramps in public buildings.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

A. 1 only

B. 2 and 3 only

C. 1 and 3 only

D. 1, 2 and 3

Answer: D

Explanation

There are several benefits available to persons with disabilities under the law in India. Some of them are

  1. Free schooling till the age of 18 years in government-run schools is provided under the Right to Education Act, which mandates free and compulsory education for all children between the ages of 6 and 14. Children with disabilities can continue to receive free education in government-run schools till the age of 18 years.

  2. Persons with disabilities are eligible for preferential allotment of land for setting up business under the Persons with Disabilities (Equal Opportunities, Protection of Rights and Full Participation) Act, 1995. This benefit is provided to encourage entrepreneurship and self-employment among persons with disabilities.

  3. The government has made it mandatory for all public buildings to have ramps and other facilities to make them accessible to persons with disabilities. This includes government offices, hospitals, schools, and other public buildings.


QUESTION 52

HardEnvironment & EcologyPrelims 2011

Microbial fuel cells are considered a source of sustainable energy. Why?

  1. They use living organisms as catalysts to generate electricity from certain substrates.
  2. They use a variety of inorganic materials as substrates.
  3. They can be installed in wastewater treatment plants to cleanse water and produce electricity.

Which of the following statements given above is/ are correct?

A. 1 only.

B. 2 and 3 only.

C. 1 and 3 only.

D. 1,2,and 3

Answer: C

Explanation

Microbial fuel cells (MFCs) indeed use living organisms, such as bacteria or algae, as catalysts to generate electricity from certain substrates. These microorganisms break down organic matter and transfer electrons to an electrode, creating an electric current. While MFCs primarily use organic substrates for electricity generation, they may also utilize some inorganic materials, but this is less common. MFCs can indeed be installed in wastewater treatment plants to cleanse water through microbial degradation of organic pollutants, while simultaneously producing electricity. This dual functionality makes them a sustainable source of energy.


QUESTION 53

MediumScience & TechnologyPrelims 2011

A new optical disc format known as the Blu-ray Disc (BD) is becoming popular. In what way is it different from the traditional DVD?

  1. DVD supports Standard Definition video while BD supports High Definition video.
  2. Compared to a DVD, the BD format has several times more storage capacity.
  3. The thickness of BD is 2.4 mm white that of DVD is 1.2 mm.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

A. 1 only

B. 1 and 2 only

C. 2 and 3 only

D. 1, 2 and 3

Answer: B

Explanation

The Blu-ray Disc (BD) is indeed different from the traditional DVD in several ways. Firstly, the DVD supports Standard Definition video while BD supports High Definition video. This means that the quality of video that can be stored and played back on a BD is significantly higher than that on a DVD. Secondly, the BD format has several times more storage capacity compared to a DVD. This allows for more data to be stored on a single disc. However, the third statement is incorrect. The thickness of both BD and DVD is 1.2 mm, not 2.4 mm for BD as mentioned in the statement. Therefore, only the first two statements are correct.


QUESTION 54

HardScience & TechnologyPrelims 2011

When the bark of a tree is removed in a circular fashion all around near its base, it gradually dries up and dies because?

A. Water from soil cannot rise to aerial parts.

B. Roots are starved of energy.

C. The tree is infected by soil microbes.

D. Roots do not receive oxygen for respiration.

Answer: B

Explanation

When the bark of a tree is removed in a circular fashion near its base, it damages the phloem, which is responsible for transporting sugars and other nutrients produced by photosynthesis in the leaves down to the roots for energy and growth. This process is called translocation. With the phloem damaged, the roots are starved of the energy they need for essential functions such as absorption of water and minerals from the soil, leading to their gradual drying up and eventual death.


QUESTION 55

MediumIndian GeographyPrelims 2011

Among the following States, which one has the most suitable climatic conditions for the cultivation of a large variety of orchids with minimum cost of production, and can develop an export-oriented industry in this field?

A. Andhra Pradesh

B. Arunachal Pradesh

C. Madhya Pradesh

D. Uttar Pradesh

Answer: B

Explanation

Arunachal Pradesh is located in northeastern India and is known for its favourable climatic conditions, which make it an ideal place for orchid cultivation.

The state is home to over 600 species of orchids, which account for about 52% of all orchid species in India. The state's abundant rainfall and suitable temperatures contribute to lower production costs compared to other states.

Arunachal Pradesh has the potential to develop an export-oriented industry in orchid cultivation and tap into international markets by focusing on quality production and marketing strategies.


QUESTION 56

MediumInternational RelationsPrelims 2011

The “New START” treaty was in the news. What is this treaty?

A. It is a bilateral strategic nuclear arms reduction treaty between the US and the Russian Federation.

B. It is a multilateral energy security cooperation treaty among the members of the East Asia summit.

C. It is a treaty between the Russian Federation and the European Union for energy security cooperation.

D. It is a multilateral cooperation treaty among the BRICS countries for the promotion of trade.

Answer: A

Explanation

The New START (Strategic Arms Reduction Treaty) is a nuclear arms reduction treaty between the United States of America and the Russian Federation with the formal name of Measures for the Further Reduction and Limitation of Strategic Offensive Arms. It was signed on 8 April 2010 in Prague, and, after ratification, entered into force on 5 February 2011. It is expected to last at least until 2021. New START replaced the Treaty of Moscow (SORT), which was due to expire in December 2012. In terms of name, it is a follow-up to the START I treaty, which expired in December 2009.


QUESTION 57

HardModern HistoryPrelims 2011

What was the purpose with which Sir William Wedderburn and W. S. Caine had set up the Indian Parliamentary Committee in 1893?

A. To agitate for Indian political reforms in the House of Commons

B. To campaign for. the entry of Indians into the Imperial Judiciary

C. To facilitate a discussion on India’s Independence in the British Parliament

D. To agitate for the entry of eminent Indians into the British Parliament

Answer: A

Explanation

In 1893, Sir William Wedderburn and W. S. Caine formed the Indian Parliamentary Committee with Dadabhai Naoroji and other Indian sympathizers. The purpose of the Indian Parliamentary Committee is to agitate for Indian political reforms in the House of Commons.


QUESTION 58

MediumScience & TechnologyPrelims 2011

What is the difference between Bluetooth and Wi-Fi devices?

A. Bluetooth uses a 2.4 GHz radio frequency band, whereas-Wi-Fi can use 2.4 GHz or 5 GHz frequency band.

B. Bluetooth is used for Wireless Local Area Networks WLAN only, whereas Wi-Fi is used for Wireless Wide Area Networks WWAN only.

C. When information is transmitted between two devices using Blue-tooth technology, the devices have to be in the line of sight of each other, but when Wi-Fi technology is used the devices need not be in the line of sight of each other

D. The statements a and b given above are correct in this context

Answer: A

Explanation

Bluetooth and Wi-Fi are both wireless technologies but they serve different purposes and have different characteristics. Bluetooth uses a 2.4 GHz radio frequency band, whereas Wi-Fi can use 2.4 GHz or 5 GHz frequency band, so statement (a) is correct.

Statement (b) is incorrect because Bluetooth is primarily used for connecting devices and creating a personal area network (PAN), not for Wireless Local Area Networks (WLAN). Wi-Fi, on the other hand, is used for WLAN and for internet access, not for Wireless Wide Area Networks (WWAN).

Statement (c) is also incorrect. Both Bluetooth and Wi-Fi technologies do not require the devices to be in the line of sight of each other.


QUESTION 59

EasyScience & TechnologyPrelims 2011

What is the difference between asteroids and comets?

  1. Asteroids are small rocky planetoids, while comets are formed of frozen gases held together by a rocky and metallic material.
  2. Asteroids are found mostly between the orbits of Jupiter and Mars, while comets are found mostly between Venus and mercury.
  3. Comets show a perceptible glowing tail, while asteroids do not.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

A. 1 and 2 only.

B. 1 and 3 only.

C. 3 only.

D. 1,2 and 3.

Answer: B

Explanation

Asteroids are indeed small rocky planetoids, while comets are formed of frozen gases held together by rocky and metallic material, so statement 1 is correct.

However, statement 2 is incorrect. Asteroids are found mostly between the orbits of Mars and Jupiter, in the asteroid belt, while comets are found in the outer solar system, not between Venus and Mercury.

Statement 3 is correct as comets, when they approach the sun, show a perceptible glowing tail due to the vapourisation of their icy components, while asteroids do not.


QUESTION 60

MediumEconomyPrelims 2011

Why is the offering of “teaser loans” by commercial banks a cause of economic concern?

  1. The teaser loans are considered to be an aspect of subprime lending and banks may be exposed to the risk of defaulters in future.
  2. In India, the teaser loans are mostly given to inexperienced entrepreneurs to set up manufacturing or export units.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

A. Both 1 and 2

B. 2 only

C. 1 only

D. Neither 1 nor 2

Answer: C

Explanation

Teaser loans are loans with low, fixed interest rates offered by banks for a short period, which then switch to higher, floating rates. They are indeed a cause of economic concern. The first statement is correct because teaser loans are considered to be an aspect of subprime lending, which means they are given to borrowers who may have difficulty maintaining the repayment schedule. This exposes banks to the risk of defaulters in the future. However, the second statement is not entirely accurate. While it's true that some inexperienced entrepreneurs might receive teaser loans, they are not the primary recipients of such loans in India.


QUESTION 61

HardEnvironment & EcologyPrelims 2011

A sandy and saline area is the natural habitat of an Indian animal species. The animal has no predators in that area but its existence is threatened due to the destruction of its habitat. Which one of the following could be that animal?

A. Indian wild buffalo

B. Indian wild ass

C. Indian wild boar

D. Indian gazelle

Answer: B

Explanation

The Indian wild ass, also known as the khur, is native to the sandy and saline deserts of India. This animal has adapted to the harsh conditions of its habitat, which includes sandy and saline areas where vegetation is sparse. One of the main threats to the existence of the Indian wild ass is the destruction of its habitat. The other options, Indian wild buffalo, Indian wild boar, and Indian gazelle, are not specifically adapted to sandy and saline habitats.


QUESTION 62

MediumEconomyPrelims 2011

In terms of economy, the visit by foreign nationals to witness the XIX Common Wealth Games in India amounted to

A. Export

B. Import

C. Production

D. Consumption

Answer: A

Explanation

The visit of foreign nationals to India for the XIX Commonwealth Games can be considered as an export in economic terms.

This is because when these foreign nationals come to India, they bring foreign currency with them and spend it in India on various goods and services. This spending is equivalent to them buying Indian goods and services, which is why it is considered an export.

This falls under the Mode 2 type of service under WTO norms, where consumption of a service happens in the territory of the service provider.


QUESTION 63

MediumEconomyPrelims 2011

In India, which of the following have the highest share in the disbursement of credit to agriculture and allied activities?

A. Commercial Banks

B. Cooperative Banks

C. Regional Rural Banks

D. Microfinance Institutions

Answer: A

Explanation

In India, the sector of agriculture and its allied activities receive the highest amount of credit from Commercial Banks. This is due to the mandate by the Reserve Bank of India (RBI) for Priority Sector Lending (PSL), which includes domestic and foreign commercial banks.

Commercial banks disburse around 60% of the credit to agriculture and allied activities, which is the highest share compared to Cooperative Banks, Regional Rural Banks, and Microfinance Institutions.


QUESTION 64

MediumAncient HistoryPrelims 2011

The “dharma” and “Rita” depict a central idea of ancient Vedic civilization of India. In this context, consider the following statements:

  1. Dharma was a conception of obligations and of the discharge of one’s duties to oneself and to others.
  2. Rita was the fundamental moral law governing the functioning of the universe and all it contained.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

A. 1 only

B. 2 only

C. Both 1 and 2

D. Neither 1 nor 2

Answer: C

Explanation

Dharma In Vedic civilization, Dharma refers to a multifaceted concept encompassing moral duty, righteousness, cosmic law, and ethical conduct. It outlined the obligations of individuals based on their social position, stage of life (ashrama), and inherent nature (varna).

Rita Rita represented the cosmic order, the inherent principle that governed the natural world and ensured its smooth functioning.

Therefore, both Dharma (individual duties) and Rita (universal law) were central to the Vedic worldview, emphasizing the interconnectedness between humanity and the cosmos.


QUESTION 65

MediumEnvironment & EcologyPrelims 2011

Three of the following criteria have contributed to the recognition of Western Ghats-Sri Lanka and Indo-Burma regions as hotspots of biodiversity:

  1. Species richness
  2. Vegetation density
  3. Endemism
  4. Ethno-botanical importance
  5. Threat perception
  6. Adaptation of flora and fauna to warm and humid conditions

Which three of the above are the correct criteria in this context?

A. 1, 2 and 6

B. 2, 4 and 6

C. 1, 3 and 5

D. 3, 4 and 6

Answer: C

Explanation

To qualify as a biodiversity hotspot, a region must meet two strict criteria

  • It must have at least 1,500 vascular plants as endemics which is to say, it must have a high percentage of plant life found nowhere else on the planet. A hotspot, in other words, is irreplaceable.

  • It must have 30% or less of its original natural vegetation. In other words, it must be threatened.


QUESTION 66

EasyWorld GeographyPrelims 2011

Between India and East Asia, the navigation-time and distance can be greatly reduced by which of the following?

  1. Deepening the Malacca Straits between Malaysia and Indonesia.
  2. Opening a new canal across the Kra isthmus between the Gulf of Siam and Andaman sea.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

A. 1 only.

B. 2 only.

C. Both 1 and 2.

D. Neither 1 nor 2.

Answer: B

Explanation

The Kra Isthmus is the narrowest part of the Malay Peninsula, located in Thailand. Opening a new canal across this isthmus would create a direct sea route between the Gulf of Siam and the Andaman Sea, bypassing the longer route around the southern tip of Malaysia through the Malacca Straits. This would also greatly reduce the navigation time and distance between India and East Asia. Therefore, statement 2 is also correct. Malacca Strait is the main shipping channel between the Indian Ocean and the Pacific Ocean and links India, China, Japan, and South Korea. The issue of deepening of the Malacca Strait is linked to its economic importance rather than time of navigation and distance.


QUESTION 67

MediumEnvironment & EcologyPrelims 2011

What is the difference between a CFL and an LED lamp?

  1. To produce light, a CFL uses mercury vapour and phosphor while an LED lamp uses semiconductor material.
  2. The average lifespan of a CFL is much longer than that of an LED lamp.
  3. A CFL is less energy-efficient as compared to an LED lamp.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

A. 1 only

B. 2 and 3 only

C. 1 and 3 only

D. 1, 2 and 3

Answer: C

Explanation

Statement 1 is correct. CFLs produce light through the ionization of mercury vapor which, when it collides with the phosphor coating of the bulb, generates visible light. On the other hand, LED lamps produce light using semiconductor material.

Statement 2 is incorrect. The average lifespan of an LED lamp is much longer than that of a CFL. While the lifespan of a CFL is around 8,000-10,000 hours, an LED lamp can last up to 50,000 hours.

Statement 3 is correct. LED lamps are more energy-efficient compared to CFLs. Despite their higher initial cost, LED bulbs are more cost-effective in the long run due to their higher energy efficiency.

Therefore, statements 1 and 3 are correct.


QUESTION 68

MediumModern HistoryPrelims 2011

Which one of the following observations is not true about the Quit India Movement of 1942?

A. It was a non-violent movement

B. It was led by Mahatma Gandhi

C. It was a spontaneous movement

D. It did not attract the labour class in general

Answer: B

Explanation

The Quit India Movement was largely characterized by nonviolent protests, civil disobedience, and passive resistance, following Gandhi's philosophy of nonviolence.

While Mahatma Gandhi played a crucial role in India's independence movement, he did initiate the Quit India Movement, but he was arrested shortly after its commencement. The movement was led by other prominent leaders such as Jawaharlal Nehru, Sardar Patel, and others in Gandhi's absence.

The Quit India Movement was largely a spontaneous outburst of public discontent against British rule. It did not attract the labour class in general.


QUESTION 69

MediumModern HistoryPrelims 2011

What was the reason for Mahatma Gandhi to organize a satyagraha on behalf of the peasants of Kheda?

  1. The Administration did not suspend the land revenue collection in spite of the drought.
  2. The Administration proposed to introduce Permanent Settlement in Gujarat.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

A. 1 only

B. 2 only

C. Both 1 and 2

D. Neither 1 nor 2

Answer: A

Explanation

The Kheda Satyagraha was organized by Mahatma Gandhi in 1918 on behalf of the peasants of Kheda, Gujarat.

The main reason for this was that the administration did not suspend the land revenue collection despite a severe drought that year. This caused immense hardship to the peasants who were unable to pay the revenue due to crop failure. Therefore, statement 1 is correct.

However, there is no historical evidence to suggest that the administration proposed to introduce Permanent Settlement in Gujarat during that time. Therefore, statement 2 is incorrect.


QUESTION 70

MediumEnvironment & EcologyPrelims 2011

Consider the following statements:

  1. Biodiversity is normally greater in the lower latitudes as compared to the higher latitudes.
  2. Along the mountain gradients, biodiversity is normally greater in the lower altitudes as compared to the higher altitudes.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

A. 1 only

B. 2 only

C. Both 1 and 2

D. Neither 1 nor 2

Answer: C

Explanation

Biodiversity is indeed normally greater in the lower latitudes as compared to the higher latitudes due to the presence of tropical rainforests, diverse ecosystems, and favourable climatic conditions.

Along the mountain gradients, biodiversity is also normally greater in the lower altitudes as compared to the higher altitudes. This is because lower altitudes often have more stable climatic conditions, greater availability of resources, and a wider range of habitats.

Both statements are accurate in highlighting the pattern of biodiversity distribution across latitudes and altitudes.


QUESTION 71

EasyScience & TechnologyPrelims 2011

At present, scientists can determine the arrangement or relative positions of genes or DNA sequences on a chromosome. How does this knowledge benefit us?

  1. It is possible to know the pedigree of livestock.
  2. It is possible to understand the causes of all human diseases.
  3. It is possible to develop disease-resistant animal breeds.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

A. 1 and 2 only

B. 2 only

C. 1 and 3 only

D. 1, 2 and 3

Answer: C

Explanation

The knowledge of the arrangement or relative positions of genes or DNA sequences on a chromosome indeed has several benefits. It allows us to understand the pedigree of livestock (Statement 1) as it helps in tracing the genetic traits and lineage of animals.

It also aids in developing disease-resistant animal breeds (Statement 3) by identifying and manipulating specific genes responsible for disease resistance.

However, it is not accurate to say that it enables us to understand the causes of all human diseases (Statement 2).


QUESTION 72

MediumWorld GeographyPrelims 2011

If a tropical rainforest is removed, it does not regenerate quickly as compared to a tropical deciduous forest. This is because -

A. the soil of rainforest is deficient in nutrients

B. propagules of the trees in a rainforest have poor viability

C. the rain forest species are slow-growing

D. exotic species invade the fertile soil of rainforest

Answer: A

Explanation

The tropical rainforest is a complex ecosystem with a high level of biodiversity. When a tropical rainforest is removed, it does not regenerate quickly as compared to a tropical deciduous forest. This is primarily due to the fact that the soil of the rainforest is deficient in nutrients. The high rainfall in these areas washes away the nutrients from the soil, making it less fertile. The other options, such as poor viability of propagules, slow-growing species, and invasion by exotic species, may also contribute to the slow regeneration, but the primary reason is the nutrient-deficient soil.


QUESTION 73

MediumScience & TechnologyPrelims 2011

An artificial satellite orbiting around the Earth does not fall down. This is so because of the attraction Of Earth -

A. does not exist at such a distance

B. is neutralized by the attraction of the moon

C. provides the necessary speed for its steady motion

D. provides the necessary acceleration for its motion

Answer: D

Explanation

The artificial satellite orbiting around the Sun does not fall down, the reason being is that the attraction of the Earth provides the necessary acceleration for its motion. This acceleration is constant in magnitude but changes its direction. The force acting towards the centre on a particle executing uniform circular motion is called Centripetal force and to balance the Centripetal force there is a pseudo force called Centrifugal force. In case of satellite orbiting around the earth, both these forces are equal and opposite.


QUESTION 74

MediumInternational RelationsPrelims 2011

Southeast Asia has captivated the attention of the global community over space and time as a geostrategically significant region. Which among the following is the most convincing explanation for this global perspective?

A. It was the hot theatre during the second world war.

B. Its location between the Asian powers of China and India.

C. It was the arena of superpower confrontation during the cold war period.

D. Its location between the Pacific and Indian oceans and its preeminent maritime character.

Answer: D

Explanation

Southeast Asia sits at a crossroads between the Indian and Pacific Oceans, acting as a vital maritime trade route. This strategic location makes it crucial for global commerce and energy transportation.


QUESTION 75

MediumEconomyPrelims 2011

India has experienced persistent and high food inflation in the recent past. What could be the reason?

  1. Due to a gradual switchover to the cultivation of commercial crops, the area under cultivation of food grains has steadily decreased in the last five years by about 30%.
  2. As a consequence of increasing incomes, the consumption patterns of the people have undergone a significant change.
  3. The food supply chain has structural constraints.

Which of the statements given above are correct?

A. 1 and 2 only

B. 2 and 3 only

C. 1 and 3 only

D. 1, 2 and 3

Answer: B

Explanation

While a shift towards commercial crops impacts the production of food grains, causing a potential decrease in supply, 30% decrease seems exaggerated and not reflective of actual trends. Therefore, statement 1 is not correct.

With rising incomes, the demand for high-value food items like fruits, vegetables, dairy, and meat has increased, outpacing the supply growth and contributing to food inflation. Therefore, statement 2 is correct.

The food supply chain in India has structural constraints, which can lead to inefficiencies in the distribution of food products. These inefficiencies can cause an increase in food prices, thereby contributing to food inflation. Therefore, statement 3 is correct.

Therefore, only statements 2 and 3 are correct.


QUESTION 76

MediumEconomyPrelims 2011

Microfinance is the provision of financial services to people of low-income groups. This includes both the consumers and the self-employed. The service/services rendered under micro-finance is/are:

  1. Credit facilities
  2. Savings facilities
  3. Insurance facilities
  4. Fund Transfer facilities

Select the correct answer using the codes given below the lists:

A. 1 only

B. 1 and 4 only

C. 2 and 3 only

D. 1, 2, 3 and 4

Answer: D

Explanation

Microfinance refers to the provision of financial services to low-income individuals or groups who typically don't have access to traditional banking services.

Microfinance institutions provide small loans or microcredit to the poor who do not have any collateral. This is one of the most common services provided under microfinance.

Many microfinance institutions also offer savings accounts.

Some microfinance institutions provide micro-insurance products to cover health, life, and other insurances for low-income individuals and families.

Microfinance services also include fund transfers. These institutions provide remittance services to help individuals send and receive money, especially in areas where banking services are scarce.

Therefore, all the services listed in the question are provided under microfinance.


QUESTION 77

MediumSocial Issues & SchemesPrelims 2011

Which of the following can aid in furthering the Government’s objective of inclusive growth?

  1. Promoting Self-Help Groups
  2. Promoting Micro, Small and Medium Enterprises
  3. Implementing the Right to Education Act

Select the correct answer using the codes given below:

A. 1 only

B. 1 and 2 only

C. 2 and 3 only

D. 1, 2 and 3

Answer: D

Explanation

All three options can aid in furthering the Government's objective of inclusive growth

Promoting Self-Help Groups (SHGs) SHGs empower women and marginalized communities, fostering financial inclusion and income generation at the grassroots level. This contributes to poverty reduction and broader participation in the economy.

Promoting Micro, Small and Medium Enterprises (MSMEs) MSMEs create a significant number of jobs and contribute to industrial development. Supporting them through easier access to credit, skill development, and infrastructure can lead to wider economic opportunities.

Implementing the Right to Education Act Education is crucial for breaking the cycle of poverty and improving social mobility. The Right to Education Act ensures access to education for all children, promoting inclusivity and empowering individuals to participate effectively in the economy.


QUESTION 78

MediumIndian PolityPrelims 2011

Consider the following :

  1. Right to education.
  2. Right to equal access to public service.
  3. Right to food.

Which of the above is/are Human Right/Human Rights under “Universal Declaration of Human Rights”?

A. 1 only

B. 1 and 2 only

C. 3 only

D. 1, 2 and 3

Answer: D

Explanation

According to the Universal Declaration of Human Rights (UDHR), the right to education (Statement 1) is a fundamental human right. Everyone has the right to education and it should be free, at least in the elementary and fundamental stages. The right to equal access to public service (Statement 2) is also a human right under the UDHR. Everyone has the right to take part in the government of his country, directly or through freely chosen representatives. Lastly, the right to food (Statement 3) is also a human right under the UDHR.


QUESTION 79

HardModern HistoryPrelims 2011

With reference to the period of colonial rule in India, “Home Charges” formed an important part of the drain of wealth from India. Which of the following funds constituted “Home Charges”?

  1. Funds used to support the India Office in London.
  2. Funds used to pay salaries and pensions of British personnel engaged in India.
  3. Funds used for waging wars outside India by the British.

Select the correct answer using the codes given below:

A. 1 only

B. 1 and 2 only

C. 2 and 3 only

D. 1, 2 and 3

Answer: B

Explanation

The term "Home Charges" refers to the expenses incurred by the Secretary of State in England on behalf of India during the colonial rule. These charges were a significant part of the drain of wealth from India to Britain.

The India Office in London was established in 1858 to oversee the British administration in India. The expenses of this office were indeed part of the Home Charges.

The salaries and pensions of British officials and army personnel engaged in India were also part of the Home Charges.

However, the funds used for waging wars outside India by the British were not part of the Home Charges.


QUESTION 80

MediumScience & TechnologyPrelims 2011

Satellites used for telecommunication relay are kept in a geostationary orbit. A satellite is said to be in such an orbit when:

  1. The orbit is geosynchronous.
  2. The orbit is circular.
  3. The orbit lies in the plane of the Earth’s equator.
  4. The orbit is at an altitude of 22,236 km.

Select the correct answer using the codes given below:

A. 1, 2 and 3 only

B. 1, 3 and 4 only

C. 2 and 4 only

D. 1, 2,3 and 4

Answer: A

Explanation

A geostationary orbit is a type of geosynchronous orbit, which means it has the same orbital period as the rotation of the Earth. This is why satellites in geostationary orbits appear to be stationary in the sky from the perspective of an observer on Earth. The orbit is indeed circular and lies in the plane of the Earth's equator. This is necessary for the satellite to remain above the same location on the Earth's surface.

However, the altitude of a geostationary orbit is approximately 35,786 kilometers, or 22,236 miles, above the Earth's equator.


QUESTION 81

EasyEnvironment & EcologyPrelims 2011

Consider the following :

  1. Photosynthesis.
  2. Respiration.
  3. The decay of organic matter.
  4. Volcanic action.

Which of the above add carbon dioxide to the carbon cycle on Earth?

A. 1 and 4 only

B. 2 and 3 only

C. 2, 3 and 4 only

D. 1,2,3 and 4

Answer: C

Explanation

Photosynthesis actually consumes carbon dioxide, converting it into organic matter using sunlight, so it doesn't add CO2 to the atmosphere. Respiration by plants and animals converts organic matter back into carbon dioxide, releasing it into the atmosphere. The decay of organic matter by decomposers also releases carbon dioxide back into the atmosphere as part of the decomposition process. Volcanic action emits carbon dioxide directly into the atmosphere from the Earth's interior. Therefore, the processes that add carbon dioxide to the carbon cycle are 2, 3, and 4.


QUESTION 82

MediumEconomyPrelims 2011

The lowering of Bank Rate by the Reserve Bank of India leads to -

A. More liquidity in the market

B. Less liquidity in the market

C. No change in the liquidity in the market

D. Mobilization of more deposits by commercial banks

Answer: A

Explanation

A bank rate is the interest rate at which a nation's central bank lends money to domestic banks. Managing the bank rate is a method by which central banks affect economic activity.

When the Reserve Bank of India (RBI) lowers the Bank Rate, it becomes cheaper for commercial banks to borrow from the RBI. This incentivizes commercial banks to borrow more funds from the RBI, leading to an increase in the liquidity available to them. With more liquidity available, commercial banks are likely to lend more to businesses and individuals, thereby increasing the overall liquidity in the market.


QUESTION 83

HardPhysical GeographyPrelims 2011

The jet aircraft fly very easily and smoothly in the lower stratosphere. What could be the appropriate explanation?

  1. There are no clouds or water vapour in the lower stratosphere.
  2. There are no vertical winds in the lower stratosphere.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct in this context?

A. 1 only

B. 2 only

C. Both 1 and 2

D. Neither 1 nor 2

Answer: C

Explanation

Commercial jet aircraft fly in the lower stratosphere to avoid the turbulence.

The Stratosphere is very dry; air there contains very little water vapour. Because of this, few clouds are found in this layer.

Vertical wind shear is a change in wind speed or direction with change in altitude.

Wind shear has significant effects on control of an aircraft, and it has been a sole or contributing cause of many aircraft accidents.

There is no vertical wind shear in the lower stratosphere. That's why planes fly in that region to avoid turbulence or an accident.


QUESTION 84

HardModern HistoryPrelims 2011

Mahatma Gandhi said that some of his deepest convictions were reflected in a book titled, “Unto this Last” and the book transformed his life. What was the message from the book that transformed Mahatma Gandhi?

A. Uplifting the oppressed and poor is the moral responsibility of an educated man

B. The good of the individual is contained in the good of all

C. The life of celibacy and spiritual pursuit are essential for a noble life

D. All the statements a, b and c are correct in this context

Answer: B

Explanation

"Unto This Last" is a collection of essays by John Ruskin, a Victorian-era social critic. The central theme of the book revolves around the idea that the well-being of individuals is intrinsically linked to the welfare of society as a whole. This concept deeply resonated with Mahatma Gandhi and influenced his philosophy of life, particularly his belief in the importance of selflessness, service to others, and the pursuit of social justice.


QUESTION 85

MediumWorld GeographyPrelims 2011

What could be the main reason/reasons for the formation of African and Eurasian desert belt?

  1. It is located in the sub-tropical high-pressure cells.
  2. It is under the influence of warm ocean currents.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct in this context?

A. 1 only.

B. 2 only.

C. Both 1 and 2.

D. Neither 1 nor 2.

Answer: A

Explanation

The African and Eurasian desert belt is primarily formed due to its location in the sub-tropical high-pressure cells. These high-pressure areas are characterised by descending air, which is dry and leads to arid conditions, forming deserts.

However, the influence of warm ocean currents is not a significant factor in the formation of these desert belts. Warm ocean currents generally increase the moisture content in the air, leading to more precipitation, not desert conditions.

Therefore, the correct answer is that the desert belt is located in the sub-tropical high-pressure cells.


QUESTION 86

MediumEnvironment & EcologyPrelims 2011

Biodiversity forms the basis for human existence in the following ways :

  1. Soil formation
  2. Prevention of soil erosion
  3. Recycling of waste
  4. Pollination of crops

Select the correct answer using the codes given below:

A. 1, 2 and 3 only

B. 2, 3 and 4 only

C. 1 and 4 only

D. 1, 2, 3 and 4

Answer: D

Explanation

Biodiversity is crucial for human existence in numerous ways. It aids in soil formation by contributing to the organic matter and structure of the soil. It also helps in preventing soil erosion as different types of plants and their root systems hold the soil together. Biodiversity plays a significant role in the recycling of waste as various organisms are involved in the decomposition process. Lastly, biodiversity is essential for the pollination of crops. Many insects, birds, and other animals that are part of biodiversity help in the transfer of pollen from the male part of the flower to the female part, leading to the production of fruits and seeds. Therefore, all the four given options are correct.


QUESTION 87

EasyIndian PolityPrelims 2011

The Constitution (Seventy-Third Amendment) Act, 1992, which aims at promoting the Panchayati Raj Institutions in the country, provides for which of the following?

  1. Constitution of District Planning Committees.
  2. State Election Commission to conduct all panchayat elections.
  3. Establishment of State Finance Commissions.

Select the correct answer using the codes given below:

A. 1 only

B. 1 and 2 only

C. 2 and 3 only

D. 1, 2 and 3

Answer: C

Explanation

The Constitution (Seventy-Fourth Amendment) Act, 1992 provides for the constitution of District Planning Committees (DPCs) to prepare development plans at the district level. This makes the first statement incorrect. The second statement is correct as the Act provides for the State Election Commissions to conduct all panchayat elections. The third statement is correct as well because the Act provides for the establishment of State Finance Commissions to review the financial position of the panchayats. Therefore, statements 2 and 3 are correct.


QUESTION 88

MediumEnvironment & EcologyPrelims 2011

Recently, "oil zapper" was in the news. What is it?

A. It is an eco-friendly technology for the remediation of oily sludge and oil spills.

B. It is the latest technology developed for under-sea oil exploration.

C. It is a genetically engineered high biofuel-yielding maize variety.

D. It is the latest technology to control the accidentally caused flames from oil wells.

Answer: A

Explanation

Oilzapper is used to get rid of oil from a surface. Oil Zapping is a bio-remediation technique involving the use of oil zapping bacteria.

Oilzapper feeds on hydrocarbon compounds present in crude oil and the hazardous hydrocarbon waste generated by oil refineries. It converts oil sludges into harmless CO2 and water.


QUESTION 89

EasyIndian PolityPrelims 2011

The authorization for the withdrawal of funds from the- Consolidated Fund of India must come from:

A. The President of India

B. The Parliament of India

C. The Prime Minister of India

D. The Union Finance Minister

Answer: B

Explanation

The Consolidated Fund of India is the most important of all government accounts. Revenues received by the government and expenses made by it, excluding some items (like provident fund deposits, judicial deposits, saving bank deposits, departmental deposits), are part of the Consolidated Fund. This fund was constituted under Article 266 (1) of the Constitution of India. All revenues received by the government by way of direct taxes and indirect taxes, money borrowed, and receipts from loans given by the government flow into the Consolidated Fund of India. All government expenditure is made from this fund, except for some items which are met from the Contingency Fund or the Public Account. Importantly, no money can be withdrawn from this fund without the Parliament's approval.


QUESTION 90

MediumEconomyPrelims 2011

Why is the Government of India disinvesting its equity in the Central Public Sector Enterprises (CPSEs)?

  1. The Government intends to use the revenue earned from the disinvestment mainly to pay back the external debt.
  2. The Government no longer intends to retain the management control of the CPSEs.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

A. 1 only

B. 2 only

C. Both 1 and 2

D. Neither 1 nor 2

Answer: D

Explanation

While the revenue generated from disinvestment can contribute to reducing the fiscal deficit or financing government expenditure, it is not solely earmarked for paying back external debt. Disinvestment is more broadly aimed at improving efficiency, promoting wider share ownership, introducing competition, and reducing the fiscal burden on the government.

The government may choose to retain a certain level of ownership and control even after disinvestment. The extent to which management control is retained or transferred depends on various factors, including strategic considerations, sectoral policies, and specific objectives of the disinvestment process.

Therefore, neither statement accurately represents the primary reasons for the Government of India's disinvestment in CPSEs.


QUESTION 91

MediumEconomyPrelims 2011

With what purpose is the Government of India promoting the concept of “Mega Food Parks”?

  1. To provide good infrastructure facilities for the food processing industry
  2. To increase the processing of perishable items and reduce wastage
  3. To provide emerging and eco-friendly food processing technologies to entrepreneurs

Select the correct answer using the codes given below:

A. 1 only

B. 1 and 2 only

C. 2 and 3 only

D. 1, 2 and 3

Answer: D

Explanation

The Government of India is promoting "Mega Food Parks" primarily to enhance the food processing industry's infrastructure, enabling direct farm to market linkages and reducing wastage. This initiative aims to boost the processing of perishable goods, decreasing loss, and to introduce sustainable, eco-friendly processing technologies to entrepreneurs. These objectives collectively strive to modernize the sector and make it more environmentally friendly and efficient.


QUESTION 92

HardEnvironment & EcologyPrelims 2011

With reference to India, consider the following Central Acts:

  1. Import and Export (Control) Act, 1947
  2. Mining and Mineral Development (Regulation) Act, 1957
  3. Customs Act, 1962
  4. Indian Forest Act, 1927

Which of the above Acts have relevance to/bearing on the biodiversity conservation in the country?

A. 1 and 3 only

B. 2, 3 and 4 only

C. 1, 2, 3 and 4

D. None of the above Acts

Answer: C

Explanation

Let's consider each Act one by one

The Import and Export (Control) Act, 1947 regulates the import and export of certain goods. It can have an impact on biodiversity conservation as it can control the import and export of biodiversity-related goods.

The Mining and Mineral Development (Regulation) Act, 1957 regulates the mining sector in India, which can have a significant impact on biodiversity through habitat destruction, pollution, etc.

The Customs Act, 1962 regulates the import and export of goods into and out of India. It can also have an impact on biodiversity conservation as it can control the import and export of biodiversity-related goods.

The Indian Forest Act, 1927 provides for the conservation of forests and for matters connected therewith or ancillary or incidental thereto. It directly relates to biodiversity conservation as it aims to preserve and improve the forest areas, which are rich in biodiversity.

Therefore, all these Acts have relevance to/bearing on the biodiversity conservation in the country.


QUESTION 93

MediumInternational RelationsPrelims 2011

With reference to look east policy of India, consider the following statements?

  1. India wants to establish itself as an important regional player in East Asian affairs.
  2. India wants to plug the vacuum created by the termination of the cold war.
  3. India wants to restore the historical and cultural ties with its neighbours in the southeast and East Asia.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct

A. 1 only.

B. 1 and 3 only.

C. 3 only.

D. 1,2 and 3.

Answer: D

Explanation

All of the statements provided regarding India's "Look East" policy are correct. India aims to establish itself as an important regional player in East Asian affairs, leveraging economic and strategic opportunities in the region. India seeks to fill the void left by the end of the Cold War, expanding its diplomatic and economic engagement with East Asian countries. India aims to rekindle and strengthen historical and cultural ties with its neighbors in Southeast and East Asia, fostering deeper cooperation and understanding.


QUESTION 94

EasyIndian PolityPrelims 2011

With reference to the Finance Commission of India, which of the following statements is correct?

A. It encourages the inflow of foreign capital for infrastructure development

B. It facilitates the proper distribution of finances among the Public Sector Undertakings

C. It ensures transparency in financial administration

D. None of the statements a, b and c given above is correct in this context

Answer: D

Explanation

The correct answer is D. None of the statements a, b and c given above is correct in this context.

The Finance Commission of India is not directly responsible for

A. Encouraging foreign capital inflow (This is more related to government policies and initiatives) B. Distribution of finances among Public Sector Undertakings (This is typically handled by the Ministry of Finance or relevant administrative ministries) C. Ensuring transparency in financial administration (While transparency is important in its work, the Finance Commission's primary focus is on resource allocation)

The Finance Commission's main function is to recommend the distribution of tax revenue and other financial resources between the central government and the state governments, and also among the states themselves. It plays a crucial role in India's federal fiscal system.


QUESTION 95

MediumEnvironment & EcologyPrelims 2011

Which one of the following is not a site for the in-situ method of conservation of flora?

A. Biosphere Reserve

B. Botanical Garden

C. National Park

D. Wildlife Sanctuary

Answer: B

Explanation

In-situ Conservation In-situ conservation is on site conservation or the conservation of genetic resources in natural populations of plant or animal species , such as forest genetic resources in natural populations of tree species. It is the process of protecting an endangered plant or animal species in its natural habitat , either by protecting or cleaning up the habitat itself or by defending the species from predators. In India following types of natural habitats are being maintained as protected area

  1. National parks
  2. Wildlife sanctuaries
  3. Biosphere reserves

QUESTION 96

EasyEconomyPrelims 2011

A rapid increase in the rate of inflation is sometimes attributed to the “base effect”. What is “base effect”?

A. It is the impact of drastic deficiency in supply due to the failure of crops

B. It is the impact of the surge in demand due to rapid economic growth

C. It is the impact of the price levels of the previous year on the calculation of inflation rate

D. None of the statements a, b and c ‘given above is correct in this context

Answer: C

Explanation

The base effect is the distortion in a monthly inflation figure that results from abnormally high or low levels of inflation in the year-ago month.

The inflation rate is calculated as the percentage change in prices compared to the previous year. If prices were unusually low or high in the previous year, it can significantly impact the calculated inflation rate, even if current price changes are moderate. This is known as the "base effect".

For example, if prices increased by 5% in the current year, but fell by 10% in the previous year, the base effect would result in a very high calculated inflation rate, even though the current year's price increase was modest.


QUESTION 97

HardScience & TechnologyPrelims 2011

A married couple adopted a male child, A few years later; twin boys were born to them. The blood group of the couple is AB positive and O negative. The blood group of the three sons is A positive, B positive, and O positive. The blood group of the adopted son is -

A. O positive

B. A positive

C. B positive

D. Cannot be determined on the basis of the given data

Answer: A

Explanation

Given the parents' blood groups are AB positive and O negative, their biological children can only have blood groups A, B, or O (all possibly Rh positive or negative due to the O negative parent). Since the three sons have A positive, B positive, and O positive blood groups, and only the biological children can have these blood groups derived from the parents, the adopted son must have the O positive blood group, fitting the scenario as the child not biologically linked to the parents' genotypes.


QUESTION 98

EasyEnvironment & EcologyPrelims 2011

Regarding “carbon credits”, which one of the following statements is not correct?

A. The carbon credit system was ratified in conjunction with the Kyoto Protocol

B. carbon credits are traded at a price fixed from time to time by the United Nations Environment Programme

C. The goal of the carbon credit system is to limit the increase of carbon dioxide emission

D. Carbon credits are awarded to countries or groups that have reduced greenhouse gases below their emission quota

Answer: B

Explanation

One carbon credit represents the right to emit one ton of carbon dioxide or an equivalent amount of a different greenhouse gas. These credits can be traded in the carbon market as part of initiatives to reduce overall greenhouse gas emissions.

The concept of carbon credits was indeed ratified in conjunction with the Kyoto Protocol, so option A is correct.

The goal of the carbon credit system is indeed to limit the increase of carbon dioxide emission, making option C correct.

Carbon credits are indeed awarded to countries or groups that have reduced greenhouse gases below their emission quota, so option D is also correct.

However, option B is not correct. The price of carbon credits is not fixed by the United Nations Environment Programme. Instead, the price of carbon credits is determined by the market, based on supply and demand.


QUESTION 99

EasyScience & TechnologyPrelims 2011

What is “Virtual Private Network”?

A. It is a private computer network of an organization where the remote users can transmit encrypted information through the server of the organization

B. It is a computer network across a public internet that provides users access to their organization’s network while maintaining the security of the information transmitted

C. It is a computer network in which users can access a shared pool of computing resources through a service provider.

D. None of the statements a, b and c given above is a correct description of Virtual Private Network

Answer: B

Explanation

A Virtual Private Network, or VPN, is a technology that creates a secure, encrypted connection over the internet. It allows users to access their organization's network securely, even when they are not directly connected to it. This is done by transmitting data through a server, which encrypts the information to prevent unauthorized access. The VPN essentially extends a private network across a public network, like the internet, allowing remote users to send and receive data as if they were directly connected to the private network. Therefore, it provides users access to their organizations network while maintaining the security of the information transmitted.


QUESTION 100

MediumArt & CulturePrelims 2011

The Jain philosophy holds that the world is created and maintained by -

A. Universal Law

B. Universal Truth

C. Universal Faith

D. Universal Soul

Answer: A

Explanation

According to the Jain philosophy , the world is created and maintained by a universal law known as Dharma . Dharma is the fundamental principle that governs the universe and everything that exists within it. Dharma is believed to be eternal and unchanging, and it is the same for all living beings.

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