Analyse & practice 14 years of PYQs to crack UPSCPractice Now

UPSC Prelims 2011 Analysis

Subject-Wise MCQ Distribution

  • Environment & Ecology (21 Questions): The highest weightage, emphasizing UPSC’s growing focus on environmental issues, biodiversity, climate change, and global agreements. Aspirants must focus on analytical abilities and map-based learning in this section.
  • Economy (17 Questions): Focused on core economic concepts, banking, financial institutions, and policies, with minimal emphasis on current economic developments. Aspirants should master "match the following" questions related to economic policies.
  • Science & Technology (15 Questions): Covered biotechnology, space research, defense technology, and general scientific concepts, requiring both static and applied knowledge. A deep understanding is crucial for answering these questions.
  • Indian Polity (11 Questions): Included constitutional provisions, governance mechanisms, federalism, and judicial independence. A static-heavy approach requires thorough study of NCERTs and reference books.
  • Modern History (9 Questions): Concentrated on India’s freedom struggle, British policies, revolutionary movements, and social reform efforts. Familiarity with key events and leaders is essential.
  • Geography (Indian Geography: 7, Physical Geography: 4, World Geography: 3): A strong focus on Indian geography, especially rivers, agriculture, monsoons, and resource distribution. Maps and geographical concepts must be well-prepared.
  • International Relations (5 Questions): Covered India’s foreign policy, international organizations, and global treaties, focusing on institutional aspects and global affairs.
  • Art & Culture (1 Question) and Ancient History (3 Questions): Minimal representation, covering temple architecture, Vedic texts, and early Indian civilizations.
  • Medieval History (0 Questions): No questions in this section, continuing the trend of reduced emphasis on medieval history in UPSC Prelims.
Prelims 2011
Subject-Wise MCQ Distribution in UPSC Prelims 2011

Difficulty Analysis

  • Medium Difficulty (60 Questions): The largest segment, requiring conceptual clarity and deeper understanding rather than rote memorization.
  • Easy Questions (20 Questions): A fair portion, offering scoring opportunities for well-prepared aspirants.
  • Hard Questions (20 Questions): Required advanced understanding and critical thinking, particularly in Science & Technology and Economy.
Prelims 2011
Difficulty Analysis in UPSC Prelims 2011

Variations in Question Framing

  • Multi-Statement Questions (50%): Required careful evaluation and elimination strategies, particularly in subjects like Environment, Economy, and Polity. Analytical abilities were critical in solving these questions.
  • Direct Questions (50%): Straightforward factual recall, mostly in History and Geography. Focused on well-established concepts, such as those from NCERT.
  • Assertion-Reasoning Questions (0%): Unlike some later years, there were no assertion-reasoning questions, making the paper more direct in approach.
Prelims 2011
Variations in Question Framing in UPSC Prelims 2011

Current Affairs vs. Static Questions

  • Static-Based (81 Questions): Dominated the paper, highlighting the importance of foundational knowledge from standard sources like NCERTs, Laxmikanth, and GC Leong.
  • Current Affairs-Based (19 Questions): A relatively low proportion, indicating that UPSC in 2011 focused more on long-term concepts rather than recent events.

Key Learnings for Future Preparation

  • Focus on Environment & Ecology: The high number of questions in this section suggests that it has been a priority for UPSC since the early 2010s. Topics like climate change, biodiversity, and conservation efforts should be well-prepared.
  • Strengthen Conceptual Understanding: A significant portion of the paper required deeper knowledge rather than memorization, especially in Economy, Science & Technology, and Polity.
  • Master Multi-Statement Questions: Since half the paper consisted of multi-statement questions, aspirants should develop elimination techniques and improve analytical abilities.
  • Prioritize Static Subjects: With 81% of the paper based on static knowledge, aspirants must have a strong foundation in NCERTs, standard textbooks, and conceptual clarity in traditional subjects.
  • Be Prepared for Moderate to Hard Questions: With 80 questions falling in the medium-to-hard category, the focus should be on understanding the "why" behind concepts, rather than just factual recall.
  • Adopt an Interdisciplinary Approach: Questions often combined elements from multiple subjects, reinforcing the need for integrated study, including a balance of map-based learning, assertion-based reasoning, and analytical thinking.
UPSC Prelims 2011 emphasized Environment, Economy, and Science & Technology, with a strong focus on static subjects and conceptual clarity. Multi-statement questions were significant, requiring analytical reasoning and elimination techniques. Current affairs played a minor role, reinforcing the need for NCERT-based preparation. Moderate to hard questions dominated, making an interdisciplinary approach essential.

QUESTION 1

HardEconomyPrelims 2011

In the context of global oil prices, “Brent crude oil” is frequently referred to in the news. What does this term imply?

  1. It is a major classification of crude oil.
  2. It is sourced from the north sea.
  3. It does not contain sulphur.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

A. 2 only.

B. 1 and 2 only.

C. 1 and 3 only.

D. 1,2, and 3.

Answer: B

Explanation

Brent crude oil is indeed a major classification of crude oil, which makes statement 1 correct. It serves as a benchmark for global oil prices and is used to set prices for a significant portion of global crude oil.

Statement 2 is also correct. Brent crude oil is sourced from oil fields in the North Sea, between the Shetland Islands and Norway.

However, statement 3 is incorrect. Brent crude oil does contain sulphur. It has a sulphur content of 0.37%, which is why it is considered less "sweet" compared to West Texas Intermediate (WTI) oil, which has a lower sulphur content of 0.24%.


QUESTION 2

EasyEconomyPrelims 2011

Which one of the following is not a feature of “Value Added Tax”?

A. It is a multi-point destination-based system of taxation

B. It is a tax levied on value addition at each stage of the transaction in the production-distribution chain

C. It is a tax on the final consumption of goods or services and must ultimately be borne by the consumer

D. It is basically a subject of the Central Government and the State Governments are only a facilitator for its successful implementation

Answer: D

Explanation

A Value Added Tax (VAT) is indeed a multi-point destination-based system of taxation, which means it is levied at each stage of the production and distribution process, and the tax is ultimately borne by the final consumer.

The implementation of VAT is primarily the responsibility of the state governments in India. While the central government provides the legal and policy framework, the state governments are responsible for the actual implementation, administration, and collection of VAT within their respective states.

Therefore, it is not accurate to say that the State Governments are only facilitators for its successful implementation.


QUESTION 3

EasyEconomyPrelims 2011

Economic growth is usually coupled with -

A. Deflation

B. Inflation

C. Stagflation

D. Hyperinflation

Answer: B

Explanation

Economic growth has inflation as a usual consequence as prices rise for goods with people having higher purchasing power and more money circulation in the system. But the contrary is not true i.e., inflation in the economy does not mean that growth is happening. It's a one-way causal relationship and not two-way.


QUESTION 4

EasyEconomyPrelims 2011

Both Foreign Direct Investment (FDI) and Foreign Institutional Investor (FII) are related to investment in a country. Which one of the following statements best represents an important difference between the two?

A. FII helps bring better management skills and technology, while FDI only brings in capital

B. FII helps in increasing capital availability in general, while FDI only targets specific sectors

C. FDI flows only into the secondary market, while FII targets primary market

D. FII is considered to be more stable than FDI

Answer: B

Explanation

FDI involves direct investment in physical assets or a significant degree of control or influence in the management of a company in a foreign country. It often focuses on specific sectors, such as manufacturing or infrastructure.

On the other hand, FII refers to investments made by foreign institutions, such as mutual funds, hedge funds, and pension funds, into the financial markets of a country. FIIs usually invest in a broader range of securities, and their investments can help increase capital availability across various sectors of the economy.


QUESTION 5

MediumEconomyPrelims 2011

In the context of Indian economy consider the following statements :

  1. The growth rate of GDP has steadily increased in the last five years.
  2. The growth rate in per capita income has steadily increased in the last five years.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

A. 1 only

B. 2 only

C. Both 1 and 2

D. Neither 1 nor 2

Answer: D

Explanation

The growth rate in GDP had gone down and came up, several times in the five years preceding 2011. Same had been the case with the growth rate of per capita income.


QUESTION 6

EasyEconomyPrelims 2011

A “closed economy” is an economy in which -

A. the money supply is fully controlled

B. deficit financing takes place

C. only exports take place

D. neither exports nor imports take place

Answer: D

Explanation

A closed economy is one that has no trade activity with outside economies. It is self-sufficient, which means no imports come into the country and no exports leave the country.

A closed economy's intent is to provide domestic consumers with everything they need from within the country's borders.


QUESTION 7

EasyEconomyPrelims 2011

Which one of the following statements appropriately describes the “fiscal stimulus”?

A. It is a massive investment by the Government in the manufacturing sector to ensure the supply of goods to meet the demand surge caused by rapid economic growth

B. It is an intense affirmative action of the Government to boost economic activity in the country

C. It is the Government’s intensive action on financial institutions to ensure disbursement of loans to agriculture and allied sectors to promote greater food production and contain food inflation

D. It is an extreme affirmative action by the Government to pursue its policy of financial inclusion

Answer: B

Explanation

Fiscal stimulus is essentially an increase in public spending or a reduction in the level of taxation that might be performed by a government to encourage and support economic growth.

  • Fiscal stimulus may refer to either greater public spending or tax cuts. In both cases, the government aims to boost economic growth.

QUESTION 8

MediumEconomyPrelims 2011

Consider the following actions which the Government can take:

  1. Devaluing the domestic currency.
  2. Reduction in the export subsidy.

Which of the above action/actions can help in reducing the current account deficit?

A. 1 only

B. 2 only

C. 1 and 2 only

D. None of the above

Answer: A

Explanation

The current account deficit is a measurement of a country's trade where the value of the goods and services it imports exceeds the value of the goods and services it exports.

Devaluation is a deliberate reduction in the value of a country's currency. Devaluing the domestic currency can help in reducing the current account deficit as it makes exports cheaper and imports more expensive, thereby reducing the deficit.

On the other hand, a reduction in export subsidy might not help in reducing the current account deficit. This is because export subsidies make exports cheaper, thereby promoting exports. If these subsidies are reduced, exports might become more expensive leading to a decrease in exports and potentially increasing the current account deficit.

Therefore, only action 1 can help in reducing the current account deficit.


QUESTION 9

MediumEconomyPrelims 2011

Why is the offering of “teaser loans” by commercial banks a cause of economic concern?

  1. The teaser loans are considered to be an aspect of subprime lending and banks may be exposed to the risk of defaulters in future.
  2. In India, the teaser loans are mostly given to inexperienced entrepreneurs to set up manufacturing or export units.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

A. Both 1 and 2

B. 2 only

C. 1 only

D. Neither 1 nor 2

Answer: C

Explanation

Teaser loans are loans with low, fixed interest rates offered by banks for a short period, which then switch to higher, floating rates. They are indeed a cause of economic concern. The first statement is correct because teaser loans are considered to be an aspect of subprime lending, which means they are given to borrowers who may have difficulty maintaining the repayment schedule. This exposes banks to the risk of defaulters in the future. However, the second statement is not entirely accurate. While it's true that some inexperienced entrepreneurs might receive teaser loans, they are not the primary recipients of such loans in India.


QUESTION 10

MediumEconomyPrelims 2011

In terms of economy, the visit by foreign nationals to witness the XIX Common Wealth Games in India amounted to

A. Export

B. Import

C. Production

D. Consumption

Answer: A

Explanation

The visit of foreign nationals to India for the XIX Commonwealth Games can be considered as an export in economic terms.

This is because when these foreign nationals come to India, they bring foreign currency with them and spend it in India on various goods and services. This spending is equivalent to them buying Indian goods and services, which is why it is considered an export.

This falls under the Mode 2 type of service under WTO norms, where consumption of a service happens in the territory of the service provider.


QUESTION 11

MediumEconomyPrelims 2011

In India, which of the following have the highest share in the disbursement of credit to agriculture and allied activities?

A. Commercial Banks

B. Cooperative Banks

C. Regional Rural Banks

D. Microfinance Institutions

Answer: A

Explanation

In India, the sector of agriculture and its allied activities receive the highest amount of credit from Commercial Banks. This is due to the mandate by the Reserve Bank of India (RBI) for Priority Sector Lending (PSL), which includes domestic and foreign commercial banks.

Commercial banks disburse around 60% of the credit to agriculture and allied activities, which is the highest share compared to Cooperative Banks, Regional Rural Banks, and Microfinance Institutions.


QUESTION 12

MediumEconomyPrelims 2011

India has experienced persistent and high food inflation in the recent past. What could be the reason?

  1. Due to a gradual switchover to the cultivation of commercial crops, the area under cultivation of food grains has steadily decreased in the last five years by about 30%.
  2. As a consequence of increasing incomes, the consumption patterns of the people have undergone a significant change.
  3. The food supply chain has structural constraints.

Which of the statements given above are correct?

A. 1 and 2 only

B. 2 and 3 only

C. 1 and 3 only

D. 1, 2 and 3

Answer: B

Explanation

While a shift towards commercial crops impacts the production of food grains, causing a potential decrease in supply, 30% decrease seems exaggerated and not reflective of actual trends. Therefore, statement 1 is not correct.

With rising incomes, the demand for high-value food items like fruits, vegetables, dairy, and meat has increased, outpacing the supply growth and contributing to food inflation. Therefore, statement 2 is correct.

The food supply chain in India has structural constraints, which can lead to inefficiencies in the distribution of food products. These inefficiencies can cause an increase in food prices, thereby contributing to food inflation. Therefore, statement 3 is correct.

Therefore, only statements 2 and 3 are correct.


QUESTION 13

MediumEconomyPrelims 2011

Microfinance is the provision of financial services to people of low-income groups. This includes both the consumers and the self-employed. The service/services rendered under micro-finance is/are:

  1. Credit facilities
  2. Savings facilities
  3. Insurance facilities
  4. Fund Transfer facilities

Select the correct answer using the codes given below the lists:

A. 1 only

B. 1 and 4 only

C. 2 and 3 only

D. 1, 2, 3 and 4

Answer: D

Explanation

Microfinance refers to the provision of financial services to low-income individuals or groups who typically don't have access to traditional banking services.

Microfinance institutions provide small loans or microcredit to the poor who do not have any collateral. This is one of the most common services provided under microfinance.

Many microfinance institutions also offer savings accounts.

Some microfinance institutions provide micro-insurance products to cover health, life, and other insurances for low-income individuals and families.

Microfinance services also include fund transfers. These institutions provide remittance services to help individuals send and receive money, especially in areas where banking services are scarce.

Therefore, all the services listed in the question are provided under microfinance.


QUESTION 14

MediumEconomyPrelims 2011

The lowering of Bank Rate by the Reserve Bank of India leads to -

A. More liquidity in the market

B. Less liquidity in the market

C. No change in the liquidity in the market

D. Mobilization of more deposits by commercial banks

Answer: A

Explanation

A bank rate is the interest rate at which a nation's central bank lends money to domestic banks. Managing the bank rate is a method by which central banks affect economic activity.

When the Reserve Bank of India (RBI) lowers the Bank Rate, it becomes cheaper for commercial banks to borrow from the RBI. This incentivizes commercial banks to borrow more funds from the RBI, leading to an increase in the liquidity available to them. With more liquidity available, commercial banks are likely to lend more to businesses and individuals, thereby increasing the overall liquidity in the market.


QUESTION 15

MediumEconomyPrelims 2011

Why is the Government of India disinvesting its equity in the Central Public Sector Enterprises (CPSEs)?

  1. The Government intends to use the revenue earned from the disinvestment mainly to pay back the external debt.
  2. The Government no longer intends to retain the management control of the CPSEs.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

A. 1 only

B. 2 only

C. Both 1 and 2

D. Neither 1 nor 2

Answer: D

Explanation

While the revenue generated from disinvestment can contribute to reducing the fiscal deficit or financing government expenditure, it is not solely earmarked for paying back external debt. Disinvestment is more broadly aimed at improving efficiency, promoting wider share ownership, introducing competition, and reducing the fiscal burden on the government.

The government may choose to retain a certain level of ownership and control even after disinvestment. The extent to which management control is retained or transferred depends on various factors, including strategic considerations, sectoral policies, and specific objectives of the disinvestment process.

Therefore, neither statement accurately represents the primary reasons for the Government of India's disinvestment in CPSEs.


QUESTION 16

MediumEconomyPrelims 2011

With what purpose is the Government of India promoting the concept of “Mega Food Parks”?

  1. To provide good infrastructure facilities for the food processing industry
  2. To increase the processing of perishable items and reduce wastage
  3. To provide emerging and eco-friendly food processing technologies to entrepreneurs

Select the correct answer using the codes given below:

A. 1 only

B. 1 and 2 only

C. 2 and 3 only

D. 1, 2 and 3

Answer: D

Explanation

The Government of India is promoting "Mega Food Parks" primarily to enhance the food processing industry's infrastructure, enabling direct farm to market linkages and reducing wastage. This initiative aims to boost the processing of perishable goods, decreasing loss, and to introduce sustainable, eco-friendly processing technologies to entrepreneurs. These objectives collectively strive to modernize the sector and make it more environmentally friendly and efficient.


QUESTION 17

EasyEconomyPrelims 2011

A rapid increase in the rate of inflation is sometimes attributed to the “base effect”. What is “base effect”?

A. It is the impact of drastic deficiency in supply due to the failure of crops

B. It is the impact of the surge in demand due to rapid economic growth

C. It is the impact of the price levels of the previous year on the calculation of inflation rate

D. None of the statements a, b and c ‘given above is correct in this context

Answer: C

Explanation

The base effect is the distortion in a monthly inflation figure that results from abnormally high or low levels of inflation in the year-ago month.

The inflation rate is calculated as the percentage change in prices compared to the previous year. If prices were unusually low or high in the previous year, it can significantly impact the calculated inflation rate, even if current price changes are moderate. This is known as the "base effect".

For example, if prices increased by 5% in the current year, but fell by 10% in the previous year, the base effect would result in a very high calculated inflation rate, even though the current year's price increase was modest.

Share