UPSC Prelims 2011 Analysis
Subject-Wise MCQ Distribution
- Environment & Ecology (21 Questions): The highest weightage, emphasizing UPSC’s growing focus on environmental issues, biodiversity, climate change, and global agreements. Aspirants must focus on analytical abilities and map-based learning in this section.
- Economy (17 Questions): Focused on core economic concepts, banking, financial institutions, and policies, with minimal emphasis on current economic developments. Aspirants should master "match the following" questions related to economic policies.
- Science & Technology (15 Questions): Covered biotechnology, space research, defense technology, and general scientific concepts, requiring both static and applied knowledge. A deep understanding is crucial for answering these questions.
- Indian Polity (11 Questions): Included constitutional provisions, governance mechanisms, federalism, and judicial independence. A static-heavy approach requires thorough study of NCERTs and reference books.
- Modern History (9 Questions): Concentrated on India’s freedom struggle, British policies, revolutionary movements, and social reform efforts. Familiarity with key events and leaders is essential.
- Geography (Indian Geography: 7, Physical Geography: 4, World Geography: 3): A strong focus on Indian geography, especially rivers, agriculture, monsoons, and resource distribution. Maps and geographical concepts must be well-prepared.
- International Relations (5 Questions): Covered India’s foreign policy, international organizations, and global treaties, focusing on institutional aspects and global affairs.
- Art & Culture (1 Question) and Ancient History (3 Questions): Minimal representation, covering temple architecture, Vedic texts, and early Indian civilizations.
- Medieval History (0 Questions): No questions in this section, continuing the trend of reduced emphasis on medieval history in UPSC Prelims.

Difficulty Analysis
- Medium Difficulty (60 Questions): The largest segment, requiring conceptual clarity and deeper understanding rather than rote memorization.
- Easy Questions (20 Questions): A fair portion, offering scoring opportunities for well-prepared aspirants.
- Hard Questions (20 Questions): Required advanced understanding and critical thinking, particularly in Science & Technology and Economy.

Variations in Question Framing
- Multi-Statement Questions (50%): Required careful evaluation and elimination strategies, particularly in subjects like Environment, Economy, and Polity. Analytical abilities were critical in solving these questions.
- Direct Questions (50%): Straightforward factual recall, mostly in History and Geography. Focused on well-established concepts, such as those from NCERT.
- Assertion-Reasoning Questions (0%): Unlike some later years, there were no assertion-reasoning questions, making the paper more direct in approach.

Current Affairs vs. Static Questions
- Static-Based (81 Questions): Dominated the paper, highlighting the importance of foundational knowledge from standard sources like NCERTs, Laxmikanth, and GC Leong.
- Current Affairs-Based (19 Questions): A relatively low proportion, indicating that UPSC in 2011 focused more on long-term concepts rather than recent events.
Key Learnings for Future Preparation
- Focus on Environment & Ecology: The high number of questions in this section suggests that it has been a priority for UPSC since the early 2010s. Topics like climate change, biodiversity, and conservation efforts should be well-prepared.
- Strengthen Conceptual Understanding: A significant portion of the paper required deeper knowledge rather than memorization, especially in Economy, Science & Technology, and Polity.
- Master Multi-Statement Questions: Since half the paper consisted of multi-statement questions, aspirants should develop elimination techniques and improve analytical abilities.
- Prioritize Static Subjects: With 81% of the paper based on static knowledge, aspirants must have a strong foundation in NCERTs, standard textbooks, and conceptual clarity in traditional subjects.
- Be Prepared for Moderate to Hard Questions: With 80 questions falling in the medium-to-hard category, the focus should be on understanding the "why" behind concepts, rather than just factual recall.
- Adopt an Interdisciplinary Approach: Questions often combined elements from multiple subjects, reinforcing the need for integrated study, including a balance of map-based learning, assertion-based reasoning, and analytical thinking.
Subject-Wise Answer Key
QUESTION 1
The function of heavy water in a nuclear reactor is to -
A. Slow down the speed of neutrons
B. Increase the speed of neutrons
C. Cool down the reactor
D. Stop the nuclear reaction
QUESTION 2
A genetically engineered form of brinjal, known as the Bt-brinjal, has been developed. The objective of this is -
A. To make it pest-resistant
B. To improve its taste and nutritive qualities
C. To make it drought-resistant
D. To make its shelf-life longer
QUESTION 3
The surface of a lake is frozen in severe winter, but the water at its bottom is still liquid. What is the reason?
A. Ice is a bad conductor of heat
B. Since the surface of the lake is at the same temperature as the air, no heat is lost
C. The density of water is maximum at 4°C
D. None of the statements a, b and c given above is correct
QUESTION 4
Regular intake of fresh fruits and vegetables is recommended in the diet since they are a good source of antioxidants. How do antioxidants help a person maintain health and promote longevity?
A. They activate the enzymes necessary for vitamin synthesis in the body and help prevent vitamin deficiency.
B. They prevent excessive oxidation of carbohydrates, fats and proteins in the body and help avoid unnecessary wastage of energy.
C. They neutralize the free radicals produced in the body during metabolism.
D. They activate certain genes in the cells of the body and help delay the ageing process.
QUESTION 5
A company marketing food products advertises that its items do not contain trans-fats. What does this campaign signify to the customers?
- The food products are not made out of hydrogenated oils.
- The food products are not made out of animal fats/oils.
- The oils used are not likely to damage the cardiovascular health of the consumers.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
A. 1 only.
B. 2 and 3 only.
C. 1 and 3 only.
D. 1,2 and 3.
QUESTION 6
Aspartame is an artificial sweetener sold in the market. It consists of amino acids and provides calories like other amino acids. Yet, it is used as a low-calorie sweetening agent in food items. What is the basis of this use ?
A. Aspartame is as sweet as table sugar, but unlike table sugar, it is not readily oxidized in human body due to lack of requisite enzymes.
B. When aspartame is used in food processing, the sweet taste remains, but it becomes resistant to oxidation.
C. Aspartame is as sweet as sugar, but after ingestion into the body, it is converted into metabolites that yield no calories.
D. Aspartame is several times sweeter than table sugar, hence food items made with small quantities of aspartame yield fewer calories on oxidation.
QUESTION 7
A new optical disc format known as the Blu-ray Disc (BD) is becoming popular. In what way is it different from the traditional DVD?
- DVD supports Standard Definition video while BD supports High Definition video.
- Compared to a DVD, the BD format has several times more storage capacity.
- The thickness of BD is 2.4 mm white that of DVD is 1.2 mm.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
A. 1 only
B. 1 and 2 only
C. 2 and 3 only
D. 1, 2 and 3
QUESTION 8
When the bark of a tree is removed in a circular fashion all around near its base, it gradually dries up and dies because?
A. Water from soil cannot rise to aerial parts.
B. Roots are starved of energy.
C. The tree is infected by soil microbes.
D. Roots do not receive oxygen for respiration.
QUESTION 9
What is the difference between Bluetooth and Wi-Fi devices?
A. Bluetooth uses a 2.4 GHz radio frequency band, whereas-Wi-Fi can use 2.4 GHz or 5 GHz frequency band.
B. Bluetooth is used for Wireless Local Area Networks WLAN only, whereas Wi-Fi is used for Wireless Wide Area Networks WWAN only.
C. When information is transmitted between two devices using Blue-tooth technology, the devices have to be in the line of sight of each other, but when Wi-Fi technology is used the devices need not be in the line of sight of each other
D. The statements a and b given above are correct in this context
QUESTION 10
What is the difference between asteroids and comets?
- Asteroids are small rocky planetoids, while comets are formed of frozen gases held together by a rocky and metallic material.
- Asteroids are found mostly between the orbits of Jupiter and Mars, while comets are found mostly between Venus and mercury.
- Comets show a perceptible glowing tail, while asteroids do not.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
A. 1 and 2 only.
B. 1 and 3 only.
C. 3 only.
D. 1,2 and 3.
QUESTION 11
At present, scientists can determine the arrangement or relative positions of genes or DNA sequences on a chromosome. How does this knowledge benefit us?
- It is possible to know the pedigree of livestock.
- It is possible to understand the causes of all human diseases.
- It is possible to develop disease-resistant animal breeds.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
A. 1 and 2 only
B. 2 only
C. 1 and 3 only
D. 1, 2 and 3
QUESTION 12
An artificial satellite orbiting around the Earth does not fall down. This is so because of the attraction Of Earth -
A. does not exist at such a distance
B. is neutralized by the attraction of the moon
C. provides the necessary speed for its steady motion
D. provides the necessary acceleration for its motion
QUESTION 13
Satellites used for telecommunication relay are kept in a geostationary orbit. A satellite is said to be in such an orbit when:
- The orbit is geosynchronous.
- The orbit is circular.
- The orbit lies in the plane of the Earth’s equator.
- The orbit is at an altitude of 22,236 km.
Select the correct answer using the codes given below:
A. 1, 2 and 3 only
B. 1, 3 and 4 only
C. 2 and 4 only
D. 1, 2,3 and 4
QUESTION 14
A married couple adopted a male child, A few years later; twin boys were born to them. The blood group of the couple is AB positive and O negative. The blood group of the three sons is A positive, B positive, and O positive. The blood group of the adopted son is -
A. O positive
B. A positive
C. B positive
D. Cannot be determined on the basis of the given data
QUESTION 15
What is “Virtual Private Network”?
A. It is a private computer network of an organization where the remote users can transmit encrypted information through the server of the organization
B. It is a computer network across a public internet that provides users access to their organization’s network while maintaining the security of the information transmitted
C. It is a computer network in which users can access a shared pool of computing resources through a service provider.
D. None of the statements a, b and c given above is a correct description of Virtual Private Network