UPSC Prelims 2014 Analysis

Subject-Wise MCQ Distribution

  • Economy (12 Questions): Covered economic growth indicators, fiscal policy, and banking. Questions were evenly split between static concepts and current affairs, requiring a strong grasp of government schemes and financial policies.
  • Environment & Ecology (28 Questions): A major section, focusing on biodiversity, conservation policies, and climate change. Many questions demanded an interdisciplinary approach, linking geography, science, and governance.
  • Indian Polity (10 Questions): Tested constitutional provisions, governance structures, and legal frameworks. Several questions required conceptual clarity over rote memorization.
  • Modern History (5 Questions): Covered the freedom struggle, key personalities, and national movements. A mix of match the following and direct factual questions were asked.
  • Science & Technology (11 Questions): Included topics on biotechnology, space technology, and applied sciences. Many questions required linking current affairs with static concepts, testing awareness of recent advancements.
  • Art & Culture (15 Questions): Had a higher-than-usual weightage, emphasizing Buddhism, tribal culture, architecture, and performing arts. Required a detailed understanding of cultural heritage and traditions.
  • International Relations (4 Questions): Covered global organizations, treaties, and India’s diplomatic engagements. Most questions were current affairs-driven, requiring knowledge of recent geopolitical developments.
  • Medieval History (1 Question): Only one question appeared, focusing on administration in medieval India.
  • Geography (Indian Geography: 8, Physical Geography: 1, World Geography: 3): A balanced mix, with emphasis on Indian geography and geophysical phenomena. Many questions included maps, requiring location-based knowledge.
Prelims 2014
Subject-Wise MCQ Distribution in UPSC Prelims 2014

Difficulty Analysis

  • Medium Questions (49 Questions): The largest category, demanding a blend of factual knowledge and analytical reasoning. Found in Economy, Polity, and Science & Technology.
  • Hard Questions (26 Questions): Required deep conceptual understanding, often framed in multi-statement formats. Common in Environment, Science & Technology, and International Relations.
  • Easy Questions (25 Questions): Mostly from History and Polity, with straightforward factual recall. Provided scoring opportunities for well-prepared candidates.
Prelims 2014
Difficulty Analysis in UPSC Prelims 2014

Variations in Question Framing

  • Multi-Statement Questions (64%) – Dominant in Polity, Economy, and Environment. Required careful reading, logical deduction, and elimination skills. Many were tricky due to wordplay, making conceptual clarity crucial.
  • Direct Questions (36%) – Focused on factual recall, primarily in History and Geography. These were easier to answer for candidates with strong static knowledge.
Prelims 2014
Variations in Question Framing in UPSC Prelims 2024

Current Affairs vs. Static Questions

  • Current Affairs-Driven Questions (40%) – Strong presence in Economy, Science & Technology, and Environment. Required awareness of government schemes, international developments, and technological advances.
  • Static Knowledge-Based Questions (60%) – Covered fundamental concepts, particularly in Polity, History, and Geography. This highlights that despite the increasing weightage of current affairscore syllabus topics remain crucial.

Key Learnings for Future Preparation

  • Focus on Conceptual Clarity: The paper emphasized analytical thinking, especially in Polity, Economy, and Environment. A strong foundation is essential.
  • Balanced Subject Preparation: No single subject dominated. Candidates must cover all subjects equally to adapt to changing trends.
  • Master Elimination Techniques: Many multi-statement questions required logical reasoning. Practicing structured MCQs improves accuracy.
  • Static Knowledge is Crucial: While current affairs had a presence, subjects like Polity, History, and Geography remained dominant.
  • Practice & Revision Matters: Regular mock tests, PYQs, and revisions are essential for improving speed and accuracy.
UPSC Prelims 2014 emphasized conceptual clarity, with a strong focus on Economy, Environment, and Polity. Multi-statement questions dominated, requiring elimination techniques. A balanced mix of static and current affairs highlighted the need for comprehensive preparation.

QUESTION 1

EasyScience & TechnologyPrelims 2014

Consider the following pairs :

VitaminDeficiency disease
1. Vitamin CScurvy
2. Vitamin DRickets
3. Vitamin ENight blindness

Which of the pairs given above is/are correctly matched?

A. 1 and 2 only

B. 3 only

C. 1, 2 and 3

D. None

Answer: A

Explanation

  1. Vitamin C deficiency causes Scurvy is right.

  2. Vitamin D deficiency causes Rickets is right.

  3. Vitamin E deficiency causes Night blindness is wrong. As Vitamin A deficiency causes Night blindness.


QUESTION 2

HardEnvironment & EcologyPrelims 2014

With reference to technologies for solar power production, consider the following statements:

  1. ‘Photovoltaics’ is a technology that generates electricity by direct conversion of light into electricity, while ‘Solar Thermal’ is a technology that utilizes the Sun’s rays to generate heat which is further used in the electricity generation process.
  2. Photovoltaics generates Alternating Current (AC), while Solar Thermal generates Direct Current (DC).
  3. India has a manufacturing base for Solar Thermal technology, but not for Photovoltaics.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

A. 1 only

B. 2 and 3 only

C. 1, 2 and 3

D. None

Answer: A

Explanation

Photovoltaics are best known as a method for generating electric power by using solar cells to convert energy from the sun into a flow of electrons by the photovoltaic effect.

Solar cells produce direct current electricity from sunlight which can be used to power equipment or to recharge a battery.

The first practical application of photovoltaics was to power orbiting satellites and other spacecraft, but today the majority of photovoltaic modules are used for grid-connected power generation. In this case, an inverter is required to convert the DC to AC.


QUESTION 3

MediumEnvironment & EcologyPrelims 2014

Which of the following are some important pollutants released by the steel industry in India?

  1. Oxides of sulphur
  2. Oxides of nitrogen
  3. Carbon monoxide
  4. Carbon dioxide

Select the correct answer using the code given below.

A. 1, 3 and 4 only

B. 2 and 3 only

C. 1 and 4 only

D. 1,2, 3 and 4

Answer: D

Explanation

In a steel furnace, coke reacts with iron ore , releasing iron and generating CO and CO2 gases.

Due to the use of coal , pollutants such as SOx and NOx are released, therefore all are correct options.


QUESTION 4

MediumEconomyPrelims 2014

If the interest rate is decreased in an economy, it will

A. decrease the consumption expenditure in the economy

B. increase the tax collection of the Government

C. increase the investment expenditure in the economy

D. increase the total savings in the economy

Answer: C

Explanation

Lower Interest rates encourage additional investment spending , which gives the economy a boost in times of slow economic growth.

Changes in interest rates affect the public's demand for goods and services and, thus, aggregate investment spending.

A decrease in interest rates lowers the cost of borrowing, which encourages businesses to increase investment spending. Lower interest rates also give banks more incentive to lend to businesses and households, allowing them to spend more.


QUESTION 5

EasyEconomyPrelims 2014

Which of the following organizations brings out the publication known as ‘World Economic Outlook’?

A. The International Monetary Fund

B. The United Nations Development Programme

C. The World Economic Forum

D. The World Bank

Answer: A

Explanation

The organization that brings out the publication known as 'World Economic Outlook' is the International Monetary Fund (IMF).


QUESTION 6

MediumEnvironment & EcologyPrelims 2014

With reference to a conservation organization called Wetlands International, which of the following statements is/are correct?

  1. It is an intergovernmental organization formed by the countries which are signatories to the Ramsar Convention.
  2. It works at the field level to develop and mobilize knowledge, and use the practical experience to advocate for better policies.

Select the correct answer using the code given below.

A. 1 only

B. 2 only

C. Both 1 and 2

D. Neither 1 nor 2

Answer: B

Explanation

Wetlands International is a global organisation that works to sustain and restore wetlands and their resources for people and biodiversity. It is an independent, not-for-profit, global organisation, supported by government and NGO membership from around the world.

Wetlands International is dedicated to maintaining and restoring wetlands for their environmental values as well as for the services they provide to people. It works at the field level to develop and mobilise knowledge and use this practical experience to advocate for better policies.


QUESTION 7

EasyIndian PolityPrelims 2014

The power to increase the number of judges in the Supreme Court of India is vested in

A. the President of India

B. the Parliament

C. the Chief Justice of India

D. the Law Commission

Answer: B

Explanation

According to article 124(1), There shall be a Supreme Court of India consisting of a Chief Justice of India and, until Parliament by law prescribes a larger number, of not more than thirty-three other Judges. Thus, the Constitution vests the authority to increase the number of Judges in the Parliament.


QUESTION 8

HardArt & CulturePrelims 2014

With reference to the famous Sattriya dance, consider the following statements:

  1. Sattriya is a combination of music, dance and drama.
  2. It is a centuries-old living tradition of Vaishnavites of Assam.
  3. It is based on classical Ragas and Talas of devotional songs composed by Tulsidas, Kabir and Mirabai.

Which of the statements given above is /are correct?

A. 1 only

B. 1 and 2 only

C. 2 and 3 only

D. 1, 2 and 3

Answer: B

Explanation

Sattriya originated in Sattra, a monastery, as a part of neo-Vaishnavite movement started by Srimanta Sankardev in the 15th Century. He propagated the 'ek sharan Naama dharma' (chanting the name of one God devotedly).

Statement one is correct Sattriya is indeed a combination of music, dance, and drama. It incorporates storytelling through movement and expressions.

Statement two is also correct Sattriya has a rich history and is a living tradition practiced for centuries by Vaishnavites of Assam.

Statement three is incorrect While devotional in nature, Sattriya dance is based on compositions by Sankardeva and other Assamese saints, not Tulsidas, Kabir, and Mirabai who belonged to different Bhakti traditions. Sattriya uses its own distinct Ragas and Talas.


QUESTION 9

MediumEnvironment & EcologyPrelims 2014

There is some concern regarding the nanoparticles of some chemical elements that are used by the industry in the manufacture of various products. Why?

  1. They can accumulate in the environment, and contaminate water and soil.
  2. They can enter food chains.
  3. They can trigger the production of free radicals.

Select the correct answer using the code given below.

A. 1 and 2 only

B. 3 only

C. 1 and 3 only

D. 1, 2 and 3

Answer: D

Explanation

Nanoparticles from industry can pollute air, water, and soil due to their small size and resistance to breakdown. This buildup can harm plants, and animals, and even contaminate drinking water.

Nanoparticles can be inadvertently ingested by plants or animals, entering the food chain. As they move up the food chain, they can bioaccumulate in organisms, potentially causing harm at higher trophic levels.

Some nanoparticles can trigger the production of free radicals in cells. Free radicals are highly reactive molecules that can damage cells and contribute to various health problems, including inflammation and cancer.


QUESTION 10

MediumWorld GeographyPrelims 2014

Turkey is located between

A. Black Sea and the Caspian Sea

B. Black Sea and the Mediterranean Sea

C. Gulf of Suez and the Mediterranean Sea

D. Gulf of Aqaba and the Dead Sea

Answer: B

Explanation

Turkey is a transcontinental country located between the Black Sea to the north, the Aegean Sea to the west, Mediterranean Sea to the south

This is a map-based question, please refer to the map.


QUESTION 11

HardEnvironment & EcologyPrelims 2014

With reference to ‘Global Environment Facility’, which of the following statements is/are correct

A. It serves as financial mechanism for 'Convention on biological diversity' and 'United Nations Framework Convention on Climate Change'

B. It undertakes scientific research on environmental issues at the global level

C. It is an agency under the OECD to facilitate the transfer of technology and funds to underdeveloped countries with

D. Both a and b

Answer: A

Explanation

GEF is an independently operating financial organization, the GEF provides grants for projects related to biodiversity, climate change, international waters, land degradation, the ozone layer, and persistent organic pollutants.

The GEF serves as a financial mechanism for five conventions, which are Convention on Biological Diversity (CBD), United Nations Framework Convention on Climate Change (UNFCCC), Stockholm Convention on Persistent Organic Pollutants (POPs), UN Convention to Combat Desertification (UNCCD), and Minamata Convention on Mercury.


QUESTION 12

HardArt & CulturePrelims 2014

Chaitra 1 of the national calendar based on the Saka Era corresponds to which one of the following dates of the Gregorian calendar in a normal year of 365 days?

A. 22 March or 21st March

B. 15th May or 16th May

C. 31st March or 30th March

D. 21st April or 20th April

Answer: A

Explanation

In a leap year, Chaitra has 31 days and Chaitra 1 coincides with March 21. In a normal year Chairta 1 coincides with March 22.

The Saka era calendar, also known as the Shaka calendar or the Indian national calendar, is a solar calendar used alongside the Gregorian calendar in India. It is based on the Saka era, believed to have begun in 78 CE.


QUESTION 13

EasyIndian PolityPrelims 2014

In the Constitution of India, promotion of international peace and security is included in the

A. The preamble to the Constitution

B. Directive Principles of State Policy DPSP

C. Fundamental Duties

D. Ninth Schedule

Answer: B

Explanation

Directive Principles of State Policy Article 51. Promotion of international peace and security.

The State shall endeavour to -

  • promote international peace and security;
  • maintain just and honourable relations between nations;
  • foster respect for international law and treaty obligations in the dealings of organised peoples with one another;
  • encourage settlement of international disputes by arbitration.

QUESTION 14

MediumEnvironment & EcologyPrelims 2014

The scientific view is that the increase in global temperature should not exceed 2 °C above the pre-industrial level. If the global temperature increases beyond 3°C above the pre-industrial level, what can be its possible impact/impacts on the world?

  1. Terrestrial biosphere tends toward a net carbon source
  2. Widespread coral mortality will occur.
  3. All the global wetlands will permanently disappear.
  4. Cultivation of cereals will not be possible anywhere in the world.

Select the correct answer using the code given below.

A. 1 only

B. 1 and 2 only

C. 2, 3 and 4 only

D. 1, 2, 3 and 4,

Answer: B

Explanation

Rising temperatures could disrupt plant growth and make ecosystems release more carbon dioxide than they absorb.

Coral bleaching can cause the death of many coral reefs.

Some wetlands may be affected, but not all will disappear.

The cultivation of cereals may face challenges, but it is not expected to be eradicated. Hence only statement one and two are correct.


QUESTION 15

EasyModern HistoryPrelims 2014

What was/were the object/objects of Queen Victoria’s Proclamation (1858)?

  1. To disclaim any intention to annex the Indian States
  2. To place the Indian administration under the British Crown
  3. To regulate East India Company’s trade with India

Select the correct answer using the code given below.

A. 1 and 2 only

B. 2 only

C. 1 and 3 only

D. 1, 2 and 3

Answer: A

Explanation

Queen Victoria's Proclamation aimed to appease Indian rulers following the Sepoy Mutiny (Rebellion of 1857).

Disclaiming annexation assured them their territories wouldn't be taken over. Thus, statement one is correct

The proclamation did indeed transfer power from the East India Company to the British Crown by appointing a Viceroy to oversee administration in India and to report to the Queen directly.

Regulating trade wasn't a primary focus of the proclamation as the East India Company was free to trade in India under Free Trade Policy but without a monopoly.


QUESTION 16

MediumInternational RelationsPrelims 2014

Consider the following pairs

Region often in newsCountry
1. ChechnyaRussian Federation
2. DarfurMali
3. Swat ValleyIraq

Which of the above pairs is/are correctly matched?

A. 1 only

B. 2 and 3 only

C. 1 and 3 only

D. 1, 2 and 3

Answer: A

Explanation

Chechnya - Russian Federation Chechnya is a republic located in the northern part of the Caucasus Mountains, and it is a part of Russia.

Darfur - Mali (Incorrect) Darfur is a region located in western Sudan, not Mali.

Swat Valley - Iraq (Incorrect) Swat Valley is located in the northwestern part of Pakistan, not Iraq.


QUESTION 17

MediumInternational RelationsPrelims 2014

Recently, a series of uprisings of people referred to as ‘Arab Spring’ originally started from

A. Egypt

B. Lebanon

C. Syria

D. Tunisia

Answer: D

Explanation

The Arab Spring uprisings originally started in Tunisia.

In December 2010, a young Tunisian street vendor named Mohamed Bouazizi set himself on fire in protest of police harassment. This act of desperation sparked widespread demonstrations throughout Tunisia, demanding an end to corruption, unemployment, and political repression.

The success of the Tunisian revolution, which eventually led to the overthrow of President Zine El Abidine Ben Ali, inspired similar protests across the Arab world, becoming known as the Arab Spring.


QUESTION 18

MediumScience & TechnologyPrelims 2014

Consider the following diseases

  1. Diphtheria
  2. Chickenpox
  3. Smallpox

Which of the above diseases has/have been eradicated in India?

A. 1 and 2 only

B. 3 only

C. 1, 2 and 3

D. None

Answer: B

Explanation

The Government introduced the Pentavalent vaccine, which also fights against Diphtheria . This implies that Diphtheria is still prevalent.

Additionally, Chickenpox is still widespread among the population.

However, it's important to note that Smallpox has been eradicated from India. India declared itself free of smallpox in 1979.


QUESTION 19

MediumIndian GeographyPrelims 2014

Consider the following pairs : National Highway Cities connected

  1. NH 4 Chennai and Hyderabad
  2. NH 6 Mumbai and Kolkata
  3. NH 15 Ahmedabad and Jodhpur

Which of the above pairs is/are correctly matched?

A. 1 and 2 only

B. 3 only

C. 1, 2 and 3

D. None

Answer: D

Explanation

National Highway 4 or NH 4, It is of 230.7 km of length. This highway is known as the Andaman Trunk Road (The Great Andaman Trunk Road).

A stretch of national highway from Mumbai to Pune to Hubli to Bangalore to Chennai was earlier called NH 4 before the renumbering of national highways in the year 2010. The former NH 4 is now renumbered as NH 48.

National Highway 6, is a national highway in India running from Jorabat in Meghalaya to Selling in Mizoram. The highway passes through the Indian states of Meghalaya, Assam, and Mizoram.

National Highway 15 (NH 15) starts from Baihata in Assam and terminates at Wakro in Arunachal Pradesh.


QUESTION 20

MediumInternational RelationsPrelims 2014

Consider the following countries:

  1. Denmark
  2. Japan
  3. Russian Federation
  4. United Kingdom
  5. United States of America

Which of the above are the members of the ‘Arctic Council ‘?

A. 1, 2 and 3

B. 2, 3 and 4

C. 1, 4 and 5

D. 1, 3 and 5

Answer: D

Explanation

The Arctic Council consists of the eight Arctic States

  • Canada,
  • the Kingdom of Denmark (including Greenland and the Faroe Islands),
  • Finland,
  • Iceland,
  • Norway,
  • Russia,
  • Sweden and
  • the United States.

Six international organizations representing Arctic Indigenous Peoples have permanent participant status.


QUESTION 21

EasyArt & CulturePrelims 2014

Which one of the following pairs does not form part of the six systems of Indian Philosophy?

A. Mimamsa and Vedanta

B. Nyaya and Vaisheshika

C. Lokayata and Kapalika

D. Sankhya and Yoga

Answer: C

Explanation

Mimamsa and Vedanta These are both orthodox schools of Hindu philosophy within the six systems. Nyaya and Vaisheshika These are also part of the six orthodox systems, known for their focus on logic and epistemology. Sankhya and Yoga These are considered two of the six orthodox systems, with Sankhya focusing on dualism and Yoga on achieving liberation through practices like meditation.

Lokayata This was a materialistic philosophy that is not considered part of the six orthodox systems of Hindu philosophy. It emphasized materialism and scepticism towards spiritual concepts. Kapalika While the exact nature and origin of Kapalika are debated, it's generally not considered among the six orthodox systems. It's associated with tantric practices and rituals that deviate from the mainstream Hindu philosophy.

Therefore, Lokayata and Kapalika are not part of the six established systems of Indian philosophy.


QUESTION 22

MediumEnvironment & EcologyPrelims 2014

What is the significance of a practical approach to sugarcane production known as ‘Sustainable Sugarcane Initiative’?

  1. Seed cost is very low in this compared to the conventional method of cultivation.
  2. Drip irrigation can be practised very effectively in this.
  3. There is no application of chemical/ inorganic fertilizers at all in this.
  4. The scope for intercropping is more in this compared to the conventional method of cultivation.

Select the correct answer using the code given below.

A. 1 and 3 only

B. 1, 2 and 4 only

C. 2, 3 and 4 only

D. 1, 2, 3 and 4

Answer: B

Explanation

Sustainable Sugarcane Initiative is a method of sugarcane production that involves the use of less seeds , less water and optimum utilization of fertilizers and land to achieve more yields .

The major principles that govern SSI are

  • Transplanting young seedlings (25-35 days old).
  • Maintaining wide spacing (5X2 feet) in the main field.
  • Providing sufficient moisture and avoiding inundation of water.
  • Encouraging organic method of nutrient and plant protection measures.
  • Practicing intercropping for effective utilization of land.
  • NPK (fertilizers) can be applied at the rate of 112 kg, 25 kg, and 48 kg per acre, respectively, through inorganic or organic methods.

Hence statement 3 is wrong, this eliminates A, C, and D.


QUESTION 23

MediumArt & CulturePrelims 2014

Ibadat Khana at Fatehpur Sikri was

A. the mosque for the use of Royal Family

B. Akbar’s private chamber prayer

C. the hall in which Akbar held discussions with scholars of various religions.

D. the room in which the nobles belonging to different religions gathered to discuss religious affairs.

Answer: C

Explanation

The Ibadat Khana or House of Worship was a prayer or meeting room built by Akbar at his palace in Fatehpur Sikri.

Originally, he intended the place to be only for Sunni Muslims to gather and discuss various issues. However, when petty differences between other religious sects and followers got out of control, he decided to open the room to people of all faiths.

Locals and visitors to the city were often invited to participate in debates and discussions in this room. Religious leaders and philosophers from his empire and those who were passing through were encouraged to come to the discussions on Thursday evenings.


QUESTION 24

MediumEnvironment & EcologyPrelims 2014

Consider the following international agreements:

  1. The International Treaty on Plant Genetic Resources for Food and Agriculture
  2. The United Nations Convention to Combat Desertification
  3. The World Heritage Convention

Which of the above has/have a bearing on the biodiversity?

A. 1 and 2 only

B. 3 only

C. 1 and 3 only

D. 1, 2, and 3

Answer: D

Explanation

The International Treaty on Plant Genetic Resources for Food and Agriculture focuses on ensuring the conservation and sustainable use of plant genetic resources for food and agriculture. This directly impacts biodiversity as it aims to protect the variety of plant species crucial for food security and ecosystem health.

The United Nations Convention to Combat Desertification addresses land degradation in arid, semi-arid, and dry sub-humid areas. Desertification can significantly reduce biodiversity by destroying habitats and reducing plant and animal life. By working to combat desertification, this convention indirectly protects biodiversity.

The World Heritage Convention focuses on preserving cultural and natural heritage sites. Conservation natural heritage sites may contribute to biodiversity conservation. Thus 'D' is the correct answer.


QUESTION 25

EasyIndian PolityPrelims 2014

Which one of the following Schedules of the Constitution of India contains provisions regarding anti-defection?

A. Second Schedule

B. Fifth Schedule

C. Eighth Schedule

D. Tenth Schedule

Answer: D

Explanation

The Tenth Schedule of the Constitution of India contains provisions regarding anti-defection.

The Tenth Schedule, also known as the Anti-Defection Law, was added to the Constitution through the 52nd Amendment Act in 1985. It lays down the process by which legislators may be disqualified on the grounds of defection from the political party they were elected under.


QUESTION 26

EasyArt & CulturePrelims 2014

The national motto of India, ‘Satyameva Jayate’ inscribed below the Emblem of India is taken from

A. Katha Upanishad

B. Chandogya Upanishad

C. Aitareya Upanishad

D. Mundaka Upanishad

Answer: D

Explanation

'Satyameva Jayate' (Truth alone triumphs ) is a mantra from the ancient Indian scripture Mundaka Upanishad.

Following the independence of India, it was adopted as the national motto of India on 26 January 1950. It is inscribed in the script at the base of the national emblem. The emblem and the words 'Satyameva Jayate' are inscribed on one side of all Indian currency.

The emblem is an adaptation of the Lion Capital of Ashoka which was erected around 250 BCE at Sarnath, near Varanasi in the Indian state of Uttar Pradesh. It is inscribed on all currency notes and national documents.


QUESTION 27

MediumEnvironment & EcologyPrelims 2014

Consider the following statements:

  1. Maize can be used for the production of starch.
  2. Oil extracted from maize can be a feedstock for biodiesel.
  3. Alcoholic beverages can be produced by using maize.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

A. 1 only

B. 1 and 2 only

C. 2 and 3 only

D. 1, 2 and 3

Answer: D

Explanation

Maize (corn) is a versatile crop with numerous uses.

Starch Production Maize is a major source of starch, a carbohydrate used in various food and industrial applications. Cornstarch is a common thickening agent in cooking and is also used in bioplastics and pharmaceuticals.

Biodiesel Feedstock Corn oil, extracted from the maize germ, can be processed into biodiesel, a renewable fuel alternative to traditional diesel.

Alcoholic Beverage Production Maize is a key ingredient in various alcoholic beverages, including bourbon whiskey and corn-based ethanol for alcoholic drinks or fuel.


QUESTION 28

MediumEconomyPrelims 2014

In the context of Indian economy which of the following is/are the purpose/purposes of ‘Statutory Reserve Requirements’?

  1. To enable the Central Bank to control the amount of advances the banks can create
  2. To make the people’s deposits with banks safe and liquid
  3. To prevent commercial banks from making excessive profits
  4. To force the banks to have sufficient vault cash to meet their day-to-day requirements

Select the correct answer using the code given below.

A. 1 only

B. 1 and 2 only

C. 2 and 3 only

D. 1, 2, 3 and 4

Answer: B

Explanation

A statutory reserve is an amount of cash a financial institution, such as a bank, credit union, or insurance company, must keep on hand to meet the obligations incurred by accepting deposits and premium payments.

The statutory reserves required of banks and credit unions are generally set by the nation's central bank and those required of insurance companies are set by statute or regulation by the national, state or provincial government or regulatory authority. Calculated in various ways, statutory reserves are required to ensure that financial institutions are capable of paying claims even in a calamitous situation.


QUESTION 29

HardScience & TechnologyPrelims 2014

Which of the following pair is/are correctly matched?

SpacecraftPurpose
1. Cassini-HuygensOrbiting Venus and transmitting data to the Earth
2. MessengerMapping and investigating the Mercury
3. Voyager 1 and 2Exploring the outer solar system

Select the correct answer using the code given below.

A. 1 only

B. 2 and 3 only

C. 1 and 3 only

D. 1, 2 and 3

Answer: B

Explanation

Messenger Mapping and investigating Mercury

Voyager 1 and 2 Exploring the outer solar system

Cassini-Huygens studied Saturn, not Venus. Therefore, 1 is wrong.


QUESTION 30

HardArt & CulturePrelims 2014

With reference to India’s culture and tradition, what is ‘Kalaripayattu’?

A. It is an ancient Bhakti cult of Shaivism still prevalent in some parts of South India

B. It is an ancient style bronze and brass work still found in southern part of Coromandel area

C. It is an ancient form of dance-drama and a living tradition in the northern part of Malabar

D. It is an ancient martial art and a living tradition in some parts of South India

Answer: D

Explanation

Kalaripayattu is an ancient Indian martial art that originated in Kerala, a state on the southwestern coast of India. It's considered one of the oldest and most scientific martial arts in the world, with a rich history and tradition.


QUESTION 31

MediumEnvironment & EcologyPrelims 2014

Consider the following statements:

  1. Animal Welfare Board of India is established under the Environment (Protection) Act, 1986.
  2. National Tiger Conservation Authority is a statutory body.
  3. National Ganga River Basin Authority is chaired by the Prime Minister.

Which of the statements given above is/ are correct?

A. 1 only

B. 2 and 3 only

C. 2 only

D. 1, 2 and 3

Answer: B

Explanation

The Animal Welfare Board of India is established under the Prevention of Cruelty to Animals Act, 1960, not the Environment (Protection) Act, 1986. Hence, statement one is incorrect.

The National Tiger Conservation Authority (NTCA) is a statutory body constituted under the Wildlife (Protection) Amendment Act, 2006. Thus, NTCA is a statutory body. It is responsible for the implementation of Project Tiger.

National Ganga River Basin Authority (NGRBA) has started the Mission Clean Ganga with a changed and comprehensive approach to champion the challenges posed to Ganga through four different sectors, namely, of wastewater management, solid waste management, industrial pollution and river front development. The authority is chaired by the Prime Minister and has as its members the Union Ministers concerned, the Chief Ministers of the States through which Ganga flows, viz., Uttarakhand, Uttar Pradesh, Bihar, Jharkhand and West Bengal, among others.


QUESTION 32

MediumIndian GeographyPrelims 2014

Consider these pairs -

  1. Cardamom Hills -- Coromandel Coast
  2. Kaimur Hills -- Konkan Coast
  3. Mahadeo Hills -- Central India
  4. Mikir Hills -- North-East India

Which of the above pairs are correctly matched?

A. 1 and 2 only

B. 2 and 3 only

C. 3 and 4 only

D. 2 and 4 only

Answer: C

Explanation

  1. Cardamom Hills - Coromandel Coast (Incorrect)
  • The Cardamom Hills are located in the southern Western Ghats of India, spanning Kerala and Tamil Nadu.
  • The Coromandel Coast refers to the eastern coast of the Indian peninsula, bordering the Bay of Bengal.
  1. Kaimur Hills - Konkan Coast (Incorrect)
  • The Kaimur Hills are located in central India, bordering Uttar Pradesh, Madhya Pradesh, and Jharkhand.
  • The Konkan Coast lies on the western Indian peninsula along the Arabian Sea, far from the Kaimur Hills.
  1. Mahadeo Hills - Central India (Correct)
  • The Mahadeo Hills are part of the Satpura Range located in central India, primarily in Madhya Pradesh.
  1. Mikir Hills - North-East India (Correct)
  • The Mikir Hills, now referred to as the North Cachar Hills, are located in Assam, a state in northeastern India.

QUESTION 33

MediumSocial Issues & SchemesPrelims 2014

What is/are the facility/facilities the beneficiaries can get from the services of Business Correspondent (Bank Saathi) in branchless areas?

  1. It enables the beneficiaries to draw their subsidies and social security benefits in their villages.
  2. It enables the beneficiaries in rural areas to make deposits and withdrawals.

Select the correct answer using the code given below.

A. 1 only

B. 2 only

C. Both 1 and 2

D. Neither 1 nor 2

Answer: C

Explanation

Business Correspondents (BCs) or Bank Saathis are agents appointed by banks to provide basic banking services in rural and unbanked areas where setting up a full-fledged branch might not be feasible.

They act as a bridge between the bank and the local population, offering essential financial services

  1. Drawing subsidies and social security benefits BCs can help villagers access government subsidies and social security benefits electronically deposited into their accounts. This eliminates the need to travel long distances to banks and reduces the risk of cash handling.
  2. Making deposits and withdrawals Villagers can deposit their savings or withdraw cash through BCs, promoting financial inclusion and facilitating small transactions without requiring them to visit a bank branch.

Therefore, both options (1 and 2) are the facilities beneficiaries can avail through Business Correspondent services.


QUESTION 34

HardEnvironment & EcologyPrelims 2014

If you walk through the countryside, you are likely to see some birds stalking alongside the cattle to seize the insects, disturbed by their movement through grasses, Which of the following is/are such bird/birds?

  1. Painted Stork
  2. Common Myna
  3. Black-necked Crane

Select the correct answer using the code given below.

A. 1 and 2

B. 2 only

C. 2 and 3

D. 3 only

Answer: B

Explanation

Common Myna These are insectivores and often follow cattle or other grazing animals to catch insects flushed out by their movement.

Painted Stork These are wading birds and typically feed on fish, frogs, and insects in shallow water. They are not known for following cattle. Black-necked Crane These are primarily herbivores and feed on grains, plants, and aquatic vegetation. They are not known for following cattle for insects.

Thus, the correct answer is 2 only.


QUESTION 35

HardEnvironment & EcologyPrelims 2014

Consider the following pairs

WetlandsConfluence of rivers
1. Harike WetlandsBeas and Satluj/Sutlej
2. Keoladeo Ghana National ParkBanas and Chambal
3. Kolleru LakeConfluence of Musi and Krishna

Which of the above pairs is/are correctly matched?

A. 1 only

B. 2 and 3 only

C. 1 and 3 only

D. 1, 2 and 3

Answer: A

Explanation

The Harike Wetland is formed at the confluence of the Beas and Sutlej rivers in Punjab, India.

Keoladeo Ghana National Park, also known as Bharatpur Bird Sanctuary, is not located at the confluence of these rivers. It's a man-made wetland in Rajasthan, located on the confluence of River Gambhir and River Banganga.

Kolleru Lake is a freshwater lake in Andhra Pradesh and is not located where the Musi and Krishna rivers meet. It lies between the Krishna and Godavari deltas.

Thus only pair one is correctly matched.


QUESTION 36

HardEnvironment & EcologyPrelims 2014

Every year, a month-long ecologically important campaign/festival is held during which certain communities/tribes plant saplings of fruit-bearing trees. Which of the following are such communities/tribes?

A. Bhutia and Lepcha

B. Gond and Korku

C. lrula and Toda

D. Sahariya and Agariya

Answer: B

Explanation

The Gond and Korku tribes, residing in Madhya Pradesh's Betul and Harda districts, celebrate a festival called "Hari Jiroti" during the monsoon season. This month-long festival involves planting saplings of fruit-bearing trees, reflecting their deep connection to nature and sustainable practices.


QUESTION 37

HardIndian PolityPrelims 2014

Consider the following statements: A Constitutional Government is one which -

  1. Places effective restrictions on individual liberty in the interest of State Authority
  2. Places effective restrictions on the Authority of the State in the interest of individual liberty

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

A. 1 only

B. 2 only

C. Both 1 and 2

D. Neither 1 nor 2

Answer: B

Explanation

A core principle of a constitutional government is limited government. This means the government's power is not absolute and is restricted by a constitution.

The Constitution protects individual rights and liberties from the government's overreach. Thus, statement one is incorrect and statement two is correct.


QUESTION 38

MediumIndian PolityPrelims 2014

Which of the following is/are the function/functions of the Cabinet Secretariat?

  1. Preparation of agenda for Cabinet Meetings
  2. Secretarial assistance to Cabinet Committees
  3. Allocation of financial resources to the Ministries

Select the correct answer using the code given below.

A. 1 only

B. 2 and 3 only

C. 1 and 2 only

D. 1, 2 and 3

Answer: C

Explanation

Allocation of financial resources is done by the finance ministry, in line with the budget priorities.Hence statement three is incorrect. Rest two statements are correct and self-explanatory.


QUESTION 39

MediumEconomyPrelims 2014

Which of the following are associated with ‘Planning’ in India?

  1. The Finance Commission
  2. The National Development Council
  3. The Union Ministry of Rural Development
  4. The Union Ministry of Urban Development
  5. The Parliament

Select the correct answer using the code given below.

A. 1, 2 and 5 only

B. 1, 3 and 4 only

C. 2 and 5 only

D. 1, 2, 3, 4 and 5

Answer: C

Explanation

The Finance Commission Deals with the distribution of tax revenue between the central government and states, not overall national planning.

The Union Ministry of Rural Development Implements specific development schemes related to rural areas, not national-level planning.

The Union Ministry of Urban Development Implements specific development schemes related to urban areas, not national-level planning.

The National Development Council (NDC) This was the apex body for planning at the national level. It is used to formulate and review India's five-year plans.

The Parliament While not directly involved in day-to-day planning, the Parliament is used to approve the five-year plans formulated by the NDC. Additionally, Members of Parliament (MPs) can utilize funds allocated for their constituencies through MPLADS (Member of Parliament Local Area Development Scheme) which contributes to local-level planning.


QUESTION 40

EasyScience & TechnologyPrelims 2014

Which one of the following is the process involved in photosynthesis?

A. Potential energy is released to form free energy

B. Free energy is converted into potential energy and stored

C. Food is oxidized to release carbon dioxide and water

D. Oxygen is taken, and carbon dioxide and water vapour are given out

Answer: B

Explanation

During photosynthesis, solar energy is converted into chemical energy and stored in sugar molecule bonds. This chemical bond energy is potential (stored) energy.


QUESTION 41

MediumWorld GeographyPrelims 2014

What is the correct sequence of occurrence of the following cities in South-East Asia as one proceeds from south to north?

  1. Bangkok
  2. Hanoi
  3. Jakarta
  4. Singapore

Select the correct answer using the code given below.

A. 4-2-1-3

B. 3-2-4-1

C. 3-4-1-2

D. 4-3-2-1

Answer: C

Explanation

The correct sequence of the cities from south to north is

Jakarta - Indonesia (Southernmost city) Singapore - Island nation south of Malaysia Bangkok - Thailand Hanoi - Northernmost city in Vietnam (farthest north)

So the correct sequence is 3-4-1-2

This is a map-based question, please refer to the map .


QUESTION 42

MediumScience & TechnologyPrelims 2014

Which reference to Agni-IV Missile, which of the following statements is/are correct?

  1. It is a surface-to-surface missile.
  2. It is fuelled by liquid propellant only.
  3. It can deliver one-tonne nuclear warheads about 7500 km away.

Select the correct answer using the code given below.

A. 1 only

B. 2 and 3 only

C. 1 and 3 only

D. 1, 2 and 3

Answer: A

Explanation

Agni-IV is indeed a surface-to-surface missile. It is designed to launch from land-based mobile platforms and strike targets on the ground. Thus, statement 1 is correct.

Agni-IV is a two-stage, solid-fueled missile. It does not rely on liquid propellants. Thus, statement 2 is incorrect.

The reported range of Agni-IV is around 4,000 km, not 7,500 km. Additionally, its payload capacity is estimated to be around 1,000 kg (one tonne), but its specific warhead capabilities are not publicly disclosed. Thus, statement 3 is also incorrect.


QUESTION 43

HardEnvironment & EcologyPrelims 2014

Which one of the following is the correct sequence of a food chain?

A. Diatoms-Crustaceans-Herrings

B. Crustaceans-Diatoms-Herrings

C. Diatoms-Herrings-Crustaceans

D. Crustaceans-Herrings-Diatoms

Answer: A

Explanation

Diatoms These are microscopic, single-celled algae that are primary producers in aquatic ecosystems. They use photosynthesis to convert sunlight, water, and carbon dioxide into organic matter (food).

Crustaceans These are small aquatic animals like shrimp, crabs, and krill. They are primary consumers in the food chain and feed on diatoms and other phytoplankton (microscopic plants).

Herrings These are small schooling fish that are secondary consumers in the food chain. They feed on crustaceans and other zooplankton (microscopic animals).

So, the energy flow starts with diatoms (producers) being eaten by crustaceans (consumers), which are then eaten by herrings (higher-level consumers).


QUESTION 44

MediumEnvironment & EcologyPrelims 2014

Which of the following have coral reefs?

  1. Andaman and Nicobar Islands
  2. Gulf of Kutch
  3. Gulf of Mannar
  4. Sunderbans

Select the correct answer using the code given below.

A. 1, 2 and 3 only

B. 2 and 4 only

C. 1 and 3 only

D. 1, 2, 3 and 4

Answer: A

Explanation

Major reef formations in Indian seas occur in

  • Gulf of Mannar ,
  • Palk Bay ,
  • Gulf of Kutch ,
  • the Andaman and Nicobar Islands , and
  • Lakshadweep .

Coral reefs are marine ecosystems and cannot exist in the Sundarbans, which is a mangrove forest in the Ganges Delta and a brackish water ecosystem.


QUESTION 45

EasyEconomyPrelims 2014

The sales tax you pay while purchasing a toothpaste is a

A. tax imposed by the Central Government.

B. tax imposed by the Central Government but collected by the State Government

C. tax imposed by the State Government but collected by the Central Government

D. tax imposed and collected by the State Government

Answer: D

Explanation

The answer is (D) tax imposed and collected by the State Government is correct.

In India, sales tax has been replaced by the Goods and Services Tax (GST).

However, before the implementation of GST, sales tax was levied by individual states in India. While there might have been some central guidelines, the power to impose and collect sales tax primarily rested with the state governments.


QUESTION 46

EasyEnvironment & EcologyPrelims 2014

Lichens, which are capable of initiating ecological succession even on a bare rock, are actually a symbiotic association of

A. algae and bacteria

B. algae and fungi

C. bacteria and fungi

D. Fungi and mosses

Answer: B

Explanation

In organisms called lichens, a chlorophyll-containing partner, which is an algae , and a fungus living together.

Fungus provides shelter, water, and minerals to the algae In return, the algae provides food which it prepares by photosynthesis .


QUESTION 47

HardIndian GeographyPrelims 2014

If you travel through the Himalayas, you are Likely to see which of the following plants naturally growing there?

  1. Oak
  2. Rhododendron
  3. Sandalwood

Select the correct answer using the code given below.

A. 1 and 2 only

B. 3 only

C. 1 and 3 only

D. 1, 2 and 3

Answer: A

Explanation

Oak trees are a common sight in the temperate forests of the Himalayas, particularly at mid-altitudes.

Rhododendrons are a diverse group of flowering shrubs that thrive in the cool, moist conditions of the Himalayas. They are known for their vibrant blooms and are a characteristic feature of the Himalayan landscape.

Sandalwood is not typically found in the Himalayas. It prefers drier climates and is more commonly associated with tropical regions like southern India. Thus, correct answer is 'A'.


QUESTION 48

HardScience & TechnologyPrelims 2014

Which of the following statements is/are correct regarding vegetative propagation of plants?

  1. Vegetative propagation produces clonal population.
  2. Vegetative propagation helps in eliminating the virus.
  3. Vegetative propagation can be practised most of the year.

Select the correct answer using the code given below.

A. 1 only

B. 2 and 3 only

C. 1 and 3 only

D. 1, 2 and 3

Answer: C

Explanation

The first statement is correct because plants produced by vegetative propagation are exact copies of the parent plant, as theyre produced from a single parent.

Vegetative propagation may not eliminate viruses. If a virus is present in the parent plant, it will likely be passed on to the new plants as well. So, statement 2 is incorrect.

Statement 3 is correct because Vegetative propagation can be practised most of the year.


QUESTION 49

MediumEnvironment & EcologyPrelims 2014

With reference to Bombay Natural History Society (BNHS), consider the following statements :

  1. It is an autonomous organization under the Ministry of Environment and Forests.
  2. It strives to conserve nature through action-based research, education and public awareness.
  3. It organizes and conducts nature trails and camps for the general public.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

A. 1 and 3 only

B. 2 only

C. 2 and 3 only

D. 1, 2 and 3

Answer: C

Explanation

The Bombay Natural History Society (BNHS), a pan-India wildlife research organization, has been promoting the cause of nature conservation since 1883.

BNHS Mission Conservation of nature, primarily biological diversity through action based on research, education, and public awareness.

BNHS Vision Premier independent scientific organization with a broad-based constituency, excelling in the conservation of threatened species and habitats.

It organizes and conducts nature trails and camps for the general public.


QUESTION 50

HardArt & CulturePrelims 2014

With reference to ‘Changpa’ community of India, consider the following statement:

  1. They live mainly in the State of Uttarakhand.
  2. They rear the Pashmina goats that yield fine wool.
  3. They are kept in the category of Scheduled Tribes.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

A. 1 only

B. 2 and 3 only

C. 3 only

D. 1, 2 and 3

Answer: B

Explanation

Location The Changpa community is not found primarily in Uttarakhand. They are mainly concentrated in the Changtang region, a high-altitude plateau that stretches across parts of Ladakh (India) and the Tibet Autonomous Region (China). Hence, statement 1 is incorrect.

Pashmina Goats The Changpa are traditionally semi-nomadic pastoralists. They are well-known for rearing Changthangi goats, a special breed known for their fine wool, also called Pashmina. This wool is prized for its warmth, softness, and luxury.

Scheduled Tribe Status The Changpa community is indeed recognized as a Scheduled Tribe in India. This classification provides them with certain social and legal protections under the Indian Constitution.

Hence, statements 2 and 3 are correct.


QUESTION 51

HardIndian GeographyPrelims 2014

Consider the following pairs

  1. Dampa Tiger Reserve: Mizoram
  2. Gumti Wildlife Sanctuary: Sikkim
  3. Saramati Peak: Nagaland

Which of the above pairs is /are correctly matched?

A. 1 only

B. 2 and 3 only

C. 1 and 3 only

D. 1, 2 and 3

Answer: C

Explanation

Dampa Tiger Reserve or Dampha Tiger Reserve, the largest wildlife sanctuary in Mizoram, India, was notified in 1985 and declared a Tiger Reserve in 1994.

Gumti Wildlife Sanctuary is in Tripura.

Mt. Saramati is the highest peak in Nagaland.


QUESTION 52

MediumEnvironment & EcologyPrelims 2014

Consider the following statements regarding ‘Earth Hour’

  1. It is an initiative of UNEP and UNESCO.
  2. It is a movement in which the participants switch off the lights for one hour on a certain day every year.
  3. It is a movement to raise awareness about climate change and the need to save the planet.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

A. 1 and 3 only

B. 2 only

C. 2 and 3 only.

D. 1, 2 and 3

Answer: C

Explanation

Statement 1 (Incorrect) Earth Hour is an initiative organized by the World Wildlife Fund (WWF).

Statement 2 (Correct) Earth Hour is a global movement encouraging individuals, businesses, and landmarks to switch off non-essential lights for one hour every year, typically on the last Saturday of March. Statement 3 (Correct) This symbolic act aims to raise awareness about climate change, the need for sustainable practices, and the importance of energy conservation.


QUESTION 53

MediumEnvironment & EcologyPrelims 2014

What are the benefits of implementing the ‘Integrated Watershed Development Programme’?

  1. Prevention of soil runoff
  2. Linking the country’s perennial rivers with seasonal rivers
  3. Rainwater harvesting and recharge of the groundwater table
  4. Regeneration of natural vegetation

Select the correct answer using the code given below.

A. 1 and 2 only

B. 2, 3 and 4 only

C. 1, 3 and 4 only

D. 1, 2, 3 and 4

Answer: C

Explanation

Prevention of soil runoff IWDP promotes practices that reduce soil erosion, protecting valuable topsoil and improving land fertility. Thus, statement one is correct.

Linking perennial and seasonal rivers While water resource management is a part of IWDP, it doesn't focus on physically linking separate river systems. The National River Linking Project is a separate project to interlink rivers. Thus, statement two is incorrect.

Rainwater harvesting and groundwater recharge IWDP encourages rainwater conservation techniques, allowing more water to infiltrate the ground and replenish aquifers. Thus, statement three is correct.

Regeneration of natural vegetation IWDP often involves planting trees and promoting sustainable land management practices, leading to increased vegetation cover. Thus, statement four is also correct.


QUESTION 54

EasyWorld GeographyPrelims 2014

The seasonal reversal of winds is the typical characteristic of -

A. Equatorial climate

B. Mediterranean climate

C. Monsoon climate

D. All of the above climates

Answer: C

Explanation

The seasonal reversal of winds is the typical characteristic of a monsoon climate.

Monsoons are seasonal winds that bring predictable patterns of rainfall. In summer, warm, moist air blows inland from the ocean, bringing heavy rainfall. In winter, the winds blow offshore, bringing dry conditions. This seasonal reversal of winds is what defines a monsoon climate.


QUESTION 55

MediumIndian PolityPrelims 2014

Consider the following statements regarding a No-Confidence Motion in India:

  1. There is no mention of a No-Confidence Motion in the Constitution of India.
  2. A Motion of No-Confidence can be introduced in the Lok Sabha only.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

A. 1 only

B. 2 only

C. Both 1 and 2

D. Neither 1 nor 2

Answer: C

Explanation

The Constitution does not mention No-Confidence Motion. Rather, Rule 198 of the Rules of Procedure and Conduct of Lok Sabha specifies the procedure for moving a no-confidence motion.

A no-confidence motion can be moved by any member of the House. It can be moved only in the Lok Sabha and not Rajya Sabha.

The member has to give a written notice of the motion before 10 am which will be read out by the Speaker in the House.

A minimum of 50 members have to accept the motion and accordingly, the Speaker will announce the date for discussion of the motion.


QUESTION 56

HardArt & CulturePrelims 2014

Consider the following towns of India:

  1. Bhadrachalam
  2. Chanderi
  3. Kancheepuram
  4. Karnal

Which of the above are famous for the production of traditional sarees / fabric?

A. 1 and 2 only

B. 2 and 3 only

C. 1, 2 and 3

D. 1, 3 and 4

Answer: B

Explanation

Kancheepuram and Chanderi are famous for traditional sarees .


QUESTION 57

MediumArt & CulturePrelims 2014

Consider the following pairs

  1. Garba : Gujarat
  2. Mohiniattam : Odisha
  3. Yakshagana : Karnataka

Which of the pairs given above is/are correctly matched?

A. 1 only

B. 2 and 3 only

C. 1 and 3 only

D. 1, 2 and 3

Answer: C

Explanation

Garba is a vibrant folk dance form particularly associated with Gujarat, especially during the Navratri festival. Hence, statement 1 is incorrectly matched.

Mohiniattam is a classical dance form traditionally from Kerala, known for its graceful movements and storytelling elements.

Yakshagana is a colourful folk theatre form combining dance, music, and storytelling, particularly prevalent in Karnataka.


QUESTION 58

EasyModern HistoryPrelims 2014

The Radcliffe Committee was appointed to -

A. solve the problem of minorities in India

B. give effect to the Independence Bill

C. delimit the boundaries between India and Pakistan

D. enquire into the riots in East Bengal

Answer: C

Explanation

Boundary Commission, the consultative committee created in July 1947 to recommend how the Punjab and Bengal regions of the Indian subcontinent were to be divided between India and Pakistan shortly before each was to become independent from Britain.

The commissionappointed by Lord Mountbatten, the final viceroy of British Indiaconsisted of

  • four members from the Indian National Congress
  • four from the Muslim League

and it was chaired by Sir Cyril Radcliffe.


QUESTION 59

HardArt & CulturePrelims 2014

Consider the following statements:

  1. ‘Bijak’ is a composition of the teachings of Saint Dadu Dayal.
  2. The Philosophy of PushtiMarg was propounded by Madhvacharya.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

A. 1 only

B. 2 only

C. Both 1 and 2

D. Neither 1 nor 2

Answer: D

Explanation

Bijak: This is a collection of the teachings of Kabir, a 15th-century Indian mystic poet and philosopher. It is not associated with Saint Dadu Dayal. PushtiMarg Philosophy: This philosophy was propounded by Vallabhacharya, not Madhvacharya. Madhvacharya is known for his Dvaita philosophy, which emphasizes the duality of existence. Therefore, both statements are incorrect.


QUESTION 60

HardIndian GeographyPrelims 2014

With reference to two non-conventional energy sources called ‘coal bed methane’ and ‘shale gas’, consider the following statements:

  1. Coal bed methane is the pure methane gas extracted from coal seams, while shale gas is a mixture of propane and butane only that can be extracted from fine-grained sedimentary rocks.
  2. In India abundant coal bed methane sources exist, but so far no shale gas sources have been found.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

A. 1 only

B. 2 only

C. Both 1 and 2

D. Neither 1 nor 2

Answer: D

Explanation

Coal bed methane is indeed pure methane gas extracted from coal seams. However, shale gas is not a mixture of propane and butane only. Shale gas is primarily composed of methane, similar to coal bed methane, and can be extracted from fine-grained sedimentary rocks, specifically shale formations. So, the first part of the statement is correct but the second part is incorrect.

It's not accurate to say that no shale gas sources have been found in India. While it's true that coal bed methane sources are abundant in India, shale gas sources have also been identified, although their exploitation is at a nascent stage compared to coal bed methane.

Therefore, neither of the statements is entirely correct.


QUESTION 61

EasyModern HistoryPrelims 2014

The 1929 Session of Indian National Congress is of significance in the history of the Freedom Movement because the -

A. attainment of Self-Government was declared as the objective of the Congress

B. attainment of Poorna Swaraj Was adopted as the goal of the Congress

C. Non-Cooperation Movement was launched

D. decision to participate in the Round Table Conference in London was taken

Answer: B

Explanation

This session was very significant because in this Lahore session the prominent party Indian National Congress, took the resolution of Poorna Swaraj or complete independence.

In this, the Indian tricolour flag was hoisted by Pandit Jawahar Lal Nehru on the bank of the Ravi River.


QUESTION 62

MediumInternational RelationsPrelims 2014

With reference to a grouping of countries known as BRICS, consider the following statements:

  1. The First Summit of BRICS was held in Rio de Janeiro in 2009.
  2. South Africa was the last to join the BRICS grouping.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

A. 1 only

B. 2 only

C. Both 1 and 2

D. Neither 1 nor 2

Answer: B

Explanation

BRICS is the acronym coined for an association of five major emerging national economies Brazil , Russia , India , China and South Africa . Originally the first four were grouped as 'BRIC' (or 'the BRICs'), before the induction of South Africa in 2011.

The BRIC grouping's first formal summit, also held in Yekaterinburg (Russia), commenced on 16 June 2009, with Luiz Incio Lula da Silva, Dmitry Medvedev, Manmohan Singh, and Hu Jintao, the respective leaders of Brazil, Russia, India, and China, all attending.


QUESTION 63

MediumEnvironment & EcologyPrelims 2014

The most important strategy for the conservation of biodiversity together with traditional human life is the establishment of

A. biosphere reserves

B. botanical gardens

C. national parks

D. wildlife sanctuaries

Answer: A

Explanation

Biosphere Reserves are special entities (sites) for how human beings and nature can co-exist while respecting each other's needs. Biosphere Reserve is an area of active cooperation between the management and the local people, wherein activities like settlements, cropping, forestry, recreation, and other economic activities that are in harmony with the conservation goals.

B is wrong because People dont live in botanical gardens with plants.

C is wrong because, in the National park, human activity is totally prohibited.


QUESTION 64

HardMedieval HistoryPrelims 2014

In medieval India, the designations ‘Mahattara’ and ‘Pattakila’ were used for

A. Military officers

B. Village headmen

C. Specialists in Vedic rituals

D. Chiefs of craft guilds

Answer: B

Explanation

In medieval India, the designations 'Mahattara' and 'Pattakila' were used for village headmen.

Mahattara The superior headman of the village, responsible for administration and revenue collection.

Pattakila The subordinate headman of the village, assisting the Mahattara in his duties.


QUESTION 65

MediumEconomyPrelims 2014

Programme/ Project Ministry

  1. Drought-Prone Area Programme: Ministry of Agriculture
  2. Desert Development Programme: Ministry of Environment and Forests
  3. National Watershed Development Project for Rainfed Areas: Ministry of Rural Development

Which of the above pairs are correctly matched?

A. 1 and 2 only

B. 3 only

C. 1, 2 and 3

D. None

Answer: D

Explanation

The drought prone area programme comes under Ministry of Rural Development. Hence pair 1 is not correct. This programme aims to mitigate the impacts of droughts on crop production, livestock, land and water resources.

The Desert Development Programme comes under Ministry of Rural Development. Hence Pair 2 is not correct. The basic objective of the Desert Development Programme is to minimise negative effect of drought and control desertification.

The national watershed project for rainfed areas implemented by Ministry of Agriculture is an umbrella scheme under Pradhan Mantri Krishi Sinchayi Yojana. Hence Pair 3 is not correct.


QUESTION 66

EasyScience & TechnologyPrelims 2014

In addition to fingerprint scanning, which of the following can be used in the biometric identification of a person?

  1. Iris scanning
  2. Retinal scanning
  3. Voice recognition

Select the correct answer using the code given below.

A. 1 only

B. 2 and 3 only

C. 1 and 3 only

D. 1, 2 and 3

Answer: D

Explanation

Biometric verification is any means by which a person can be uniquely identified by evaluating one or more distinguishing biological traits . Unique identifiers include

  • Fingerprints
  • Hand geometry
  • Earlobe geometry
  • Retina and iris patterns
  • Voice waves
  • DNA
  • Signatures .

QUESTION 67

MediumScience & TechnologyPrelims 2014

Among the following organisms, which one does not belong to the class of the other three?

A. Crab

B. Mite

C. Scorpion

D. Spider

Answer: A

Explanation

Mites, scorpions, and spiders are all classified within the class Arachnida.

Crabs, although arthropods like the others belong to the class Crustacea.

Therefore, the crab is the odd one out due to its different taxonomic classification.


QUESTION 68

EasyEconomyPrelims 2014

What does venture capital mean?

A. A short-term capital provided to industries

B. A long-term start-up capital provided to new entrepreneurs

C. Funds provided to industries at times of incurring losses

D. Funds provided for replacement and renovation of industries

Answer: B

Explanation

Venture capital is financing that investors provide to startup companies and small businesses that are believed to have long-term growth potential. Venture capital generally comes from well-off investors, investment banks, and other financial institutions.


QUESTION 69

HardAncient HistoryPrelims 2014

Which of the following Kingdoms were associated with the life of the Buddha?

  1. Avanti
  2. Gandhara
  3. Kosala
  4. Magadha

Select the correct answer using the code given below.

A. 1, 2 and 3

B. 2 and 4

C. 1, 3 and 4 only

D. 3 and 4

Answer: D

Explanation

Kosala Buddha was born in Lumbini, which is located in the present-day borders of Nepal, but during his time, it was part of the Kosala kingdom. His mother, Maya Devi, was a princess of Kosala.

Magadha Though Buddha wasn't born in Magadha, he spent a significant portion of his life travelling and teaching in this kingdom. He visited Rajgir, the then capital of Magadha, and interacted with King Bimbisara.

Therefore, the correct answer is 3 and 4 only.


QUESTION 70

MediumEconomyPrelims 2014

With reference to Union Budget, which of the following is/are covered under Non-Plan Expenditure?

  1. Defence -expenditure
  2. Interest payments
  3. Salaries and pensions
  4. Subsidies

Select the correct answer using the code given below.

A. 1 only

B. 2 and 3 only

C. 1, 2, 3 and 4

D. None

Answer: C

Explanation

There are two components of expenditure - plan and non-plan. Of these, plan expenditures are estimated after discussions between each of the ministries concerned and the Planning Commission.

Non-plan revenue expenditure is accounted for by

  • interest payments,
  • subsidies (mainly on food and fertilisers),
  • wage and salary payments to government employees,
  • grants to States and Union Territories governments,
  • pensions,
  • police,
  • economic services in various sectors,
  • other general services such as tax collection,
  • social services, and
  • grants to foreign governments.

Non-plan capital expenditure mainly includes defence , loans to public enterprises,and loans to States, Union Territories and foreign governments.

The Plan and Non-Plan classification was done away with from fiscal 2017-18. Now emphasis is on Revenue and Capital expenditure.


QUESTION 71

EasyIndian PolityPrelims 2014

Consider the following statements:

  1. The President shall make rules for the more convenient transaction of the business of the Government of India, and for the allocation among Ministers of the said business.
  2. All executive actions of the Government of India shall be expressed to be taken in the name of the Prime Minister.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

A. 1 only

B. 2 only

C. Both 1 and 2

D. Neither 1 nor 2

Answer: A

Explanation

According to Article 77 of the Constitution of India, The President shall make rules for the more convenient transaction of the business of the Government of India, and for the allocation among Ministers of the said business. Hence statement one is correct.

Article 53 of the Indian Constitution deals with the Executive power of the Union. The executive power of the Union shall be vested in the President ( and not the Prime Minister) and shall be exercised by him either directly or through officers subordinate to him in accordance with the Constitution. Hence statement two is incorrect.


QUESTION 72

MediumEconomyPrelims 2014

With reference to Balance of Payments, which of the following constitutes/constitute the Current Account?

  1. Balance of trade
  2. Foreign assets
  3. Balance of invisibles
  4. Special Drawing Right

Select the correct answer using the code given below.

A. 1 only

B. 2 and 3

C. 1 and 3

D. 1, 2 and 4

Answer: C

Explanation

Balance of Trade (1) This refers to the net difference between a country's exports and imports of goods. It's a key component of the current account.

Foreign Assets (2) This refers to assets held by a country's residents outside the country. It's not part of the current account but might be included in the capital account.

Balance of Invisibles (3) This captures the net income from services, such as tourism, transportation, and royalties, as well as net current transfers (e.g., foreign aid). It's another crucial component of the current account.

Special Drawing Right (SDR) (4) This is an international reserve asset created by the International Monetary Fund (IMF). It's not directly part of the current account but might be included in the reserve assets.

Therefore, only options 1 (Balance of Trade) and 3 (Balance of Invisibles) are constituents of the Current Account in the Balance of Payments.


QUESTION 73

HardArt & CulturePrelims 2014

A community of people called Manganiyars is well-known for their -

A. martial arts in North-East India

B. musical tradition in North-West India

C. classical vocal music in South India

D. pietra dura tradition in Central India

Answer: B

Explanation

The Manganiyars are professional Muslim folk musicians belonging to Jaisalmer, Barmer, parts of Jalore, Bikaner and Jodhpur districts in Western Rajasthan. Like other hereditary caste musicians, they cultivate a close relationship with their patrons.

For generations, they provide musical service to their patrons to receive cattle, camels, goats or cash as a gift. On the other side, they function as record keepers and keep the different family histories alive through their songs, based on pure oral tradition.


QUESTION 74

MediumScience & TechnologyPrelims 2014

Which of the following is/are the example/examples of chemical change?

  1. Crystallization of sodium chloride
  2. Melting of ice
  3. Souring of milk

Select the correct answer using the code given below.

A. 1 and 2 only

B. 3 only

C. 1, 2 and 3

D. None

Answer: B

Explanation

Crystallization of sodium chloride This is a physical change. The sodium chloride (table salt) is changing its form from a dissolved state in water to a solid crystal structure, but the chemical composition remains NaCl.

Melting of ice Similar to crystallization, melting of ice is a physical change. Water (H2O) molecules are rearranging from a rigid solid structure to a more fluid liquid state, but the chemical makeup stays the same.

Souring of milk This is a chemical change. Milk sugar (lactose) is broken down by bacteria into lactic acid. This process involves the formation of new substances and alters the chemical composition of the milk.

Therefore, only statement 3 is an example of chemical change.


QUESTION 75

EasyPhysical GeographyPrelims 2014

Which of the following phenomena might have influenced the evolution of organisms?

  1. Continental drift
  2. Glacial cycles

Select the correct answer using the code given below.

A. 1 only

B. 2 only

C. Both 1 and 2

D. Neither 1 nor 2.

Answer: C

Explanation

Continental drift The movement of continents over millions of years has led to changes in the distribution of landmasses, altering habitats and creating opportunities for species to migrate, adapt, and diversify. It has influenced speciation events by creating barriers to gene flow and promoting allopatric speciation.

Glacial cycles Fluctuations in global climate associated with glacial-interglacial cycles have had profound effects on ecosystems and species distributions. Periods of glaciation have resulted in the expansion and contraction of ice sheets, leading to changes in sea levels, habitats, and the distribution of flora and fauna. These environmental changes have driven evolutionary processes such as adaptation, migration, and extinction.

Therefore, both continental drift and glacial cycles have played significant roles in shaping the evolution of organisms.


QUESTION 76

MediumEnvironment & EcologyPrelims 2014

If a wetland of international importance is brought under the ‘Montreux Record’, what does it imply?

A. Changes in ecological character have occurred, are occurring or are likely to occur in the wetland as a result of human interference

B. The country in which the wetland is located should enact a law to prohibit any human activity within

C. The survival of the wetland depends on the cultural practices and traditions of certain communities living in its

D. It is given the status of ‘World Heritage Site’

Answer: A

Explanation

The Montreux Record is a register of wetland sites on the List of Wetlands of International Importance where changes in ecological character have occurred, are occurring, or are likely to occur as a result of technological developments , pollution or other human interference . It is maintained as part of the Ramsar List.


QUESTION 77

MediumScience & TechnologyPrelims 2014

Consider the following techniques/phenomena:

  1. Budding and grafting in fruit plants
  2. Cytoplasmic male sterility
  3. Gene silencing

Which of the above is/are used to create transgenic crops?

A. 1 only

B. 2 and 3

C. 1 and 3

D. None

Answer: B

Explanation

A transgenic crop is a genetically modified organism (GMO).

Transgenic indicates that a transfer of genes has occurred using recombinant DNA technology. Generally, a transgenic crop contains one or more genes that have been inserted artificially either from an unrelated plant or from different species altogether.

Budding and grafting in fruit plants does not include genetic editing or modification. Thus, option 1 is eliminated.

Gene silencing technique uses engineered genetic material to specifically suppress the expression of certain genes in a plant. This allows scientists to modify the plant's characteristics at the genetic level, which is the hallmark of transgenic crops.

Thus, option 3 must be part of the answer, accordingly right answer is option 'B'.


QUESTION 78

EasyEnvironment & EcologyPrelims 2014

Other than poaching, what are the possible reasons for the decline in the population of Ganges River Dolphins?

  1. Construction of dams and barrages on rivers
  2. Increase in the population of crocodiles in rivers
  3. Getting trapped in fishing nets accidentally
  4. Use of synthetic fertilizers and other agricultural chemicals in crop-fields in the vicinity of rivers

Select the correct answer using the code given below.

A. 1 and 2 only

B. 2 and 3 only

C. 1, 3 and 4 only

D. 1, 2, 3 and 4

Answer: C

Explanation

Construction of dams and barrages This is a major threat. Dams fragment the river habitat, hinder migration patterns, and can disrupt prey availability for the dolphins.

Increase in crocodile population While competition might exist, it's not a cause of decline. A healthy river ecosystem can support both dolphins and crocodiles.

Accidental entanglement in fishing nets This is a significant threat, as dolphins can get caught in fishing gear and drown.

Agricultural chemicals Runoff from agricultural lands can pollute rivers with pesticides and fertilizers. These pollutants can harm the dolphins' health and prey species.

Thus 1,3 and 4 are the cause of decline in the Ganga River Dolphins.


QUESTION 79

MediumEnvironment & EcologyPrelims 2014

Brominated flame retardants are used in many household products like mattresses and upholstery. Why is there some concern about their use?

  1. They are highly resistant to degradation in the environment.
  2. They are able to accumulate in humans and animals.

Select the correct answer using the code given below.

A. 1 only

B. 2 only

C. Both 1 and 2

D. Neither 1 nor 2

Answer: C

Explanation

There are concerns about the use of brominated flame retardants (BFRs) for two main reasons

Highly resistant to degradation BFRs break down very slowly in the environment, meaning they can persist for a long time. This can lead to them accumulating in the environment over time.

Bioaccumulation BFRs can accumulate in the bodies of humans and animals. This happens because they are fat-soluble, meaning they are stored in fatty tissues.


QUESTION 80

EasyEnvironment & EcologyPrelims 2014

Which of the following adds/add carbon dioxide to the carbon cycle on the planet Earth?

  1. Volcanic action
  2. Respiration
  3. Photosynthesis
  4. The decay of organic matter

Select the correct answer using the code given below.

A. 1 and 3 only

B. 2 only

C. 1, 2 and 4 only

D. 1, 2, 3 and 4

Answer: C

Explanation

Photosynthesis removes carbon dioxide from the atmosphere. Plants and other photosynthetic organisms use carbon dioxide during photosynthesis to create organic molecules.

Volcanic action releases carbon dioxide trapped within the Earth's crust and mantle. Respiration releases carbon dioxide as a byproduct of cellular respiration in living organisms. The decay of organic matter releases carbon dioxide as decomposers break down dead plants and animals. This process returns carbon stored in organic matter back to the atmosphere as carbon dioxide.


QUESTION 81

MediumEnvironment & EcologyPrelims 2014

With reference to the Neem tree, consider the following statements:

  1. Neem oil can be used as a pesticide to control the proliferation of some species of insects and mites.
  2. Neem seeds are used in the manufacture of biofuels and hospital detergents.
  3. Neem oil has applications in the pharmaceutical industry.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

A. 1 and 2 only

B. 3 only

C. 1 and 3 only

D. 1, 2 and 3

Answer: C

Explanation

Statement one is correct Neem oil is a well-known natural pesticide and has been shown to be effective in controlling some insect and mite populations.

Statement two is incorrect While there might be some research into using neem seeds for biofuels, it's not a widespread application in 2014 when question was asked by the UPSC. Hospital detergents typically use stronger and more regulated chemicals.

Statement three is correct Neem oil does have applications in the pharmaceutical industry. It has been used in traditional medicine for centuries and some of its properties are being explored in modern medicine for its anti-bacterial, anti-inflammatory, and other potential benefits.


QUESTION 82

MediumArt & CulturePrelims 2014

With reference to the cultural history of India, the term ‘Panchayatan’ refers to

A. an assembly of village elders

B. a religious sect

C. a style of temple construction

D. an administrative functionary

Answer: C

Explanation

A Hindu temple is a Panchayatana one when the main shrine is surrounded by four subsidiary shrines. Generally, the Hindu temple is built along a west-east axis. So, the four subsidiary shrines are at the

  • north-east,
  • south-east,
  • south-west,
  • north-west.

QUESTION 83

HardEconomyPrelims 2014

In the context of food and nutritional security of India, enhancing the ‘Seed Replacement Rates’ of various crops helps in achieving the food production targets of the future. But what is/are the constraint/ constraints in its wider / greater implementation?

  1. There is no National Seeds Policy in place.
  2. There is no participation of private sector seed companies in the supply of quality vegetable seeds of vegetables and planting materials of horticultural crops.
  3. There is a demand-supply gap regarding quality seeds in case of low value and high volume crops.

Select the correct answer using the code given below.

A. 1 and 2

B. 3 only

C. 2 and 3

D. None

Answer: B

Explanation

India had a national seeds policy in 2002.

Also, many private companies are operating in supplying seeds to the farmers.

However, there is a demand-supply gap regarding quality seeds in the case of low-value and high-volume crops such as wheat and rice. Thus, only statement three is correct.


QUESTION 84

MediumModern HistoryPrelims 2014

The Ghadr (Ghadar) was a

A. Revolutionary Association of Indians with headquarters at San Francisco.

B. nationalist organization operating from Singapore

C. militant organization with headquarters at Berlin

D. communist movement for India’s freedom with headquarters at Tashkent

Answer: A

Explanation

The Ghadr (or Ghadar) movement was a revolutionary movement that aimed to overthrow British colonial rule in India during the early 20th century. It was launched by Indian immigrants, mainly Sikhs and Hindus, residing in North America, particularly in the United States and Canada.

The Ghadr Party was formed in 1913 in San Francisco, California, to liberate India from British rule through an armed revolution.

Prominent leaders of the Ghadr movement included Lala Har Dayal, Sohan Singh Bhakna, Kartar Singh Sarabha, and Vishnu Ganesh Pingle.


QUESTION 85

MediumEconomyPrelims 2014

The main objective of the 12th Five-Year Plan is

A. inclusive growth and poverty reduction

B. inclusive and sustainable growth

C. sustainable and inclusive growth to reduce unemployment

D. Faster, sustainable and more inclusive growth.

Answer: D

Explanation

The aim of the 12th Five Year plan is to achieve 'faster, sustainable and more inclusive growth'. For this purpose, it seeks to achieve

  • 4% growth in the agriculture sector
  • 10% in the manufacturing sector

The total budget of the 12th Five Year plan has been estimated at Rs.47.7 lakh crore which is 135 percent more than that for the 11th Five year Plan (2007-12).


QUESTION 86

MediumEconomyPrelims 2014

In India, cluster bean (Guar) is traditionally used as a vegetable or animal feed, but recently the cultivation of this has assumed significance. Which one of the following statements is correct in this context?

A. The oil extracted from seeds is used in the manufacture of biodegradable plastics

B. The gum made from its seeds is used in the extraction of shale gas

C. The leaf extract of this plant has the properties of antihistamines

D. It is a source of high-quality biodiesel

Answer: B

Explanation

The guar or cluster bean, with the botanical name Cyamopsis tetragonoloba, is an annual legume and the source of guar gum.

It is also known as Gavar, guar, or guvar bean.

The gum made from its seeds is used in the extraction of shale gas . The seeds of the guar bean contain a large endosperm. This endosperm consists of a large polysaccharide of galactose and mannose. This polymer is water-soluble and exhibits a viscosifying effect in water.

Guar gum has a multitude of different applications in food products, industrial products, and the extractive industry.


QUESTION 87

EasyIndian PolityPrelims 2014

The power of the Supreme Court of India to decide disputes between the Centre and the States falls under its

A. advisory jurisdiction

B. appellate jurisdiction.

C. original jurisdiction

D. writ jurisdiction

Answer: C

Explanation

Article 131 of the Constitution of India provides for the original jurisdiction of the Supreme Court to settle the disputes between the different units of the Indian Federation such as between the Centre and one or more states and, between the states.


QUESTION 88

EasyIndian GeographyPrelims 2014

Which one of the following pairs of islands are separated from each other by the ‘Ten Degree Channel’?

A. Andaman and Nicobar

B. Nicobar and Sumatra

C. Maldives and Lakshadweep

D. Sumatra and Java

Answer: A

Explanation

The Ten Degree Channel separates the Andaman Islands and the Nicobar Islands.

  • The Ten Degree Channel is named so because it lies on the 10th degree of latitude north of the equator.
  • The Andaman and Nicobar Islands are a union territory of India, but they are two distinct island groups separated by this channel.

QUESTION 89

MediumIndian GeographyPrelims 2014

Consider the following rivers:

  1. Barak
  2. Lohit
  3. Subansiri

Which of the above flows / flow through Arunachal Pradesh?

A. 1 only

B. 2 and 3 only

C. 1 and 3 only

D. 1, 2 and 3

Answer: B

Explanation

Barak The Barak River is important in Manipur and Mizoram, but it does not flow through Arunachal Pradesh.

Lohit The Lohit River originates in the eastern end of the Himalayas in the Mishmi Hills of Arunachal Pradesh and flows through the districts of Anjaw, Lohit, and Dibrugarh in Arunachal Pradesh.

Subansiri The Subansiri River is a tributary of the Brahmaputra River and flows through Arunachal Pradesh.

Therefore, only the Lohit and Subansiri rivers flow through Arunachal Pradesh.

Option (b) 2 and 3 only


QUESTION 90

EasyEconomyPrelims 2014

The terms ‘Marginal Standing Facility Rate’ and ‘Net Demand and Time Liabilities’, sometimes appearing in the news, are used in relation to

A. banking operations

B. communication networking

C. military strategies

D. supply and demand of agricultural products

Answer: A

Explanation

The terms 'Marginal Standing Facility Rate' and 'Net Demand and Time Liabilities' are used in relation to banking operations, specifically related to short-term liquidity management by banks with the Reserve Bank of India (RBI).

Marginal Standing Facility (MSF) This is a facility offered by the RBI to banks as a last resort to borrow short-term overnight funds. It allows banks to meet their temporary liquidity shortfalls.

Net Demand and Time Liabilities (NDTL) This refers to the total amount of a bank's deposits that are repayable on demand (current and savings accounts) or after a specific period (fixed deposits).


QUESTION 91

HardArt & CulturePrelims 2014

With reference to Buddhist history, tradition and culture in India. Consider the following pairs:

Famous ShrineLocation
1. Tabo monastery and temple complexSpiti Valley
2. Lhotsava Lhakhang templeNako Zanskar Valley
3. Alchi temple complexLadakh

Which of the pairs given above is/are correctly matched?

A. 1 only

B. 2 and 3 only

C. 1 and 3 only

D. 1, 2 and 3

Answer: C

Explanation

Tabo Monastery is located in the Tabo village of Spiti Valley, Himachal Pradesh, northern India.

Nako is a village in the Himalayas of northern India, located near the Indo-China border in the Trans-Himalayan region of Kinnaur district in Himachal Pradesh. Nako Lake is a prominent feature here where it borders the village. Nako Monastery, dated to 1025, is located in the village as well as several other Buddhist chortens.

Alchi Monastery or Alchi Gompa is a Buddhist monastery, known more as a monastic complex (chos-'khor) of temples in Alchi village in the Leh District, of the Indian state under the Ladakh Autonomous Hill Development Council of Jammu and Kashmir.


QUESTION 92

EasyModern HistoryPrelims 2014

The Partition of Bengal made by Lord Curzon in 1905 lasted until -

A. the First World War when Indian troops were needed by the British and the partition was ended.

B. King George V abrogated Curzon’s Act at the Royal Darbar in Delhi in 1911

C. Gandhiji launched his Civil Disobedience Movement

D. the Partition of India in 1947 when East Bengal became East Pakistan

Answer: B

Explanation

The Partition of Bengal implemented by Lord Curzon in 1905 lasted until King George V abrogated Curzon's Act at the Royal Durbar in Delhi in 1911.

The widespread protests and nationalist movements against the partition led to its reversal in 1911.


QUESTION 93

EasyIndian PolityPrelims 2014

Which one of the following is the largest Committee of the Parliament?

A. The Committee on Public Accounts

B. The Committee on Estimates

C. The Committee on Public Undertakings

D. The Committee on Petitions

Answer: B

Explanation

The Committee on Estimates is the largest committee in the Indian Parliament with 30 members. All members are drawn from the Lok Sabha (lower house). This committee scrutinizes the functioning of government ministries and departments regarding their expenditure and utilization of funds.

Other Parliamentary Committee Sizes in India

Department-Related Standing Committees (DRSCs) These 24 committees, each focusing on a specific ministry or department, have 31 members (21 from Lok Sabha and 10 from Rajya Sabha).

Committee on Public Accounts (PAC) This committee has 22 members (15 from Lok Sabha and 7 from Rajya Sabha) and is responsible for scrutinizing government accounts and ensuring proper financial management.

Committee on Public Undertakings (COPU) Similar to the PAC, COPU focuses on the performance of public sector undertakings with 22 members (15 from Lok Sabha and 7 from Rajya Sabha).

Committee on Petitions This committee addresses petitions from citizens regarding grievances against the government and has 15 members (all from Lok Sabha).


QUESTION 94

HardIndian GeographyPrelims 2014
RegionWell known for the production of
1. Kinnaur (Himachal)Areca nut
2. Mewat (Haryana)Mango
3. Coromandel (TN-Andhra)Soya bean

Which of the above pairs is/are correctly matched?

A. 1 and 2 only

B. 3 only

C. 1, 2 and 3

D. None

Answer: D

Explanation

Kinnaur (Himachal) is famous for apples, while Arecanut is grown mainly in the southern region.

Mewat is a region in Haryana while mango is grown in central and south India.

Coromandel (TN-Andhra) is known for rice cultivation, while soybean is predominantly in central India.

Thus, none of the given pairs is correctly matched. Hence the correct answer is 'D'. .


QUESTION 95

MediumEnvironment & EcologyPrelims 2014

With reference to ‘Eco-Sensitive Zones’, which of the following statements is/are correct?

  1. Eco-Sensitive Zones are the areas that are declared under the Wildlife (Protection) Act, 1972.
  2. The purpose of the declaration of Eco-Sensitive Zones is to prohibit all kinds of human activities, in those zones except agriculture.

Select the correct answer using the code given below.

A. 1 only

B. 2 only

C. Both 1 and 2

D. Neither 1 nor 2

Answer: D

Explanation

Eco-Sensitive Zones are not under the Wildlife (Protection) Act, of 1972. They are notified by the Ministry of Environment, Forest and Climate Change (MoEFCC) under the Environment (Protection) Act, 1986. While they often surround protected areas like wildlife sanctuaries and national parks established under the Wildlife Act, they are a separate mechanism.

Eco-Sensitive Zones do not prohibit all human activities. The purpose is to regulate and manage specific activities to minimize their impact on the sensitive ecosystem. Some sustainable activities like agriculture, local communities' traditional practices, and eco-tourism may be permitted with regulations.


QUESTION 96

MediumIndian PolityPrelims 2014

Which of the following are discretionary powers given to the Governor of a State?

  1. Sending a report to the President of India for imposing President's rule
  2. Appointing the Ministers
  3. Reserving certain bills passed by the State Legislature for consideration of the President of India
  4. Making the rules to conduct the business of the State Government

Select the correct answer using the code given below.

A. 1 and 2 only

B. 1 and 3 only.

C. 2, 3 and 4 only.

D. 1, 2, 3 and 4

Answer: B

Explanation

The Governor is the Constitutional head of the State. State Governor has constitutional discretion in the following cases

Correct

  • Reservation of a Bill for the Consideration of the President.
  • Recommendation for the imposition of the President's Rule in the State.

Incorrect

  • The govenror does not appoint ministers directly. They are appointed on the recommendations of the Chief Minister
  • The governor does not make rules for condut of business in the state government. He seeks information from the Chief Minister about the administrative and legislative matters of the state but does not make rules for the business of the government.

Therefore, only option 1 and 3 are correct.


QUESTION 97

MediumEnvironment & EcologyPrelims 2014

In India, the problem of soil erosion is associated with which of the following?

  1. Terrace cultivation
  2. Deforestation
  3. Tropical climate

Select the correct answer using the code given below.

A. 1 and 2 only

B. 2 only

C. 1 and 3 only

D. 1, 2 and 3

Answer: B

Explanation

Deforestation When trees are cut down, the soil loses the protection provided by their roots. This exposes the soil to wind and rain, making it more susceptible to erosion. Deforestation is a major driver of soil erosion in India.

Terrace cultivation This is a soil conservation technique used on sloping land. It involves creating levelled steps or terraces to reduce water runoff and soil erosion. Tropical climate While heavy rainfall in tropical regions can contribute to soil erosion, it's not the sole factor. Deforestation and poor land management practices exacerbate the issue.

Thus, the correct answer is '2 only'.


QUESTION 98

HardArt & CulturePrelims 2014

With reference to the Indian history of art and culture, consider the following pairs:

Famous work of sculptureSite
1. A grand image of Buddha’s Mahaparinirvana with numerous celestial musicians above and the sorrowful figures of his followers belowAjanta
2. A huge image of Varaha Avatar (boar incarnation) of Vishnu, as he rescues Goddess Earth from the deep and chaotic waters, sculpted on rockMount Abu
3. “Arjuna’s Penance” /”Descent of Ganga” sculpted on the surface of huge bouldersMamallapuram

Which of the pairs given above is/ are correctly matched?

A. 1 and 2 only

B. 3 only,

C. 1 and 3 only

D. 1, 2 and 3

Answer: C

Explanation

The Ajanta Caves, located in Maharashtra, are famous for their Buddhist rock-cut sculptures and paintings, including the grand image of Buddha's Mahaparinirvana in Cave 26. Hence, pair 1 is correctly matched.

The huge image of Varaha Avatar of Vishnu is sculpted on the rock at Udayagiri Caves, near Vidisha in Madhya Prades, not at Mount Abu. Hence, pair 2 is not correctly matched.

Mamallapuram, also known as Mahabalipuram, is famous for its rock-cut sculptures, including the iconic "Arjuna's Penance" or "Descent of Ganga" carved on two massive boulders. Hence, pair 3 is correctly matched.


QUESTION 99

HardScience & TechnologyPrelims 2014

Consider the following:

  1. Bats
  2. Bears
  3. Rodents

The phenomenon of hibernation can be observed in which of the above kinds of animals?

A. 1 and 2 only

B. 2 only

C. 1, 2 and 3

D. Hibernation cannot be observed in any of the above

Answer: C

Explanation

Hibernation is a state of decreased physiological activity and lowered body temperature that certain animals, such as bats and bears, undergo during the winter months to conserve energy and survive periods of limited food availability.

Bats, especially those living in temperate regions, often enter a state of hibernation during the colder months when their food sources (insects) are scarce.

Similarly, Bears, including the brown bear, black bear, and polar bear, are well-known hibernators.

Rodents many species, including groundhogs and chipmunks, are true hibernators.

Thus, all the three statements are correct.


QUESTION 100

MediumArt & CulturePrelims 2014

Consider the following languages:

  1. Gujarati
  2. Kannada
  3. Telugu

Which of the above has/have been declared as ‘Classical Language / Languages’ by the Government?

A. 1 and 2 only

B. 3 only

C. 2 and 3 only

D. 1, 2 and 3

Answer: C

Explanation

The Government of India has awarded the distinction of classical language to Kannada, Malayalam, Odia, Sanskrit, Tamil, and Telugu. Classical language status is given to languages that have a rich heritage and independent nature. Hence Gujrati is not a classical language.

"In addition to these classical languages Pali, Persian, and Prakrit; and their works of literature too must be preserved for their richness and for the pleasure and enrichment of posterity," according to India's National Education Policy-2020.

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