UPSC Prelims 2019 Analysis

Explanation

Option A is correct. Both Hepatitis B virus and HIV (Human Immunodeficiency Virus) can be transmitted through blood-to-blood contact, sexual contact, and from mother to child during childbirth.

Option B is incorrect. Unlike Hepatitis C, there is a vaccine available for Hepatitis B. The Hepatitis B vaccine is highly effective in preventing Hepatitis B virus infection.

Option C is correct. According to global health statistics, the number of people infected with Hepatitis B and C viruses combined is indeed several times more than those infected with HIV.

Option D is correct. Many individuals infected with Hepatitis B and C viruses may not show any symptoms for years or even decades. This is known as chronic hepatitis, and it can lead to severe liver damage if left untreated.

Explanation

The 'Amil' was indeed the officer in charge of revenue collection in the revenue administration of the Delhi Sultanate.

The Iqta system was not an ancient indigenous institution of India but was rather an administrative system borrowed from the Persianate world. It was introduced by the Delhi Sultanate, primarily under the rule of the Ghurid dynasty, to organize and administer their territories.

The office of 'Mir Bakshi' was not established during the reign of the Khalji Sultans. It was introduced later during the Mughal period, under the reign of Emperor Akbar, as a military office responsible for managing the imperial army and its finances.

Therefore, only statement 1 is correct.

Explanation

Money multiplier: It refers to the extent to which commercial banks can create new money based on deposits. It's calculated as the reciprocal of the reserve ratio (required reserves divided by total deposits).

Cash Reserve Ratio (CRR) and Statutory Liquidity Ratio (SLR): These are regulatory tools used by the central bank to control the money supply.

Higher CRR and SLR Banks are required to hold a larger portion of deposits as reserves with the central bank. This reduces the amount of money available for lending, thus decreasing the money multiplier.

Lower CRR and SLR: Banks can lend out a larger portion of deposits, increasing the money multiplier.

Banking habit: When people deposit more money in banks, it increases the pool of funds available for lending. This allows banks to create more new money through the lending process, leading to a higher money multiplier.

Population growth: While population growth can lead to higher demand for money, it doesn't directly affect the money multiplier mechanism itself.

Explanation

Extended Producer Responsibility (EPR) in E-waste Management Rules, 2011 Makes producers of electrical and electronic equipment (EEE) responsible for the collection and channelization of e-waste after its end-of-life. This promotes responsible production and encourages proper e-waste disposal.

EPR in Plastic Waste Management Rules, 2016 Extends the EPR principle to plastic waste. Producers, importers, and brand owners are accountable for managing plastic packaging waste after consumption.

Explanation

Mahatma Gandhi actively campaigned against the exploitative system of indentured labour, particularly during his time in South Africa. He recognized the hardships faced by indentured labourers and advocated for their rights.

During World War I, Gandhi supported the resolution for recruiting Indians for the British war effort. He believed this would demonstrate Indian loyalty to the Empire and potentially lead to greater political concessions after the war. This position was controversial within the Indian independence movement. Hence, statement two is incorrect

The Salt Satyagraha, led by Gandhi in 1930, involved the deliberate breaking of the British salt laws as a form of protest. In response to this non-violent civil disobedience movement, the British government declared the Indian National Congress illegal.

Explanation

Pandharpur is a well-known pilgrimage town on the banks of Chandrabhaga River in Solapur district, Maharashtra, India.

Tiruchirapalli is located along the Kaveri River in Tamil Nadu, India.

Hampi, also referred to as the Group of Monuments at Hampi, is a UNESCO World Heritage Site located in east-central Karnataka, India. It is located near the Tungabhadra River

Thus, only 1 and 2 are correct.

Explanation

It was considered a source of income for the State, a sort of tax paid by the people.

Historical evidence suggests that Vishti was prevalent in Madhya Pradesh and Kathiawad regions. Inscriptions from these areas mention forced labour.

Vishti was a form of forced labour, not paid employment. Workers were not entitled to wages.

There's no specific rule about the eldest son. Anyone could be compelled to perform Vishti labour.

Explanation

The phrase "New World crops" is usually used to describe crops, food and otherwise, that were native to the New World (mostly the Americas) before 1492 CE and not found anywhere else at that time. Many of these crops are now grown around the world and have often become an integral part of the cuisine of various cultures in the Old World.

New World Food - corn, potato, tomato, bell pepper, chili pepper, vanilla, tobacco, Cocoa, rubber tree, beans, pumpkin, cassava root, avocado, peanut, pecans, cashews, pineapple, blueberries, sunflower, petunia, black-eyed susan, dahlia, marigold, quinine, wild rice, gourds, and squash.

Explanation

Cas9 protein is a revolutionary tool in the field of genetic engineering.

Cas9 is an RNA-guided endonuclease, an enzyme. It acts like molecular scissors, capable of cutting DNA at specific locations within a cell's genome.

Cas9 plays a crucial role in the CRISPR-Cas9 (Clustered Regularly Interspaced Short Palindromic Repeats) technique, a powerful gene editing tool.

Explanation

Statement 1 is incorrect. According to the Indian Patents Act (specifically Section 3(j)), biological processes for the production or propagation of plants and animals are not eligible for patents. This means creating a seed through a biological process cannot be patented.

Statement 2 is incorrect. The Intellectual Property Appellate Board (IPAB) was established in India in 2003. It deals with appeals against decisions of the patent office and trademark registry.

Statement 3 is correct. Plant varieties themselves are not patentable in India. However, the Protection of Plant Varieties and Farmers' Rights Act (PPVFR Act) provides a system for protecting the rights of plant breeders by granting them exclusive rights to sell propagating material of new varieties.

Note: the Tribunal Reforms Act, 2021 abolished various Tribunals including India's Intellectual Property Appellate Board (IPAB) and assigned their functions to the country's Commercial Courts and High Courts. However, UPSC asked this question in 2019 when an Appellate Board existed for intellectual property. Therefore correct answer is 3 only.

Explanation

Derived from Russia, India used the concept of the �Five Year Plan� for economic planning.

With the first five-year plan launched in 1951, India now has a total of 12 such plans. However, the practice was called off in 2017 by the Narendra Modi-led NDA government.

The Second Plan focused on the industrial development of the country and stressed capital goods industries.

The Fourth Plan was focused on growth with stability and progressive achievement of self-reliance. The plan focussed on eliminating poverty with the slogan of Garibi Hatao given during the 1971 elections by Indira Gandhi.

The Fifth Plan gave top priority to agriculture, employment, and poverty alleviation.

Explanation

The poverty line is determined by the cost of a basket of essential goods and services needed for a person to meet their basic needs.

If the price of these essentials varies significantly between states, the poverty line needs to be adjusted to reflect the different costs of living.

So, even if poverty rates might be similar, states with higher prices for essential goods will have a higher official poverty line.

Therefore, the correct answer is B) Price levels vary from State to State.

Explanation

All three statements (1, 2, and 3) are correct.

Agricultural soils are a major source of nitrogen oxides (NOx) emissions, primarily nitrous oxide (NO). This occurs during microbial processes in the soil, such as nitrification and denitrification.

Cattle release significant amounts of ammonia (NH) into the atmosphere through their urine and manure. This ammonia contributes to air pollution and can have negative environmental consequences.

The poultry industry releases various reactive nitrogen compounds into the environment, including ammonia, nitrous oxide, and nitrogen oxides. These emissions come from poultry manure and the use of nitrogen-based fertilizers in feed production.

Explanation

Statement 1 is incorrect: While H-CNG significantly reduces carbon monoxide (CO) emissions, it does not eliminate them entirely. Burning hydrogen produces only water vapor, but since H-CNG is a blend of hydrogen and CNG, some CO is still emitted though at lower levels than conventional CNG.

Statement 2 is correct: H-CNG is cleaner than CNG, leading to a reduction in carbon dioxide (CO₂) and hydrocarbon (HC) emissions. The reduction depends on the specific blend ratio and engine efficiency.

Statement 3 is correct: As per Indian government guidelines, up to 18% hydrogen (by volume) can be blended with CNG for use in buses and other vehicles. This blend improves combustion efficiency and reduces emissions.

Statement 4 is incorrect: H-CNG is not necessarily cheaper than CNG. The cost is influenced by Hydrogen production methods, Infrastructure development and Blending technology.

Therefore, option (B) statements 2 and 3 are correct.

Explanation

Statement 1 is correct: The Compensatory Afforestation Fund Management and Planning Authority (CAMPA) exists at both National and State levels.

• National CAMPA Oversees the national-level administration of the Compensatory Afforestation Fund (CAF). It lays down broad guidelines and ensures proper utilisation of funds across states.
• State CAMPA established in each state, manage funds allocated for compensatory afforestation activities within their jurisdiction.

Statement 2 is incorrect: The Compensatory Afforestation Fund Act, 2016 does not explicitly mandate people's participation in the compensatory afforestation programmes carried out under the Act. The Act focuses on the management and utilisation of the Compensatory Afforestation Fund but does not have a specific provision for mandatory public participation.

Explanation

Land reform is a broad term:

• It refers to an institutional measure directed towards altering the existing pattern of ownership, tenancy, and management of land.
• It entails redistribution of the rights of ownership and/or use of land away from large landowners and in favour of cultivators with very limited or no landholdings.
• At the time of independence, ownership of land was concentrated in the hands of a few. This led to the exploitation of the farmers and was a major hindrance towards the socio-economic development of the rural population.
• Equal distribution of land was therefore an area of focus of Independent India's government. Laws for land ceilings were enacted in various states during the 50s & 60s, which were modified on the directives of the central government in 1972.

Explanation

The Fifth Schedule of the Indian Constitution deals with the administration and governance of Scheduled Areas, which are regions with a significant tribal population. It aims to safeguard the rights, culture, and land of tribal communities while preventing their exploitation.

Under this Schedule, the Governor of a state with Scheduled Areas has special powers, including the authority to:

• Declare any law related to the transfer of tribal land as null and void if it is found to violate the interests of the tribal population.
• Prohibit or regulate the transfer of tribal land to non-tribals, ensuring that tribal communities retain control over their ancestral land and resources.

These provisions act as a protective mechanism, preventing tribal communities from being forced or manipulated into selling their land for activities like mining, industries, or large-scale projects without adequate safeguards.

Explanation

Statement 1 is incorrect: The Speaker of the Lok Sabha or the Chairman of the Rajya Sabha cannot reject a motion of impeachment at their discretion. As per the Judges (Inquiry) Act, 1968, if a motion for the removal of a judge is submitted with the required support, the Presiding Officer must constitute a three-member inquiry committee to investigate the charges before any further action is taken.

Statement 2 is incorrect: The terms "incapacity" and "proven misbehaviour", which are grounds for the removal of a judge under Article 124(4) of the Constitution, are not explicitly defined in the Constitution. Their interpretation has evolved through judicial pronouncements and parliamentary discussions.

Statements 3 is correct: The constitutional provisions related to the removal of judges are found in Articles 124(4), 124(5), 217, and 218. Additionally, the process is governed by the Judges (Inquiry) Act, 1968, which outlines the procedural framework for investigating misconduct and incapacity.

Statement 4 is correct: As per Article 124(4) of the Constitution, for a motion seeking the removal of a Supreme Court or High Court judge to proceed, it must be passed by:

• A majority of the total membership of the House, and
• A majority of not less than two-thirds of the members present and voting.

Explanation

Statement 1 is correct: As per Section 3(e) of the MMDR Act, 1957, sand is classified as a ‘minor mineral’ along with other minerals such as gravel, clay, marble, and limestone.

Statement 2 is incorrect: The power to make rules regarding the grant of minor minerals lies with State Governments, not the Central Government. Under Section 15 of the MMDR Act, State governments can frame rules related to the extraction, leasing, and transportation of minor minerals. However, the central government regulates major minerals like coal, iron ore, and bauxite.

Statement 3 is correct: The MMDR Act empowers state governments to make rules to regulate the grant of mining leases and other mineral concessions in respect of minor minerals, which includes the power to frame rules to prevent illegal mining of minor minerals.

Explanation

The Adriatic Sea is a body of water separating the Italian Peninsula from the Balkan peninsula, and Albania is one of the countries on its coast.

Croatia does not border the Black Sea. The countries bordering the Black Sea are Bulgaria, Georgia, Romania, Russia, Turkey, and Ukraine.

Kazakhstan is one of the five countries (along with Russia, Turkmenistan, Iran, and Azerbaijan) that border the Caspian Sea.

Morocco is one of the countries that border the Mediterranean Sea.

Syria does not border the Red Sea. The countries bordering the Red Sea are Saudi Arabia, Yemen, Egypt, Sudan, Eritrea, and Djibouti.

So, the correctly matched pairs are 1, 3, and 4.

Explanation

Statement 1 is incorrect. AR enhances the real world, not shuts it out. Augmented reality (AR) overlays digital elements on top of the real world, allowing users to see both simultaneously.

Statement 2 is incorrect. Virtual Reality (VR) creates a completely immersive and simulated environment that replaces the real world. Users wear a headset that blocks out their surroundings and projects a computer-generated world they can interact with.

Statement 3 is correct. AR often utilises the camera on a smartphone or PC to overlay digital elements onto the real world you see through the camera. This can enhance experiences in gaming, education, and even product visualisation.

Statement 4 is correct. VR creates a closed world, shutting out the physical environment and transporting the user entirely into a simulated one. This provides a highly immersive experience, often used for gaming, entertainment, and even training simulations.

Explanation

Article 142 of the Indian Constitution empowers the Supreme Court to pass orders and decrees necessary to ensure "complete justice" in any case before it. This power is vast and extraordinary.

Article 142 allows the Supreme Court to ensure that ordinary laws comply with the Constitution and that complete justice is delivered. Even if an ordinary law creates limitations, the Supreme Court can override it using Article 142 to achieve a just outcome.

Explanation

The country�s vegetable oil imports for the first six months of the oil year during November 2018 to April 2019 stood at 75,41,689 tonne, up about 3% from 73,18,295 tonne reported in the same period last year.

Vegetable oils account for the highest import in terms of value in the last five years. India relies on imports for 70 percent of its edible oil consumption.

Explanation

Statement 1 is correct - Purchasing Power Parity (PPP) exchange rates are calculated by comparing the prices of the same basket of goods and services in different countries.

Statement 2 is incorrect - India is not the sixth-largest economy in the world in terms of PPP dollars. It is currently the third largest economy in terms of PPP dollars, after China and the United States.

Explanation

Solid Waste Management Rules, 2016 mandate the segregation of waste into three categories - biodegradables, dry recyclables (plastic, paper, metal, etc.), and domestic hazardous waste (diapers, napkins, etc.).

The SWM Rules, 2016 apply not just to urban areas but also to urban local bodies, notified areas, census towns, all industrial townships, special economic zones, State and Central government organisations, places of pilgrimage, religious and historical importance.

There is no restriction on moving waste from one district to another. Waste generators can transport waste as needed for disposal, treatment, or processing.

Waste processing facilities will have to be set up by all local bodies having a population of 1 million or more within two years.

For census towns with a population below 1 million or all local bodies having a population of 0.5 million or more, common, or stand-alone sanitary landfills will have to be set up in three years.

Also, common, or regional sanitary landfills to be set up by all local bodies and census towns with a population under 0.5 million will have to be completed in three years.

Explanation

The Agasthyamala Biosphere Reserve is a vital ecological hotspot located in the Western Ghats of southern India. It serves as a unique genetic reservoir of cultivated and wild plant species, including many rare, endemic, and medicinal plants.

The biosphere reserve spans across Kerala and Tamil Nadu, covering diverse ecosystems from tropical forests to montane grasslands. It includes three wildlife sanctuaries Shendurney (Kerala), Peppara (Kerala) and Neyyar (Kerala), as well as the Kalakad Mundanthurai Tiger Reserve (Tamil Nadu).

Explanation

Statement 1 is incorrect. Saint Nimbarka lived in the 13th or 14th century, while Akbar's reign was from 1556 to 1605.

Statement 2 is incorrect. Saint Kabir lived in the 15th century, predating Shaikh Ahmad Sirhindi who belonged to the 16th-17th century.

Explanation

LTE is actually marketed as 4G, not 3G. VoLTE is not marketed as advanced 3G, but rather as an advancement over 4G LTE, allowing for voice calls over the 4G network.

LTE does primarily focus on providing high-speed data services, but it's not a data-only technology. VoLTE, on the other hand, is not a voice-only technology. It allows for voice calls to be made over the 4G LTE network, but it doesn't exclude data services.

Therefore, both statements are incorrect.

Explanation

Statement 1 is incorrect. The recent amendment to the India Forest Act,1927 does not provide for the right of forest dwellers to fell the bamboos grown on the forest areas.

Statement 2 is correct. As per the Scheduled Tribes and Other Traditional Forest Dwellers (Recognition of Forest Rights) Act, 2006, bamboo is classified as a minor forest produce.

Statement 3 is correct. The Scheduled Tribes and Other Traditional Forest Dwellers (Recognition of Forest Rights) Act, 2006 allows forest dwellers to own, collect, use and dispose of minor forest produce which includes bamboo, tendu leaves, honey, and other forest produce.

Explanation

The merger of black holes is expected to generate powerful gravitational waves.

Gravitational waves are ripples in spacetime caused by accelerating massive objects. Detecting these waves with instruments like LIGO (Laser Interferometer Gravitational-Wave Observatory) allows us to study these events even when they are too far away or obscured to observe directly. This opens a new window for astronomical observations.

Explanation

Tansen was the title given by Raja Vikramjit of Gwalior. Tansen was a court musician in the darbar of Raja Ramachandra of Bandhavgarh. Thus, option 'A' is not correct.

Dhrupad Compositions: Tansen is credited with composing Dhrupad, a classical Indian vocal form, and some of these compositions might have been dedicated to Hindu deities.

Songs for Patrons: As a court musician, it was common for Tansen to compose songs in praise of his patrons, including Emperor Akbar. Invention of Ragas: While the exact number of

Ragas invented by Tansen is debatable, he is credited with innovating and popularising several Ragas in Hindustani classical music.

Explanation

In India, the independent regulators in sectors like telecommunications, insurance, electricity, etc. are reviewed by the Ad Hoc Committees set up by the Parliament and the Parliamentary Department Related Standing Committees. The role of these committees is to ensure that the regulators are performing their duties effectively and in the best interest of the public.

The Finance Commission, Financial Sector Legislative Reforms Commission, and NITI Aayog do not have the mandate to review the independent regulators.

Hence, only 1 and 2 are the correct option codes.

Explanation

The correct ascending order for the percentage of forest cover in the mentioned states

1. Odisha (32.34%)
2. Madhya Pradesh (25.11%)
3. Maharashtra (16.47%)
4. Chhattisgarh (41.09%)

Chhattisgarh has the highest forest cover percentage, followed by Odisha, Madhya Pradesh, and Maharashtra.

Hence the correct answer is option 3, i.e 3-2-4-1. (Ascending order)

Explanation

Statement 1 is Incorrect: The 44th Amendment actually aimed to reverse the provision introduced by the 39th Amendment, which had placed the elections of the President, Vice President, Prime Minister, and Speaker of the Lok Sabha beyond judicial review. The 44th Amendment restored the power of judicial review for these elections.

Statement 2 is Correct: The Supreme Court of India struck down the 99th Constitutional Amendment Act, 2014, in 2015 in the case of Supreme Court Advocates-on-Record Association v. Union of India. This amendment sought to replace the Collegium system with the National Judicial Appointments Commission (NJAC) for appointing judges to the Supreme Court and High Courts. The Court held that the NJAC undermined judicial independence, a part of the basic structure doctrine, and was therefore unconstitutional.

Explanation

Statement 1 is Incorrect: The Petroleum and Natural Gas Regulatory Board (PNGRB) was constituted under the Petroleum and Natural Gas Regulatory Board Act, 2006. The independent regulator, Telecom Regulatory Authority of India (TRAI), set up under the TRAI Act of 1997, was the first independent regulator in India. Hence, statement 1 is not correct.

Statement 2 is correct: PNGRB is tasked to protect the interests of consumers and entities engaged in specified activities relating to petroleum, petroleum products and natural gas and to promote competitive markets and for matters connected therewith or incidental thereto.

Statement 3 is correct: The Appellate Tribunal established under Section 110 of the Electricity Act, 2003 (Central Act 36 of 2003) shall be the Appellate Tribunal to appeal against the decisions of the PNGRB.

Explanation

The summer solstice is the day with the longest period of daylight and the shortest night of the year. It occurs when one of the Earth's poles has its maximum tilt toward the Sun.

On 21st June, the summer solstice occurs in the Northern Hemisphere. This is the longest day of the year for that hemisphere.

The Arctic Circle, which is in the Northern Hemisphere, experiences continuous daylight throughout this day. This is because the tilt of the Earth's axis is such that the North Pole is facing towards the Sun.

Therefore, the Sun does not set below the horizon at the Arctic Circle on this day.

Explanation

Pyrolysis and plasma gasification are both thermochemical processes used to convert waste materials (organic or inorganic) into usable products.

Pyrolysis This process involves heating organic materials (like plastic, and biomass) in an oxygen-deficient environment, leading to decomposition into various products like syngas (a mixture of gases), bio-oil, and char.

Plasma gasification This technology uses high-temperature plasma to break down waste materials into syngas rich in hydrogen and carbon monoxide.

Both processes offer a potential solution for waste management and energy generation. They can convert various waste streams into usable fuels or feedstock for further processing.

Explanation

Service area approach (SAA) is an improved version of area approach of Lead Bank Scheme.

Under SAA plan, each commercial bank / RRB branch in the rural and semi-urban area is designated to serve 15 to 25 villages for the planned and orderly development of rural and semi-urban areas.

The designated branch of a bank has to meet the banking needs of its service area vis--vis forge effective linkages between bank credit, production, productivity, and increase in income levels of the villages.

Explanation

Statement 1 is correct - Area under rice cultivation is highest among the Kharif crops; for example, it was 441.10 (Lakh Hectare) in 2014-15, 433.88 (Lakh Hectare) in 2015-16, etc.

Statement 2 is incorrect - Area under the cultivation of jowar is less than that of oilseeds.

Statement 3 is correct - Area of cotton cultivation is more than double that of sugarcane.

Statement 4 is incorrect - Area under sugarcane cultivation is fluctuating; it has not steadily decreased.

Explanation

Social capital refers to the intangible assets of a community or society. It's not about physical resources or demographics, but rather the quality of relationships and connections between people. Option D, the level of mutual trust and harmony, directly reflects this concept.

a) Proportion of literates in the population While education is important, it's an individual skill, not a measure of social interaction or trust. b) Stock of buildings This falls under physical capital, which refers to tangible assets like buildings and infrastructure. c) Size of population in the working age group This is a demographic factor and doesn't tell us anything about social connections or trust.

Explanation

Herbivorous turtles: Many turtle species, such as the green sea turtle and the Galapagos tortoise, are primarily herbivores, feeding on leaves, fruits, and other plant material.

Herbivorous fish: There are numerous herbivorous fish species, including surgeonfish, parrotfish, and tangs. These fish feed on algae and seaweed, playing a crucial role in maintaining healthy coral reef ecosystems.

Herbivorous marine mammals: While many marine mammals are carnivorous, some, like manatees and dugongs, are herbivores, feeding on seagrasses and other underwater plants.

Viviparous snakes: Not all snakes lay eggs; some, like boas, vipers, and sea snakes, are viviparous. This means they give birth to live young that have developed inside the mother's body.

Explanation

Cirrus clouds do not reflect a lot of solar radiation into space. As they form at high altitudes and cold temperatures, they trap long-wave radiation and have a climate impact similar to greenhouse gases. Thus, thinning cirrus clouds would reduce the absorption of infrared radiation and are proposed as a form of climate engineering to reduce global warming.

Another proposed Geo-engineering technique involves injecting reflective sulphate aerosol particles into Earth's lower stratosphere to cast a small proportion of the inbound sunlight back into space and cool the planet off.

Thus, both are climate engineering/ Geo-engineering techniques to reduce global warming.

Explanation

The Vijayanagara Empire, which existed in Southern India from the 14th to 17th century, was known for its significant contributions to temple architecture.

One notable feature of temple construction during this period was the inclusion of 'Kalyana Mandapams' or marriage halls within temple complexes. These halls were used for conducting religious ceremonies, including weddings of the deities, as well as for community gatherings and festivals.

Hence, the correct option is C, the Vijayanagara Empire.

The other notable features of the Vijaynagar temple architecture are rai gopurams, chariot streets and charging horses carved on the temple pillar.

Explanation

Dewdrops are formed when the temperature drops to the dew point and the air becomes saturated with water vapour.

On a clear night, the Earth's surface loses heat through radiation and can reach a temperature low enough to form dewdrops.

However, on a cloudy night, the clouds act like a blanket, reflecting back the Earth's radiation. This keeps the temperature of the air near the ground warmer, preventing it from reaching the dew point and thus, dewdrops are not formed.

Explanation

Statement 1 is Correct: The Parliament (Prevention of Disqualification) Act, 1959 was enacted to prevent disqualification of MPs and MLAs due to holding certain offices that are considered essential for governance. This Act exempts specific posts from disqualification under the Office of Profit clause, ensuring that legislators can hold certain government-appointed positions without losing their seats.

Statement 2 is Correct: The 1959 Act has been amended 5 times to expand the list of exempted offices.

Statement 3 is Incorrect: The Constitution of India does not explicitly define the term "Office of Profit." Instead, Articles 102(1)(a) and 191(1)(a) state that a person shall be disqualified from being a Member of Parliament or a State Legislature if they hold an Office of Profit under the government.

Explanation

The Global Competitiveness Report is published by the World Economic Forum (WEF).

Option A is incorrect. The International Monetary Fund (IMF) primarily focuses on macroeconomic policies, financial stability, and global monetary cooperation, but it does not publish the Global Competitiveness Report.

Option B is incorrect. The United Nations Conference on Trade and Development (UNCTAD) deals with trade, investment, and development issues but is not responsible for this report.

Option C is correct. The World Economic Forum (WEF) releases the Global Competitiveness Report (GCR), which assesses the competitiveness of countries based on various economic indicators such as infrastructure, macroeconomic stability, health, education, market efficiency, and innovation.

Option D is incorrect. The World Bank publishes reports related to economic development, poverty reduction, and business environments, such as the Ease of Doing Business Report, but it does not release the Global Competitiveness Report.

Explanation

Article 21: This article states that "No person shall be deprived of his life or personal liberty except according to procedure established by law." Over the years, the Supreme Court of India has expanded the scope of personal liberty to include various fundamental rights, including the right to marry a person of one's choice.

Shamima Begum vs. State of Assam (2018): The court ruled that a woman has the right to marry a person of her choice, reinforcing that personal decisions related to marriage fall under individual autonomy and personal liberty as guaranteed by Article 21.

Hadiya's case (Shafin Jahan vs. Asokan K.M): The Supreme Court upheld the right to marry as a fundamental right under Article 21. It ruled that an adult woman is free to make decisions regarding her marriage, rejecting attempts to interfere in personal choices. The court emphasized that state or societal disapproval cannot restrict an individual’s right to marry.

Explanation

Statement 1 is correct. AIIB has more than 80 member nations. (Actually, as of April 2024, it has 109 members).

Statement 2 is incorrect. India is not the largest shareholder in AIIB. China is the largest shareholder.

Statement 3 is incorrect. While the focus is on Asia, several non-Asian countries are members, including some European and South American nations.

Explanation

In India, the use of carbofuran, methyl parathion, phorate and triazophos is viewed with apprehension because they are all pesticides used in agriculture. These pesticides are considered hazardous due to their potential negative impacts on human health and the environment.

Explanation

Statement 1 is correct: Global warming poses a significant threat to methane hydrate deposits. These icy structures, found in permafrost and deep-sea sediments, can destabilize as temperatures rise, releasing methane into the atmosphere. Since methane is a potent greenhouse gas its release could create a positive feedback loop, further accelerating global warming.

Statement 2 is correct: Large deposits of methane hydrate are primarily found in two locations:

1. Arctic Tundra: Permafrost soils in the Arctic hold significant methane hydrate reserves, which are at risk of melting due to rising temperatures.
2. Seafloor Deposits: Continental margins and deep ocean sediments contain vast methane hydrate reserves. Changes in ocean temperature and pressure fluctuations can trigger their release.

Statement 3 is correct: After about 12 years, the methane is converted into carbon dioxide through hydroxyl oxidation. While CO₂ is a less potent greenhouse gas than methane, its longer atmospheric lifetime means it continues contributing to long-term climate change.

Therefore, option (D) 1, 2 and 3 is correct.

Explanation

Statement 1 is incorrect. While genetic factors can contribute to susceptibility to infections, they are not directly related to the occurrence of multi-drug resistance in microbial pathogens.

Statement 2 is correct. Incorrect use of antibiotics, including taking incorrect doses or not completing the full course of treatment, can contribute to the development of drug resistance in microbial pathogens.

Statement 3 is correct. The widespread use of antibiotics in livestock farming can lead to the development of drug-resistant pathogens that can affect both animals and humans.

Statement 4 is incorrect. While individuals with chronic diseases may be more susceptible to infections, this factor is not directly related to the occurrence of multi-drug resistance in microbial pathogens.

Explanation

RNA interference (RNAi) or Post-Transcriptional Gene Silencing (PTGS) is a conserved biological response to double-stranded RNA that mediates resistance to both endogenous parasitic and exogenous pathogenic nucleic acids, and regulates the expression of protein-coding genes.

Statement 1 is correct. RNAi is a powerful tool for developing gene-silencing therapies. It allows researchers to target specific genes and reduce their expression, which can be beneficial in treating various diseases.

Statement 2 is also correct. RNAi is being actively explored for cancer therapy. By targeting genes involved in cancer cell growth and proliferation, RNAi has the potential to be a novel approach for cancer treatment.

Statement 3 is incorrect. RNAi is not typically used in developing hormone replacement therapies. Hormone replacement therapies introduce hormones into the body, while RNAi focuses on silencing gene expression within cells.

Statement 4 is correct. RNAi can be used to develop crop plants resistant to viral pathogens. By introducing specific RNA molecules that target the virus, plants can be made more resistant to viral infections, improving agricultural yields.

Explanation

The external debt of India is the total debt the country owes to foreign creditors. The debtors can be the Union government, state governments, corporations, or citizens of India. The debt includes money owed to private commercial banks, foreign governments, or international financial institutions such as the International Monetary Fund (IMF) and World Bank.

• Commercial borrowings continued to be the largest component of external debt with a share of 37.4 per cent, followed by NRI deposits (24.1 per cent) and short-term trade credit (19.9 per cent).

• Non-Government Debt - 416.7 (US$ billion), Government Debt 104.5 (US$ billion) Hence, statement 1 is incorrect.

• US dollar-denominated debt continued to be the largest component of India�s external debt with a share of 45.9 per cent at the end of December 2018, followed by the Indian rupee (24.8 per cent), SDR (5.1 per cent), yen (4.9 per cent) and euro (3.1 per cent). Hence, statement 2 is also incorrect.

Explanation

Remote sensing is the process of detecting and monitoring the physical characteristics of an area by measuring its reflected and emitted radiation at a distance from the targeted area.

Statement 1 is correct. Satellite images and remote sensing data can indeed be used to estimate the chlorophyll content in vegetation. This is done by measuring the reflectance of light from the vegetation. The chlorophyll in plants absorbs light for photosynthesis, and the amount of light reflected back can give an estimate of the chlorophyll content.

Statement 2 is correct. Satellite images and remote sensing data can also be used to estimate greenhouse gas emissions. This is done by detecting the radiations emitted by the substances in the rice paddies.

Statement 3 is correct. Satellite images and remote sensing data can be used to measure land surface temperatures as well. This is done by detecting the infrared radiation emitted by the land surface.

Therefore, all three parameters can be measured or estimated using satellite images or remote sensing data.

Explanation

India signed the ‘Action Plan for Prioritization and Implementation of Cooperation Areas in the Nuclear Field’ with Russia.

India and Russia have a long-standing strategic partnership in the field of civil nuclear cooperation.

The agreement aims to enhance collaboration in areas such as nuclear fuel cycle management, nuclear power projects, and research in nuclear science and technology.

Russia has been a key partner in India's nuclear energy sector, particularly through Rosatom, which has been involved in building Kudankulam Nuclear Power Plant (KNPP) in Tamil Nadu.

Japan, the United Kingdom, and the United States have also engaged in nuclear cooperation with India but were not part of this specific agreement.

Explanation

Out of the listed measures, the one least likely used to stop the rupee's slide is D. Following an expansionary monetary policy

Option A is incorrect. Curbing non-essential imports and promoting exports: This reduces the demand for foreign currency and increases its supply through exports, potentially strengthening the rupee.

Option B is incorrect. Encouraging Masala Bonds: These are rupee-denominated bonds issued by Indian entities in foreign markets. They attract foreign investment without increasing external debt in dollars, potentially supporting the rupee.

Option C is incorrect. Easing external commercial borrowing (ECB) conditions: This allows companies to borrow foreign currency more easily, potentially increasing the supply of foreign currency in the short term. However, it can also increase external debt in the long run.

Option D is correct. Why is expansionary monetary policy less likely? An expansionary policy typically involves lowering interest rates. This can make borrowing cheaper and encourage spending, potentially leading to inflation. Inflation can further weaken the rupee if it's not matched by rising export earnings.

Explanation

Statement 1 is correct: Fixed-term employment and ease of layoff. The amendment introduces the concept of "fixed-term employment" for the first place. While it doesn't automatically make layoffs easier, it allows companies to hire for specific projects or periods without them becoming permanent employees. This can potentially make restructuring or downsizing during economic downturns easier for companies with fixed-term employees compared to permanent ones (who have greater job security).

Statement 2 is correct: Notice period for temporary workmen. The amendment clarifies that no notice period is required to terminate the employment of a "temporary workman," which is someone hired for a specific, non-continuous job or for a short period.

Explanation

Because of their small size, marine animals like fish, shellfish, and plankton can easily ingest microbeads. These plastic particles can block their digestive systems, leading to starvation or death.

Additionally, microbeads might absorb pollutants and toxins present in the water, concentrating them in the food chain and potentially harming larger predators, including humans.

Explanation

The Ninth Schedule was introduced by the First Constitutional Amendment Act, 1951 to protect certain laws, particularly those related to land reforms, from judicial review.

Prime Minister Jawaharlal Nehru introduced the Constitution (First Amendment) Bill in the Lok Sabha in 1951. This amendment aimed to safeguard progressive socio-economic legislation from being struck down by courts on the grounds of violating fundamental rights, particularly the right to property under Article 31 (which was later repealed by the 44th Amendment in 1978).

Explanation

Option A is incorrect. While it is possible to create artificial DNA sequences in a laboratory, creating a fully functional chromosome by joining DNA segments from different species is not currently feasible. Chromosomes are complex structures, and recreating a functional chromosome from scratch is an extremely challenging task. Thus,

Option B is correct. Advances in synthetic biology and genetic engineering have made it possible to create artificial DNA sequences with desired functions in a laboratory setting.

Option C is correct. Techniques like in vitro DNA replication and polymerase chain reaction (PCR) allow for the replication of DNA fragments outside of a living cell, in a controlled laboratory environment.

Option D is correct. Techniques like cell culture and tissue culture allow for the growth and division of cells taken from plants and animals in a controlled laboratory environment.

Explanation

India overtook Thailand as the world's largest riceexporter in 2015, since then India is held its position while China is the largest producer of rice.

Below are the few countries that exported the highest dollar value worth of rice in 2018.

1. India US$7.4 billion (30.1% of total rice exports)
2. Thailand $5.6 billion (22.7%)
3. Vietnam $2.2 billion (9%)

Explanation

Sir Tej Bahadur Sapru: He was an important leader of All India liberal federation and served as its President.

KC Neogy: He was a member of the constituent Assembly from West Bengal.

Puran Chand Joshi (14 April 1907 9 November 1980), was one of the early leaders of the communist movement in India. He was the first general secretary of the Communist Party of India from 1935-47.

Explanation

The Charter Act of 1813 was a significant legislation:

• Company’s rule and trade monopoly in India was extended to another 20 years. Monopoly was ended except for the trade in tea and with China.
• This asserted the Crown’s sovereignty over British India by defining the constitutional position of the British in India.
• This act also empowered the local governments to impose taxes on the persons subject to the jurisdiction of the Supreme Court.
• The European British subjects were also strengthened in India over the power of the provincial governments and courts.
• Financial provision was made to encourage a revival in Indian literature and for the promotion of science.
• This act also envisages that missionaries can go and spread the Christianity in India.

Explanation

Manas National Park (Assam): Situated on the banks of the Manas River, it encompasses a range of ecosystems including grasslands, tropical evergreen forests, and semi-evergreen forests.

Namdapha National Park (Arunachal Pradesh): This park boasts diverse vegetation zones, ranging from tropical evergreen forests at lower elevations to sub-alpine meadows at higher altitudes.

Neora Valley National Park (West Bengal): This park covers a range of elevations with subtropical broadleaf forests at lower levels and temperate forests at higher reaches.

The Valley of Flowers National Park (Uttrakhand): On the other hand, is situated at a high altitude (3352 to 3658 metres above sea level) and falls entirely within the temperate alpine zone, known for its meadows, low-growing vegetation, and cooler climate.

Hence, option D is the correct Answer.

Explanation

The Sarkaria Commission was established by the Government of India in 1983 to review Centre-State relations and recommend improvements. One of its key areas of focus was the appointment of Governors.

Recommendations on the Appointment of Governor:

• The Governor should be an eminent person with a distinguished record in public life.
• The person must be from outside the State to ensure impartiality in administration.
• The Governor should not have participated in active politics for some time prior to the appointment.
• He should be a detached figure, not closely linked to local politics, to maintain neutrality.
• The appointment process should involve wider consultation, including the Chief Minister of the State, the Vice President of India, and the Speaker of the Lok Sabha.

These recommendations were aimed at ensuring that the Governor functions as an independent and neutral constitutional authority, rather than a political appointee of the ruling party at the Centre.

Explanation

Statement 1 is incorrect: The Environment Protection Act (EPA), 1986 recognizes the importance of public participation in environmental decision-making. However, it does not explicitly define the procedure for public participation in environmental governance, such as public hearings or consultations. These provisions were later formalized through subsequent rules and notifications, such as the Environmental Impact Assessment (EIA) Notification, 2006, which mandates public hearings for certain projects.

Statement 2 is correct: The EPA, of 1986 empowers the Central Government to Lay down environmental quality standards for air, water, and soil, Regulate emissions and discharges of pollutants from industries and other sources, Restrict hazardous substances and their handling, Take emergency measures to prevent environmental disasters.

Explanation

Jahangir (reigned 1605-1627) was known for his keen interest in art and culture. While his predecessors valued illustrated manuscripts, Jahangir favoured a more personal approach to artistic expression.

He patronized artists like Bichitr, Mansur, and Abu’l Hasan, who excelled in portraiture.

He actively commissioned individual portraits and compiled albums showcasing a variety of subjects, including people, animals, and flora and fauna. This shift reflected a growing interest in realism and individual character studies within Mughal art during his reign.

Explanation

The Himalayan nettle, also known as Girardinia diversifolia, is a plant species native to the Himalayan regions of India, Nepal, and parts of China. It grows at high altitudes and is known for its long fibres that can be extracted from the stem.

These fibres are some of the longest in the plant world and are used in the production of textiles.

Therefore, the Himalayan nettle is found to be a sustainable source of textile fibre.

Explanation

The National Council of Education (or NCE) was an organisation founded by Indian nationalists in Bengal in 1906 to promote science and technology as part of a swadeshi industrialization movement.

The Swadeshi had a great impact on the handloom industry. - There was a revival in handloom, silk weaving, and some other traditional artisan crafts. - Cotton mills were set up at this time.

Both, statement 1 and 2 are correct.

Explanation

The word 'Denisovan' is mentioned in the media about ancient humans (or an extinct human relative).

Denisovans were a mysterious group of archaic humans who lived in Asia tens of thousands of years ago. They are most known for being discovered through genetic analysis of fossils, rather than complete skeletal remains.

Explanation

The burning of crop or biomass residue releases various pollutants into the atmosphere, contributing to air pollution and climate change.

Carbon Monoxide (CO): Incomplete combustion of organic matter produces carbon monoxide, a colorless and toxic gas that affects air quality and human health.

Methane (CH₄): Biomass burning can also release methane, a potent greenhouse gas that contributes to global warming.

Sulfur Dioxide (SO₂): If the biomass contains sulfur compounds, its combustion releases sulfur dioxide, which can cause respiratory problems and contribute to acid rain.

Ozone (O₃) Formation: Ozone is not directly emitted from biomass burning. However, it forms secondarily in the atmosphere when pollutants such as nitrogen oxides (NOₓ) and volatile organic compounds (VOCs) react in the presence of sunlight.

Therefore, option (D) 1, 2, 3 and 4 is correct.

Explanation

The General Data Protection Regulation (GDPR) was adopted by the European Union (EU) in April 2016 and came into effect on 25th May 2018.

The GDPR is a landmark regulation aimed at strengthening data protection and privacy rights for individuals within the European Union (EU) and the European Economic Area (EEA).

It sets strict guidelines on how personal data is collected, stored, and processed, and applies to organizations handling the data of EU citizens, regardless of where they are based.

Australia, Canada, and the United States of America have their own data protection laws, but they are separate from GDPR.

Explanation

Sohgaura is not a Harappan site and is situated in Uttar Pradesh. It is famous for its copper inscription written in Prakrit in the Brahmi script. It belongs to the Mahajanapad and Mauryan periods.

All the other three are Harappan sites. Chanhudaro in Sindh, Pakistan, Kot Diji in Sindh, Pakistan, Desalpur in Gujarat, India.

Explanation

The correct answer is (C) procurement incidentals and distribution cost.

Here's a breakdown of the economic cost of food grains to the Food Corporation of India (FCI)

Minimum Support Price (MSP) and bonus (if any) This is the price paid by the FCI to farmers to procure food grains at a pre-determined level. It serves as a safety net for farmers and ensures some income stability.

Procurement incidentals These are the additional costs incurred by the FCI during the procurement process. They include expenses like

• Commission to agents or societies involved in procurement
• Bagging materials
• Labor charges for procurement activities
• Transportation from collection centers to storage depots

Distribution cost This refers to the expenses incurred by the FCI to distribute the procured food grains. It includes

• Transportation costs from storage depots to fair price shops or other distribution channels
• Handling and storage charges at fair price shops
• Losses during storage and transportation

Explanation

Statement 1 is correct: Article 176(1) of the Indian Constitution mandates that the Governor shall address both Houses of the State Legislature at the commencement of the first session after each general election to the State Assembly and at the commencement of the first session of each year. The Governor's address outlines the government’s policies, legislative agenda, and key priorities. This address is similar to the President’s address to Parliament under Article 87.

Statement 2 is correct: When there is no rule on a particular subject in the State Legislature, under a convention since colonial times, state legislatures follow the rules of the Lok Sabha.

Explanation

All India Anti Untouchability League: It was formed by Mahatma Gandhi then later renamed as Harijan Sewak Sangh.

All India Kisan Sabha: It was formed by Sahajanand Saraswati in the Lucknow Session of 1936.

Self-Respect Movement: EV Ramaswamy Naicker was an important leader of self respect movement in 1925. It was an anti-caste movement against Brahmanism.

Explanation

Statement 1 is not Correct. The protocol against the smuggling of Migrants by land, sea and air comes under the United Nations Convention against Transnational Organized Crime (UNTOC) and not UNCAC.

Statement 2 is Correct. The United Nations Convention Against Corruption (UNCAC) is the law binding universal anti-corruption instrument.

Statement 3 is not Correct. United Nations Convention Against Corruption (UNCAC) includes "Returning Assets to their rightful owners from whom they have been taken illicitly".

Statement 4 is Correct. The United Nations Office on Drugs and Crime (UNODC) is mandated by its Member States to assist in the implementation of both Conventions,such as UNCAC and UNTOC, along with the IJN Drug Conventions of 1961, 1971 and 1988 underpin all the operational work of UNODC.

Note: An easy way to solve this question is to read all the options properly. On reading, we understand that Corruption would include elements like ‘Returning of assets’ & Transnational Organized Crime would include ‘Smuggling’ (Conceptual Understanding). In the above question, the elements of Statements 1 & 3 are inter-changed making them outrightly incorrect.

Explanation

The Inter-Creditor Agreement (ICA) signed by Indian banks and financial institutions is a mechanism to expedite the resolution of stressed assets, particularly in cases of consortium lending involving loans of Rs. 50 crore or more.

Explanation

Participatory Note (P-Note): This is a financial instrument issued by registered foreign portfolio investors (FPIs) to overseas investors. It allows overseas investors to participate in the Indian stock market indirectly without directly registering with the Securities and Exchange Board of India (SEBI). The FPI holds the underlying Indian securities, and the P-Note represents ownership for the overseas investor.

The other options are not used for this purpose:

Certificate of Deposit (CD): Issued by banks to raise short-term funds, not related to stock markets.

Commercial Paper (CP): Short-term debt instrument issued by companies, not related to foreign investment in stocks.

Promissory Note: A written promise to repay a debt, not used in this context of stock market participation.

Explanation

The Chairman of public sector banks in India are selected by the Banks Board Bureau (BBB).

The Banks Board Bureau is an autonomous body responsible for selecting and appointing the Boards of Directors in Public Sector Banks (PSBs) and Financial Institutions. It was established based on the recommendations of the Nayak Committee Report (2014).

Explanation

Statement 1 is incorrect. While the Ramsar Convention encourages member countries to take action for wetland conservation and wise use, there's no legal mandate to protect all wetlands.

Statement 2 is incorrect. The Wetlands (Conservation and Management) Rules, 2010 were formulated by the Indian government to regulate activities in wetlands, and their development was not certainly influenced by the Ramsar Convention's principles. The rules also consider other national legislations and priorities.

Statement 3 is correct. The Wetlands (Conservation and Management) Rules, 2010 do encompass the drainage area or catchment regions of the wetlands. This holistic approach recognizes the importance of the surrounding area for the overall health and functioning of the wetland ecosystem.

Explanation

Statement 1 is incorrect. High Courts have the power to declare central laws unconstitutional. This power is derived from their inherent jurisdiction to uphold the Constitution.

Statement 2 is incorrect. While the Supreme Court cannot question the amending power of the Parliament, it can review the constitutional validity of an amendment. The landmark case of Kesavananda Bharati v. State of Kerala established the doctrine of the 'basic structure' of the Constitution. Any amendment that violates this basic structure can be declared unconstitutional by the Supreme Court.

Explanation

Statement 1 is incorrect. A digital signature doesn't directly identify the certifying authority that issued it. It uses a complex cryptographic process involving a public-key infrastructure (PKI) where a trusted third party (Certificate Authority) verifies the signer's identity and issues a digital certificate used for creating the signature.

Statement 2 is incorrect. While digital signatures can be used for authentication purposes in certain scenarios, they are not the primary method for user identification when accessing information or servers on the internet. Usernames, passwords, and other credentials are more commonly used.

Statement 3 is correct. It ensures the integrity of an electronic document by creating a unique digital fingerprint that is linked to the content. Any alteration to the document would invalidate the signature.

Explanation

Nationalisation: Yes, the coal sector was nationalised by the Indira Gandhi government in phases during the 1970s. Hence, Statement 1 is Correct.

Coal block allocation: Coal blocks are not allocated through a lottery system. They are currently allocated through auctions, a shift from the previous system of administrative allocation. Hence, Statement 2 is Incorrect.

Coal self-sufficiency: India is not entirely self-sufficient in coal production. While domestic production has increased, there is still a gap that is met through imports. Hence , Statement 3 is Incorrect.

Explanation

Kanaganahalli, located near Sannati in Karnataka, is an archaeological site known for its Buddhist stupas, sculptures, and inscription slabs.

One particular sculpture depicts a royal figure with attendants, identified through the Brahmi inscription as "Ranyo Ashoka" (King Ashoka). This makes it the only confirmed instance among the given options where the inscription and the portrait are found together.

Sanchi, in Madhya Pradesh, is famous for its Great Stupa, built under Ashoka's patronage.

Shahbazgarhi: Located in modern-day Pakistan, Shahbazgarhi contains Ashokan Edicts written in Kharosthi script. These edicts promote Dharma (moral law) but do not include a stone portrait of Ashoka.

Sohgaura, in Uttar Pradesh, has a pre-Ashokan inscription, written in the Brahmi script. It is not associated with Ashoka but rather with a Mauryan period famine relief measure.

Explanation

Statement 1 is Correct (Data storage in India): This is the core requirement of the directive. It mandates that the entire payment system data be stored in systems located only in India. This aims to improve data security and regulatory oversight.

Statement 2 is Incorrect (Public sector ownership): The directive doesn't specify ownership requirements for the data storage systems. Private companies can also store data as long as the systems are located within India.

Statement 3 is Incorrect (Audit report submission): The directive des not have reporting requirements for system audits to the Comptroller and Auditor General of India (CAG) which typically audits government entities.

Explanation

All three statements (1, 2, and 3) are features of Mahayana Buddhism.

Deification of the Buddha: While Theravada Buddhism emphasizes the Buddha as a human who attained enlightenment, Mahayana portrays the Buddha as a transcendent being who can exist in multiple forms.

Treading the path of Bodhisattvas Mahayana: Buddhism emphasizes the Bodhisattva ideal, where individuals strive for enlightenment not just for themselves but for the benefit of all sentient beings.

Image worship and rituals: Mahayana Buddhism incorporates elaborate rituals and devotional practices involving statues and images of the Buddha and Bodhisattvas. These practices are seen as a way to connect with the divine and progress on the path to enlightenment.

Explanation

Bandarpunch Yamuna - This is correct. Bandarpunch is a mountain massif of the Garhwal division of the Himalayas, in the Indian state of Uttarakhand. It is a source of the Yamuna River.

Bara Shigri Chenab - This is also correct. Bara Shigri is the second-longest glacier in the Himalayas and it feeds the Chenab River.

Milam Mandakini - This is incorrect. The Mandakini River originates from the Chorabari Glacier, not the Milam Glacier.

Siachen Nubra - This is correct. The Siachen Glacier, one of the world's longest mountain glaciers, lies in the Karakoram Range system of Kashmir and is the source for the Nubra River.

Zemu Manas - This is incorrect. The Zemu Glacier is in Sikkim and it feeds the Teesta River, not the Manas River.

So, the correctly matched pairs are 1, 2 and 4.

Explanation

Assets Assets represent the resources a bank owns. For a commercial bank, these resources include:

• Advances (loans) Money lent to businesses, individuals, and other borrowers.
• Investments Securities like government bonds, treasury bills, or shares in other companies.
• Money at call and short notice Funds are lent to other banks for a very short period, usually overnight.
• Deposits Deposits are liabilities for a bank. They represent the money that customers entrust to the bank, which the bank is obligated to repay.

Explanation

The Maternity Benefit (Amendment) Act 2017 has made several significant changes to benefit women employees

• Paid maternity leave has been increased to 26 weeks from 12 weeks.
• For women expecting after having 2 children, the leave duration remains at 12 weeks.
• Establishments employing 50 or more employees must provide a crche facility, and women employees should be allowed to visit the facility 4 times during the day.

Explanation

Statement 1 is correct. Wearable devices can perform several tasks, and out of given options, all three are achievable. Many smartwatches and wearables with GPS functionality can track a person's location. This can be helpful for navigation, fitness tracking, or safety purposes.

Statement 2 is correct. Wearable sleep trackers can monitor sleep patterns, including sleep duration, sleep stages (deep sleep, light sleep, REM sleep), and sleep quality.

Statement 3 is correct. Some wearables can function as hearing aids, amplifying sounds and improving hearing for people with hearing loss.

Therefore, the correct answer is 1, 2, and 3.

Explanation

Liberty is a fundamental concept in political philosophy and governance, ensuring that individuals have the freedom to act, think, and express themselves without undue restrictions while maintaining societal order. However, liberty does not mean absolute freedom but rather a balanced framework that allows personal development within the limits of law and respect for others' rights.

Protection against tyranny: While democratic institutions and laws protect individuals from oppression, liberty is not just about protection from tyranny; it also involves active freedom to pursue one's potential.

Absence of restraint: Absolute freedom can lead to anarchy and the violation of others' rights. Laws and regulations ensure that individual liberties do not infringe on the rights of others.

Opportunity to do whatever one likes: True liberty is not unrestricted freedom but freedom within legal and moral constraints. If everyone had complete freedom, conflicts would arise due to overlapping interests and lack of accountability.

Opportunity to develop oneself fully: This definition captures the essence of liberty in a polity. It implies the freedom to make choices, pursue goals, and express oneself without undue restrictions. This allows individuals to reach their full potential and contribute to society.

Explanation

Foreign currency earnings The IT sector generates foreign exchange through exports of services. This increases the supply of foreign currency reserves, making it easier to defend the rupee's value in the foreign exchange market during times of stress.

Remittances from abroad When Indians working abroad send money back home, it adds to the inflow of foreign currency. This strengthens the country's foreign exchange reserves and provides a buffer against external shocks.

Why increasing government expenditure is not a contributor? While government spending can stimulate economic growth, it can also lead to a higher budget deficit. If the deficit is financed by excessive borrowing, it can put pressure on the currency if investors lose confidence in the government's ability to repay its debts.

Therefore, the correct code is 1 and 3 only

Explanation

Statement 1 is incorrect. In Mughal India, Jagirdars under the Mansabdari system were assigned land in lieu of assigned duties towards the empire such as police, judicial, and military; Zamindars too apart from revenue collecting duties had to render military duties and performing Khidmat such as rendering soldiers to fill the ranks of the royal army at times of need and offer gifts at the royal court.

Statement 2 is incorrect. Jagirdars were frequently transferred as promotion and demotion was a regular part of the empire as loyalties towards the Emperor were largely dependent on the rank of jagir/manual held by a Noble; on the other hand, Zamindars had hereditary rights over revenue as their sway over rural society was overarching in all aspects which rested on paternal and patronage application of rituals.

Explanation

During the fourth Five Year Plan, a sub-category was created within Scheduled Tribes, known as Particularly Vulnerable Tribal Groups, to identify groups that are considered to be at a lower level of development.

PVTGs are spread over 18 states and one Union Territory (Andaman & Nicobar Islands) in India.

The criteria for determining PVTG status include a pre-agricultural level of technology, a stagnant or declining population, extremely low literacy, and a subsistence level of economy.

As of now, there are 75 PVTGs officially notified in the country, not 95.

Both Irular and Konda Reddi tribes are included in the list of PVTGs.

So, the correct statements are 1, 2 and 4.

Explanation

Atal Innovation Mission (AIM) is set up under the NITI Aayog (National Institution for Transforming India), which is the premier policy 'Think Tank' of the Government of India.

The Atal Innovation Mission was launched by the Government of India in 2016 to promote innovation and entrepreneurship across the country.

The key objectives of the Atal Innovation Mission are :

1. To create and promote an ecosystem of innovation and entrepreneurship across the country.
2. To establish Atal Tinkering Laboratories (ATLs) in schools across India to foster a culture of innovation from a young age.
3. To set up Atal Incubation Centres (AICs) to support entrepreneurs and startups.
4. To provide mentorship and funding support to innovative startups and entrepreneurs.

Explanation

The World Bank's Ease of Doing Business Index focuses on regulations that directly affect businesses.

While maintaining law and order is a crucial aspect of a functioning economy, it's not directly measured in the Ease of Doing Business Index.

Explanation

The common feature among the places Aliyar, Isapur and Kangsabati is that they are all known for their water reservoirs.

• Aliyar Reservoir is located in Aliyar village, Tamil Nadu.
• Isapur Dam is an irrigation project in Maharashtra.
• Kangsabati Dam is located on the Kangsabati River in West Bengal.

Explanation

Pair 1 is Correct: The Blue-finned Mahseer is a freshwater fish species that is naturally found in the Cauvery River. This species is also found in other rivers of the Deccan Plateau.

Pair 2 is incorrect: The Irrawaddy Dolphin is not found in the Chambal River, which is known for the Gangetic Dolphin. It is found in coastal areas in South and Southeast Asia, and in three rivers: the Ayeyarwady (Myanmar), the Mahakam (Indonesian Borneo) and the Mekong (Cambodia and Laos). In India, it is found in Lake Chilika (Odisha).

Pair 3 is correct: The Rusty-spotted Cat is a small wild cat species that is found in the Eastern Ghats. It is also found in the Western Ghats, central India, and Sri Lanka.

Therefore, option (C) 1 and 3 are correctly matched.

Explanation

Statement 1 is correct: The Asiatic lion is naturally found only in India and is classified as Endangered on the IUCN Red List. Its last remaining wild population is restricted to the Gir National Park and surrounding areas in Gujarat.

Statement 2 is incorrect: The double-humped camel, also known as the Bactrian camel, is primarily found in Central Asia, Mongolia, and parts of China. While some feral populations exist in Ladakh, India, their natural range is outside India.

Statement 3 is incorrect: The one-horned rhinoceros is mainly found in India and Nepal, but its historical range also included Bhutan and Bangladesh.