UPSC Prelims 2019 Analysis
Subject wise MCQ distribution
- Economy had the highest number of questions (21), with a special focus on the banking sector, making it the most important subject.
- Environment & Ecology followed with 18 questions, highlighting its significance due to the Forest Service prelims merging with the Civil Services Prelims.
- Science & Technology was another key area, contributing 15 questions, with a major focus on biotechnology and related current affairs.
- Indian Polity remained crucial, featuring 13 questions.
- Modern History had a relatively lower weightage, with only 6 questions.

Difficulty analysis
- Medium Questions (45) formed the largest portion, requiring a blend of static and current knowledge with strong analytical abilities.
- Hard Questions (31) were conceptually tricky and usually lowered the cutoff. A strategic approach involved eliminating high-risk questions and attempting only those with certainty.
- Easy Questions (24) were straightforward and should have been attempted with maximum accuracy to gain easy marks.

Variations in Question framing
- The paper was evenly split between multi-statement and direct questions.
- Multi-statement questions held a slight majority, making the paper lengthy and increasing the risk of errors, as each statement had to be analyzed carefully.
- However, multi-statement questions also allowed for option elimination, enabling candidates to answer with limited information.

Key learning for Future Preparation
- Prioritize Key Subjects: Allocate more time to Polity, Economy, and Environment, as they consistently have higher weightage.
- Integrate Current Affairs: Link recent developments with syllabus topics for better retention.
- Develop Analytical Thinking: Focus on the why behind policies, events, and phenomena, rather than just memorizing facts.
- Revise Regularly: Reinforce concepts through periodic revisions and multiple mock tests.
- Master Multi-Statement Questions: Practice elimination techniques to improve accuracy in multi-statement questions.
- Practice PYQs: Understand important areas from the examiner’s perspective and familiarize yourself with option elimination techniques.
Subject-Wise Answer Key
QUESTION 1
The money multiplier in an economy increases with which one of the following?
A. Increase in the cash reserve ratio
B. Increase in the banking habits of the population
C. Increase in the statutory liquidity ratio
D. Increase in the population of the country
QUESTION 2
With reference to India’s Five-Year Plans, which of the following statements is/are correct?
- From the Second Five-Year Plan, there was a determined thrust towards substitution of basic and capital goods industries.
- The Fourth Five-Year Plan adopted the objective of correcting the earlier trend of increased concentration of wealth and economic power.
- In the Fifth Five-Year Plan, for the first time, the financial sector was included as an integral part of the Plan.
Select the correct answer using the code given below.
A. 1 and 2 only
B. 2 only
C. 3 only
D. 1, 2 and 3
QUESTION 3
With reference to land reforms in independent India, which one of the following statements is correct?
A. The ceiling laws were aimed at family holdings and not individual holdings.
B. The major aim of land reforms was providing agricultural land to all the landless.
C. It resulted in cultivation of cash crops as a predominant form of cultivation.
D. Land reforms permitted no exemptions to the ceiling limits.
QUESTION 4
Among the agricultural commodities imported by India, which one of the following accounts for the highest imports in terms of value in the last five years?
A. Spices
B. Fresh fruits
C. Pulses
D. Vegetable oils
QUESTION 5
Consider the following statements:
- Purchasing Power Parity (PPP) exchange rates are calculated by comparing the prices of the same basket of goods and services in different countries.
- In terms of PPP dollars, India is the sixth largest economy in the world.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
A. 1 only
B. 2 only
C. Both 1 and 2
D. Neither 1 nor 2
QUESTION 6
Consider the following statements :
- Petroleum and Natural Gas Regulatory Board (PNGRB) is the first regulatory body set up by the Government of India.
- One of the tasks of PNGRB is to ensure competitive markets for gas.
- Appeals against the decisions of PNGRB go before the Appellate Tribunals for Electricity.
Which of the statements given above are correct?
A. 1 and 2 only
B. 2 and 3 only
C. 1 and 3 only
D. 1, 2 and 3
QUESTION 7
The Services Area Approach was implemented under the purview of
A. Integrated Rural Development Programme
B. Lead Bank Scheme
C. Mahatma Gandhi National Rural Employment Guarantee Scheme
D. National Skill Development Mission
QUESTION 8
The Global Competitiveness Report is published by the
A. International Monetary Fund
B. United Nations Conference on Trade and Development
C. World Economic Forum
D. World Bank
QUESTION 9
Consider the following statements:
- Most of India’s external debt is owed by governmental entities.
- All of India’s external debt is denominated in US dollars.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
A. 1 only
B. 2 only
C. Both 1 and 2
D. Neither 1 nor 2
QUESTION 10
Which one of the following is not the most likely measure the Government/RBI takes to stop the slide of Indian rupee?
A. Curbing imports of non-essential goods and promoting exports
B. Encouraging Indian borrowers to issue rupee denominated Masala Bonds
C. Easing conditions relating to external commercial borrowing
D. Following an expansionary monetary policy
QUESTION 11
Consider the following statements : As per the Industrial Employment (Standing Orders) Central (Amendment) Rules, 2018
- if rules for fixed-term employment are implemented, it becomes easier for the firms/companies to lay off workers
- no notice of termination of employment shall be necessary in the case of temporary workman
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
A. 1 only
B. 2 only
C. Both 1 and 2
D. Neither 1 nor 2
QUESTION 12
Among the following, which one is the largest exporter of rice in the world in the last five years?
A. China
B. India
C. Myanmar
D. Vietnam
QUESTION 13
The economic cost of food grains to the Food Corporation of India is Minimum Support Price and bonus (if any) paid to the farmers plus
A. Transportation cost only
B. Interest cost only
C. Procurement incidentals and distribution cost
D. Procurement incidentals and charges for godowns
QUESTION 14
What was the purpose of Inter-Creditor Agreement signed by Indian banks and financial institutions recently?
A. To lessen the Government of India’s perennial burden of fiscal deficit and current account deficit
B. To support the infrastructure Projects of Central and State Governments
C. To act as independent regulator in case of applications for loans of Rs. 50 crore or more
D. To aim at faster resolution of stressed assets of Rs. 50 crore or more which are under consortium lending
QUESTION 15
Which of the following is issued by registered foreign portfolio investors to overseas investors who want to be part of the Indian stock market without registering themselves directly?
A. Certificate of Deposit
B. Commercial Paper
C. Promissory Note
D. Participatory Note
QUESTION 16
The Chairman of public sector banks are selected by the
A. Banks Board Bureau
B. Reserve Bank of India
C. Union Ministry of Finance
D. Management of concerned bank
QUESTION 17
Consider the following statements:
- CoaI sector was nationalized by the Government of India under Indira Gandhi.
- Now, coal blocks are allocated on a lottery basis.
- Till recently, India imported coal to meet the shortage of domestic supply, but now India is self- sufficient in coal production.
Which of the statements given above is/arc correct?
A. 1 only
B. 2 and 3 only
C. 3 only
D. 1, 2 and 3
QUESTION 18
Consider the following statements: The Reserve Bank of India’s recent directives relating to ‘Storage of Payment System Data’, popularly known as data diktat, command the payment system providers that
- they shall ensure that entire date relating to payment systems operated by them are stored in a system only in India
- they shall ensure that the systems are owned and operated by public sector enterprises
- they shall submit the consolidated system audit report to the Comptroller and Auditor General of India by the end of the calendar year
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
A. 1 only
B. 1 and 2 only
C. 3 only
D. 1, 2 and 3
QUESTION 19
Which of the following is not included in the assets of a commercial bank in India?
A. Advances
B. Deposits
C. Investments
D. Money at call and short notice
QUESTION 20
In the context of India, which of the following factors is/are contributor/contributors to reducing the risk of a currency crisis?
- The foreign currency earnings of India’s IT sector
- Increasing the government expenditure
- Remittances from Indians abroad
Select the correct answer using the code given below.
A. 1 only
B. 1 and 3 only
C. 2 only
D. 1, 2 and 3
QUESTION 21
Which one of the following is not a sub-index of the World Bank’s “Ease of Doing Business Index”?
A. Maintenance of law and order
B. Paying taxes
C. Registering property
D. Dealing with construction permits