UPSC Prelims 2020 Analysis

Explanation

Statement 1 is not correct. The Government of India subsidizes fertilizers to ensure that fertilizers are easily available to farmers and the country remains self-sufficient in agriculture. This has been achieved largely by controlling the price of fertilizer and the amount of production. For example, as per the New Urea Policy of 2015, the government fixes the market price of urea.

Statement 2 is correct. Fertilizer production uses 1.2% of the world's total energy out of which 90% is used for ammonia production, which is a key ingredient in the production of nitrogen fertilizers. Ammonia can be produced from natural gas.

Statement 3 is correct. Sulfur is a major by-product of oil refining and gas processing. Most crude oil grades contain some sulfur, most of which must be removed during the refining process to meet strict sulfur content limits in refined products. Also, Sulphur is used in phosphoric acid fertilizer (There is a process known as 'The Wet Process' for producing the same).

Hence , option B is the correct answer.

Explanation

The description mentions three spacecraft in an equilateral triangle formation with million-kilometre sides using lasers for measurement. This matches the design of the Evolved Laser Interferometer Space Antenna (eLISA) mission. eLISA is a proposed space observatory aiming to detect gravitational waves using precisely positioned spacecraft.

Voyager-2 and New Horizons are single spacecraft on exploration missions, not designed for gravitational wave detection.

LISA Pathfinder was a precursor mission to test technologies for eLISA, not the full mission itself.

Therefore, based on the details provided, the experiment refers to the Evolved LISA mission.

Explanation

Statement 1 is incorrect: The term "basic structure" is not explicitly mentioned in the Indian Constitution. It was first propounded by the Supreme Court in the landmark case of Kesavananda Bharati v. State of Kerala (1973).

The Court ruled that while Parliament has the power to amend the Constitution under Article 368, there are certain features of the Constitution that form its basic structure and cannot be altered or destroyed through amendments by the Parliament.

Although the basic structure doctrine includes elements such as federalism, secularism, democracy, and fundamental rights, these features are not explicitly listed as the 'basic structure' in the Constitution itself.

Statement 2 is incorrect: The Constitution of India does not explicitly mention the power of judicial review. Instead, this power is derived from various provisions, particularly Articles 13, 32, 131-136, 143, 226, and 246. Judicial review allows the Supreme Court and High Courts to examine the constitutionality of legislative and executive actions, ensuring they do not violate fundamental rights or other constitutional provisions. This power is essential in maintaining the supremacy of the Constitution and protecting citizens' rights.

Hence, Neither of the statements is correct.

Explanation

The term 'Social Cost of Carbon' is a measure of the economic damages, in dollars, that would result from emitting one additional ton of carbon dioxide into the atmosphere.

It is used to value the climate impacts of rulemakings and helps policymakers understand the economic impacts of decisions that would increase or decrease emissions.

Therefore, it is best described as the long-term damage done by a tonne of carbon dioxide emissions in a given year.

Explanation

In Andhra Pradesh, drones were banned from spraying fertilizers, however, it is practised in many parts of the world.

In Peru, a crater was inspected with the help of drones.

It has also been used for collecting water samples from aquatic animals to get their DNA data.

All three functions mentioned have been performed in different parts of the world.

Explanation

In India, the term "Public Key Infrastructure" (PKI) is used in the context of digital security infrastructure.

PKI is a system that facilitates secure electronic communication and transactions by using digital certificates, certificate authorities, and other related components. It plays a vital role in ensuring the authenticity, confidentiality, and integrity of data exchanged online.

Explanation

Statement 1 is Incorrect: The DPSP, enshrined in Part IV of the Constitution, are not legally enforceable by courts. This means that if the government fails to implement them, citizens cannot approach the courts to demand their enforcement.

Statement 2 is Correct: Since DPSPs are non-justiciable, courts cannot compel the government to implement them.

Statement 3 is Correct: The Directive Principles are meant to guide the government in creating laws and policies that promote social and economic justice. They act as a moral and political directive for the government to work toward reducing inequalities, ensuring social welfare, and promoting an equitable society.

Explanation

The book "Desher Katha" written by Sakharam Ganesh Deuskar was a significant contribution to the Indian freedom struggle.

Statement 1 is correct. The book indeed warned against the Colonial State's hypnotic conquest of the mind. Deuskar was a staunch nationalist and vehemently opposed the colonial rule in India. His book was a critique against the colonial rule.

Statement 2 is also correct. Deuskar's work inspired the performance of swadeshi street plays and folk songs. His writings were influential in promoting the Swadeshi movement.

Statement 3, however, is incorrect. The use of 'desh' by Deuskar was not in the specific context of the region of Bengal. Deuskar, though of Marathi origin, was brought up in a Bengali set-up and acted as a bridge between Maharashtra and Bengal's renaissance. His use of 'desh' was more in the context of the nation as a whole, rather than specifically Bengal.

Therefore, the correct answer is that statements 1 and 2 are correct.

Explanation

Nagarhole National Park is located in the Kodagu and Mysore districts of Karnataka and is part of the Nilgiri Biosphere Reserve. It is indeed located in the Cauvery basin.

Papikonda National Park is not located in the Cauvery basin. It is actually located in the Godavari basin.

Sathyamangalam Tiger Reserve lies on the banks of the River Bhavani, a tributary of the River Cauvery in the foothills of the Eastern Ghats. So, it is located in the Cauvery basin.

Wayanad Wildlife Sanctuary: The Kabini river, a tributary of the Cauvery river, flows through the Wayanad Wildlife Sanctuary. Hence, it is also located in the Cauvery basin.

So, the correct answer includes Nagarhole National Park, Sathyamangalam Tiger Reserve, and Wayanad Wildlife Sanctuary.

Explanation

Alma Ata Declaration: The Declaration of Alma-Ata was adopted at the International Conference on Primary Health Care, Almaty, Kazakhstan, 612 September 1978. It expressed the need for urgent action by all governments, all health and development workers, and the world community to protect and promote the health of all people. Hence pair 1 is correctly matched.

Hague Convention: The Hague Convention on the Civil Aspects of International Child Abduction or Hague Abduction Convention is a multilateral treaty developed by the Hague Conference on Private International Law that provides an expeditious method to return a child internationally abducted by a parent from one member country to another. Hence pair 2 is not correctly matched.

The Talanoa Dialogue is a process designed to help countries implement and enhance their Nationally Determined Contributions by 2020. The Dialogue was mandated by the Parties to the United Nations Framework Convention for Climate Change to take stock of the collective global efforts to reduce the emissions of greenhouse gases, in line with the goals of the Paris Agreement. Hence pair 3 is correctly matched.

The Under2 Coalition is a global community of state and regional governments committed to ambitious climate action in line with the Paris Agreement. The coalition brings together more than 220 governments that represent over 1.3 billion people and 43% of the global economy. Signatories commit to keeping global temperature rises to well below 2C with efforts to reach 1.5C. Hence pair 4 is not correctly matched.

Explanation

Southern swamp deer/ hard ground swamp deer, a unique sub-species of Barasingha, also known as the Indian swamp deer, is a herbivorous species that feeds exclusively on grasses (graminivorous) and is well adapted to is adapted to hard ground in open sal forest.

Kanha National Park is well-known for the conservation of hard ground swamp deer. Conservation efforts by the park have helped revive its numbers from near extinction.

Therefore, the correct answer is Kanha National Park.

Explanation

Parivrajaka: This refers to a wandering ascetic or religious mendicant who has renounced worldly possessions and leads a life of spiritual pilgrimage.

Shramana: Shramanas were ascetics who practised austerity and self-discipline, they were not necessarily high-status priests. Shramana refers to a broader movement that includes Jainism and Buddhism, not limited to a specific religion or social hierarchy. Thus, statement 2 is incorrectly matched.

Upasaka: An Upasaka refers to a lay follower of Buddhism, someone who observes the five precepts and practices Buddhism without becoming a monk.

Explanation

Benzene is a colorless or light yellow liquid at room temperature and is a well-known environmental pollutant. It is widely present in the environment due to various natural and human-made sources..

Automobiles, especially those running on petrol, are a significant source of benzene pollution. Since benzene is a component of petroleum products, including motor fuels, its combustion in vehicle engines releases benzene into the air, contributing significantly to air pollution.

Tobacco smoke is a source of benzene exposure. Both active smoking and passive smoking introduce benzene into the body, as tobacco smoke contains benzene. Prolonged exposure to such smoke increases health risks.

Wood burning releases benzene and other pollutants like polycyclic aromatic hydrocarbons (PAHs) due to incomplete combustion. Hence, wood burning is a source of benzene pollution.

Varnished wooden furniture can be a source of benzene exposure but it is less direct and typically with lower exposure levels once the varnish has cured. Therefore, it is not considered a significant source of benzene pollution.

Polyurethane-based products do not contribute significantly to benzene pollution. They are more associated with volatile organic compounds (VOCs) and other chemicals rather than benzene itself.

Thus, the major contributors to benzene pollution are automobile emissions, tobacco smoke, and wood burning . Hence the correct answer is A. 1, 2 and 3 only.

Explanation

The Gandhi-Irwin Pact, also known as the Delhi Pact, was a significant agreement reached between Mahatma Gandhi and Lord Irwin, the Viceroy of India, in March 1931.

As part of the Gandhi-Irwin Pact, the British government agreed to invite the Indian National Congress to participate in the Second Round Table Conference held in London.

Another key aspect of the Gandhi-Irwin Pact was the agreement to withdraw repressive ordinances that had been promulgated by the British government in response to the Civil Disobedience Movement led by Gandhi. This withdrawal was seen as a gesture of goodwill towards the Indian National Congress.

While issues of police excesses were discussed during negotiations, there was no explicit agreement in the pact regarding such an inquiry.

One of the conditions of the Gandhi-Irwin Pact was the release of political prisoners who had been arrested during the Civil Disobedience Movement, provided they had not been charged with violence.

Therefore, the correct statements are 1, 2 and 4.

Explanation

Statement 1 is correct. Visible Light Communication (VLC) utilizes the electromagnetic spectrum within the visible light range, which is roughly between 375 nm (violet) and 780 nm (red).

Statement 2 is incorrect. VLC is not considered long-range communication compared to other optical wireless technologies like fibre optics. Its range is typically limited to shorter distances due to factors like signal power and signal degradation.

Statement 3 is correct. VLC has the potential to transmit large amounts of data at high speeds, often faster than Bluetooth technology, especially in scenarios where high data transfer rates are required.

Statement 4 is also correct. VLC does not use radio frequencies (RF) like traditional wireless communication technologies, and therefore, it does not suffer from electromagnetic interference (EMI) that can affect RF-based systems.

Explanation

Statement 1 is incorrect. The procurement of cereals, pulses, and oilseeds at Minimum Support Price (MSP) is not unlimited. The government procures these crops based on pre-decided targets, storage capacity, and buffer stock norms. Additionally, procurement is not uniform across all states/UTs, as it depends on state policies and the presence of procurement agencies.

Statement 2 is incorrect. The MSP is not fixed in such a way that the market price will never rise above it. In many cases, market prices may rise above MSP due to factors like supply-demand dynamics, export demand, and production levels. MSP acts as a floor price to protect farmers but does not cap the market price.

Hence , option D is the correct answer.

Explanation

AI is now being used to analyze industrial data, optimize processes, and predict energy usage patterns. This allows for targeted interventions to reduce overall consumption.

AI can now generate more creative and coherent text formats compared to 2020. While still under development, some AI-generated content can be quite engaging, blurring the lines between human and machine creation.

AI has become a powerful tool in medical diagnosis. AI algorithms can analyze vast amounts of medical data, identify complex patterns, and assist healthcare professionals in diagnosis and treatment planning.

Text-to-speech conversion using AI continues to be a well-established technology. AI can now generate natural-sounding speech with various accents and emotions, making it a valuable tool for various applications.

While significant wireless transmission of electricity over long distances remains a challenge, there has been progress in short-range wireless charging and localized energy transfer using AI-powered systems.

Note: From the current status of AI development, all the listed applications of AI are feasible. However, this question was asked by the UPSC in 2020 when Generative AI was yet to become mainstream. UPSC's official answer key gave 'B' as the correct answer.

Explanation

Article 85(1) of the Constitution empowers the President to summon each House of Parliament to meet at such time and place as he thinks fit, but six months shall not intervene between its last sitting in one Session and the date appointed for its first sitting in the next Session. So, the Constitution provides for the maximum gap between two sessions of Parliament, i.e. it cannot be more than six months. In other words, the Parliament should meet at least twice a year. Therefore the constitution prescribes a maximum gap but there is no minimum gap.

So, statement 1 and 3 are correct, and 2 is not correct.

Therefore the correct answer is (c).

Explanation

Statement 1 is correct. As per the data given in the Economic Survey 2019-2020, the weightage of food in the Consumer Price Index (CPI) Combined is 45.9% as compared to 24.4% in Wholesale Price Index (WPI).

Statement 2 is correct. The CPI measures the average change in prices over time that consumers pay for a basket of goods and services, commonly known as inflation, whereas WPI does not measure the average change in prices.

Statement 3 is incorrect. In April 2014, the RBI adopted the Consumer Price Index (CPI) as its key measure of inflation.

Hence , option A is the correct answer.

Explanation

Biochar is a solid product obtained during the pyrolysis of biomass. It is a porous, carbon-rich material that has a wide range of uses, with soil improvement, remediation, and pollution control playing the most significant roles. In agriculture, biochar is primarily used to increase crop nutrition, plant growth, and soil fertility.

Statement 1 is correct. Biochar can indeed be used as a part of the growing medium in vertical farming. It helps in improving the soil structure and fertility, thereby promoting plant growth.

Statement 2 is correct. Biochar promotes the growth of nitrogen-fixing microorganisms. These microorganisms play a crucial role in the nitrogen cycle by converting atmospheric nitrogen into a form that plants can use.

Statement 3 is correct. Biochar also enables the growing medium to retain water for a longer time. Its porous nature allows it to hold onto water and nutrients, making them readily available for plant roots.

Therefore, all the three statements are correct.

Explanation

Statement 1 is correct. Blockchain technology operates as a decentralized and transparent ledger that records transactions across a network of computers. The ledger is publicly accessible, allowing anyone to inspect the transactions recorded on it. Additionally, no single user or entity has control over the entire blockchain network, as it is distributed among multiple nodes.

Statement 2 is incorrect. While blockchain technology is best known for its association with cryptocurrencies like Bitcoin, the blockchain itself is capable of recording various types of data beyond just financial transactions. Blockchain can be used to record and verify any type of digital information, such as contracts, identity documents, supply chain data, and more.

Statement 3 is correct. Blockchain technology enables the development of decentralized applications (DApps) that can operate without the need for central authority or permission. Developers can create applications that utilize the basic features of blockchain, such as transparency, immutability, and decentralization, without requiring approval from a central entity.

Explanation

Statement 1 is correct. Pneumococcal Conjugate Vaccines (PCVs) are effective in preventing several serious diseases caused by Streptococcus pneumoniae bacteria. This includes pneumonia, meningitis (inflammation of the meninges surrounding the brain and spinal cord), and sepsis (a life-threatening blood infection).

Statement 2 is also correct. The growing prevalence of antibiotic-resistant strains of Streptococcus pneumoniae is a major concern. PCV vaccination helps reduce dependence on antibiotics, particularly for these resistant strains. This lowers the risk of antibiotic overuse and emergence of further resistance.

Statement 3 is incorrect. While most people experience no serious side effects with PCV vaccines, there can be mild reactions like redness, swelling, or soreness at the injection site. Serious allergic reactions are rare.

Explanation

Steel slag can be used for several purposes, and all of the options listed are valid applications.

Statement 1 is correct. Steel slag is a common and cost-effective material for use in road base construction due to its high durability, strength, and drainage properties.

Statement 2 is correct. Crushed steel slag can be used as an amendment for agricultural soil. It can improve drainage, provide some essential nutrients, and even help suppress weeds.

Statement 3 is correct. Steel slag can be partially substituted for some raw materials in cement production, reducing the need for quarrying and lowering the environmental impact of cement manufacturing.

Therefore, the correct answer is 1, 2, and 3.

Explanation

Expansionary Monetary Policy aims to stimulate economic activity by increasing the money supply and lowering interest rates.

Statement 1 is incorrect. Cut and optimize the Statutory Liquidity Ratio: This aligns with expansionary policy as it allows banks to lend more.

Statement 2 is correct. Increase the Marginal Standing Facility Rate: This goes against expansionary policy because it makes it more expensive for banks to borrow from RBI, potentially reducing liquidity.

Statement 3 is incorrect. Cut the Bank Rate and Repo Rate: This is a key tool for expansionary policy. Lowering these rates encourages banks to borrow from RBI and lend at lower rates to businesses and individuals, stimulating economic activity.

Therefore, increasing the Marginal Standing Facility Rate (MSF Rate) would contradict the goals of an expansionary monetary policy.

Explanation

In the Gupta Empire (c. 320 - 550 CE), the towns of Ghantasala, Kadura, and Chaul were renowned as vital ports handling foreign trade.

Ghantasala: Located on the banks of the Krishna River on the eastern coast of India (present-day Andhra Pradesh), Ghantasala served as a major port for maritime trade with Southeast Asia.

Kadura: Situated on the west coast (present-day Kalyan near Mumbai), Kadura served as a significant link for trade with West Asia and the Mediterranean region.

Chaul: Located south of Mumbai on the west coast (present-day Revdanda), Chaul was another important port town.

Explanation

Eco-friendly agriculture refers to farming practices that are sustainable and cause minimal harm to the environment.

Crop diversification is one such practice. It involves growing a variety of crops in the same area over different seasons. This method enhances soil health, reduces the need for excessive water and fertilizers, and boosts biodiversity in the ecosystem. By rotating crops, it also helps in preventing soil depletion and improves resilience against pests and diseases.

Legume intensification is another eco-friendly practice. Legumes are known to improve soil fertility by fixing nitrogen from the atmosphere. This reduces the need for synthetic fertilizers, making agriculture more sustainable.

Tensiometer is a useful tool in efficient water management. It measures the water tension in soil, which helps in determining the availability of water for crops. By ensuring that water is used efficiently, it reduces waste and promotes sustainable water usage, making it an eco-friendly farming practice.

Vertical farming involves growing crops in vertically stacked layers, often using advanced techniques like hydroponics, aeroponics, and aquaponics, which do not require soil. While this method can increase production and reduce land usage, it requires high energy consumption and specialized technology. Hence, it is not widely considered as an eco-friendly practice.

Therefore, the correct answer is A. 1, 2, and 3 only.

Explanation

In an economy, there are two main sectors: financial and non-financial.

The financial sector consists of institutions like banks, insurance companies, and investment firms. The non-financial sector encompasses everything else, including households, businesses (except financial institutions), and the government.

Non-financial debt refers to the total amount of money owed by the non-financial sector. This includes loans, credit card balances, and other outstanding liabilities. It's a way to measure the overall indebtedness of households, businesses, and the government.

Understanding Non-Financial Debt Components

• Household Debt: This includes various loans and credit obligations incurred by individual households.
• Corporate Debt: This refers to the money owed by businesses (excluding financial institutions) to various creditors.
• Government Debt: This represents the total amount of money borrowed by the government to finance its expenditures.

Therefore, all three options (1, 2, and 3) are considered non-financial debt in the Indian economy.

Explanation

Pallavas: The Pallava dynasty flourished in South India from around 275 CE to 897 CE. Mahendravarman I ruled from 600 to 630 CE, placing them as the earliest power to rise among the options provided.

Palas: The Pala dynasty ruled in eastern India from roughly 750 to 1161 CE. Gopala's reign is estimated to be between 750 and 770 CE, making them chronologically after the Pallavas.

Pratiharas: The Pratihara dynasty emerged in North India during the 8th century CE. King Bhoja's reign lasted from 836 to 885 CE, placing them later than both the Pallavas and Palas.

Cholas: The Chola dynasty rose to prominence in South India around the 9th century CE. Parantaka I ruled from 907 to 955 CE, making them the latest power to establish themselves among the given options.

Therefore, the correct chronological order is 2-4-1-3.

Explanation

The members of the G20 are Argentina, Australia, Brazil, Canada, China, France, Germany, India, Indonesia, Italy, Japan, Republic of Korea, Mexico, Russia, Saudi Arabia, South Africa, Turkey, United Kingdom, United States, and the European Union.

Hence option A is the correct answer.

Explanation

Statement 1 is correct: Fertigation is a method of delivering fertilizers to crops through an irrigation system. It involves the precise application of water-soluble or liquid fertilizers directly to the root zone of plants during the irrigation process. This technique allows for the controlled release of nutrients, ensuring that plants receive the right amount at the right time. Fertigation allows for the control of the pH of the irrigation water, which can be adjusted to the optimal level for nutrient absorption by the plants.

Statement 2 is incorrect: While fertigation does allow for the efficient application of many types of fertilizers, rock phosphate is not water-soluble and therefore cannot be applied efficiently through fertigation.

Statement 3 is correct: Because fertigation delivers nutrients directly to the root zone of plants, it increases the availability of nutrients to the plants.

Statement 4 is correct: Fertigation allows for the precise application of nutrients, which reduces the risk of nutrient leaching.

Therefore, options 1, 3, and 4 are correct.

Explanation

In India, cyber insurance covers (generally) the following

• Identity theft
• Cyber-bullying and cyber-stalking
• Cyber extortion
• Malware intrusion
• Financial loss due to unauthorized and fraudulent use of bank account, credit card, and mobile wallet
• Legal expenses arising out of any covered risk
• Social Media Cover
• Phishing Cover
• E-mail Spoofing
• Media Liability Claims Cover
• Cyber Extortion Cover
• Privacy Breach and Data Breach by Third Party.

Cyber insurance generally focuses on damages caused by cyber threats or electronic incidents, not physical damage to devices. Hence, statement 2 is incorrect.

Hence only options 1, 3, and 4 are correct.

Explanation

Fiscal Responsibility and Budget Management (FRBM) became an Act in 2003. The objective of the Act is to ensure inter-generational equity in fiscal management, long run macroeconomic stability, better coordination between fiscal and monetary policy, and transparency in fiscal operation of the Government. FRBM Act provides a legal institutional framework for fiscal consolidation.

The Act also requires the government to lay before the parliament three policy statements in each financial year namely

1. Medium Term Fiscal Policy Statement
2. Fiscal Policy Strategy Statement
3. Macroeconomic Framework Policy Statement

Explanation

The Ceylon frogmouth, Coppersmith barbet, Gray-chinned minivet, and White-throated redstart are all species of birds.

The Ceylon frogmouth is a species native to the Western Ghats and parts of Sri Lanka. Known for its unique frog-like appearance and nocturnal habits, it thrives in dense forests.

The Coppersmith barbet is a small, colorful bird found across the Indian subcontinent and parts of Southeast Asia. It is named after the sound it makes, which resembles the sound of a coppersmith striking metal.

The Gray-chinned minivet is a species commonly found in the Indian subcontinent and Southeast Asia. This bird is known for its vibrant plumage and its presence in hilly, forested areas.

The White-throated redstart is a striking bird found in regions of Nepal, Bhutan, central China, and the far northern parts of Myanmar and Northeast India. It is known for its contrasting black and white plumage and bright red tail feathers.

Explanation

Not depending on short-term foreign borrowings: This reduces exposure to capital flight. During a crisis, foreign investors may pull their money out of emerging markets like India, leading to rupee depreciation and financial instability. By limiting short-term foreign borrowings, India can lessen the impact of such capital flight.

Opening up to more foreign banks: While this might seem beneficial, it can also increase reliance on foreign capital. During a crisis, foreign banks might be more likely to restrict credit, negatively impacting the Indian economy.

Maintaining full capital account convertibility: This allows for the free movement of capital in and out of the country. While it can be beneficial in normal times, it can also exacerbate capital flight during a crisis.

Therefore, the most prudent strategy is to reduce dependence on short-term foreign borrowings to minimize the vulnerability caused by potential capital flight.

Hence, only statement 1 is correct. Hence, option A is the correct answer.

Explanation

Indigo, also known as "Blue Gold", was a highly profitable commodity in the European market during the 19th century. However, by the beginning of the 20th century, its cultivation in India declined significantly.

The main reason for the decline in indigo cultivation was its unprofitability in the world market due to new inventions. Synthetic dyes were invented in the late 19th century, which were cheaper and easier to produce than natural indigo. This led to a drop in the demand for natural indigo, making its cultivation unprofitable.

Therefore, the correct answer is B.

Explanation

In 1885, Bhikaji filed a petition for "restitution of conjugal rights" after 12 years of marriage.

Rukhmabai, who was married as a child, refused to live with her husband. Justice Pinhey ruled that Rukhmabai could not be forced into marriage against her will. In 1887, Rukhmabai chose to go to jail instead of living with her husband.

Queen Victoria dissolved the marriage in 1888 after Rukhmabai wrote a letter to her. Dadaji accepted monetary compensation to dissolve the marriage.

This case influenced the Age of Consent Act of 1891.

Explanation

Statement 1 is incorrect. OMT is measured up to the depth of the 26°C isotherm, but the 129-meter depth mentioned in the southwestern Indian Ocean during January-March is incorrect. The depth of the 26°C isotherm can vary depending on the region and season.

Statement 2 is correct. OMT collected during January-March helps in predicting the amount of rainfall during the monsoon. It is used to assess whether rainfall will be more or less than the long-term average, as variations in OMT influence monsoon behaviour.

Hence, option B is the correct answer.

Explanation

Statement 1 is not correct. Bilateral trade between India and Sri Lanka has increased by around 9 times between 2000-01 and 2018-19. Total trade between the two countries was US$ 6.2 billion in 2018-19, out of which India's exports to Sri Lanka were US$ 4.7 billion and imports were US$ 1.5 billion. Although India has always had a trade surplus with Sri Lanka, the gap has widened since 2008-09. In 2012-13 and 2016-17, the trade slumped, thus disturbing the steady increase in the graph.

Statement 2 is correct. According to the World Bank, India exports $2.25 billion worth of textile and clothing products to Bangladesh. In turn, it imports $336 million worth of textile and clothing products from Dhaka.

Statement 3 is not correct. Bangladesh is India's biggest trade partner in South Asia. Bilateral trade between India and Bangladesh has grown steadily over the last decade. India's exports to Bangladesh in FY 2018-19 stood at $9.21 billion and imports during the same period were at $1.04 billion.

Explanation

Statement 1 is correct: Desert National Park is located in Rajasthan and is one of the largest national parks in India, covering an area of around 3,162 km². It represents the Thar Desert ecosystem, featuring sand dunes, rocky terrain, and sparse vegetation. The park is spread across Jaisalmer and Barmer districts of Rajasthan.

Statement 2 is incorrect: Unlike some protected areas, human settlements exist within Desert National Park. Several villages and communities, including those engaged in livestock rearing, are located inside the park.

Statement 3 is correct: The park is one of the last strongholds of the Great Indian Bustard (Ardeotis nigriceps), which is critically endangered. Conservation efforts, including captive breeding programs, are ongoing to protect this bird. Therefore, the correct answer is that statements 1 and 3 are correct.

Explanation

Statement 1 is correct. Techniques like CRISPR-Cas9 allow the editing of genes in sperm or egg cells (germline cells) before fertilization. This can potentially correct genetic diseases passed on to future generations.

Statement 2 is correct. Genome editing in early embryos CRISPR and other techniques can be used to edit genes in embryos at a very early stage of development. This allows for correcting genetic defects before implantation in the womb, potentially preventing the child from inheriting the disease.

Statement 3 is correct. Scientists can reprogram adult human cells into induced pluripotent stem cells (hiPSCs) that have the potential to develop into any cell type. These hiPSCs can be injected into animal embryos, like pigs, to create chimeric embryos containing both human and animal cells. This technology is used for research purposes to study human development and disease.

All three statements are correct.

Explanation

Statement A is correct. Deindustrialisation of Indian traditional cottage and handicraft industry was a direct consequence of the industrial revolution in England along with colonization of India.

Statement B is incorrect. Machines were not introduced in the Indian textile industry in large numbers in the first half of the 19th century. Rather, the modern textile mills with imported machinery started taking baby steps in the 1850s in Bombay, Ahmedabad, and Calcutta. It was only after the first world war that Indian industrialization started taking fast steps.

Statement C is incorrect. The first railway line in India was laid between Bombay and Thane in 1853. Railway expansion was relatively slow even till mid-1860. It was only in the latter half of the 19th century that Railway expansion gathered pace in India.

Statement D is incorrect. Heavy duties were not imposed on the imports of British manufactures. In fact, the British goods were given duty-free trade permits, which further disadvantaged the Indian industries.

Explanation

Under the Kisan Credit Card (KCC) scheme, short-term credit support is provided to farmers for purposes that directly support agricultural activities and the farm household.

Statement 1 is correct. The KCC scheme provides working capital for the maintenance of farm assets, which includes things like irrigation, fertilizers, and labor costs.

Statement 2 is incorrect. The KCC scheme does not cover the purchase of capital-intensive assets such as combine harvesters, tractors, and mini trucks. These are typically financed through long-term loans, not short-term credit.

Statement 3 is correct. The KCC scheme provides credit for consumption requirements of the farm household, like daily needs and family expenditures.

Statement 4 is correct. The KCC scheme can also be used for post-harvest expenses, including costs for storage, transportation, and marketing of produce.

Statement 5 is incorrect. The construction of a family house and setting up of village cold storage facilities are not covered under the KCC scheme, as these are typically considered long-term capital expenditures.

The list of eligible activities for KCC are

• To meet the short term credit requirements for cultivation of crops
• Post-harvest expenses,
• Produce marketing loan
• Consumption requirements of farmer household.
• Working capital for maintenance of farm assets band activities allied to agriculture like dairy animals, inland fishery etc.
• Investment credit requirement for agriculture and allied activities like pumpsets, sprayers, dairy animals etc.

Hence, option B is the correct answer.

Explanation

The term "West Texas Intermediate" (WTI), often seen in news reports, refers to a grade of crude oil. WTI is used as a benchmark for oil pricing in North America.

Specifically, WTI is a light, sweet crude oil, meaning it has a low density and low sulfur content. This makes it easier and more desirable to refine into gasoline and other products. WTI serves as one of the main benchmarks for oil prices globally.

West Texas Intermediate (WTI) and Brent Crude are two of the most important global benchmarks for crude oil prices. Brent Index is used as a benchmark for oil pricing globally, including Europe, Asia, and Africa.

Explanation

Statement 1 is incorrect. In terms of short-term credit delivery to the agriculture sector, Scheduled Commercial Banks (SCBs) and Regional Rural Banks (RRBs) generally deliver more credit compared to District Central Cooperative Banks (DCCBs). SCBs and RRBs have a larger network and resources to provide credit to the agriculture sector.

Statement 2 is correct. One of the primary functions of DCCBs is indeed to provide funds to the Primary Agricultural Credit Societies (PACS). DCCBs act as the intermediary between the Reserve Bank of India (RBI) and PACS, facilitating the flow of credit from the central bank to the grassroots level through cooperative credit institutions.

Hence , option B is the correct answer.

Explanation

Statement 1 is correct: Coal ash, a by-product of coal combustion in power plants, contains various heavy metals including arsenic, lead, and mercury. These metals can pose environmental and health hazards. These toxic elements can leach into water bodies and contaminate soil.

Statement 2 is correct: The combustion of coal in power plants releases releases sulfur dioxide (SO₂), which contributes to acid rain and respiratory issues. It also emits oxides of nitrogen (NOₓ), which play a major role in smog formation and air pollution.

Statement 3 is correct: Indian coal, particularly the variety found in the eastern and central regions, is known for its high ash content (30-50%), which reduces its calorific value and increases pollution levels.Due to its high ash content, Indian thermal power plants generate large quantities of fly ash.

Therefore, all three statements are correct.

Explanation

The ruler who advised his subjects through the inscription quoted is Ashoka.

This inscription is part of the Major Rock Edict XII of Ashoka. Ashoka, who ruled the Mauryan Empire from 268 to 232 BCE, is known for his embrace of Buddhism and his efforts to promote peace and non-violence after a particularly bloody war. His edicts, inscribed on pillars and rocks throughout his empire, conveyed his messages to his subjects. This specific inscription emphasizes religious tolerance and respect for all faiths.

Explanation

Copper slag is a by-product generated during the extraction and refining of copper. It can be used as a partial replacement for sand in concrete production, thus reducing the demand for natural resources. This reduces the environmental impact associated with sand mining.

Cold mix asphalt technology involves producing asphalt mixtures at lower temperatures compared to traditional hot mix asphalt. This results in reduced energy consumption during production and lower emissions of greenhouse gases. Cold mix asphalt also allows for the use of recycled materials, further enhancing its environmental sustainability.

Geotextiles are synthetic materials used in road construction for various purposes such as soil stabilisation, drainage, and erosion control. They can help in reducing the need for excessive excavation and use of natural resources like stone and gravel, thereby minimizing environmental impact.

Hot mix asphalt technology involves producing asphalt mixtures at high temperatures. While it provides excellent performance properties for roads, it typically requires higher energy consumption during production compared to cold mix asphalt technology.

Portland cement is a key ingredient in concrete production. While it is widely used in construction, its production process is energy-intensive and emits significant amounts of carbon dioxide, contributing to greenhouse gas emissions.

Therefore, the correct answer is A. 1, 2, and 3 only.

Explanation

The correct answer is D. a part of the Constitution but has no legal effect independently of other parts.

The Preamble of the Indian Constitution sets out the guiding principles and objectives of the document. While it is an integral part of the Constitution (Kesavananda Bharati case), it cannot be directly enforced in a court of law.

The Supreme Court of India has clarified that the Preamble can be used to interpret ambiguous provisions within the Constitution but cannot be used to strike down laws as unconstitutional on its own. It serves as a guiding light for understanding the spirit and intent of the Constitution.

Explanation

Minimum Support Price (MSP): The government sets an MSP to ensure a minimum income for farmers. If the market price falls below the MSP, the government procures rice from farmers at the MSP. This can lead to higher rice prices for consumers if the government releases these stocks slowly or not at all.

Government's trading: Government agencies like the Food Corporation of India (FCI) procure and sell rice in the market. Large-scale procurement by the government can affect market availability and potentially drive up prices.

Government's stockpiling: The government maintains buffer stocks of rice for food security purposes. If these stocks are depleted due to various reasons, it can lead to a shortage and price hikes.

Consumer subsidies: The government provides subsidized rice to certain sections of the population through schemes like PDS (Public Distribution System). This can influence overall demand and market dynamics. If the subsidies are substantial, it can put upward pressure on prices.

Therefore, all these factors can play a role in influencing the price of rice in India. Hence , option D is the correct answer.

Explanation

The terms "kulyavapa" and "dronavapa" denote measurements of land used in ancient India.

Kulyavapa: This refers to the area of land required to sow one "kula" of grain. The exact amount of land a kula represented could vary depending on the region and type of grain.

Dronavapa: This signified the area required to sow one "drona" of grain. Similar to kula, the size of a drona could also vary based on location and grain type.

Explanation

The term "Ulgulan" or "the Great Tumult" refers to a significant tribal uprising in the history of India.

The rebellion (ulgulan) of the Munda tribesmen, led by Birsa Munda, occurred during 1899-1900. For over thirty years the Munda sardars had been struggling against the destruction of their system of common land holdings by the intrusion of jagirdar, thikadar (revenue farmers) and merchant moneylenders. Birsa Munda led the Munda tribe in a rebellion against the British colonial rule and the feudal system imposed by them.

Explanation

The phrase that best defines the nature of the Hundi generally referred to in the sources of the post-Harsha period is A bill of exchange.

Hundi as a Financial Instrument Hundis were instruments used in trade and credit transactions during the medieval period in India.

Functions of a Bill of Exchange A bill of exchange is a written order issued by one person (drawer) to another (drawee) to pay a specified sum of money to a third party (payee) at a future date. This aligns with the functionality of a Hundi.

Merchants used Hundis to facilitate trade by

• Securing Payments: They could issue a Hundi to the seller upon receiving goods, instructing their bank or agent (drawee) at the seller's location to pay the specified amount.
• Obtaining Credit: Merchants could also use Hundis to obtain credit. They could draw a Hundi against future earnings and have it discounted by a money lender for immediate cash.

Explanation

Pronuclear transfer, in the context of human reproductive technology, is used for preventing mitochondrial diseases in offspring.

Here's why

• Mitochondria: These are cellular organelles with their own DNA (mitochondrial DNA or mtDNA) separate from nuclear DNA. Mutations in mtDNA can cause various inherited mitochondrial diseases that can affect organs like muscles, nerves, and the brain.
• Pronuclear Transfer Technique: This technique involves the fertilization of an egg with sperm. Then, the pronuclei (nuclei before fusion) from both sperm and egg are removed. These pronuclei are then injected into a donor egg that has had its own pronuclei removed, but has healthy mtDNA.

Explanation

Option A is incorrect. Aksai Chin is located to the east of Ladakh, whereas the Siachen Glacier is situated to the northwest of it.

Option B is incorrect. Leh is located to the south of the Siachen Glacier. The glacier lies in the eastern Karakoram range, far north of Leh.

Option C is incorrect. Gilgit is in the Gilgit-Baltistan region, which is west of the Siachen Glacier. The glacier is not located to the north of Gilgit.

Option D is correct. The Siachen Glacier is located north of the Nubra Valley in the eastern Karakoram range of the Himalayas. It is the world's highest battlefield, where India maintains a military presence.

Hence, option D is the correct answer

Explanation

Qualifications a person should possess to become eligible for appointment as a minister are

• He should be a citizen of India.
• He should be above 25 years of age
• He should not hold any office of profit under the government of India
• If he is not a member of Parliament, then he should be elected to the Lok Sabha or the Rajya Sabha within six months after he is appointed a minister.

Statement 1 is incorrect. A person is eligible to vote at the age of 18 years while it is necessary to have the age of 25 years to become a minister.

Statement 2 is incorrect. Section 8 (3) of the RP Act states that if an MP or MLA is convicted for any other crime and is sent to jail for 2 years or more, he/ she will be disqualified for 6 years from the time of release.

Explanation

Statement 1 is incorrect. Panini (c. 5th-4th century BCE) was a grammarian who wrote the Ashtadhyayi, a foundational text of Sanskrit grammar. Pushyamitra Shunga (r. 185-145 BCE) was the founder of the Shunga dynasty, which ruled after the Mauryan Empire. Their timelines don't align.

Statement 2 is incorrect. Amarasimha (c. 4th-5th century CE) was a scholar and lexicographer who compiled the Amarakosha, a Sanskrit thesaurus. He was one of the nine gems in the court of Vikramaditya, Gupta emperor. Harshavardhana (r. 606-647 CE) was a ruler of the Vardhana dynasty. Thus, there was no overlap between both of them.

Statement 3 is correct. Kalidasa (c. 4th-5th century CE) is considered one of the greatest Sanskrit poets and dramatists. His works include Abhijnakuntalam (Shakuntala) and Meghadtam (The Cloud Messenger). The Gupta Empire, under Chandra Gupta II (r. 375-415 CE), is known as a golden age of Indian literature, and Kalidasa is believed to have flourished during this period.

Explanation

Gandhism envisions a decentralized, self-governing society grounded in principles of cooperation and non-violence. This vision is often referred to as Ramarajya, which represents an ideal state of harmony, justice, and community welfare. In this ideal society, government intervention would be minimal, and local communities would play a significant role in decision-making and managing their own affairs. The focus would be on mutual support and sustainable living, where social and economic activities are guided by ethical and spiritual values rather than power and authority.

Marxism, on the other hand, advocates for the creation of a classless, communist society. In this vision, the state eventually "withers away" as social and economic inequalities disappear. With the abolition of private property and class distinctions, the need for a formal government structure would no longer exist. Marxism envisions a society where people govern themselves collectively, without the need for state control or coercive institutions.

Though these ideologies differ in their methods and underlying principles, Gandhism focusing on moral and community-based governance and Marxism focusing on economic and class struggle, both ultimately aim for a future society free from the traditional structures of the state, where governance is decentralized and rooted in the well-being of the people.

Hence the correct answer is option A. The Final Goal of a Stateless Society.

Explanation

Statement 1 is incorrect: As per the report National Compilation on Dynamic Groundwater Resources of India, 2017 of CGWA, out of the total 6881 assessment units (Blocks/Mandals/ Talukas) in the country, 1186 units in various States (17%) have been categorized as Over-Exploited, 313 units (5%) as Critical, and 972 units (14%) as Semi-Critical.

Statement 2 is correct: The CGWA was established in 1997 under Section 3(3) of the Environment (Protection) Act, 1986 to regulate and manage groundwater resources.

Statement 3 is correct: India has the largest area under groundwater irrigation in the world. This is due to the country's heavy reliance on agriculture, which is predominantly rain-fed.

Therefore, the correct answer is B. Statements 2 and 3 only.

Explanation

Pair 1 is correctly matched. Bhilsa, also known as Vidisha, is located in the present-day state of Madhya Pradesh. It was the capital of the Sunga dynasty.

Pair 2 is incorrect. Dwarasamudra, also known as Halebidu, is located in the present-day state of Karnataka, not Maharashtra. The Hoysalas dynasty ruled from the Dwarasamudra.

Pair 3 is correctly matched. Girinagar, also known as Junagadh, is located in the present-day state of Gujarat. Mauryan period rock inscription found here.

Pair 4 is incorrect. Sthanesvara, also known as Sthaneshwar or Thanesar, is located in the present-day state of Haryana, not Uttar Pradesh. It was the initial capital of the Vardhan dynasty.

Explanation

The MPLAD scheme lets MPs recommend works for local infrastructure and development needs in their constituency. The focus is on creating durable assets that benefit the community. Certain works are prohibited under MPLAD guidelines, which MPs must follow.

The scheme requires MPs to allocate at least 15% of the MPLADS entitlement for the year to areas inhabited by the Scheduled Caste population and 7.5% for areas inhabited by the Scheduled Tribe population. If there are insufficient tribal populations in the MP's constituency, they can recommend this amount for the creation of community assets in tribal areas outside their constituency, but within their State of election. If a state does not have Scheduled Tribe inhabited areas, this amount can be utilized in Scheduled Caste areas.

Funds released to the District Authority by the Government of India under the MPLAD scheme are non-lapsable, meaning that funds left in the district can be carried forward and utilized in subsequent years.

The District Authority is responsible for coordinating and supervising the works under the scheme at the district level. They also inspect at least 10% of the works under implementation every year.

Based on the above information, the correct answer is (d).

Explanation

The Preamble, Directive Principles of State Policy, and Fundamental Duties of the Constitution of India reflect the principles and provisions of the Universal Declaration of Human Rights (1948).

The Preamble outlines the philosophical foundations of the Indian Constitution which is closely aligned with the Universal Declaration of Human Rights.

The Directive Principles of State Policy are guidelines for the framing of laws by the government, aiming at creating a social order characterized by justice, liberty, equality, and fraternity as outlined in the Declaration.

The Fundamental Duties, though primarily obligations of the citizens, also reflect the individual's duty towards the community as emphasized in the Universal Declaration.

Explanation

Statement 1 is correct. Plant cells have rigid cell walls made of cellulose, a complex carbohydrate, which animal cells lack. Animal cells rely on a plasma membrane for structure and protection.

Statement 2 is incorrect. Both plant and animal cells have a plasma membrane, a phospholipid bilayer that controls what enters and leaves the cell. It's a fundamental component for all cells.

Statement 3 is correct. Mature plant cells typically have a single, large central vacuole that stores water, nutrients, and waste products. Animal cells can have vacuoles, but they are usually smaller and more numerous.

Explanation

Statement 1 is incorrect. After the 1991 economic liberalization, worker productivity increased both in urban and rural areas. While urban areas experienced higher growth, rural areas also saw improvements, especially with the rise in non-farm activities.

Statement 2 is incorrect. The percentage share of rural areas in the workforce has steadily decreased since the liberalization. This is because more people have moved to urban areas for employment in the industrial and service sectors, contributing to the growing urban workforce.

Statement 3 is correct. In rural areas, the growth of the non-farm economy increased significantly. With liberalization, the diversification of rural economies into sectors like manufacturing, construction, and services grew, reducing the dependency on agriculture.

Statement 4 is correct. The growth rate in rural employment decreased after 1991. While the rural economy diversified, the agricultural sector did not provide enough employment opportunities to absorb all the labor, leading to lower growth in rural employment.

Hence , option B is the correct answer.

Explanation

In 1888, Walangkar began publishing the monthly journal titled Vital-Vidhvansak (Destroyer of Brahmanical or Ceremonial Pollution), which was the first to have the untouchable people as its target audience.

He also wrote articles for Marathi-language newspapers such as Sudharak and Deenbandhu, as well as composed couplets in Marathi that were intended to inspire the people. Having read Hindu religious texts, Walangkar concluded that caste was contrived by the Aryan invaders to control the Anaryans (indigenous people).

In 1889, he published Vital Viduvansan (Annihilation of Ceremonial Pollution), which protested the position of untouchables in society and raised consciousness regarding what those people should expect. He addressed this pamphlet, which was crafted as a collection of 26 questions, to the elites of Maharashtrian society.

T. N. Valunjkar says that Walangkar "can be regarded as the first intellectual rebel from the Dalit community to have launched a scathing criticism of the caste system and the position of dalits in it."

Explanation

Pair 1 is incorrect. The Mekong River originates in the Tibetan Plateau and flows through China, Myanmar, Laos, Thailand, Cambodia, and Vietnam before emptying into the South China Sea, not the Andaman Sea.

Pair 2 is incorrect. The Thames River flows entirely within England and empties into the North Sea, not the Irish Sea.

Pair 3 is correct. The Volga River is the longest river in Europe. It originates in Russia and flows into the Caspian Sea.

Pair 4 is correct. The Zambezi River originates in Zambia and flows through Angola, Namibia, Botswana, Zimbabwe, and Mozambique before emptying into the Indian Ocean.

So, the correct pairs are 3 and 4. Hence, option C is the correct answer.

Explanation

Statement 1 is correct. Merchandise trade deficit is the largest component of India's current account deficit. As per RBIs data, India's Merchandise exports during April-August 2019- 2020 were USD 133.14 billion, as compared to USD 210.39 billion of imports during the same period.

Statement 2 is incorrect. Commodity-wise composition of imports between 2011-12 and 2018-19 shows that imports of iron and steel, organic chemicals, industrial machinery have registered positive growth rates as % of share in imports.

Statement 3 is correct. India's net services (service exports - service imports) have been in surplus. India's Service exports during April-August 2019- 2020 were USD 67.24 billion, as compared to USD 39.25 billion of imports during the same period.

Statement 4 is correct. Current Account Deficit (CAD) or trade deficit is the shortfall between exports and imports. As per Economic Survey 2019-20, India's CAD was 2.1% in 2018-19, and 1.5% of GDP in H1 of 2019-20.

Therefore, the correct answer is (d) 1, 3 and 4 only. (Though, UPSC has not considered this question for marking.)

Explanation

The description provided matches the requirements for cotton cultivation.

• Subtropical nature and frost sensitivity: Cotton is a subtropical crop and is sensitive to frost. A hard frost can damage the cotton plants, making them unsuitable for cold regions.
• Frost-free days: Cotton requires at least 210 frost-free days, which is typical for its growth cycle. It thrives in regions with a long growing season, free from frost.
• Rainfall requirement: Cotton needs 50 to 100 cm of rainfall. The crop is drought-tolerant, but it still requires moderate rainfall for optimal growth.
• Soil type: Cotton grows best in light, well-drained soil that can retain moisture, providing the right balance for its deep root system.

Cotton is the right answer. Hence, option A is the correct answer.

Explanation

Statement 1 is incorrect. Jet streams occur in both the Northern and Southern Hemispheres. They are fast-moving air currents found at high altitudes, typically around 10-15 kilometers above the Earth's surface, and exist in both hemispheres.

Statement 2 is correct. Not all cyclones develop an eye. Only certain strong cyclones, especially intense hurricanes or typhoons, develop a well-defined eye—a calm, low-pressure area at the center of the cyclone surrounded by the strongest winds.

Statement 3 is incorrect. The temperature in the eye can be several degrees Celsius warmer (typically 2–10°C) than the outer regions of the storm. This warmth is due to subsiding (sinking) air in the eye, which compresses and heats up adiabatically. Hence , option C is the correct answer.

Explanation

The immediate effect on aggregate money supply in the economy, if you withdraw Rs. 1,00,000 in cash from your Demand Deposit Account at your bank, will be “No change”.

Reason: Aggregate money supply refers to the total amount of money circulating in the economy, including both cash and deposits in commercial banks.

• M3 = M1 + Time Deposits with Banks Where:
• M1 = Currency in circulation + Demand deposits with banks + Other deposits with the central bank

When you withdraw cash from your demand deposit account, you are simply converting your deposit (which is part of the money supply) into currency (also part of the money supply).

The total amount of money in the system remains the same, just the composition (ratio of cash to deposits) changes.

Explanation

In the context of the International Monetary Fund (IMF), "Gold Tranche" (also referred to as "Reserve Tranche") refers to a specific portion of a member country's quota that can be accessed under specific conditions. Here's a breakdown

International Monetary Fund (IMF): An international organization that works to promote global financial stability and economic cooperation.

Quota: The amount of financial resources a member country is obligated to contribute to the IMF. This contribution is based on the country's economic size and importance in the global trade system.

Reserve Tranche: The first 25% of a member country's quota that can be accessed without needing IMF approval or paying any interest or service charges. It's essentially a readily available credit line.

Hence, option D is the correct answer.

Explanation

Lord Richard Wellesley, the Governor-General of India from 1798 to 1805, established the Fort William College at Calcutta. The purpose of this institution was to educate European administrators about the Oriental culture, tradition, law, and administration to better coordinate in the governance of India.

So, the primary purpose of establishing the Fort William College was to train British civilians for administrative purposes in India.This was part of Wellesley's broader strategy to strengthen the administrative capabilities of the British in India.

Explanation

Statement 1 is correct. The bud chip method involves raising sugarcane settlings in a nursery before transplanting them into the main field. This method reduces seed material requirements by using only the bud instead of the entire sett, leading to cost savings and better efficiency.

Statement 2 is incorrect. Multi-budded setts generally have a higher germination percentage than single-budded setts. Single-budded setts may face more difficulty in germination compared to setts with multiple buds, which provide better shoot emergence.

Statement 3 is incorrect. Under adverse weather conditions, large setts have better survival rates because they store more nutrients and moisture. Single-budded setts are more vulnerable to unfavorable conditions and may have lower survival rates.

Statement 4 is correct. Tissue culture techniques are successfully used for sugarcane cultivation. Settlings prepared from tissue culture help in producing disease-free, high-yielding plants and allow rapid multiplication of quality planting material.

Hence, option C is the correct answer.

Explanation

Article 38(1) of the Indian Constitution mandates that the State shall strive to promote the welfare of the people by securing and protecting a social order in which justice (social, economic, and political) forms the foundation of all institutions in the nation. This article emphasizes the importance of creating a system where justice is not just theoretical but embedded in every aspect of national life, influencing policies, governance, and society as a whole.

This provision is part of the Directive Principles of State Policy (DPSP), which are guidelines for the State to follow in establishing a just society.

Explanation

Untouchability is a form of discrimination that violates the principle of equality among citizens, regardless of caste. To uphold this principle, Article 17 of the Constitution explicitly abolishes untouchability, making it one of the five rights under the broader Right to Equality (Articles 14-18). Therefore, the correct answer is option D.

Explanation

Statement 1 is correct. The Interest Coverage Ratio (ICR) helps in understanding the present risk of a firm’s ability to pay interest on its debt. A low ICR indicates higher risk, as the firm may not have enough earnings to cover its interest obligations.

Statement 2 is correct. The ICR is also used to assess emerging risks for a firm. A declining ICR over time can signal growing difficulties in servicing debt, which can be important for banks evaluating the risk of granting new loans.

Statement 3 is incorrect. A higher Interest Coverage Ratio actually indicates better ability to service debt, not worse. A high ratio means the firm has a sufficient earnings buffer to cover its interest expenses, which is seen as a positive sign by creditors.

Hence , option A is the correct answer.

Explanation

Public investment in agriculture refers to government expenditures aimed at improving the agricultural sector, including infrastructure development, technological improvements, and providing institutional support.

Statement 1 is incorrect. Fixing the Minimum Support Price (MSP) is a policy decision, not an investment. While it affects the agricultural sector, it is not a direct public investment in terms of capital expenditure.

Statement 2 is correct. The computerization of Primary Agricultural Credit Societies (PACS) is a public investment because it involves government funds directed towards modernizing agricultural credit systems, enhancing efficiency, and accessibility for farmers.

Statement 3 is correct. Social Capital development is a public investment in agriculture, as it involves building networks and community-based resources that help farmers improve productivity and access to resources.

Statement 4 is incorrect. Free electricity supply is more of a subsidy, not a direct public investment in the form of capital expenditure.

Statement 5 is incorrect. Waiver of agricultural loans is a policy measure aimed at alleviating farmer debt but does not qualify as an investment in infrastructure or capital.

Statement 6 is correct. The setting up of cold storage facilities by the government is a direct public investment aimed at improving agricultural infrastructure and reducing post-harvest losses.

Hence , option C is the correct answer.

Explanation

Statement 1 is correct. The persons eligible for getting free legal services include

• Women and children
• Members of SC/ST
• Industrial workmen
• Victims of mass disaster, violence, flood, drought, earthquake, industrial disaster
• Disabled persons
• Persons in custody
• Persons whose annual income does not exceed 1 lakh
• Victims of trafficking in human beings or begar .

There is provision for free legal aid to transgenders up to 2 lakhs in Delhi. (But it is yet to be implemented at an all India level)

Statement 3 is not correct. There is free aid to members of SC and ST community but not for OBCs.

Statement 4 is not correct. Senior citizens eligibility for free legal aid depends on the Rules framed by the respective State Governments in this regard. In Delhi, for example, senior citizens are eligible for free legal aid subject to a prescribed ceiling of annual income. Therefore, all senior citizens are not eligible for free aid.

Hence, A seems to be the most appropriate option among the given list.

Explanation

Critical Tiger Habitats (CTH), also known as core areas of tiger reserves, are identified under the Wild Life Protection Act, 1972 based on scientific evidence that such areas are required to be kept as inviolate for the purpose of tiger conservation.

Among the options given, Nagarjunsagar-Srisailam Tiger Reserve has the largest area under 'Critical Tiger Habitat'. It spreads over five districts and the total area of the tiger reserve is 3,728 sq. km.

Explanation

IAEA safeguards are a set of technical safeguards applied by the IAEA to independently verify any nuclear facilities to check if it is not misused or deviated from peaceful uses.

IAEA Safeguards are meant to understand if imported/enriched uranium is not used for non-peaceful purposes.

New reactors under IAEA safeguards The decision will be based on the source of uranium.

Explanation

A constitutional government is, by definition, a limited government. In a constitutional government, the powers of the government are restricted by a constitution. This document sets out the rules, principles, and framework within which the government must operate.

One of the core features of a constitutional government is the separation of powers. This principle divides the governmental authority into distinct branches (legislative, executive, and judiciary) to ensure that no single branch gains too much power.

It also guarantees fundamental rights, ensuring government actions remain within a legal framework.

Thus, a constitutional government operates under checks and balances, preventing absolute power and upholding the rule of law.

Explanation

Option A is incorrect. Foreign Direct Investment (FDI) typically involves investment in unlisted companies or companies that involve a direct ownership stake, not just investments through capital instruments in listed companies.

Option B is correct. FDI is considered a non-debt creating capital flow because it involves equity investments that do not require repayment, unlike loans or debt instruments. This type of investment brings in long-term capital and management expertise, which helps in the development of industries in the host country.

Option C is incorrect. FDI does not involve debt-servicing. Unlike loans or bonds, FDI involves ownership stakes, and thus, there is no obligation to pay interest or principal repayments.

Option D is incorrect. The investment in Government securities by foreign institutional investors (FIIs) is considered foreign portfolio investment (FPI), not FDI. FDI focuses on acquiring a substantial ownership stake in a company, whereas FPI involves short-term investments in financial assets.

Hence , option B is the correct answer.

Explanation

Statement 1 is correct: Zero tillage is a method of farming that involves sowing crop seeds directly into the soil without disturbing it. This method has several advantages. In zero tillage, the residue of the previous crop is left on the field, which acts as a natural mulch, reducing soil erosion and improving soil fertility. Therefore, there is no need to burn the residue of the previous crop before sowing wheat.

Statement 2 is correct: In zero tillage, seeds are directly planted into the soil, eliminating the need for a nursery of rice saplings. This not only saves time and labor but also reduces the cost of cultivation.

Statement 3 is correct: Carbon sequestration refers to the process of capture and long-term storage of atmospheric carbon dioxide. In zero tillage, the carbon in the crop residue is returned to the soil, which helps in carbon sequestration.

Therefore, all the three statements are correct.

Explanation

The following statements are correct concerning the Indian economy:

• Commercial Paper is a short-term unsecured promissory note. It's a money market instrument issued by companies to raise short-term funds.
• Call Money is a short-term finance used for interbank transactions. Banks borrow or lend money from each other for overnight periods to meet their liquidity requirements.

Incorrect statements:

• Certificate of Deposit is not issued by the Reserve Bank of India. It's a negotiable instrument issued by commercial banks to depositors for a fixed maturity period at a predetermined interest rate.
• Zero-Coupon Bonds can be long-term or short-term, but they are not issued by Scheduled Commercial Banks. These bonds don't pay periodic interest, but are sold at a discount to their face value. The difference between the purchase price and the maturity value represents the return on investment.

Therefore, the correct codes are 1 and 3 only.

Explanation

Option B is the correct answer. A parliamentary system of government is one in which the executive is responsible to the legislature. This responsibility means that the executive stays in power as long as it enjoys the confidence of the house. The moment the confidence is lost, it can be removed by Parliament by passing the no-confidence motion. This is the same feature which hampers the stability of the parliamentary system.

Options A and C are incorrect. Parliamentary system functions irrespective of whether all parties have representation. The government is not directly elected by the people but indirectly through their representative in Parliament. Therefore, the instrument to remove the government through public vote is not available in the parliamentary system; this is a feature found in direct democracies.

Option D goes against the fundamental principle of parliamentary democracy which requires an executive responsible to the legislature.

Therefore the correct answer is B.

Explanation

Statement 1 is incorrect. Sthaviravadins, also known as Theravadins, belong to the branch of Buddhism known as Theravada, which is distinct from Mahayana Buddhism.

Statement 2 is correct. The Lokottaravadin sect emerged as an offshoot of the Mahasanghika sect of Buddhism. Lokottaravada means "transcendentalist" or "those who consider themselves above or beyond the world."

Statement 3 is correct. The Mahasanghika sect of Buddhism was one of the early Buddhist schools that existed alongside other early Buddhist schools, such as the Sthaviravadins. The Mahasanghikas are believed to have played a role in the development of Mahayana Buddhism, which saw the deification of the Buddha and the emergence of new sutras and doctrines.

Explanation

The term "paramitas" in the cultural history of India refers to Perfections that have to be achieved by a Bodhisattva.

Paramitas are virtues or perfections that Mahayana Buddhists believe must be cultivated and perfected by Bodhisattvas on the path to enlightenment.

These perfections include generosity (dana), moral conduct (sila), patience (kshanti), diligence (virya), meditation (dhyana), and wisdom (prajna). Practising and perfecting these virtues are considered essential for Bodhisattvas to attain Buddhahood and to help others achieve liberation from suffering.

Therefore, option C is the correct description of the term "paramitas."

Explanation

Askot Wildlife Sanctuary (Uttarakhand): Musk deer are found in the high altitudes of the Himalayan region. Askot Wildlife Sanctuary, located in Uttarakhand, is specifically known for conserving the musk deer and its habitat.

Gangotri National Park (Uttarakhand): Gangotri National Park, also located in Uttarakhand, is another high altitude region where musk deer can be found.

Kishanpur Wildlife Sanctuary (Uttar Pradesh): This sanctuary primarily consists of terai grasslands and does not provide a suitable habitat for musk deer.

Manas National Park (Assam): This park is located in the northeastern plains and is home to species like tigers, rhinos, and elephants, but not musk deer.

Therefore, the most likely places to find the musk deer in its natural habitat are Askot Wildlife Sanctuary and Gangotri National Park.

Explanation

Statement 1 is incorrect: The Supreme Court ruled that Aadhaar metadata cannot be stored for more than six months, which invalidated the provision in the Aadhaar Act that allowed the storage of such data for up to five years.

Statement 2 is correct: The Supreme Court struck down Section 57 which allowed private corporations to verify Aadhaar data. The Court held this provision unconstitutional, as it was seen to violate privacy rights.

Statement 3 is incorrect: The 2018 Supreme Court judgment declared that making Aadhaar mandatory for services beyond welfare schemes, including financial services like insurance or for preventing money laundering, was unconstitutional. In response to this ruling, the IRDAI issued an advisory in 2019, clarifying that Aadhaar is not mandatory for obtaining insurance. It also withdrew its earlier 2017 policy that had made Aadhaar compulsory for insurance in the context of anti-money laundering measures.

Statement 4 is correct: In the Aadhaar verdict, the Supreme Court upheld Section 7 of the Aadhaar Act, which allows the Central or State Governments to make Aadhaar authentication mandatory for receiving subsidies, benefits, or services funded by the Consolidated Fund of India. The Court defined welfare schemes as those funded by the Consolidated Fund of India, thus validating the use of Aadhaar for such schemes.

Therefore, the correct answer is B. 2 and 4 only.

Explanation

Article 50 of the Indian Constitution recommends State take efforts to separate the judiciary from the executive in the public services of the State.

Therefore the correct answer is B.

Explanation

Statement 1 is correct. The Trade-Related Investment Measures (TRIMS) agreement under the World Trade Organization (WTO) prohibits quantitative restrictions on imports by foreign investors. This means that countries cannot impose conditions like mandatory local sourcing or trade-balancing requirements that distort free trade.

Statement 2 is incorrect. TRIMS only applies to trade in goods, not services. The regulation of trade in services falls under the General Agreement on Trade in Services (GATS), not TRIMS.

Statement 3 is correct. TRIMS is not directly concerned with the regulation of foreign investments. Instead, it focuses on investment measures that affect trade in goods, ensuring that they do not create barriers to international trade.

Hence , option C is the correct answer.

Explanation

Major minerals are those specified in the first schedule appended in the MMDR Act. There is no official definition for major minerals in the MMDR Act.

Bentonite is a minor mineral. It is used in drilling mud, foundry sand, and civil engineering applications.

Chromite is a major mineral. It is the only ore of chromium, essential for stainless steel and alloy manufacturing.

Kyanite is a major mineral. It is a refractory mineral used in ceramics and high-temperature industries.

Sillimanite is a major mineral. It is also a refractory mineral with applications in metallurgy and industrial furnaces.

Therefore, Chromite, Kyanite and Sillimanite are major minerals, whereas Bentonite is a minor mineral.

Therefore, the correct answer is D.

Explanation

Statement 1 is correct: Female elephants, particularly older and more experienced ones, often lead the herd, while males may roam alone or form bachelor groups.

Statement 2 is correct: The gestation period for elephants is indeed one of the longest among mammals, ranging from about 18 to 22 months.

Statement 3 is incorrect: Female elephants can continue to reproduce well into their 40s and sometimes even into their 50s, although their reproductive capability tends to decrease with age.

Statement 4 is incorrect: Kerala does have a significant elephant population, but the highest elephant population in India is typically found in the state of Karnataka, followed by Assam.

Explanation

The Rajya Sabha and the Lok Sabha, the two houses of India's Parliament, have different powers and functions. While the Lok Sabha is the lower house with members directly elected by the people, the Rajya Sabha is the upper house with members indirectly elected by the states.

However, when it comes to amending the Constitution, both houses have equal powers. According to Article 368 of the Indian Constitution, any amendment to the Constitution requires the approval of both the Rajya Sabha and the Lok Sabha.

Therefore, for a constitutional amendment to be valid, it must be approved by both houses of Parliament, giving them equal powers in the process.

Explanation

The question is asking about the raw materials that can be used for the production of biofuels according to India�s National Policy on Biofuels.

Cassava is a starch-rich root vegetable that can be used to produce biofuel.

Damaged wheat grains, which are unfit for human consumption, can also be used to produce biofuel.

Groundnut seeds are not mentioned in the National Policy on Biofuels as a raw material for biofuel production.

Horse gram is also not mentioned in the National Policy on Biofuels as a raw material for biofuel production.

Rotten potatoes, which are unfit for human consumption, can be used to produce biofuel.

Sugar beet is a plant whose root contains a high concentration of sucrose and it is grown commercially for sugar production. It can also be used to produce biofuel.

Therefore, according to India�s National Policy on Biofuels, Cassava, Damaged wheat grains, Rotten potatoes, and Sugar beet can be used as raw materials for the production of biofuels.

Explanation

Solar pumps provide a clean, energy-efficient, and sustainable alternative to traditional electric and fuel-driven pump sets. They play a crucial role in environmentally friendly agriculture and can be implemented in both developed and underdeveloped regions. The main components in a solar pumping system include a photovoltaic (PV) array, an electric motor and a pump. Solar water pumping systems are classified as either direct current (DC) or alternating current (AC) systems based on the motors ability. Recently, the concept of brushless DC (BLDC) motors for solar pumping water applications was presented as well.

Statement 1 is incorrect: Solar power can be used to run both surface pumps and submersible pumps. The type of pump does not limit the use of solar power.

Statement 2 is incorrect: Solar power can be used to run both centrifugal pumps and piston pumps. The type of pump, whether it's a centrifugal pump or a piston pump, does not limit the use of solar power.

Hence, both statements 1 and 2 are incorrect.

Explanation

Statement 1 is correct. Like most of the pulses in India, Black gram pulse too can be cultivated both in kharif as well as in rabi season in India.

Statement 2 is incorrect. Chickpea pulse, also known as Chana, are the major pulse produced in India. It contributes more than 48% of the total pulse production in India. Since statement 1 is correct and 2 is incorrect, statement 3 is also incorrect through elimination.

Statement 3 is incorrect. The overall trend of area, production and yield of the last three plan periods have shown an increasing trend in production and productivity of Kharif Pulses.

The overall trend of area, production and yield of the last three plan periods have shown an increasing trend in the area however, production and productivity of Rabi Pulses declined during the XIth plan period from the Xth plan period and significantly increased during the XIIth plan period. Hence, option A is the correct answer.

Explanation

Bureaucracy, in India, refers to the permanent administrative machinery that carries out the day-to-day operations of the government. This includes implementing laws, policies, and programs formulated by the legislative and executive branches.

Explanation

The Wildlife Protection Act, 1972, provides for the protection of wild animals, birds, and plants. It classifies species into six schedules, each offering different levels of protection.

Schedule VI of the Act pertains to certain plants that are prohibited from cultivation and planting without a license. Therefore, If a plant species is listed under Schedule VI, it means a license is required for its cultivation.

The Wild Life (Protection) Amendment Act, 2022 amended the Wild Life (Protection) Act, 1972. The amendment reduced the number of schedules from six to four, simplifying wildlife classification and protection levels. Additionally, the Act also aligned the provisions with CITES (Convention on International Trade in Endangered Species of Wild Fauna and Flora) by introducing a separate schedule (Sch. IV) for species covered under CITES.

Explanation

Statement 1 is correct. Carbon nanotubes are being explored for their potential use as drug and antigen carriers in the human body. Their unique properties allow them to attach drugs or antigens and deliver them to specific target cells.

Statement 2 is incorrect. While research is ongoing, using carbon nanotubes for artificial blood capillaries in the human body is still in the theoretical or experimental stages.

Statement 3 is correct. Carbon nanotubes show promise in developing biosensors due to their high electrical conductivity and sensitivity to changes in their environment. This makes them suitable for detecting biomolecules like enzymes, DNA, or toxins.

Statement 4 is partially true. Some studies have found that carbon nanotubes are non-degradable, also some studies have shown them to be degradable.

The official answer key of the UPSC has given 'C' as the correct answer.

Explanation

Pair 1 is not correct. Aurang was a Persian term for a warehouse, a place where goods are collected before being sold; also refers to a workshop.

Pair 2 is correct. Banians (banias) were agents of the company. A Banyan is a personby whom the English gentlemen in general conduct all their business. He is interpreter, head book-keeper, head secretary, head broker, the supplier of cash and cash-keeper, and in general also secretkeeper.They might appear to have become their masters? servants, merely managing their trade for them; but the reality was often less that of master and servant than of trading partners. The banian brought his skill and his capital to the partnership; the European contributed his privileges.

Pair 3 is correct. Mirasdar in Urdu means hereditary landowner, co-proprietor. In Persian, miras is inheritance, estate. He was also a revenue payer to the state.