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UPSC Prelims 2020 Analysis

Subject-Wise MCQ Distribution

The UPSC Prelims 2020 maintained its dynamic nature, demanding strong analytical abilities across subjects.

  • Environment & Ecology: 19 questions, emphasizing its crucial role in both the Civil Services Examination (CSE) and Indian Forest Service (Ifos) prelims.
  • Economy: Emerged as the dominant subject with 21 questions, underscoring its foundational significance.
  • Indian Polity: 15 questions, reinforcing its position as one of the most essential areas for aspirants.
  • History: A well-distributed section with 3 questions from Ancient History, 2 from Medieval History, 9 from Modern History, and 5 from Art & Culture.
  • Geography: 6 questions on Indian Geography, 1 on Physical Geography, and 1 on World Geography. Some questions required maps-based knowledge.
  • Science & Technology: 13 questions, highlighting its increasing significance in the exam.
  • International Relations: 3 questions, marking a decline from previous years but still requiring awareness of global affairs and India's foreign policy.
  • Social Issues & Schemes: 2 questions, demonstrating the need for understanding government programs and their societal impact.
Prelims 2020
Subject-Wise Weightage in UPSC Prelims 2020

Difficulty Analysis

  • Easy: 30 questions, requiring fundamental knowledge.
  • Medium: 43 questions, designed to test deeper understanding and application.
  • Hard: 27 questions, focusing on conceptual depth and critical thinking.
Prelims 2020
Difficulty-Level Distribution in UPSC Prelims 2020

Variations in Question Framing

  • Multi-Statement Based: 63 questions, testing analytical abilities through comparisons and logical deductions.
  • Direct Questions: 37 questions, yielding approximately 74 marks.
  • Assertion & Reasoning: Notably, no assertion and reason-based questions were asked this year.
  • Match the Following: Several match the following type questions were present, assessing conceptual clarity across subjects.
Prelims 2020
Variations of Questions in UPSC Prelims 2020

Static vs Current Affairs Distribution

  • Static Questions: 75% of the paper, reflecting the importance of mastering NCERT fundamentals.
  • Current Affairs: 25 questions, many of which blended static concepts with contemporary relevance. Economics and Science & Technology, in particular, were influenced by recent developments, making it difficult to separate static from dynamic content.

Key Learnings for Future Preparation

The UPSC Prelims 2020 presented several challenges due to its unique question patterns and focus areas:

  • The exam was challenging and unconventional, requiring strong analytical abilities.

  • Heavy focus on Science & Technology, Environment, and Agriculture.

  • Topics like eco-friendly farming, biochar, and MSP were particularly tricky.

  • While current affairs played a role, most questions were static and application-driven, demanding a strong conceptual foundation.

  • Underrepresented areas included:

    • Key government schemes

    • COVID-19-related policies

    • International organizations

  • The unpredictability of the exam reaffirmed the need for:

    • Well-rounded preparation

    • NCERT-based conceptual clarity

    • Interdisciplinary approach was crucial, integrating multiple subjects effectively.

The Prelims 2020 paper was analytical and required strong conceptual clarity. Economy, Environment, and Polity were key focus areas. Multi-statement questions dominated, emphasizing elimination techniques. While static concepts formed the core, current affairs played a supporting role. The exam demanded an interdisciplinary approach and applied knowledge.

QUESTION 1

HardIndian GeographyPrelims 2020

With reference to Ocean Mean Temperature (OMT), which of the following statements is/are correct?

  1. OMT is measured up to a depth of 26°C isotherm which is 129 meters in the south-western Indian Ocean during January-March.
  2. OMT collected during January-March can be used in assessing whether the amount of rainfall in monsoon will be less or more than a certain long-term mean.

Select the correct answer using the code given below:

A. 1 only

B. 2 only

C. Both 1 and 2 only

D. Neither 1 nor 2

Answer: B

Explanation

Statement 1 is incorrect. OMT is measured up to the depth of the 26°C isotherm, but the 129-meter depth mentioned in the southwestern Indian Ocean during January-March is incorrect. The depth of the 26°C isotherm can vary depending on the region and season.

Statement 2 is correct. OMT collected during January-March helps in predicting the amount of rainfall during the monsoon. It is used to assess whether rainfall will be more or less than the long-term average, as variations in OMT influence monsoon behaviour.

Hence, option B is the correct answer.


QUESTION 2

EasyIndian GeographyPrelims 2020

Siachen Glacier is situated to the

A. East of Aksai Chin

B. East of Leh

C. North of Gilgit

D. North of Nubra Valley

Answer: D

Explanation

Option A is incorrect. Aksai Chin is located to the east of Ladakh, whereas the Siachen Glacier is situated to the northwest of it.

Option B is incorrect. Leh is located to the south of the Siachen Glacier. The glacier lies in the eastern Karakoram range, far north of Leh.

Option C is incorrect. Gilgit is in the Gilgit-Baltistan region, which is west of the Siachen Glacier. The glacier is not located to the north of Gilgit.

Option D is correct. The Siachen Glacier is located north of the Nubra Valley in the eastern Karakoram range of the Himalayas. It is the world's highest battlefield, where India maintains a military presence.

Line of Control

Hence, option D is the correct answer


QUESTION 3

HardWorld GeographyPrelims 2020

Consider the following pairs:

River - Flows into

  1. Mekong - Andaman Sea
  2. Thames - Irish Sea
  3. Volga - Caspian Sea
  4. Zambezi - Indian Ocean

Which of the pairs given above is/are correctly matched?

A. 1 and 2 only

B. 3 only

C. 3 and 4 only

D. 1, 2 and 4 only

Answer: C

Explanation

Pair 1 is incorrect. The Mekong River originates in the Tibetan Plateau and flows through China, Myanmar, Laos, Thailand, Cambodia, and Vietnam before emptying into the South China Sea, not the Andaman Sea.

Mekong River

Pair 2 is incorrect. The Thames River flows entirely within England and empties into the North Sea, not the Irish Sea.

Thames River

Pair 3 is correct. The Volga River is the longest river in Europe. It originates in Russia and flows into the Caspian Sea.

Volga River

Pair 4 is correct. The Zambezi River originates in Zambia and flows through Angola, Namibia, Botswana, Zimbabwe, and Mozambique before emptying into the Indian Ocean.

Zambezi river

So, the correct pairs are 3 and 4. Hence, option C is the correct answer.


QUESTION 4

EasyIndian GeographyPrelims 2020

“The crop is subtropical in nature, A hard frost in injurious to it. It requires at least 210 frost-free days and 50 to 100 centimetres of rainfall for its growth. A light well-drained soil capable of retaining moisture is ideally suited for the cultivation of the crop.” Which one of the following is that crop?

A. Cotton

B. Jute

C. Sugarcane

D. Tea

Answer: A

Explanation

The description provided matches the requirements for cotton cultivation.

  • Subtropical nature and frost sensitivity: Cotton is a subtropical crop and is sensitive to frost. A hard frost can damage the cotton plants, making them unsuitable for cold regions.
  • Frost-free days: Cotton requires at least 210 frost-free days, which is typical for its growth cycle. It thrives in regions with a long growing season, free from frost.
  • Rainfall requirement: Cotton needs 50 to 100 cm of rainfall. The crop is drought-tolerant, but it still requires moderate rainfall for optimal growth.
  • Soil type: Cotton grows best in light, well-drained soil that can retain moisture, providing the right balance for its deep root system.

Cotton

Jute

Sugarcane

Tea

Cotton is the right answer. Hence, option A is the correct answer.


QUESTION 5

MediumPhysical GeographyPrelims 2020

Consider the following statements:

  1. Jet streams occur in the Northern Hemisphere only.
  2. Only some cyclones develop an eye.
  3. The temperature inside the eye of a cyclone is nearly 10°C lesser than that of the surroundings.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct ?

A. 1 only

B. 2 and 3 only

C. 2 only

D. 1 and 3 only

Answer: C

Explanation

Statement 1 is incorrect. Jet streams occur in both the Northern and Southern Hemispheres. They are fast-moving air currents found at high altitudes, typically around 10-15 kilometers above the Earth's surface, and exist in both hemispheres.

Statement 2 is correct. Not all cyclones develop an eye. Only certain strong cyclones, especially intense hurricanes or typhoons, develop a well-defined eye—a calm, low-pressure area at the center of the cyclone surrounded by the strongest winds.

Statement 3 is incorrect. The temperature in the eye can be several degrees Celsius warmer (typically 2–10°C) than the outer regions of the storm. This warmth is due to subsiding (sinking) air in the eye, which compresses and heats up adiabatically. Hence , option C is the correct answer.


QUESTION 6

HardIndian GeographyPrelims 2020

With reference to the current trends in the cultivation of sugarcane in India, consider the following statements:

  1. A substantial saving in seed material is made when ‘bud chip settlings’ are raised in a nursery and transplanted in the main field.
  2. When direct planting of setts is done, the germination percentage is better with singlebudded setts as compared to setts with many buds.
  3. If bad weather conditions prevail when setts are directly planted, single-budded setts have better survival as compared to large setts.
  4. Sugarcane can be cultivated using settlings prepared from tissue culture.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

A. 1 and 2 only

B. 3 only

C. 1 and 4 only

D. 2, 3 and 4 only

Answer: C

Explanation

Statement 1 is correct. The bud chip method involves raising sugarcane settlings in a nursery before transplanting them into the main field. This method reduces seed material requirements by using only the bud instead of the entire sett, leading to cost savings and better efficiency.

Statement 2 is incorrect. Multi-budded setts generally have a higher germination percentage than single-budded setts. Single-budded setts may face more difficulty in germination compared to setts with multiple buds, which provide better shoot emergence.

Statement 3 is incorrect. Under adverse weather conditions, large setts have better survival rates because they store more nutrients and moisture. Single-budded setts are more vulnerable to unfavorable conditions and may have lower survival rates.

Statement 4 is correct. Tissue culture techniques are successfully used for sugarcane cultivation. Settlings prepared from tissue culture help in producing disease-free, high-yielding plants and allow rapid multiplication of quality planting material.

Hence, option C is the correct answer.


QUESTION 7

HardIndian GeographyPrelims 2020

Consider the following minerals:

  1. Bentonite
  2. Chromite
  3. Kyanite
  4. Sillimanite

In India, which of the above is/are officially designated as major minerals?

A. 1 and 2 only

B. 4 only

C. 1 and 3 only

D. 2, 3 and 4 only

Answer: D

Explanation

Major minerals are those specified in the first schedule appended in the MMDR Act. There is no official definition for major minerals in the MMDR Act.

Bentonite is a minor mineral. It is used in drilling mud, foundry sand, and civil engineering applications.

Chromite is a major mineral. It is the only ore of chromium, essential for stainless steel and alloy manufacturing.

Kyanite is a major mineral. It is a refractory mineral used in ceramics and high-temperature industries.

Sillimanite is a major mineral. It is also a refractory mineral with applications in metallurgy and industrial furnaces.

Therefore, Chromite, Kyanite and Sillimanite are major minerals, whereas Bentonite is a minor mineral.

Therefore, the correct answer is D.


QUESTION 8

HardIndian GeographyPrelims 2020

With reference to pulse production in India, consider the following statements:

  1. Black gram can be cultivated as both kharif and rabicrop.
  2. Green-gram alone accounts for nearly half of pulse production.
  3. In the last three decades, while the production of kharifhas increased, the production of rabi pulses has decreased.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

A. 1 only

B. 2 and 3 only

C. 2 only

D. 1, 2 and 3

Answer: A

Explanation

Statement 1 is correct. Like most of the pulses in India, Black gram pulse too can be cultivated both in kharif as well as in rabi season in India.

Statement 2 is incorrect. Chickpea pulse, also known as Chana, are the major pulse produced in India. It contributes more than 48% of the total pulse production in India. Since statement 1 is correct and 2 is incorrect, statement 3 is also incorrect through elimination.

Statement 3 is incorrect. The overall trend of area, production and yield of the last three plan periods have shown an increasing trend in production and productivity of Kharif Pulses.

The overall trend of area, production and yield of the last three plan periods have shown an increasing trend in the area however, production and productivity of Rabi Pulses declined during the XIth plan period from the Xth plan period and significantly increased during the XIIth plan period. Hence, option A is the correct answer.

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