UPSC Prelims 2016 Analysis

Subject wise MCQ distribution

  • Environment & Ecology (22 Questions): The most dominant subject, covering biodiversity, climate change, conservation efforts, and environmental legislation. Many questions incorporated maps for better understanding.
  • Economy (17 Questions): Included monetary policies, fiscal policy, banking, government schemes, and international economic developments. This section was heavily inclined towards current affairs and required strong analytical abilities for elimination-based questions.

  • Science & Technology (13 Questions): Focused on emerging technologies, biotechnology, AI, space research, and their recent developments. Many questions followed an assertion-reasoning format to test conceptual understanding.

  • International Relations (11 Questions): Heavy emphasis on India’s foreign policy, international organizations like the New Development Bank and International Monetary and Financial Committee. Some questions required match the following format.

  • Social Issues & Schemes (11 Questions): Included government schemes & initiatives like MUDRA Yojana and Stand Up India Scheme along with policies related to education, health, and nutrition. Many questions were framed using the elimination technique.

  • Indian Polity (5 Questions): A relatively low count, marking a departure from UPSC’s usual trend of high-weightage in this section. However, the questions that appeared tested deep constitutional concepts and analytical abilities.

  • History (10 Questions Combined): Ancient (1), Medieval (3), and Modern (6), with a focus on factual recall rather than analytical aspects. Many were match the following or multi-statement-based, requiring careful reading.

  • Geography (Indian Geography: 4, World & Physical Geography: 0): Minimal representation, making it one of the least emphasized subjects in this year’s paper. Questions required strong NCERT-based conceptual clarity, especially in maps and location-based understanding.

Prelims 2016
Subject-Wise Weightage in UPSC Prelims 2016

Difficulty analysis

  • Medium Difficulty (57 Questions): The largest portion, demanding conceptual clarity and critical thinking.
  • Hard Questions (29 Questions): A significant number, testing advanced knowledge and deeper analytical skills.

  • Easy Questions (14 Questions): A relatively small proportion, offering limited direct scoring opportunities.

Prelims 2016
Difficulty-Level Distribution in UPSC Prelims 2016

Variations in Question framing

  • Multi-Statement Questions (57%) – The most common type, requiring analytical skills and elimination strategies. These appeared more frequently in Polity and Environment.
  • Direct Questions (43%) – Straightforward factual recall, mainly seen in History and Science & Technology.

Prelims 2016
Variations of Questions in UPSC Prelims 2016

Current Affairs vs. Static Questions

  • Current Affairs-Based (60 Questions): The paper marked a shift from the trend observed over the past four years. UPSC has increasingly focused on current affairs, making it crucial for aspirants to stay updated.
  • Static-Based (40 Questions): Still significant but much lower compared to previous years, highlighting UPSC’s shift towards contemporary relevance.

Key learning for Future Preparation

  • Prioritize Current Affairs: Given that 60% of the questions were current-based, aspirants should regularly follow newspapers, government reports, and international developments.
  • Strengthen Environment & Ecology Preparation: The dominance of this section indicates that topics like climate change, environmental policies, and sustainability should be high-priority study areas.
  • Develop Multi-Statement Question Solving Techniques: Since more than half the paper consisted of multi-statement questions, mastering elimination techniques is essential.
  • Balance Conceptual & Factual Knowledge: Subjects like Economy and Science & Technology require both static understanding and awareness of recent developments.
  • Focus on Analytical Thinking: The difficulty level and multi-statement nature of the paper suggest that rote memorization alone is insufficient—conceptual clarity is key.
The UPSC Prelims 2016 paper emphasized current affairs, with a strong focus on Environment, Economy, and History. Polity and Geography had moderate representation. The mix of direct and multi-statement questions required both factual knowledge and analytical skills, highlighting the importance of integrating static concepts with current events.

QUESTION 1

HardIndian GeographyPrelims 2016

Recently, which of the following States has explored the possibility of constructing an artificial inland port to be connected to the sea by a long navigational channel?

A. Andhra Pradesh

B. Chhattisgarh

C. Karnataka

D. Rajasthan

Answer: D

Explanation

The Inland Waterways Authority of India under the Ministry of Shipping had proposed to guide and support Rajasthan government for building an Inland Shipping Port at Jalore.

The port and the terminal that are to be created will help develop inland navigation facilities in western Rajasthan and will also bring about socio-economic development of the region.

Business development opportunities along the canal for limestone, gypsum, lignite, and cement factories are to be explored by the state government.


QUESTION 2

MediumEnvironment & EcologyPrelims 2016

‘Net metering’ is sometimes seen in the news in the context of promoting the -

A. production and use of solar energy by the households/consumers

B. use of piped natural gas in the kitchens of households

C. installation of CNG kits in motor- cars

D. installation of water meters in urban households

Answer: A

Explanation

Net metering (also known as net energy metering) is a solar incentive that allows you to store energy in the electric grid. When your solar panels produce excess power, that energy is sent to the grid and in exchange, you can pull from the grid when your system is under-producing like during night-time.


QUESTION 3

EasyInternational RelationsPrelims 2016

‘European Stability Mechanism’, sometimes seen in the news, is an

A. agency created by the EU to deal with the impact of millions of refugees arriving from the Middle East

B. agency of EU that provides financial assistance to eurozone countries

C. agency of EU to deal with all the bilateral and multilateral agreements on trade

D. agency of EU to deal with the conflict arising among the member countries

Answer: B

Explanation

The European Stability Mechanism (ESM) is an intergovernmental organization located in Luxembourg City, which operates under public international law for all eurozone Member States having ratified a special ESM intergovernmental treaty.

It was established on 27 September 2012 as a permanent firewall for the eurozone, to safeguard and provide instant access to financial assistance programmes for member states of the eurozone in financial difficulty, with a maximum lending capacity of 500 billion.


QUESTION 4

HardScience & TechnologyPrelims 2016

With reference to ‘Bitcoins’ sometimes seen in the news, which of the following statements is/are correct?

  1. Bitcoins are tracked by the Central Banks of the countries.
  2. Anyone with a Bitcoin address can send and receive Bitcoins from anyone else with a Bitcoin address.
  3. Online payments can be sent without either side knowing the identity of the other.

Select the correct answer using the code given below.

A. 1 and 2 only

B. 2 and 3 only

C. 3 only

D. 1, 2 and 3

Answer: B

Explanation

Bitcoins are not tracked by Central Banks in the same way traditional currencies are. Bitcoin transactions are recorded on a public ledger called a blockchain, but this ledger does not necessarily link transactions to individual users. Hence, statement 1 is incorrect.

Anyone with a Bitcoin address can send and receive Bitcoins from anyone else with a Bitcoin address. These addresses are like account numbers but don't necessarily require identification. Hence, statement 2 is correct.

Online payments can be sent with a certain degree of anonymity using Bitcoins. While the transaction itself is recorded on the blockchain, the identities of the sender and receiver are not directly revealed on the ledger. However, it's important to note that complete anonymity is difficult to achieve with Bitcoin due to the public nature of the blockchain. Hence, statement 3 is also correct.


QUESTION 5

HardArt & CulturePrelims 2016

With reference to the religious history of India, consider the following statements :

  1. The concept of Bodhisattva is central to the Hinayana sect of Buddhism.
  2. Bodhisattva is a compassionate one on his way to enlightenment.
  3. Bodhisattva delays achieving his own salvation to help all sentient beings on their path to it.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

A. 1 only

B. 2 and 3 only

C. 2 only

D. 1, 2 and 3

Answer: B

Explanation

The concept of Bodhisattva is central to the Mahayana sect of Buddhism, not the Hinayana (or Theravada) sect. The Hinayana sect emphasizes the ideal of the Arhat, who achieves personal liberation, whereas the Mahayana tradition focuses on the Bodhisattva ideal. Hence, statement 1 is incorrect.

The Bodhisattva is a central figure in Mahayana Buddhism, representing a being who has attained a high level of enlightenment but delays their full enlightenment (Nirvana) to compassionately help others achieve liberation.

The Bodhisattva is characterized by a commitment to the enlightenment of all sentient beings, rather than seeking individual liberation. The Bodhisattva willingly delays their own attainment of Nirvana in order to guide and assist others on the path to enlightenment. Therefore, statements 2 and 3 are correct.


QUESTION 6

HardArt & CulturePrelims 2016

With reference to the cultural history of medieval India, consider the following statements :

  1. Siddhas (Sittars) of Tamil region were monotheistic and condemned idolatry.
  2. Lingayats of Kannada region questioned the theory of rebirth and rejected the caste hierarchy.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

A. 1 only

B. 2 only

C. Both 1 and 2

D. Neither 1 nor 2

Answer: C

Explanation

Siddhas and Monotheism The Siddhas (Sittars) of the Tamil region were indeed monotheistic. They believed in a single ultimate reality and often rejected the traditional Hindu practices of idol worship and elaborate temple rituals.

Lingayats and Social Reform The Lingayats of the Kannada region challenged the established social order. They did not subscribe to the concept of rebirth within the caste system. They emphasized equality and rejected the rigidities of the caste system.

Therefore, both statements are correct.


QUESTION 7

EasyInternational RelationsPrelims 2016

With reference to the ‘Trans-Pacific Partnership’, consider the following statements:

  1. It is an agreement among all the Pacific Rim countries except China and Russia.
  2. It is a strategic alliance for the purpose of maritime security only.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

A. 1 only

B. 2 only

C. Both 1 and 2

D. Neither 1 nor 2

Answer: D

Explanation

Neither of the statements are correct regarding the Trans-Pacific Partnership (TPP).

Statement 1 Incorrect. While China and Russia were not part of the TPP negotiations, it wasn't solely focused on Pacific Rim countries. Other economies like Vietnam and Singapore were part of the TPP despite not exactly being on the Pacific Rim.

Statement 2 Incorrect. The TPP was a proposed trade agreement, not a strategic alliance for maritime security. It aimed to reduce trade barriers and promote economic integration among member countries.

The TPP negotiations were concluded in 2015, but the agreement was never ratified by all the signatories. The United States withdrew from the TPP in 2017, effectively ending the initiative in its original form. However, some member countries pursued alternative trade agreements based on the TPP framework.


QUESTION 8

EasyIndian GeographyPrelims 2016

Recently, linking of which of the following rivers was undertaking?

A. Cauvery and Tungabhadra

B. Godavari and Krishna

C. Mahanadi and Son

D. Narmada and Tapti

Answer: B

Explanation

India took a step forward in its ambitious but long-pending goal to interlink major rivers to form a national water grid. The Pattiseema project lifts flood water from the river Godavari and pumps it into the Polavaram right canal that empties into the river Krishna in Vijayawada.

Andhra Pradesh Government is interlinking Krishna-Godavari rivers through the Pattiseema lift irrigation scheme.


QUESTION 9

MediumInternational RelationsPrelims 2016

‘Doctors Without Borders (Médecins Sans Frontières)’, often in the news, is

A. A division of the World Health Organization

B. A non-governmental international organization

C. And inter-government agency sponsored by the European Union

D. A specialized agency of the United Nations

Answer: B

Explanation

Mdecins sans frontires (MSF), also known in English as Doctors Without Borders, is an international humanitarian medical non-governmental organisation (NGO) of French origin best known for its projects in conflict zones and in countries affected by endemic diseases.

Mdecins sans frontires was founded in 1971, in the aftermath of the Biafra secession, by a small group of French doctors and journalists who sought to expand access to medical care across national boundaries irrespective of race, religion, creed or political affiliation.


QUESTION 10

MediumInternational RelationsPrelims 2016

Community sometimes mentioned in the news In the affairs of

  1. Kurd: Bangladesh
  2. Madhesi: Nepal
  3. Rohingya: Myanmar

Which of the pairs given above is/are correctly matched?

A. 1 and 2

B. 2 only

C. 2 and 3

D. 3 only

Answer: C

Explanation

  1. Kurd Bangladesh (Incorrect) Kurds are a Muslim ethnic group with a significant population in southeastern Turkey, northern Iraq, northwestern Iran, and northern Syria. They are not a major community in Bangladesh.

  2. Madhesi Nepal (Correct) Madhesis are an Indo-Aryan ethnic group inhabiting the Terai plains of southern Nepal. They are a politically and socially aware community that has sometimes advocated for greater rights and representation within Nepal.

  3. Rohingya Myanmar (Correct) Rohingya are a Muslim ethnic group facing persecution in Myanmar. They are often mentioned in the news due to human rights concerns and the ongoing Rohingya genocide.


QUESTION 11

MediumEconomyPrelims 2016

Which of the following is/are included in the capital budget of the Government of India?

  1. Expenditure on acquisition of assets like roads, buildings, machinery, etc.
  2. Loans received from foreign governments.
  3. Loans and advances granted to the States and Union Territories.

Select the correct answer using the code given below.

A. 1 only

B. 2 and 3 only

C. 1 and 3 only

D. 1, 2 and 3

Answer: D

Explanation

Under Article 112 of the Constitution of India, the Annual Financial Statement has to distinguish expenditure of the Government on revenue account from other expenditures.

Government Budget, therefore, comprises Revenue Budget and Capital Budget.

Capital Budget consists of capital receipts and capital payments.

The capital receipts are loans raised by the Government from the public, called market loans, borrowings by the Government from the Reserve Bank and other parties through the sale of Treasury Bills loans received from foreign Governments and bodies, disinvestment receipts and recoveries of loans from State and Union Territory Governments and other parties.

  • Capital payments consist of capital expenditure on the acquisition of assets like land, buildings, machinery, and equipment, as also investments in shares, etc., and loans and advances granted by the Central Government to State and Union Territory Governments, Government companies, Corporations and other parties.

Therefore, all the statements are correct.


QUESTION 12

HardScience & TechnologyPrelims 2016

What is ‘Greased Lightning-10 (GL-10)’, recently in the news?

A. Electric plane tested by NASA

B. Solar-powered two-seater aircraft designed by Japan

C. Space observatory launched by China

D. Reusable rocket designed by ISRO

Answer: A

Explanation

Greased Lightning-10 (GL-10)' is an electric plane that has been recently tested by NASA.

Some key points about GL-10

  1. It is a subscale, remotely-piloted, hybrid-electric aircraft designed and developed by NASA.
  2. The GL-10 is a vertical take-off and landing (VTOL) aircraft that can also transition to wing-borne flight.
  3. It is being tested by NASA as a potential future unmanned aerial vehicle (UAV) or cargo plane.
  4. The GL-10 is designed to demonstrate the feasibility of distributed electric propulsion technology, which uses multiple propellers or fans to provide lift and thrust.

QUESTION 13

HardMedieval HistoryPrelims 2016

Regarding the taxation system of Krishna Deva, the ruler of Vijayanagar, consider the following statements :

  1. The tax rate on land was fixed depending on the quality of the land.
  2. Private owners of workshops paid an industries tax.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

A. 1 only

B. 2 only

C. Both 1 and 2

D. Neither 1 nor 2

Answer: C

Explanation

Both statements (1 and 2) are correct regarding the taxation system of Krishna Deva Raya, the ruler of Vijayanagar.

Land tax based on quality The Vijayanagara Empire, under Krishna Deva Raya, had a well-defined taxation system. Land revenue was the primary source of income, and the tax rate was determined based on the land's quality, fertility, and irrigation methods. This ensured a fair system where more productive lands yielded higher tax revenue.

Industry tax Besides land tax, the empire levied taxes on various professions and activities. Private workshops and businesses likely paid an industry tax, contributing to the state's treasury.


QUESTION 14

HardEnvironment & EcologyPrelims 2016

With reference to an initiative called ‘The Economics of Ecosystems and Biodiversity (TEEB)’, which of the following statements is/are correct?

  1. It is an initiative hosted by UNEP, IMF and World Economic Forum.
  2. It is a global initiative that focuses on drawing attention to the economic benefits of biodiversity.
  3. It presents an approach that can help decision-makers recognize, demonstrate and capture the value of ecosystems and biodiversity.

Select the correct answer using the code given below

A. 1 and 2 only

B. 3 Only

C. 2 and 3 only

D. 1, 2 and 3

Answer: C

Explanation

While TEEB is a well-respected initiative, it's not directly hosted by UNEP, IMF, and the World Economic Forum. Germany and the European Commission launched it in response to a proposal by G85 Environment Ministers. Hence, statement 1 is incorrect.

TEEB's primary goal is to highlight the economic value of biodiversity and ecosystems. It aims to move beyond traditional economic models that often overlook the significant contributions that nature makes to human well-being. By providing tools and methodologies, TEEB empowers decision-makers to consider these values when making choices that impact the environment.

Therefore, the correct answer is 2 and 3 only.


QUESTION 15

MediumEnvironment & EcologyPrelims 2016

With reference to the Agreement at the UNFCCC Meeting in Paris in 2015, which of the following statements is/are correct?

  1. The Agreement was signed by all the member countries of the UN and it will go into effect in 2017.
  2. The Agreement aims to limit greenhouse gas emissions so that the rise in average global temperature by the end of this century does not exceed 2 degrees C or even 1.5 degrees C above pre-industrial levels.
  3. Developed countries acknowledged their historical responsibility in global warming and committed to donate $1000 billion a year from 2020 to help developing countries to cope with climate change.

Select the correct answer using the code given below.

A. 1 and 3 only

B. 2 only

C. 2 and 3 only

D. 1, 2 and 3

Answer: B

Explanation

The Paris Agreement is an agreement within the United Nations Framework Convention on Climate Change (UNFCCC), dealing with greenhouse gas emissions mitigation, adaptation, and finance, starting in the year 2020.

Not all UN member countries signed the Paris Agreement when the question was asked by the UPSC. As of today, 195 parties (194 states and the European Union) have joined. Hence, statement 1 is incorrect

The Paris Agreement's central aim is to limit global warming to well below 2 degrees Celsius above pre-industrial levels and to pursue efforts to limit the increase to 1.5 degrees Celsius. So, statement 2 is correct.

The Paris Agreement acknowledges the historical responsibility of developed countries and calls for them to provide financial assistance to developing countries for climate change mitigation and adaptation. However, the specific amount of $1000 billion per year is not mentioned in the agreement. Rather, $100 billion was agreed upon but modalities are yet to finalise. Thus, statement 3 is incorrect.


QUESTION 16

MediumEnvironment & EcologyPrelims 2016

In which of the following regions of India are you most likely to come across the ‘Great Indian Hornbill’ in its natural habitat?

A. Sand deserts of northwest India

B. Higher Himalayas of Jammu and Kashmir

C. Salt marshes of western Gujarat

D. Western Ghats

Answer: D

Explanation

The great hornbill, also known as the concave-casqued hornbill, great Indian hornbill or great pied hornbill, is one of the larger members of the hornbill family. It occurs in the Indian subcontinent and Southeast Asia. It is predominantly frugivorous, but also preys on small mammals, reptiles and birds.

The great hornbill is native to the forests of India, Bhutan, Nepal, mainland Southeast Asia and Sumatra. Its distribution is fragmented in the Western Ghats and in the foothills of the Himalayas.


QUESTION 17

MediumScience & TechnologyPrelims 2016

Why does the Government of India to promote the use of ‘Neem-coated Urea’ in agriculture?

A. Release of Neem oil in the soil increases nitrogen fixation by the soil microorganisms

B. Neem coating slows down the rate of dissolution of urea in the soil

C. Nitrous oxide, which is a greenhouse gas, is not at all released into the atmosphere by crop fields

D. It is a combination of a weedicide and a fertilizer for particular crops

Answer: B

Explanation

Neem-coated Urea dissolves slower, unlike normal Urea which prevents leaching. Neem has properties that check nitrogen loss at each stage. It slows down the process of nitrate formation and hence excess nitrate is not available for denitrification.

The government made it compulsory for the producers of Neem-coat per cent of the Urea they produce. It is believed to check the diversion of fertiliser (which is highly subsidised) to the chemical industry also.


QUESTION 18

MediumScience & TechnologyPrelims 2016

Recently, our scientists have discovered a new and distinct species of banana plant which attains a height of about 11 metres and has orange-coloured fruit pulp. In which part of India has it been discovered?

A. Andaman Islands

B. Annamalai Forests

C. Maikala Hills

D. Tropical rain forest of northeast

Answer: A

Explanation

Scientists at the Botanical Survey of India (BSI) have discovered a new species of banana from a remote tropical rain forest on the Little Andaman islands. This unique plant stands out for its impressive height, reaching up to 11 meters, which is about three times taller than the average banana plant we're familiar with.

The species, Musa indandamanensis, was located about 16 km inside the Krishna Nalah forest in the island. It is a distinct global species with unique green flowers and fruit bunch lux (axis) thrice the size of a regular banana species. The fruit pulp is orange in colour, distinctive from the white and yellow colour of regular bananas. Unlike the other banana species whose flowers are conical, its flowers are cylindrical.


QUESTION 19

MediumEconomyPrelims 2016

With reference to ‘Financial Stability and Development Council’, consider the following statements:

  1. It is an organ of NITI Aayog.
  2. It is headed by the Union Finance Minister.
  3. It monitors macro-prudential supervision of the economy.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

A. 1 and 2 only

B. 3 Only

C. 2 and 3 only

D. 1, 2 and 3

Answer: C

Explanation

  1. Incorrect The FSDC is not an organ of NITI Aayog. It's a separate apex-level body under the Ministry of Finance.

  2. Correct The FSDC is headed by the Union Finance Minister.

  3. Correct The FSDC plays a crucial role in monitoring macro-prudential supervision of the economy. Macro-prudential supervision focuses on preventing systemic risks within the financial system that could destabilize the entire economy.

Therefore, the correct answer is 2 and 3 only.


QUESTION 20

EasyEconomyPrelims 2016

India’s ranking in the ‘Ease of Doing Business Index’ is sometimes seen in the news. Which of the following has declared that ranking?

A. Organization for Economic Cooperation and Development OECD

B. World Economic Forum

C. World Bank

D. World Trade Organization WTO

Answer: C

Explanation

It is published by the World Bank.

Ease of Doing Business Index This index was a global ranking that assessed the regulatory environment for business startups and operations in different economies. It measured regulations in areas like starting a business, dealing with construction permits, getting electricity, registering property, getting credit, protecting minority investors, paying taxes, trading across borders, enforcing contracts, and resolving insolvency.

Note The World Bank discontinued the Ease of Doing Business Index in 2021 due to concerns about data irregularities in some past reports.


QUESTION 21

MediumIndian GeographyPrelims 2016

Which of the following is/are tributary/tributaries of Brahmaputra?

  1. Dibang
  2. Kameng
  3. Lohit

Select the correct answer using the code given below:

A. 1 only

B. 2 and 3 only

C. 1 and 3 only

D. 1, 2 and 3

Answer: D

Explanation

All the three are tributaries of the Brahmaputra.

Manas, Dibang, Kameng and Lohit are the key tributaries of the river Brahmaputra.


QUESTION 22

EasyScience & TechnologyPrelims 2016

Regarding ‘DigiLocker’, sometimes seen in the news, which of the following statements is/are correct?

  1. It is a digital locker system offered by the Government under Digital India Programme.
  2. It allows you to access your e-documents irrespective of your physical location.

Select the correct answer using the code given below

A. 1 only

B. 2 Only

C. Both 1 and 2

D. Neither 1 nor 2

Answer: C

Explanation

DigiLocker is a digital locker system offered by the Government of India under the Digital India Programme. It aims to minimize the use of physical documents and enable easy access to digital copies.

DigiLocker allows you to access your electronic documents (e-documents) anytime and anywhere as long as you have an internet connection. This provides convenience and eliminates the need to carry physical documents.

Therefore, both statements are correct.


QUESTION 23

HardArt & CulturePrelims 2016

Which one of the following books of ancient India has the love story of the son of the founder of Sunga dynasty?

A. Swapnavasavadatta

B. Malavikagnimitra

C. Meghadoota

D. Ratnavali

Answer: B

Explanation

Malavikagnimitra, a play by Kalidasa, narrates the love story of King Agnimitra, the son of Pushyamitra Shunga, the founder of the Sunga dynasty.

Swapnavasavadatta This Sanskrit play by Bhasa does not revolve around the Sunga dynasty. Meghadoota This poem by Kalidasa focuses on the pining of a separated Yaksha and doesn't involve historical figures. Ratnavali This play by Sri Harsha also doesn't have a connection to the Sunga dynasty or its rulers.


QUESTION 24

MediumScience & TechnologyPrelims 2016

Consider the following statements: The Mangalyaan launched by ISRO

  1. is also called the Mars Orbiter Mission
  2. Made India the second country to have a spacecraft orbit Mars after the USA
  3. Made India the only country to be successful in making its spacecraft orbits Mars in its very first attempt.

A. 1 only

B. 2 and 3 only

C. 1 and 2 only

D. 1 and 3 only

Answer: D

Explanation

Mangalyaan is also called the Mars Orbiter Mission (MOM). This was its official designation. Thus, statement 1 is correct.

India was not the second country to orbit Mars. Several countries had successfully sent spacecraft to Mars before Mangalyaan, including the USA, Russia, and the European Space Agency (ESA). Thus, statement 2 is incorrect.

India was indeed the only country at that time to succeed in placing a spacecraft into Martian orbit on its very first attempt. This was a significant achievement for ISRO. Thus, statement 3 is correct.


QUESTION 25

EasyModern HistoryPrelims 2016

The plan of Sir Stafford Cripps envisaged that after the Second World War -

A. India should be granted complete independence

B. India should be partitioned into two before granting independence

C. India should be made a republic with the condition that she will join the Commonwealth

D. India should be given Dominion status

Answer: D

Explanation

The Cripps Mission was a failed attempt in late March 1942 by the British government to secure full Indian cooperation and support for their efforts in World War II.

The mission was headed by a senior minister Sir Stafford Cripps, Lord Privy Seal and leader of the House of Commons. Cripps was sent to negotiate an agreement with the nationalist Congress leaders, who spoke for the majority Indians, and Muhammad Ali Jinnah and the Muslim League, who spoke for the minority Muslim population. Cripps worked to keep India loyal to the British war effort in exchange for a promise of elections and full self-government (Dominion status) once the war was over.

Cripps discussed the proposals, which he had drafted himself, with the Indian leaders and published them. Both the major parties rejected his proposals, and they were also unacceptable to Churchill; no middle way was found and the mission failed.


QUESTION 26

EasyEconomyPrelims 2016

Recently, India’s first ‘National Investment and Manufacturing Zone’ was proposed to be set up in -

A. Andhra Pradesh

B. Gujarat

C. Maharashtra

D. Uttar Pradesh

Answer: A

Explanation

Andhra Pradesh is set to house India's first national investment and manufacturing zone after the state assured the Centre of availability of 2500 acres (10 sq km) of land in one place in Prakasam district.

The imminent final approval for the NIMZ, which is expected to give a fillip to the Prime Minister's Make in India campaign, comes four years after the concept was mooted to boost manufacturing in the country and two years after the Department of Industrial Policy and Promotion gave an in-principle nod to Andhra Pradesh in this regard.


QUESTION 27

EasyEconomyPrelims 2016

Recently, which one of the following currencies has been proposed to be added to the basket of IMF’s SDR?

A. Rouble

B. Rand

C. Indian Rupee

D. Renminbi

Answer: D

Explanation

The SDR is an international reserve asset created by the International Monetary Fund (IMF) and not a single currency. Its value is based on a basket of five major world currencies

  • US Dollar (USD)
  • Euro (EUR)
  • Japanese Yen (JPY)
  • British Pound Sterling (GBP)
  • Chinese Renminbi (RMB) (added in 2016)

The IMF reviews the composition of the SDR basket every five years to ensure it reflects the relative importance of currencies in the global trading and financial system. The inclusion of the RMB in 2016 signified the growing importance of the Chinese economy in the world.


QUESTION 28

EasyEnvironment & EcologyPrelims 2016

The term ‘Intended Nationally Determined Contribution’ is sometimes seen in the news in the context of:

A. Pledge made by the European countries to rehabilitate refugees from the war-affected Middle East.

B. Plan of action outlined by the countries of the world to combat climate change.

C. Capital contributed by the member countries in the establishment of the Asian Infrastructure Investment Bank.

D. Plain of action outlined by the countries of the regarding Sustainable Developments Goals.

Answer: B

Explanation

INDCs were submitted by countries in the lead-up to the Paris Agreement on climate change in 2015. They were essentially preliminary plans outlining each country's intended actions to address climate change.

The term "Intended Nationally Determined Contribution" (INDC) is seen in the news in the context of climate change mitigation efforts.

Intended These were initial pledges, not legally binding commitments. Nationally Determined Each country defined its own contributions based on its capabilities. Contributions These plans outlined actions countries planned to take to reduce greenhouse gas emissions.


QUESTION 29

EasySocial Issues & SchemesPrelims 2016

Pradhan Mantri MUDRA Yojana is aimed at -

A. Bringing the small entrepreneurs into the formal financial system

B. Providing loans to poor farmers for cultivating particular crops

C. Providing pensions to old and destitute persons

D. Funding the voluntary organization involved in the promotion of skill development and employment generation

Answer: A

Explanation

Pradhan Mantri MUDRA Yojana (PMMY) is aimed at providing affordable credit to micro and small enterprises (MSEs) in the non-farm sector.

Here's a breakdown of its key objectives

  • Financial Inclusion MUDRA helps bring unbanked or underserved entrepreneurs into the formal financial system, enabling them to access loans from banks and other financial institutions.
  • Loan Products The scheme offers a range of loan products categorized under three categories based on loan amount Shishu (up to Rs. 50,000), Kishore (above Rs. 50,000 up to Rs. 5 lakh), and Tarun (above Rs. 5 lakh up to Rs. 10 lakh).
  • Focus on Non-Farm Sector MUDRA loans cater to income-generating micro enterprises engaged in manufacturing, trading, or service activities. - Activities allied to agriculture, like poultry, dairy, and beekeeping, are also included.

QUESTION 30

HardIndian PolityPrelims 2016

Consider the following statements:

  1. The Chief Secretary in a State is appointed by the Governor of that State.
  2. The Chief Secretary in a State has a fixed tenure

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

A. 1 only

B. 2 only

C. Both 1 and 2

D. Neither 1 nor 2

Answer: D

Explanation

The post of Chief Secretary (Mukhya Sachiv) is the senior-most position held in the civil service of the states and union territories of India.

Appointment The Chief Secretary is chosen by the Chief Minister of the state. While the Chief Minister consults with various parties, the final decision rests with them. The appointment is then issued formally in the Governor's name.

Tenure There is no fixed tenure for the Chief Secretary position. The Chief Minister can decide on the length of service.

Hence, both statements are incorrect.


QUESTION 31

MediumScience & TechnologyPrelims 2016

Which of the following statements is/are correct? Viruses can infect -

  1. Bacteria
  2. Fungi
  3. Plants

A. 1 and 2 only

B. 3 only

C. 1 and 3 only

D. 1, 2 and 3

Answer: D

Explanation

All the statements provided are correct.

Viruses that infect bacteria are known as bacteriophages or phages. These viruses use bacterial cells as hosts to replicate and propagate.

Certain viruses, called mycoviruses, can infect and replicate within fungal cells, using them as hosts.

Viruses that infect plants are known as plant viruses. They can hijack the cellular machinery of plant cells to replicate and spread within the plant.


QUESTION 32

MediumEconomyPrelims 2016

What is/are the purpose/purposes of the ‘Marginal Cost of Funds based Lending Rate (MCLR)’ announced by RBI?

  1. These guidelines help improve the transparency in the methodology followed by banks for determining the interest rates on advances
  2. These guidelines help ensure availability of bank credit & interest rates which are fair to the borrowers as well as the banks

Select the correct answer using the code given below:

A. 1 only

B. 2 only

C. Both 1 and 2

D. Neither 1 nor 2

Answer: C

Explanation

MCLR (Marginal Cost of Funds-based Lending Rate) This is a benchmark interest rate set by banks in India, below which they cannot lend. It represents the minimum cost of funds for the bank, considering factors like their own borrowing costs, operating expenses, and a profit margin. The purposes of MCLR as outlined by the RBI include

Improved Transparency (point 1) MCLR standardizes the method for calculating the minimum lending rate. This transparency allows borrowers to better understand how banks arrive at their interest rates and facilitates comparison between different banks.

Fairness for Borrowers and Banks (point 2) MCLR ensures a certain level of fairness. It prevents banks from setting arbitrarily high minimum lending rates, potentially benefiting borrowers. At the same time, it allows banks to cover their basic costs and earn a reasonable profit margin.

Therefore, both options 1 and 2 accurately reflect the purposes of the MCLR system.


QUESTION 33

MediumArt & CulturePrelims 2016

Who of the following had first deciphered the edicts of Emperor Ashoka?

A. Georg Buhler

B. James Prinsep

C. Max Muller

D. William Jones

Answer: B

Explanation

The person who first deciphered the edicts of Emperor Ashoka was James Prinsep.

James Prinsep (1799-1840) was an English philologist, antiquary and administrator who served in the British East India Company. He played a crucial role in deciphering and interpreting the inscriptions and edicts of Emperor Ashoka, which were written in the Brahmi script.

In the 1830s, Prinsep was able to decipher the Brahmi script and translate Ashoka's inscriptions, which provided valuable insights into the reign and policies of the Mauryan emperor. His groundbreaking work helped establish the historical significance of Ashoka and the Mauryan empire.


QUESTION 34

HardArt & CulturePrelims 2016

What is/are common to the two historical places known as Ajanta and Mahabalipuram?

  1. Both were built in the same period.
  2. Both belong to the same religious denomination.
  3. Both have rock-cut monuments.

Select the correct answer using the code given below.

A. 1 and 2 only

B. 3 only

C. 1 and 3 only

D. None of the statements given above is correct

Answer: B

Explanation

Ajanta and Mahabalipuram were not built in the same period. Ajanta is known for its rock-cut cave monuments, which were constructed from the 2nd century BCE to the 6th century CE, primarily during the Gupta and Vakataka dynasties. On the other hand, Mahabalipuram's rock-cut monuments and structures were built primarily during the 7th and 8th centuries CE, under the Pallava dynasty.

Ajanta is associated with Buddhism, as the cave monuments were used as monasteries and temples by Buddhist monks. Mahabalipuram, on the other hand, is associated with Hinduism, as the rock-cut monuments and temples are dedicated to Hindu deities and themes.

Both Ajanta and Mahabalipuram are known for their remarkable rock-cut monuments and structures. The Ajanta Caves are a series of rock-cut cave temples and monasteries, while Mahabalipuram is renowned for its rock-cut temples, Rathas (chariot-shaped temples), and other monumental structures carved directly out of rock.

Therefore, the only common feature between Ajanta and Mahabalipuram is that both have rock-cut monuments, as stated in statement 3.


QUESTION 35

EasyEconomyPrelims 2016

Which one of the following is a purpose of ‘UDAY’, a scheme of the Government?

A. Providing technical and financial assistance to start-up entrepreneurs in the field or renewable source of energy.

B. Providing electricity to every household in the country by 2018

C. Replacing the coal-based power plants with natural gas, nuclear, solar, wind and tidal power plants over a period of time.

D. Providing for financial turnaround and revival of power distribution companies

Answer: D

Explanation

The UDAY scheme (Ujwal DISCOM Assurance Yojana), launched by the Government of India in 2015, has multiple objectives aimed at improving the financial health and operational efficiency of electricity distribution companies (DISCOMs) in India.


QUESTION 36

MediumEnvironment & EcologyPrelims 2016

With reference to ‘Red Sanders’, sometimes seen in the news, consider the following statements:

  1. It is a tree species found in a part of South India.
  2. It is one of the most important trees in the tropical rainforest areas of South India.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

A. 1 only

B. 2 Only

C. Both 1 and 2

D. Neither 1 nor 2

Answer: A

Explanation

Red Sanders, also known as Red Sandalwood or Pterocarpus santalinus, is indeed a tree species native to the southern Eastern Ghats mountain range of India.

It is one of the most important trees in the tropical rainforest areas of South India. Red Sanders is not typically found in tropical rainforests. It grows in drier semi-arid regions of the Eastern Ghats. Thus, statement 2 is incorrect.


QUESTION 37

MediumEnvironment & EcologyPrelims 2016

The FAO accords the status of ‘Globally Important Agricultural Heritage Systems (GIAHS)’ to traditional agricultural systems. What is the overall goal of this initiative?

  1. To provide modern technology, training in modern farming methods and financial support to local communities of identified GIAHS so as to greatly enhance their agricultural productivity
  2. To identify and safeguard eco-friendly traditional farm practices and their associated landscapes, agricultural biodiversity and knowledge systems of the local communities
  3. To provide Geographical Indication status to all the varieties of agricultural produce in such identified GIAHS

Select the correct answer using the code given below.

A. 1 and 3 only

B. 2 only

C. 2 and 3 only

D. 1, 2 and 3

Answer: B

Explanation

To safeguard and support the world's agricultural heritage systems, FAO started an initiative for the identification and dynamic conservation of Globally Important Agricultural Heritage Systems (GIAHS) in 2002.

Statement 1 (incorrect) The GIAHS program is not primarily focused on increasing productivity through modern methods. While some improvement might occur, the emphasis is on safeguarding traditional practices.

Statement 2 (correct) This accurately describes the core objective of GIAHS - identifying and protecting valuable traditional agricultural systems, their landscapes, biodiversity, and the knowledge of local communities.

Statement 3 (incorrect) While some GIAHS products might qualify for Geographical Indication status, it's not an automatic benefit. This status recognizes a specific product's link to its origin and traditional production methods.


QUESTION 38

EasyInternational RelationsPrelims 2016

‘Belt and Road Initiative’ is sometimes mentioned in the news in the context of the affairs of -

A. African Union

B. Brazil

C. European Union

D. China

Answer: D

Explanation

The Belt and Road Initiative (BRI) is most often mentioned in the news in the context of the affairs of China.

China-Led Initiative BRI is a global development strategy spearheaded by the Chinese government. It aims to create a network of trade routes connecting China with other countries in Asia, Europe, and Africa through investments in infrastructure development.


QUESTION 39

EasyInternational RelationsPrelims 2016

Which of the following is not a member of ‘Gulf Cooperation Council’?

A. Iran

B. Saudi Arabia

C. Oman

D. Kuwait

Answer: A

Explanation

The Cooperation Council for the Arab States of the Gulf, originally (and still colloquially) known as the Gulf Cooperation Council, is a regional intergovernmental political and economic union consisting of all Arab states of the Persian Gulf except Iran.

  • Its member states are Bahrain, Kuwait, Oman, Qatar, Saudi Arabia, and the United Arab Emirates.

  • The Charter of the Gulf Cooperation Council was signed on 25 May 1981, formally establishing the institution.


QUESTION 40

HardScience & TechnologyPrelims 2016

With reference to ‘Astrosat’, the astronomical observatory launched by India, which of the following statements is/are correct?

  1. Other than the USA and Russia, India is the only country to have launched a similar observatory into space.
  2. Astrosat is a 2000 kg satellite placed in an orbit at 1650 km above the surface of the Earth.

A. 1 only

B. 2 Only

C. Both 1 and 2

D. Neither 1 nor 2

Answer: D

Explanation

AstroSat is the first dedicated Indian astronomy mission aimed at studying celestial sources in X-ray, optical and UV spectral bands simultaneously. India is the 5th country to join the space observatory elite list after the USA, Russia, Japan, and Europe. Hence, statement 1 is not correct.

AstroSat with a lift-off mass of about 1513 kg was launched into a 650 km orbit inclined at an angle of 6 degrees to the equator by PSLV-C30. Hence, statement 2 is not correct.

Therefore, option (D) is the correct answer.


QUESTION 41

EasyModern HistoryPrelims 2016

Satya Shodhak Samaj organized -

A. a movement for the upliftment of tribals in Bihar

B. a temple-entry movement in Gujarat

C. an anti-caste movement in Maharashtra

D. A peasant movement in Punjab

Answer: C

Explanation

Satyashodhak Samaj is a social reform society founded by Jyotirao Phule in Pune, India, on 24 September 1873. Its purpose was to liberate the less privileged in the then-prevailing society such as women, Shudra, and Dalit from exploitation and oppression.

Jyotirao's wife Savitribai was the head of the women's section of the society.

Through his writing and work, Jyotirao advocated against the caste system and the illogical and orthodox status of Brahmin.

Phule had also started a newspaper Deenbandhu which provided the voice for the views of the Samaj.

Jyotirao Phule?s book Gulamgiri is dedicated to the pain, suffering and hardship faced by slaves.


QUESTION 42

MediumScience & TechnologyPrelims 2016

Which one of the following is the best description of ‘INS Astradharini’, that was in the news recently?

A. Amphibious warfare ship

B. Nuclear-powered submarine

C. Torpedo launch and recovery vessel

D. Nuclear-powered aircraft carrier

Answer: C

Explanation

INS Astradharini is an indigenously built torpedo launch and recovery vessel for the Indian Navy.


QUESTION 43

EasyIndian PolityPrelims 2016

The Parliament of India acquires the power to legislate on any item in the State List in the national interest if a resolution to that effect is passed by the -

A. Lok Sabha by a simple majority of its total membership

B. Lok Sabha by a majority of not less than two-thirds of its total membership

C. Rajya Sabha by a simple majority of its total membership

D. Rajya Sabha by a majority of not less than two-thirds of its members present and voting

Answer: D

Explanation

According to Article 249 of the Indian Constitution, the Parliament of India acquires the power to legislate on any item in the State List in the national interest if a resolution to that effect is passed by the Rajya Sabha by a majority of not less than two-thirds of its members present and voting.


QUESTION 44

MediumEconomyPrelims 2016

With reference to pre-packaged items in India, it is mandatory for the manufacturer to put which of the following information on the main label, as per the Food Safety and Standards (Packaging and Labeling) Regulations, 2011?

  1. List of ingredients including additives
  2. Nutrition information
  3. Recommendations, if any made by the medical profession about the possibility of any allergic reactions
  4. Vegetarian/non-vegetarian

Select the correct answer using the code given below

A. 1, 2 and 3

B. 2, 3 and 4

C. 1, 2 and 4

D. 1 and 4 only

Answer: C

Explanation

Every package of food shall carry the following information on the label, namely,

  • The Name of Food The name of the food shall include trade name or description of food contained in the package.

  • List of Ingredients except for single-ingredient foods, a list of ingredients shall be declared on the label.

  • Nutritional Information or nutritional facts per 100 gm or 100ml or per serving of the product shall be given on the label.

  • Vegetarian/non-vegetarian shall be mentioned.

  • There is no provision for recommendations of any medical professional regarding allergies.

Therefore, 1,2 and 4 are correct statements.


QUESTION 45

HardEnvironment & EcologyPrelims 2016

What is/are the importance/importances of the ‘United Nations Convention to Combat Desertification?

  1. It aims to promote effective action through innovative national programmes and supportive international partnerships.
  2. It has a special/particular focus on South Asia and North Africa region, and its secretariat facilitates the allocation of the major portion of financial resources to these regions.
  3. It is committed to the bottom-up approach, encouraging the participation of local people in combating desertification.

Select the correct answer using the code given below.

A. 1 only

B. 2 and 3 only

C. 1 and 3 only

D. 1, 2 and 3

Answer: C

Explanation

International Collaboration Desertification is a global challenge, and the UNCCD brings together countries to share knowledge, resources, and best practices in combating desertification. Local Participation Local communities living in drylands are most affected by desertification and have valuable knowledge about their environment. The UNCCD encourages their involvement in developing and implementing solutions.

While the UNCCD may provide some support to specific regions like South Asia and North Africa, its focus is global. Thus, statement 2 is not entirely accurate.

Therefore, the correct answer is 1 and 3 only.


QUESTION 46

EasyScience & TechnologyPrelims 2016

A recent movie titled The Man Who Knew Infinity is based on the biography of

A. S. Ramanujan

B. S. Chandrasekhar

C. S. N. Bose

D. C. V. Raman

Answer: A

Explanation

The movie The Man Who Knew Infinity is based on the life of the famous Indian mathematician Srinivasa Ramanujan. It portrays his journey from India to England and his collaboration with the British mathematician G.H. Hardy.


QUESTION 47

HardScience & TechnologyPrelims 2016

In the context of the developments in bioinformatics, the term ‘transcriptome’, sometimes seen in the news, refer to -

A. a range of enzymes used in genome editing

B. the full range of mRNA molecules expressed by an organism

C. the description of the mechanism of gene expression

D. A mechanism of genetic mutation taking place in cells

Answer: B

Explanation

The transcriptome is the set of all RNA molecules in one cell or a population of cells.

It is sometimes used to refer to all RNAs, or just mRNA, depending on the particular experiment.

It differs from the exome in that it includes only those RNA molecules found in a specified cell population and usually includes the amount or concentration of each RNA molecule in addition to the molecular identities.


QUESTION 48

MediumEnvironment & EcologyPrelims 2016

Which of the following is/are the advantage/advantages of practising drip irrigation?

  1. Reduction in weed
  2. Reduction in soil salinity
  3. Reduction in soil erosion

Select the correct answer using the code given below.

A. 1 and 2 only

B. 3 only

C. 1 and 3 only

D. None of the above is an advantage of practising drip irrigation

Answer: C

Explanation

Drip irrigation delivers water directly to the plant's roots, minimizing water reaching the soil surface. This reduces weed growth that thrives in areas with constant moisture. Hence, statement 1 is correct.

Soil salinity refers to the salt concentration in the soil. Drip irrigation itself doesn't directly address salinity levels. However, it can be used in conjunction with other techniques to manage salinity, such as applying precise amounts of water to flush out salts. Thus, statement 2 is incorrect.

Drip irrigation applies water slowly and directly to the roots, reducing water runoff. This helps prevent soil erosion, which can be a major problem with traditional irrigation methods that flood the land. Thus, statement 3 is correct.


QUESTION 49

EasyEnvironment & EcologyPrelims 2016

Consider the following pairs:

Terms sometimes seen in the newsTheir origin
1. Annex-I CountriesCartagena Protocol
2. Certified Emissions ReductionsNagoya Protocol
3. Clean Development MechanismKyoto Protocol

Which of the pairs given above is/are correctly matched?

A. 1 and 2 only

B. 2 and 3 only

C. 3 only

D. 1, 2 and 3

Answer: C

Explanation

"The correct answer is C, 3 only."

The terms mentioned above are all related to the Kyoto Protocol. Here's a brief explanation of each term

Annex-I Countries These countries have pledged to reduce their emissions by being a part of the Kyoto Protocol.The Cartagena Protocol is a separate international treaty on biosafety.

Certified Emissions Reductions These are a type of carbon credit that is granted by the Kyoto Protocol for achieving emission reductions through a clean development mechanism project. The Nagoya Protocol is another international treaty focusing on access to genetic resources and the fair and equitable sharing of benefits arising from their utilization.

Clean Development Mechanism It is a mechanism under the Kyoto Protocol that allows developed countries to invest in emission reduction projects in developing countries as a way to earn emission reduction credits.


QUESTION 50

MediumEconomyPrelims 2016

Which of the following best describes the term “import cover”, sometimes seen in the news?

A. It is the ratio of the value of imports to the Gross Domestic Product of a country

B. It is the total value of imports of a country in a year.

C. It is the ratio between the value of exports and imports between the two countries

D. It is the number of months of imports that could be paid for by a country’s international reserves

Answer: D

Explanation

The term "import cover" refers to the number of months a country's foreign exchange reserves can finance its imports. It's a crucial indicator of a country's external trade stability and its ability to meet its import obligations.


QUESTION 51

HardEnvironment & EcologyPrelims 2016

On which of the following can you find the Bureau of Energy Efficiency Star Label?

  1. Ceiling fans
  2. Electric geysers
  3. Tubular fluorescent lamps

Select the correct answer using the code given below:

A. 1 and 2 only

B. 3 only

C. 2 and 3 only

D. 1, 2 and 3

Answer: D

Explanation

WE can find the Bureau of Energy Efficiency (BEE) Star Label on all of the following options

-Ceiling fans -Electric geysers -Tubular fluorescent lamps

The BEE Star Label is a program that promotes energy efficiency in India by labeling appliances and electronic devices based on their energy consumption. Many different categories of appliances are covered under this program


QUESTION 52

MediumEnvironment & EcologyPrelims 2016

Which of the following best describes the aim of ‘Green India Mission’ of the Government of India?

  1. Incorporating environment benefits and costs into the Union and State Budgets thereby implementing the ‘green accounting’.
  2. Launching the second green revolution to enhance agriculture output so as to ensure food security to one and all in the future.
  3. Restoring and enhancing forest cover and responding to climate change by a combination of adaptation and mitigation measures.

Select the correct answer using the code given below

A. 1 only

B. 2 and 3 only

C. 3 only

D. 1, 2 and 3

Answer: C

Explanation

The National Mission for Green India (GIM) is one of the eight Missions outlined under the National Action Plan on Climate Change (NAPCC).

Mission Goals To increase forest/tree cover to the extent of 5 million hectares (mha) and improve quality of forest/tree cover on another 5 mha of forest/non-forest lands;

To improve/enhance ecosystem services like carbon sequestration and storage (in forests and other ecosystems), hydrological services and biodiversity; along with provisioning services like fuel, fodder, and timber and non-timber forest produces (NTFPs); and

To increase forest-based livelihood income of about 3 million households.


QUESTION 53

MediumEnvironment & EcologyPrelims 2016

In the cities of our country, which among the following atmospheric gases are normally considered in calculating the value of Air Quality Index?

  1. Carbon dioxide
  2. Carbon monoxide
  3. Nitrogen dioxide
  4. Sulphur Dioxide
  5. Methane

Select the correct answer using the code given below

A. 1, 2 and 3 only

B. 2, 3 and 4 Only

C. 1, 4 and 5 Only

D. 1, 2, 3, 4 and 5

Answer: B

Explanation

The Air Quality Index (AQI) is a way of measuring and communicating how clean or polluted the air is. It uses a scale from 0 to 500, with higher numbers indicating greater levels of air pollution.

AQI doesn't directly measure a single pollutant, but rather considers the concentration of several key air pollutants

Particulate Matter (PM) These are tiny particles suspended in the air, including PM2.5 (less than 2.5 micrometres in diameter) and PM10 (less than 10 micrometres). PM can irritate the lungs and cause respiratory problems. Ozone Ground-level ozone is a gas formed by chemical reactions in the presence of sunlight. It can irritate the respiratory system and worsen asthma. Nitrogen Dioxide Traffic emissions and industrial processes release nitrogen dioxide, which can irritate the respiratory system. Sulfur Dioxide Mainly produced by burning fossil fuels, sulfur dioxide can cause respiratory problems. Carbon Monoxide This gas is a product of incomplete combustion and can be harmful at high concentrations, impacting human health.


QUESTION 54

HardEnvironment & EcologyPrelims 2016

What is/are unique about ‘Kharai camel’ a breed found in India?

  1. It is capable of swimming up to three kilometres in seawater.
  2. It survives by grazing on mangroves.
  3. It lives in the wild and cannot be domesticated.

A. 1 and 2 only

B. 3 only

C. 1 and 3 only

D. 1, 2 and 3

Answer: A

Explanation

The unique features of the Kharai camel include

Kharai camels can indeed swim up to three kilometres in seawater (statement 1 is correct). This exceptional ability allows them to reach islands near the shore where they find their preferred food source.

Their name "Kharai" comes from the Gujarati word for "salty" because they primarily graze on saline plants and mangroves (statement 2 is correct). This dietary adaptation allows them to thrive in the harsh coastal environment.

However, statement 3 is incorrect. Kharai camels are herded by local communities (Maldhari) in the Kutch region of Gujarat, India. Their milk is consumed, and male calves are sometimes sold.


QUESTION 55

MediumEnvironment & EcologyPrelims 2016

Which of the following are the key features of ‘National Ganga River Basin Authority (NGRBA)’?

  1. The river basin is the unit of planning and management.
  2. It spearheads the river conservation efforts at the national level.
  3. One of the Chief Ministers of the State through which the Ganga flows becomes the Chairman of NGRBA on a rotation basis.

Select the correct answer using the code given below.

A. 1 and 2 only

B. 2 and 3 only

C. 1 and 3 only

D. 1, 2 and 3

Answer: A

Explanation

National Ganga River Basin Authority (NGRBA) is the financing, planning, implementing, monitoring, and coordinating authority for the Ganges River, functioning under the Jal Shakti Ministry.

The mission of the organisation is to safeguard the drainage basin which feeds water into the Ganges by protecting it from pollution or overuse. In July 2014, the NGRBA has been transferred from the Ministry of Environment and Forests to the Ministry of Jal Shakti.

The Prime Minister is the chair of the Authority. Thus, statement 3 is incorrect. Other members include the cabinet ministers of ministries that include the Ganges among their direct concerns and the chief ministers of states through which the Ganges River flows.


QUESTION 56

MediumInternational RelationsPrelims 2016

With reference to ‘Organization for the Prohibition of Chemical Weapons (OPCW)’ consider the following statements:

  1. It is an organization of European Union in working relation with NATO and WHO
  2. It monitors the chemical industry to prevent new weapons from emerging
  3. It provides assistance and protection to States (Parties) against chemical weapons threats.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

A. 1 only

B. 2 and 3 only

C. 1 and 3 only

D. 1,2 and 3

Answer: B

Explanation

Statement 1 Incorrect. The OPCW is an independent intergovernmental organization, not affiliated with a specific region like the European Union. It cooperates with various organizations, including NATO and WHO, on matters related to chemical weapons, but it's not directly under their purview.

Statement 2 Correct. The OPCW plays a crucial role in monitoring the chemical industry to prevent the proliferation of chemical weapons. This includes inspections of declared chemical facilities and verification of disarmament efforts.

Statement 3 Correct. The OPCW offers assistance and protection to member states (Parties) facing threats from chemical weapons. This can involve providing training, equipment, and expertise to help countries enhance their chemical security measures.


QUESTION 57

MediumEconomyPrelims 2016

There has been a persistent deficit budget year after year. Which action/actions of the following can be taken by the Government to reduce the deficit?

  1. Reducing revenue expenditure
  2. Introducing new welfare schemes
  3. Rationalizing subsidies
  4. Reducing import duty

Select the correct answer using the code given below.

A. 1 only

B. 2 and 3 only

C. 1 and 3 only

D. 1, 2, 3 and 4

Answer: C

Explanation

Actions that can help reduce the deficit

  1. Reducing revenue expenditure (Correct) This involves cutting back on non-essential government spending. Examples include reducing administrative costs, curtailing travel expenses, or postponing discretionary infrastructure projects.
  2. Rationalizing subsidies (Correct) This means making subsidies more targeted and efficient. The government can identify and eliminate wasteful subsidies or ensure they reach the intended beneficiaries.

Actions that will likely increase the deficit

  1. Introducing new welfare schemes (Incorrect) This would increase government spending and contribute to the deficit.
  2. Reducing import duty (Incorrect) Lower import duties can lead to a decrease in government revenue collected from customs duties. This can worsen the deficit.

Therefore, the correct answer is 1 and 3 only (Reducing revenue expenditure and Rationalizing subsidies)


QUESTION 58

HardEnvironment & EcologyPrelims 2016

What is ‘Greenhouse Gas Protocol’?

A. It is an international accounting tool for government and business leaders to understand, quantify and manage greenhouse gas emissions

B. It is an initiative of the United Nations to offer financial incentives to developing countries to reduce greenhouse gas emissions and to adopt eco-friendly technologies

C. It is an intergovernmental agreement ratified by all the member countries of the United Nations to reduce greenhouse gas emissions to specified levels by the year 2022

D. It is one of the multilateral REDD-initiatives hosted by the World Bank

Answer: A

Explanation

The Greenhouse Gas Protocol (GHG Protocol) is a set of internationally recognized standards for measuring and managing greenhouse gas (GHG) emissions.

A collaboration between the World Resources Institute (WRI) and the World Business Council for Sustainable Development (WBCSD). Its purpose is to establish a standardized approach for GHG accounting and reporting, enabling consistent and comparable data across organizations and sectors.


QUESTION 59

MediumInternational RelationsPrelims 2016

Consider the following statements: The India-Africa Summit -

  1. Held in 2015 was the third such Summit
  2. Was actually initiated by Jawaharlal Nehru in 1951

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

A. 1 only

B. 2 only

C. Both 1 and 2

D. Neither 1 nor 2

Answer: A

Explanation

The IndiaAfrica Forum Summit (IAFS) is the official platform for the African-Indian relations.

IAFS will be held once every three years. It was first held from April 4 to April 8, 2008, in New Delhi, India. Hence, Statement 2 is incorrect.

It was the first such meeting between the heads of state and government of India and 14 countries of Africa chosen by the African Union.


QUESTION 60

HardIndian GeographyPrelims 2016

In which of the following regions of India are shale gas resources found?

  1. Cambay Basin
  2. Cauvery basin
  3. Krishna-Godavari Basin

Select the correct answer using the code given below:

A. 1 and 2 only

B. 3 only

C. 2 and 3 only

D. 1, 2 and 3

Answer: D

Explanation

Shale gas is a natural gas that is found trapped within shale formations.

  • In India, shale gas resources are found in several regions.
  • The Cambay Basin, located in western India, is one of the oldest and most productive sedimentary basins in India and has been a major source of conventional oil and gas.
  • The Cauvery Basin and Krishna-Godavari Basin are also known to have shale gas resources.

Therefore, all three basins mentioned in the options are known to have shale gas resources. Hence, the correct answer is (d) 1, 2 and 3.


QUESTION 61

MediumSocial Issues & SchemesPrelims 2016

Which of the following is/are the indicator/indicators used by IFPRI to compute the Global Hunger Index Report?

  1. Undernourishment
  2. Child stunting
  3. Child mortality

Select the correct answer using the code given below:

A. 1 only

B. 2 and 3 only

C. 1, 2 and 3

D. 1 and 3 only

Answer: C

Explanation

All three indicators (1, 2, and 3) are used by IFPRI (International Food Policy Research Institute) to compute the Global Hunger Index Report.

The Global Hunger Index (GHI) is a tool designed to comprehensively measure and track hunger at global, regional, and national levels. It's a peer-reviewed annual report, now jointly published by Concern Worldwide and Welthungerhilfe.

Purpose To assess hunger severity and track progress towards ending hunger.

Each country's GHI score is calculated based on a formula that combines four indicators that together capture the multidimensional nature of hunger

  • Undernourishment The share of the population whose caloric intake is insufficient;
  • Child Stunting The share of children under the age of five who have low height for their age, reflecting chronic undernutrition;
  • Child Wasting The share of children under the age of five who have low weight for their height, reflecting acute undernutrition; and
  • Child Mortality The share of children who die before their fifth birthday, reflecting in part the fatal mix of inadequate nutrition and unhealthy environments.

QUESTION 62

MediumSocial Issues & SchemesPrelims 2016

What is/are the purpose of ‘District Mineral Foundations” in India?

  1. Promoting mineral explorative activities in mineral-rich districts
  2. Protecting the interests of the persons affected by mining operations
  3. Authorizing State Governments to issue licenses for mineral exploration

Select the correct answer using the code given below:

A. 1 and 2 only

B. 2 only

C. 1 and 3 only

D. 1, 2 and 3

Answer: B

Explanation

District Mineral Foundations (DMFs) were established in India under the Mines and Minerals (Development and Regulation) Amendment Act, 2015.

The primary purpose of DMFs is to work for the welfare and benefit of areas and individuals affected by mining-related operations. This includes protecting the interests of the persons affected by mining operations.

However, DMFs do not have the authority to issue licenses for mineral exploration, as this is the responsibility of the State Governments.

Also, promoting mineral explorative activities in mineral-rich districts is not a stated objective of DMFs.

Their focus is more on the welfare of the affected persons and areas.

Therefore, the correct answer is (b) 2 only.


QUESTION 63

HardSocial Issues & SchemesPrelims 2016

With reference to ‘Initiative for Nutritional Security through Intensive Millets Promotion’, which of the following statements is/are correct?

  1. This initiative aims to demonstrate the improved production and post-harvest technologies and to demonstrate value addition techniques, in an integrated manner, with a cluster approach.
  2. Poor, small, marginal and tribal farmers have a larger stake in this scheme.
  3. An important objective of the scheme is to encourage farmers of commercial crops to shift to millet cultivation by offering them free kits of critical inputs of nutrients and micro-irrigation equipment.

Select the correct answer using the code given below.

A. 1 only

B. 2 and 3 only

C. 1 and 2 only

D. 1, 2 and 3

Answer: C

Explanation

The statement 1 is correct. The Initiative for Nutritional Security through Intensive Millets Promotion aims to demonstrate improved production and post-harvest technologies in an integrated manner with a cluster approach.

Statement 2 is also correct. Millets are mainly grown in regions of low annual rainfall and poor arid soil. It is inadequate, small, marginal and tribal farmers, who cannot afford costly irrigation practices, depend on the cultivation of millets. Hence these farmers benefit from the scheme and have a larger stake in this scheme.

Statement 3 is not correct. There is no such provision to encourage commercial crop farmers to shift to millet cultivation.


QUESTION 64

MediumIndian PolityPrelims 2016

Which of the following statements is/are correct?

  1. A bill pending in the Lok Sabha lapses on its prorogation.
  2. A bill pending in the Rajya Sabha, which has not been passed by the Lok Sabha, shall not lapse on the dissolution of the Lok Sabha.

Select the correct answer using the code given below:

A. 1 only

B. 2 only

C. Both 1 and 2

D. Neither 1 nor 2

Answer: B

Explanation

1 is Incorrect A bill pending in the Lok Sabha does not lapse on prorogation. Prorogation is a temporary adjournment, and all pending business, including bills, is carried forward when the House reconvenes.

2 is Correct A bill pending in the Rajya Sabha, which has not been passed by the Lok Sabha, does not lapse on the dissolution of the Lok Sabha. The Rajya Sabha is a continuing body, and bills pending there can be taken up by the new Lok Sabha.

Dissolution, unlike prorogation, completely dissolves the existing Lok Sabha. However, bills in the Rajya Sabha are not affected by this change.


QUESTION 65

EasyInternational RelationsPrelims 2016

The term ‘Regional Comprehensive Economic Partnership’ often appears in the news in the context of the affairs of a group of countries known as

A. G20

B. ASEAN

C. SCO

D. SAARC

Answer: B

Explanation

The term Regional Comprehensive Economic Partnership (RCEP) often appears in the news in the context of the affairs of the Association of Southeast Asian Nations (ASEAN) and its Free Trade Agreement (FTA) partners.

ASEAN (Association of Southeast Asian Nations) This is a regional organization of 10 Southeast Asian countries Brunei, Cambodia, Indonesia, Laos, Malaysia, Myanmar, Philippines, Singapore, Thailand, and Vietnam.

Free Trade Agreement (FTA) Partners RCEP is a free trade agreement between ASEAN and its existing FTA partners. These partners include Australia, China, India, Japan, New Zealand, and South Korea. Therefore, RCEP news is related t


QUESTION 66

MediumSocial Issues & SchemesPrelims 2016

‘Rashtriya Garima Abhiyaan’ is a national campaign to -

A. rehabilitate the homeless and destitute persons and provide them with suitable sources of livelihood

B. release the sex workers from the practice and provide them with alternative sources of livelihood

C. eradicate the practice of manual scavenging and rehabilitate the manual scavenger

D. release the bonded labourers free their bondage and rehabilitate them

Answer: C

Explanation

Rashtriya Garima Abhiyaan is a national campaign to eradicate the practice of manual scavenging and rehabilitate manual scavengers in India.

It was launched in 2001 by the Ministry of Social Justice and Empowerment with the aim of

  • Eliminating manual scavenging This involves identifying and prohibiting the practice of manual cleaning of human excreta from sewers, septic tanks, and other unsanitary places.
  • Rehabilitating manual scavengers This includes providing alternative livelihoods, social security, and educational opportunities to those who have been engaged in manual scavenging.

QUESTION 67

MediumMedieval HistoryPrelims 2016

Banjaras during the medieval period of Indian history were generally -

A. agriculturists

B. warriors

C. weavers

D. traders

Answer: D

Explanation

Banjaras during the medieval period of Indian history were generally traders.

They were nomadic communities known for transporting goods like salt, grain, cattle, and other necessities across long distances using bullock caravans called tandas. They played a crucial role in facilitating trade and commerce within the Indian subcontinent.


QUESTION 68

HardModern HistoryPrelims 2016

Consider the following:

  1. Calcutta Unitarian Committee
  2. Tabernacle of New Dispensation
  3. Indian Reforms Association

Keshab Chandra Sen is associated with the establishment of which of the above?

A. 1 and 3 only

B. 2 and 3 only

C. 3 only

D. 1, 2 and 3

Answer: B

Explanation

On 24th January 1868 Keshab Chandra Sen laid the foundation stone of his mandir called the Tabernacle of New Dispensation. Keshab and his followers marched to the proposed spot early in the morning performing Sankirtan and this was the first Brahmo street procession and it was the first of its kind in Calcutta.

Indian Reforms Association aligns better with Sen's social reform activities. He established this association upon returning from Europe in 1870 to advocate for social progress in areas like education, women's rights, and temperance.

The Calcutta Unitarian Committee, jointly founded by William Adam and Rammohun Roy in September 1821, sought to bring together prominent Brahmins who were friends of Roy's and supporters of his agenda for the promotion of religious monotheism and social reform among Hindus. Thus, statement one is incorrect.


QUESTION 69

MediumEnvironment & EcologyPrelims 2016

Recently, for the first time in our country, which of the following State has declared a particular butterfly as ‘State Butterfly’?

A. Arunachal Pradesh

B. Himachal Pradesh

C. Karnataka

D. Maharashtra

Answer: D

Explanation

The first state in India to declare a state butterfly was Maharashtra.

Maharashtra designated the Blue Mormon (Papilio polymnestor) as its state butterfly in 2005. It's a large, black colored butterfly with velvet wings and bright blue spots.


QUESTION 70

HardArt & CulturePrelims 2016

Consider the following pairs:

Famous placeRegion
1. BodhgayaBaghelkhand
2. KhajurahoBundelkhand
3. ShirdiVidarbha
4. Nasik (Nashik)Malwa
5. TirupatiRayalaseema

Which of the pairs given above are correctly matched?

A. 1, 2 and 4

B. 2, 3, 4 and 5

C. 2 and 5 only

D. 1, 3, 4 and 5

Answer: C

Explanation

Out of the listed pairs, the following are correctly matched

  1. Khajuraho - Bundelkhand (Correct)

  2. Tirupati - Rayalaseema (Correct)

  3. Bodhgaya - Baghelkhand (Incorrect) Bodhgaya is situated in the Magadh region of Bihar.

  4. Shirdi - Vidarbha (Incorrect) Shirdi is located in the Ahmednagar district of Maharashtra, not Vidarbha.

  5. Nasik (Nashik) - Malwa (Incorrect) Nashik is in the northwest region of Maharashtra, not Malwa, which is located in Madhya Pradesh.


QUESTION 71

MediumEconomyPrelims 2016

‘Global Financial Stability Report’ is prepared by the -

A. European Central Bank

B. International Monetary Fund

C. International Bank for Reconstruction and Development

D. Organization for Economic Cooperation and Development

Answer: B

Explanation

The 'Global Financial Stability Report' is prepared by the International Monetary Fund (IMF).

The Global Financial Stability Report is a semiannual report published by the IMF that assesses the stability of the global financial system and emerging market financing. It highlights potential risks and vulnerabilities in the financial system and provides policy recommendations to promote financial stability.


QUESTION 72

EasyModern HistoryPrelims 2016

The ‘Swadeshi’ and ‘Boycott’ adopted as methods of struggle for the first time during the -

A. Agitation against the Partition of Bengal

B. Home Rule Movement

C. Non-Cooperation Movement

D. Visit of the Simon Commission to India

Answer: A

Explanation

The 'Swadeshi' (promotion of indigenous products and industries) and 'Boycott' (of British goods and institutions) were adopted as methods of struggle for the first time during the Anti-Partition Movement or the Swadeshi Movement of 1905-1911.

This movement was sparked by the decision of the British colonial government to partition the province of Bengal in 1905, which was seen as an attempt to weaken the nationalist movement in Bengal.


QUESTION 73

MediumSocial Issues & SchemesPrelims 2016

With reference to ‘Stand Up India Scheme’, which of the following statements is/are correct?

  1. Its purpose is to promote entrepreneurship among SC/ST and women entrepreneurs.
  2. It provides for refinancing through SIDBI.

Select the correct answer using the code given below.

A. 1 only

B. 2 only

C. Both 1 and 2

D. Neither 1 nor 2

Answer: C

Explanation

The Stand-up India scheme aims at promoting entrepreneurship among women and scheduled castes and tribes. The scheme is anchored by the Department of Financial Services (DFS), Ministry of Finance, Government of India.

  • Scheme provides for refinance window through Small Industries Development Bank of India (SIDBI) with an initial amount of Rs, 10,000 Crore.
  • Stand-Up India Scheme facilitates bank loans between Rs 10 lakh and Rs 1 Crore to at least one Scheduled Caste (SC) or Scheduled Tribe (ST) borrower and at least one woman borrower per bank branch for setting up a greenfield enterprise.
  • This enterprise may be in manufacturing, services or the trading sector.
  • In the case of non-individual enterprises, at least 51% of the shareholding and controlling stake should be held by either an SC/ST or woman entrepreneur.

Therefore, both statements 1 and 2 are correct.


QUESTION 74

MediumInternational RelationsPrelims 2016

Consider the following statements:

  1. New Development Bank has been set up by APEC.
  2. The headquarters of the New Development Bank is in Shanghai.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

A. 1 only

B. 2 only

C. Both 1 and 2

D. Neither 1 nor 2

Answer: B

Explanation

At the fourth BRICS Summit in New Delhi (2012), the leaders of Brazil, Russia, India, China, and South Africa considered the possibility of setting up a new Development Bank to mobilize resources for infrastructure and sustainable development projects in BRICS and other emerging economies, as well as in developing countries. So, statement 1 is incorrect.

The bank is headquartered in Shanghai, China. So, statement 2 is correct.


QUESTION 75

MediumEconomyPrelims 2016

Consider the following statements with reference to ‘IFC Masala Bonds’ -

  1. The International Finance Corporation, which offers these bonds, is an arm of the World Bank.
  2. They are the rupee-denominated bonds and are a source of debt financing for the public and private sector.

Select the correct answer using the code given below.

A. 1 only

B. 2 Only

C. Both 1 and 2

D. Neither 1 nor 2

Answer: C

Explanation

Statement 1 is Correct The International Finance Corporation (IFC) is indeed an arm of the World Bank Group, a group of five international organizations that work together to fight poverty and promote sustainable development. The IFC specifically focuses on encouraging growth in the private sector of developing countries.

Statement 2 is Correct Masala bonds are rupee-denominated bonds issued by foreign entities (public or private sector) outside of India. These bonds raise capital for the issuer in Indian rupees, providing an alternative funding source.

Therefore, the correct answer is 1 and 2 both are correct.


QUESTION 76

MediumSocial Issues & SchemesPrelims 2016

‘SWAYAM’, an initative of the Government of India, aims at

A. Promoting Self Help Groups in rural areas

B. Providing financial and technical assistance to young start-up entrepreneurs

C. Promoting the education and health of adolescent girls

D. Providing affordable and quality education to the citizens for free

Answer: D

Explanation

Under SWAYAM or Study Webs of Active Learning for Young Aspiring Minds programme of the Ministry of Human Resource Development, Government of India, professors and faculties from centrally funded institutions like IITs, IIMs, central universities will offer online courses to citizens of India.

SWAYAM is an instrument for self-actualisation providing opportunities for life-long learning. Here, learners can choose from hundreds of courses, virtually every course that is taught at the university/college/school level and these shall be offered by the best of the teachers in India and elsewhere.


QUESTION 77

HardArt & CulturePrelims 2016

With reference to the cultural history of India, the memorizing of chronicles, dynastic histories and Epictales was the profession of which of the following?

A. Shramana

B. Parivraaj

C. Agrahaarika

D. Maagadha

Answer: D

Explanation

The memorizing of chronicles, dynastic histories, and Epic tales was the profession of Maagadha.

To make it easier to remember, let's break it down

  • Chronicles These are the records of historical events in chronological order.
  • Dynastic histories These detail the histories of dynasties or royal families.
  • Epic tales These are long, narrative poems about heroic deeds.

So, a Maagadha was essentially a historical storyteller or a keeper of history and legends.


QUESTION 78

MediumEconomyPrelims 2016

The term ‘Core Banking Solution’ is sometimes seen in the news. Which of the following statements best describes/describe this term?

  1. It is networking of a bank’s branches which enables customers to operate their accounts from any branch of the bank on its network regardless of where they open their accounts.
  2. It is an effort to increase RBI’s control over commercial banks through computerization.
  3. It is a detailed procedure by which a bank with huge non-performing assets is taken over by another bank.

Select the correct answer using the code given below:

A. 1 only

B. 2 and 3 only

C. 1 and 3 only

D. 1, 2 and 3

Answer: A

Explanation

A core banking solution is a centralized system that integrates various banking functions across a bank's branches.

It allows for Networked branches Customers can access their accounts and conduct transactions from any branch within the bank's network, regardless of where they originally opened their account. Improved efficiency CBS automates many manual processes, leading to faster transactions and better customer service. Centralized data management All customer information and account data are stored in a central location, facilitating easier access and record keeping.

Therefore, the correct answer is 1 only.


QUESTION 79

MediumIndian PolityPrelims 2016

Consider the following statements:

  1. The minimum age prescribed for any person to be a member of Panchayat is 25 years.
  2. A Panchayat reconstituted after premature dissolution continues only for the remainder period.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

A. 1 only

B. 2 only

C. Both 1 and 2

D. Neither 1 nor 2

Answer: B

Explanation

The minimum age to be a member of Panchayat is not 25 years, but 21 years as per the Indian Constitution. Therefore, the first statement is incorrect.

The second statement is correct. If a Panchayat is reconstituted after premature dissolution, it continues only for the remainder of the period for which the dissolved Panchayat would have continued under normal circumstances.


QUESTION 80

EasyScience & TechnologyPrelims 2016

‘Project Loon’, sometimes seen in the news, is related to -

A. Waste management technology

B. Wireless communication technology

C. Solar power production technology

D. Water conservation technology

Answer: B

Explanation

Project Loon, though no longer operational, was an initiative related to providing internet connectivity.

Project Loon was a project by Loon LLC, a subsidiary of Alphabet Inc. (Google's parent company). It aimed to deliver internet access to remote and underserved areas around the world. The project utilized high-altitude balloons that floated in the stratosphere, carrying equipment to create an aerial wireless network. Sadly, Project Loon was shut down in January 2021 due to challenges in achieving commercial viability.


QUESTION 81

EasyEnvironment & EcologyPrelims 2016

‘Gadgil Committee Report’ and ‘Kasturirangan Committee Report’, sometimes seen in the news, are related to -

A. Constitutional reforms

B. Ganga Action Plan

C. Linking of rivers

D. Protection of Western Ghats

Answer: D

Explanation

The Gadgil Committee Report and Kasturirangan Committee Report are both related to the protection of the Western Ghats in India.

Gadgil Committee Report This report, submitted in 2011, emphasized strict environmental protection measures for the Western Ghats. It recommended declaring the entire Western Ghats region as an Ecologically Sensitive Area (ESA) with varying levels of protection zones.

Kasturirangan Committee Report This report, submitted in 2012, was constituted to examine the Gadgil Committee Report. It aimed to find a balance between environmental protection and the developmental needs of the region. While acknowledging the ecological importance of the Western Ghats, it proposed a slightly modified approach to the ESA boundaries compared to the Gadgil Committee Report.


QUESTION 82

EasyModern HistoryPrelims 2016

What was the main reason for the split in the Indian National Congress at Surat in 1907?

A. Introduction of communalism into Indian politics by Lord Minto.

B. Extremists’ lack of faith in the capacity of the moderates to negotiate with the British Government

C. Foundation of Muslim League

D. Aurobindo Ghosh’s inability to be elected as the President of the Indian National Congress

Answer: B

Explanation

The Extremist wanted to extend the Boycott and Swadeshi Movement to regions outside Bengal and also include all forms of associations (government services, law courts, councils, etc.) within the boycott programme, thus starting a nationwide mass movement.

Unlike Extremists, Moderates were opposed to extending the movement and the idea of passive resistance. They felt that it involved the use of force.

After the split, the Congress came to be dominated by the Moderates with Tilak?s followers functioning from outside.

The two groups reunited in December 1915. Next year, the Congress and the Muslim League signed the Lucknow Pact and decided to work together for representative government in the country.


QUESTION 83

EasyEconomyPrelims 2016

In the context of which of the following do you sometimes find the terms ‘amber box, blue box and green box’ in the news?

A. WTO affairs

B. SAARC affairs

C. UNFCCC affairs

D. India-EU negotiations on FTA

Answer: A

Explanation

The terms "amber box," "blue box," and "green box" are often associated with the agriculture sector and are commonly used in discussions related to international trade negotiations, particularly within the framework of the World Trade Organization (WTO) Agreement on Agriculture.

Amber Box This refers to domestic support measures considered to distort agricultural production and trade. These measures typically include price supports, production subsidies, and other forms of support that are considered trade-distorting.

Blue Box This category includes domestic support measures that are considered less trade-distorting compared to those in the amber box. However, they still involve certain constraints or conditions aimed at limiting their trade-distorting effects.

Green Box These are domestic support measures that are considered minimally or non-trade-distorting. They typically include subsidies that are tied to environmental or rural development objectives, as well as certain types of direct income support that do not distort trade significantly.


QUESTION 84

MediumEconomyPrelims 2016

What is/are the purpose/purposes of Government’s ‘Sovereign Gold Bond Scheme’ and 'Gold Monetization Scheme'?

  1. To bring the idle gold lying with India households into the economy
  2. To promote FDI in the gold and jewellery sector
  3. To reduce India’s dependence on gold imports

Select the correct answer using the code given below:

A. 1 only

B. 2 and 3 only

C. 1 and 3 only

D. 1, 2 and 3

Answer: C

Explanation

Sovereign Gold Bonds (SGBs) are government securities denominated in grams of gold. They are substitutes for holding physical gold. Investors have to pay the issue price in cash, and the bonds will be redeemed in cash on maturity. The Bond is issued by the Reserve Bank on behalf of Government of India.

Gold Monetization Scheme (GMS), which modifies the existing Gold Deposit Scheme (GDS) and Gold Metal Loan Scheme (GML), is intended to mobilise gold held by households and institutions of the country and facilitate its use for productive purposes, and in the long run, to reduce the country's reliance on the import of gold.


QUESTION 85

MediumIndian PolityPrelims 2016

With reference to the ‘Gram Nyayalaya Act’, which of the following statements is/are correct?

  1. As per the Act, Gram Nyayalayas can hear only civil cases and not criminal cases
  2. The Act allows local social activists as mediators/reconciliators.

Select the correct answer using the code given below:

A. 1 only

B. 2 only

C. Both 1 and 2

D. Neither 1 nor 2

Answer: B

Explanation

Under Section 12 of the Gram Nyayalaya Act, Gram Nyayalayas has criminal jurisdiction. Therefore, Gram Nyayalayas have both civil jurisdiction and criminal jurisdiction. So, statement 1 is incorrect.

According to section 26, Gram Nyayalaya must make efforts for conciliation and settlement of civil disputes. To fulfil the purpose of Section 26, under Section 27, the District Court shall, in consultation with the District Magistrate, prepare a panel consisting of the names of social workers at the village level having integrity for appointment as Conciliators who possess such qualifications and experience as may be prescribed by the High Court. Hence, statement 2 is correct.


QUESTION 86

HardAncient HistoryPrelims 2016

In the context of the history of India, consider the following pairs:

TermDescription
1. EripattiLand revenue from which was set apart for the maintenance of the village tank
2. TaniyursVillages donated to a single Brahmin or a group of Brahmins
3. GhatikasColleges generally attached to the temples

Which of the pairs given above is/are correctly matched?

A. 1 and 2 only

B. 3 only

C. 2 and 3 only

D. 1 and 3 only

Answer: D

Explanation

Eripatti (Correct match) Eripatti refers to land set apart specifically for the maintenance of village tanks. The revenue generated from this land was used to finance the upkeep of these vital water sources for irrigation and other uses.

Taniyurs (Incorrect match) While Taniyurs were land grants, they were not exclusively for Brahmins. They were larger revenue units that could include several villages and were often associated with the Cholas.

Ghatikas (Correct match) Ghatikas were centres of learning, particularly religious education, often attached to temples. They were smaller institutions compared to Agraharas, which were larger temple-based educational complexes.


QUESTION 87

MediumSocial Issues & SchemesPrelims 2016

Regarding ‘Atal Pension Yojana’, which of the following statements is/are correct?

  1. It is a minimum guaranteed pension scheme mainly targeted at unorganized sector workers
  2. Only one member of a family can join the scheme
  3. Some amount of pension is guaranteed for the spouse for life after the subscriber’s death.

Select the correct answer using the code given below:

A. 1 only

B. 2 and 3 only

C. 1 and 3 only

D. 1, 2 and 3

Answer: C

Explanation

Out of the options listed, the correct statements regarding Atal Pension Yojana are

Correct Atal Pension Yojana is a minimum guaranteed pension scheme primarily targeted at unorganized sector workers in India. It encourages saving for retirement through regular contributions during their working years.

Incorrect There is no restriction on the number of family members who can join the Atal Pension Yojana scheme. As long as they meet the eligibility criteria (age 18-40 and savings bank account), multiple members within a family can enroll.

Correct Atal Pension Yojana provides a pension benefit for the spouse after the subscriber's death. The spouse becomes the nominee and receives a pension, though the specific amount might differ depending on the chosen pension plan by the subscriber.

Therefore, the correct answer is 1 and 3


QUESTION 88

HardMedieval HistoryPrelims 2016

With reference to the economic history of medieval India, the term ‘Araghatta’ refers to -

A. bonded labour

B. land grants made to military officers

C. waterwheel used in the irrigation of land

D. wasteland converted to cultivated land

Answer: C

Explanation

Araghatta, also known as the 'Persian wheel' or 'Norias', was a device used in medieval India for lifting water from wells or rivers for irrigation purposes.

It typically consisted of a large wheel fitted with pots or buckets along its circumference. As the wheel rotated, the pots would fill with water from a water source and then empty into a trough, channel, or aqueduct for distribution to fields or other areas requiring irrigation.


QUESTION 89

EasyEconomyPrelims 2016

The term ‘Base Erosion and profit shifting’ is sometimes seen in the news in the context of

A. mining operation by multinational companies in resource-rich by backward areas

B. curbing of the tax evasion by multinational companies

C. exploitation of genetic resources of a country by multinational companies

D. Lack of consideration of environmental costs in the planning of development projects

Answer: B

Explanation

The term "Base Erosion and Profit Shifting (BEPS)" refers to tax planning strategies used by multinational companies to artificially shift profits from higher-tax jurisdictions to lower-tax jurisdictions, thereby reducing their overall tax liabilities.

This practice often involves exploiting gaps and mismatches in tax rules between different countries. BEPS has been a major concern for governments worldwide as it can lead to significant revenue losses and erode the tax base of countries where economic activity occurs.

Efforts to address BEPS involve cooperation among countries to develop common standards and guidelines to prevent tax avoidance by multinational corporations.


QUESTION 90

MediumSocial Issues & SchemesPrelims 2016

With reference to ‘Pradhan Mantri Fasal Bima Yojana’, consider the following statements:

  1. Under this scheme, farmers will have to pay a uniform premium of two per cent for any crop they cultivate in any season of the year.
  2. This scheme covers post-harvest losses arising out of cyclones and unseasonal rains.

Which of the statements given about is/are correct?

A. 1 only

B. 2 only

C. Both 1 and 2

D. Neither 1 nor 2

Answer: B

Explanation

The Pradhan Mantri Fasal Bima Yojana (PMFBY) is a government-sponsored crop insurance scheme.

Under this scheme, farmers have to pay a uniform premium of 2% for all Kharif crops, 1.5% for all Rabi crops, and 5% for commercial/horticultural crops. Therefore, the first statement is incorrect as the premium rate is not uniform for all crops in all seasons.

The second statement is correct. The scheme does cover post-harvest losses arising out of cyclones and unseasonal rains.

Therefore, the correct answer is (b) 2 only.


QUESTION 91

MediumInternational RelationsPrelims 2016

With reference to the International Monetary and Financial Committee (IMFC), consider the following statements:

  1. IMFC discusses matters of concern affecting the global economy and advises the International Monetary Fund (IMF) on the direction of its work.
  2. The World Bank participates as an observer in IMFC’s meetings.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

A. 1 only

B. 2 only

C. Both 1 and 2

D. Neither 1 nor 2

Answer: C

Explanation

Statement 1 is Correct The International Monetary and Financial Committee (IMFC) serves as a vital forum for discussing global economic issues and providing guidance to the International Monetary Fund (IMF). It brings together finance ministers, central bank governors, and other high-level officials from member countries to discuss challenges and opportunities facing the global economy. They also advise the IMF on its policy direction and work program.

Statement 2 is Correct The World Bank, while a separate institution, collaborates closely with the IMF. While not a formal member of the IMFC, the World Bank typically participates as an observer in IMFC meetings. This allows for better coordination and exchange of information between the two institutions on matters of mutual interest, such as global economic stability and development.


QUESTION 92

MediumEnvironment & EcologyPrelims 2016

Consider the following statements:

  1. The Sustainable Development Goals were first proposed in 1972 by a global think tank called the ‘Club of Rome’.
  2. The Sustainable Development Goals have to be achieved by 2030.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

A. 1 only

B. 2 only

C. Both 1 and 2

D. Neither 1 nor 2

Answer: B

Explanation

In 1972, Countries met in Stockholm, Sweden, for the United Nations Conference on the Human Environment, to consider the rights of the family to a healthy and productive environment.

In 1983, the United Nations created the World Commission on Environment and Development (later known as the Brundtland Commission), which defined sustainable development as "meeting the needs of the present without compromising the ability of future generations to meet their own needs".

Colombia proposed the idea of the SDGs at a preparation event for Rio20 held in Indonesia in July 2011. Thus, statement 1 is incorrect.

The Sustainable Development Goals are the blueprint to achieve a better and more sustainable future for all. They address the global challenges we face, including those related to poverty, inequality, climate, environmental degradation, prosperity, and peace and justice. The consensus is that these SDGs have to be achieved by 2030. Thus, statement 2 is correct.


QUESTION 93

EasyModern HistoryPrelims 2016

The Montague-Chelmsford Proposals were related to -

A. social reforms

B. educational reforms

C. reforms in police administration

D. constitutional reforms

Answer: D

Explanation

The Montague-Chelmsford Proposals were related to constitutional reforms in British India.

These proposals, named after Secretary of State for India Edwin Montagu and Viceroy Lord Chelmsford, aimed to gradually introduce self-governing institutions in India.

The reforms were outlined in the Montagu-Chelmsford Report of 1918 and later formed the basis of the Government of India Act 1919.


QUESTION 94

MediumScience & TechnologyPrelims 2016

With reference to ‘LiFi’, recently in the news, which of the following statements is/are correct?

  1. It uses light as the medium for high-speed data transmission.
  2. It is a wireless technology and is many times faster than ‘WiFi.

A. 1 only

B. 2 only

C. Both 1 and 2

D. Neither 1 nor 2

Answer: C

Explanation

Li-Fi (Light Fidelity) utilizes light waves for data transmission. It uses rapid flickering of light, invisible to the human eye, to carry information.

Li-Fi is a wireless technology and has the potential to be significantly faster than Wi-Fi. While actual speeds depend on various factors, Li-Fi boasts theoretical speeds exceeding 100 Gbps compared to the current Wi-Fi standards offering up to 11 Gbps.

Therefore, both statements are correct.


QUESTION 95

EasySocial Issues & SchemesPrelims 2016

‘Mission Indradhanush’ launched by the Government of India pertains to -

A. Immunization of children and pregnant women

B. Construction of smart cities across the country

C. India’ own search for Earth-like planets in outer space

D. New Educational policy

Answer: A

Explanation

Mission Indradhanush launched by the Government of India pertains to immunization.

Specifically, it's a special immunization program that aims to

  • Increase full immunization coverage Mission Indradhanush targets children under two years old and pregnant women to ensure they receive all the recommended vaccines for protection against vaccine-preventable diseases.
  • Focus on low-coverage areas
  • Improve routine immunization

By focusing on these aspects, Mission Indradhanush aims to improve overall child health and reduce the burden of vaccine-preventable diseases in India.


QUESTION 96

MediumEnvironment & EcologyPrelims 2016

Consider the following statements:

  1. The International Solar Alliance was launched at the United Nations Climate Change Conference in 2015.
  2. The Alliance includes all the member countries of the United Nations.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

A. 1 only

B. 2 only

C. Both 1 and 2

D. Neither 1 nor 2

Answer: A

Explanation

The International Solar Alliance (ISA) was launched at the United Nations Climate Change Conference in Paris on November 30, 2015, by India and France. Hence, statement 1 is correct.

The Alliance was not open to all UN member countries (now extended to all members of the UN). While membership has expanded since its inception, it currently focuses on countries lying geographically between the Tropic of Cancer and the Tropic of Capricorn, also known as the Sun Belt. These regions tend to have abundant sunshine, making solar energy a viable resource. Hence, statement 2 is incorrect.


QUESTION 97

MediumEconomyPrelims 2016

The establishment of “Payment Banks’ is being allowed in India to promote Financial Inclusion. Which of the following statements is/are correct in this context?

  1. Mobile telephone companies and supermarket chains that are owned and controlled by residents are eligible to be promoters of Payment Banks.
  2. Payment Banks can issue both credit cards and debit cards.
  3. Payment Banks cannot undertake lending activities.

Select the correct answer using the code given below:

A. 1 and 2 only

B. 1 and 3 only

C. 2 only

D. 1, 2 and 3

Answer: B

Explanation

  1. Correct Mobile telephone companies and supermarket chains owned and controlled by residents can be promoters of Payment Banks. This allows entities with a wide reach to expand financial services to unbanked populations.

  2. Incorrect Payment Banks cannot issue credit cards. They can only issue debit cards linked to a pre-existing bank account.

  3. Correct Payment Banks are not allowed to undertake lending activities. Their focus is on facilitating basic banking services like deposits, payments, and money transfers.


QUESTION 98

MediumEnvironment & EcologyPrelims 2016

With reference to ‘Agenda 21’, sometimes seen in the news, consider the following statements:

  1. It is a global action plan for sustainable development.
  2. It originated in the World Summit on Sustainable Development held in Johannesburg in 2002

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

A. 1 only

B. 2 only

C. Both 1 and 2

D. Neither 1 nor 2

Answer: A

Explanation

Statement 1 (correct) Agenda 21 is indeed a comprehensive plan of action adopted at the United Nations Conference on Environment and Development (UNCED) in Rio de Janeiro, Brazil, in 1992. It outlines strategies for achieving sustainable development on a global scale, addressing environmental protection, social development, and economic prosperity.

Statement 2 (incorrect) The World Summit on Sustainable Development, held in Johannesburg, South Africa, in 2002, reviewed and reaffirmed Agenda 21. It did not originate from this summit.


QUESTION 99

MediumEnvironment & EcologyPrelims 2016

Proper design and effective implementation of UN-REDD+ Programme can significantly contribute to -

  1. Protection of biodiversity
  2. Resilience of forest ecosystems
  3. Poverty reduction

Select the correct answer using the code given below

A. 1 and 2 only

B. 3 only

C. 2 and 3 only

D. 1, 2 and 3

Answer: D

Explanation

Reducing Emissions from Deforestation and Forest Degradation (REDD) attempts to create financial value for the carbon stored in forests, offering incentives for developing countries to reduce emissions from forested lands and invest in low-carbon paths to sustainable development.

REDD goes beyond deforestation and forest degradation, and includes the role of conservation, sustainable management of forests and enhancement of forest carbon stocks. REDD has the potential to simultaneously contribute to climate change mitigation and poverty alleviation, whilst also conserving biodiversity and sustaining vital ecosystem services.

Protection of biodiversity Forests are incredibly diverse ecosystems, and protecting them through REDD initiatives helps safeguard countless species of plants and animals. Resilience of forest ecosystems By reducing deforestation and degradation, REDD helps maintain healthy forests that can better withstand natural disturbances like droughts, floods, and pests. Poverty reduction Many forest communities rely on forests for their livelihoods. REDD programs can provide financial incentives for sustainable forest management, creating income opportunities and alleviating poverty.

Therefore, the correct answer is 1, 2 and 3.


QUESTION 100

EasyScience & TechnologyPrelims 2016

India is an important member of the ‘International Thermonuclear Experimental Reactor’. If this experiment succeeds, what is the immediate advantage for India?

A. It can use thorium in place of uranium for power generation

B. It can attain a global role in satellite navigation

C. It can drastically improve the efficiency of its fission reactors in power generation

D. It can build fusion reactors for power generation

Answer: D

Explanation

India is an important member of the ITER (International Thermonuclear Experimental Reactor) an international nuclear fusion research and engineering megaproject, which will be the world's largest magnetic confinement plasma physics experiment. So, it can help India build Nuclear Fusion reactors for large-scale power generation.

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