The correct answer is (C) dollars and other hard currencies

International Liquidity: This refers to a country's ability to meet its short-term external obligations (payments for imports, debt servicing, etc.) It essentially reflects the ease with which a country can access foreign currencies needed for international transactions.

Focus on Hard Currencies: While some transactions might involve other currencies, international reserves are predominantly held in major reserve currencies like the US Dollar, Euro, Japanese Yen, and British Pound. These currencies are considered "hard" because they are stable, widely traded, and liquid (easily convertible into other currencies).

Statement 1 is Correct: Dadabhai Naoroji, known as the 'Grand Old Man of India', was a pioneer in the economic critique of British rule. He formulated the 'Drain of Wealth' theory and authored the influential book 'Poverty and Un-British Rule in India' (published in 1901), which argued that British policies were the primary cause of India's poverty.

Statement 2 is Correct: G. Subramania Iyer was a prominent journalist and economist who co-founded 'The Hindu'. He criticized colonial economic policies through his writings and his book 'Some Economic Aspects of British Rule in India' (1903), highlighting how British rule led to economic stagnation.

Statement 3 is Correct: Romesh Chandra (R.C.) Dutt was a retired ICS officer who wrote the seminal work 'The Economic History of India' (published in two volumes in 1902 and 1904). He meticulously documented the negative impact of British land revenue systems and trade policies on the Indian economy.

About Eight Core Sectors: These comprise 40.27% of the weight of items included in the Index of Industrial Production (IIP).

The eight core sector industries in decreasing order of their weightage: Refinery Products> Electricity> Steel> Coal> Crude Oil> Natural Gas> Cement> Fertilizers.

Statement 1 is Incorrect: The executive power of the Union is vested in the President, who acts on the advice of the Council of Ministers headed by the Prime Minister.

The Constitution of India vests the executive power in the President (Article 53). However, the President exercises this power on the advice of the Council of Ministers, with the Prime Minister as its head (Article 75).

So, the real executive authority lies with the Prime Minister and the Council of Ministers, but formally it's vested in the President.

Statement 2 is Incorrect: The Chairperson of the Civil Services Board is the Cabinet Secretary, a senior bureaucrat who leads the bureaucracy of the Government of India.

The Indira Gandhi Prize for Peace, Disarmament and Development for 2014 was presented to the Indian Space Research Organisation (ISRO).

• It was awarded in recognition of its path-breaking achievements, especially the Mars Orbiter Mission; its significant contributions in strengthening international cooperation in the peaceful uses of outer space etc.

• The award consists of a trophy made of banded Haematite Jasper, with a portrait of the late Prime Minister in the tradition of Jaipur miniature paintings, a cash award of Rs. 1 Crore and a Citation.

Guinea, Sierra Leone, and Liberia were in the news for the outbreak of the Ebola virus.

The most widespread outbreak of the Ebola virus disease began in 2013 and continued until 2016, causing major loss of life and socio-economic disruption in the West African region, mainly in the countries of Guinea, Liberia, and Sierra Leone. The first cases were recorded in Guinea in December 2013. Later, the disease spread to neighboring Liberia and Sierra Leone.

Therefore, option B is the correct answer.

Statement 1 is correct: The Cabinet Mission (1946) recommended the establishment of a federal government in India with a weak centre controlling only defence, foreign affairs, and communications, and the provinces grouped into sections with autonomy in other matters.

Statement 2 is incorrect: The Mission did not propose any changes in the powers of Indian courts; its purpose was to plan the constitutional framework for transfer of power, not judicial reforms.

Statement 3 is incorrect: The Mission made no recommendation regarding the Indian Civil Services (ICS) or increasing Indian participation in it.

Statement 1 is correct: When pure hydrogen reacts with oxygen in a fuel cell, the only byproducts are water and heat. This is an advantage of hydrogen fuel cells, making them a clean energy source with minimal emissions.

Statement 2 is incorrect: Fuel cells can be used for various applications, including powering small devices like laptops. Portable fuel cells are being developed for this purpose. While currently less common, they hold promise for the future.

Statement 3 is incorrect: Fuel cells actually produce electricity in the form of Direct Current (DC). In some applications, an inverter might be needed to convert the DC output to AC for compatibility with the electrical grid.

Therefore, the only correct answer is 1 only.

The Genetic Engineering Appraisal Committee (GEAC) is the apex body constituted in the Ministry of Environment and Forests under Rules for Manufacture, Use, Import, Export and Storage of Hazardous Microorganisms/Genetically Engineered Organisms or Cells 1989, under the Environment Protection Act, 1986.

• The GEAC is responsible for the appraisal of proposals involving the release of genetically engineered organisms and products into the environment including experimental field trials.

To reduce a persistent budget deficit, the government can take actions that decrease spending or increase revenue.

1. Reducing revenue expenditure (Correct): This involves cutting back on non-essential government spending. This can include areas like administrative costs, travel, or certain subsidies. 2. Introducing new welfare schemes (Incorrect): This would likely increase government spending and worsen the deficit. 3. Rationalizing subsidies (Correct): Subsidies can be a significant source of government expenditure. Reviewing and potentially reducing or reforming subsidies can help control spending. 4. Expanding industries (Depends): While industrial expansion can lead to increased tax revenue in the long run, it might not have an immediate impact on the budget deficit. In the short term, the government might need to invest in infrastructure to support expansion, potentially increasing expenditure.

Therefore, the correct answer is 1 and 3 only (Reducing revenue expenditure and Rationalizing subsidies).

The Andaman and Nicobar Islands, due to their unique island ecosystem, provide the ideal conditions for all three forest types to coexist:

Mangrove forests: Thrive in the coastal areas with brackish water.

Evergreen forests: Found in the wetter interior regions with high rainfall.

Deciduous forests: Exist in areas with a seasonal climate, experiencing periods of both rain and dryness.

(A) is incorrect: Direct election of the lower house is a feature of Representative Democracy. Many Presidential systems (such as the USA) also have directly elected legislatures; therefore, this is not the distinguishing factor of a Parliamentary system.

(B) is incorrect: The authority to amend the Constitution is a matter of Constitutional Sovereignty. This power exists in various forms of government, including both Parliamentary and Presidential models.

(C) is incorrect: The fact that the Rajya Sabha is a permanent house is a Federal feature intended to maintain the representation of the States. It does not define the relationship between the Executive and the Legislature.

(D) is correct: As per Article 75(3) of the Constitution, the Council of Ministers is collectively responsible to the Lok Sabha. This "Collective Responsibility" is the bedrock of the Parliamentary form of government, as the executive's survival depends on the support of the legislature.

The idea of a "Welfare State" in the Indian Constitution is enshrined in its Directive Principles of State Policy (DPSP).

The DPSP, outlined in Part IV of the Constitution, are a set of guidelines for the government to achieve social and economic justice. These principles, though not enforceable by courts, provide a framework for the government to strive towards goals like:

• Securing and protecting a social order for the welfare of the people (Article 38).
• Providing adequate means of livelihood for all citizens (Article 39).
• Promoting equal justice and opportunity (Article 39).
• Developing the village panchayats (Article 40). -Providing free and compulsory education for all children (Article 45).
• Improving public health (Article 47).

By outlining these principles, the Constitution emphasizes the government's responsibility for promoting the social and economic well-being of its citizens, reflecting the ideals of a welfare state.

The Rio+20 Conference, formally known as the United Nations Conference on Sustainable Development (UNCSD), was held in Rio de Janeiro, Brazil, in June 2012. It marked the 20th anniversary of the 1992 United Nations Conference on Environment and Development (UNCED), also known as the Earth Summit. The primary objectives were to secure renewed political commitment for sustainable development and to assess progress and implementation gaps. The main outcome of the conference was the non-binding document titled 'The Future We Want,' which focused on poverty eradication and the transition to a green economy.

PMJDY is a National Mission on Financial Inclusion encompassing an integrated approach to bring about comprehensive financial inclusion of all households in the country. The plan envisages:

• Universal access to banking facilities with at least one basic banking account for every household.
• Financial literacy.
• Access to credit.
• Insurance and pension facility.

Statement 1 is incorrect: Department of Economic Affairs prepares the Budget.

Statement 2 is correct: As per Article 114 of the Constitution, the government can withdraw money from the Consolidated Fund only after receiving approval from Parliament.

Statement 3 is incorrect: Public Accounts include provident fund deposits, judicial deposits, savings bank deposits, departmental deposits, remittances and so on. This account is operated by executive action, that is, the payments from this account can be made without parliamentary appropriation. Such payments are mostly like banking transactions.

So, only the second statement is correct.

The terms 'Agreement on Agriculture', 'Agreement on the Application of Sanitary and Phytosanitary Measures', and 'Peace Clause' all appear in the context of the affairs of the World Trade Organization (WTO).

Agreement on Agriculture: This agreement regulates trade in agricultural products among WTO member countries. It aims to promote fair trade practices and reduce distortions caused by subsidies and other measures.

Agreement on the Application of Sanitary and Phytosanitary Measures (SPS Agreement): This agreement sets out rules for countries to ensure the safety and quality of food, animals, and plants traded internationally. It helps to prevent the spread of pests and diseases while minimizing unnecessary barriers to trade.

Peace Clause: This provision within the Agreement on Agriculture provides some flexibility for developing countries regarding their agricultural subsidy programs. It allows them to offer certain subsidies to their farmers without facing challenges from other WTO members.

Statement 1 is correct: The Directive Principles of State Policy (DPSP) in Part IV of the Indian Constitution outline the ideals that the government should strive to achieve for its citizens. These principles encompass social justice, economic justice, and political justice, forming the foundation for a socio-economic democracy.

Statement 2 is correct: The DPSPs are not justiciable, meaning they cannot be directly enforced by courts if violated. However, they serve as guidelines for the government in making laws and policies and can be used by the judiciary while interpreting other laws.

Amnesty International is a non-governmental organization focused on human rights.

The organization says it has more than seven million members and supporters around the world . The stated mission of the organization is to campaign for a world in which every person enjoys all of the human rights enshrined in the Universal Declaration of Human Rights and other international human rights instruments.

Assessment of crop productivity: IRS satellites capture data that helps assess crop health, growth stage, and potential yield. Locating groundwater resources: Remote sensing allows for studying geological features and identifying potential zones with underground water reserves. Mineral exploration: IRS data can reveal signatures of specific minerals on the Earth's surface, aiding in mineral exploration activities. Telecommunications: IRS satellites are not designed for telecommunication purposes. Geostationary satellites are typically used for this function. Traffic studies: While remote sensing can be used for some traffic studies (e.g., analyzing transportation infrastructure), it's not the primary application of IRS satellites.

Therefore, only 1,2 and 3 are primary applications of IRS satellites.

The unique "Living Root Bridges" are found in Meghalaya, a state in northeastern India.

These bridges are a testament to the ingenuity and sustainable practices of the Khasi and Jaintia tribes who inhabit the region. They train the aerial roots of specific tree species, like the Ficus elastica (Indian rubber tree), to grow and intertwine over time, forming strong and resilient bridges across rivers and streams.

A decrease in the tax-to-GDP ratio of a country can potentially indicate 1 only (Slowing economic growth rates).

Tax to GDP Ratio: This ratio represents the total tax revenue collected by a government as a percentage of the country's GDP. It's a measure of the government's ability to raise funds through taxes.

Impact of Decrease: A decrease in this ratio can have several interpretations, but it doesn't necessarily point towards a less equitable income distribution (option 2).

Slowing Growth: It might indicate a slowdown in economic growth. During economic downturns, businesses and individuals tend to earn less, leading to lower tax collections.

Change in Tax Policy: It could also reflect a deliberate change in tax policy, such as tax cuts or exemptions, aimed at stimulating economic activity.

Inefficiency: In some cases, it might suggest inefficiencies in tax collection.

Avanti: Although Buddhism spread to Avanti during the Mauryan period, it wasn't directly connected to the life of the Buddha. Gandhara: While Gandhara became a significant centre for Buddhist culture and art later in history, it wasn't directly associated with the Buddha's life. Thus, Avanti and Gandhar have no direct relation with Buddha's life.

Kosala: This was the kingdom where the Buddha was born, with his birthplace being Lumbini (present-day Nepal). His mother's family belonged to the Kosala dynasty.

Magadha: Though the Buddha didn't spend a significant amount of time here during his early life, he travelled and taught in Magadha. Notably, the city of Rajgir (present-day Bihar) was an important centre where he interacted with King Bimbisara.

Kingdoms Associated with the Life of Buddha

According to Article 108 of the Constitution of India, if a bill is referred to a joint sitting of both Houses, it is passed by a majority of the total number of members of both Houses present and voting. This is a simple majority applied to the combined strength of the Lok Sabha and the Rajya Sabha. The joint sitting is presided over by the Speaker of the Lok Sabha, or in their absence, the Deputy Speaker of the Lok Sabha, or if they are also absent, the Deputy Chairman of the Rajya Sabha.

• The BioCarbon Fund Initiative for Sustainable Forest Landscapes (ISFL) is managed by the World Bank.

• The World Bank's Carbon Finance Unit handles the day-to-day operations of the BioCarbon Fund, which includes ISFL.

• ISFL itself acknowledges the World Bank as the permanent trustee and a key supporter.

Historical Context (2015): At the time this question was originally asked, Odia was the latest language to be granted Classical status (notified in February 2014). It was the 6th language to receive this honor.

Criteria: To be eligible, a language must have a recorded history of 1500–2000 years, a body of ancient literature, and an original literary tradition not borrowed from another speech community.

Timeline of Classical Languages:

2004: Tamil

2005: Sanskrit

2008: Telugu & Kannada

2013: Malayalam

2014: Odia

Note for the Current Exam Cycle (2025-26): While Odia was the correct answer for the 2015 paper, the list was significantly expanded in October 2024. If this question were asked today, Assamese (along with Marathi, Bengali, Pali, and Prakrit) would be the correct answer as the most recent additions to the list.

India has sufficient reserves of iron ore, a key raw material for steel production. However, it lacks coking coal, a specific type of coal essential for the steel-making process.

Saltpetre (option A) and rock phosphate (option B) are not directly used in steel production.

The Government of India Act of 1919 (Montagu-Chelmsford Reforms) relaxed central control over the provinces by demarcating and separating the central and provincial subjects, thereby clearly defining the jurisdiction of the central and provincial governments. While the central and provincial legislatures were authorized to make laws on their respective list of subjects, the structure of government continued to remain unitary and centralized. Additionally, the Act introduced 'Dyarchy' at the provincial level by further dividing provincial subjects into two parts: Transferred subjects (administered by the Governor with the aid of ministers responsible to the Legislative Council) and Reserved subjects (administered by the Governor and his executive council without being responsible to the Legislative Council).

Statement 1 is Correct: BirdLife International is a global partnership of non-governmental conservation organizations (NGOs) that strives to conserve birds, their habitats, and global biodiversity. It currently consists of over 100 national partners across the world. Statement 2 is Incorrect: The concept of 'biodiversity hotspots' was originated by British biologist Norman Myers in 1988. The concept was later adopted and promoted by Conservation International (CI), not BirdLife International. Statement 3 is Correct: BirdLife International identifies, monitors, and protects a global network of sites known as Important Bird and Biodiversity Areas (IBAs). These sites are critical for the conservation of the world's bird populations and broader biodiversity.

The provisions in the Fifth Schedule and Sixth Schedule in the Constitution of India are made to protect the interests of Scheduled Tribes.

Fifth Schedule: Applies to all states except Assam, Meghalaya, Tripura, and Mizoram. It focuses on

Management and administration of Scheduled Areas: These are areas with a high concentration of tribal populations. The schedule grants them some autonomy and safeguards their traditional rights over land and resources.

Establishment of Tribes Advisory Councils: These councils advise the Governor on matters related to the welfare and development of Scheduled Tribes.

Sixth Schedule: Applies to the four aforementioned northeastern states with significant tribal populations. It provides greater autonomy compared to the Fifth Schedule by

Creation of Autonomous District Councils (ADCs): These councils have a greater degree of administrative and legislative power within their designated areas.

Special provisions for administration of tribal areas: This includes protection of customary law, inheritance practices, and social customs of the tribes.

Statement 1 is Correct: The 14th Finance Commission, chaired by Dr. Y.V. Reddy, recommended a significant increase in the devolution of taxes from the Union to the States, raising the share in the central divisible pool from 32% to 42%.

Statement 2 is Incorrect: The commission moved away from the practice of recommending sector-specific grants. It argued that such tied grants restrict the fiscal autonomy of states. Instead, it focused on enhancing unconditional formula-based devolution to allow states the flexibility to spend according to their own priorities, providing grants only for local bodies and disaster management.

Keibul Lamjao National Park is a national park in the Bishnupur district of the state of Manipur in India. It is 40 km² in area, the only floating park in the world, located in North East India, and an integral part of Loktak Lake.

Keibul Lamjao National Park

The national park is characterized by many floating decomposed plant materials locally called phumdis. To preserve the natural refuge of the endangered Manipur Eld's deer or brow-antlered deer (Cervus eldi eldi), or sangai also called the dancing deer, listed as an endangered species by IUCN.

The park, which was initially declared to be a sanctuary in 1966, was subsequently declared to be a national park in 1977 through a gazette notification.

The Panchayati Raj system is designed to empower rural communities by enabling

1. People's participation in development: This involves involving villagers in decision-making processes related to local development projects and resource allocation.

2. Political accountability: This is a desirable outcome, but not the sole purpose. The Panchayati Raj system aims to create a more participatory and democratic structure for rural development.

3. Democratic decentralization: Power is transferred from the central government to local bodies, allowing communities to address their specific needs and priorities.

4. Financial mobilization: While financial mobilization can be a consequence, it's not the fundamental objective.

Therefore, only statements 1 and 3 are true.

Statement 1 is correct: Fly ash finds various applications in construction, including brick manufacturing. Its pozzolanic properties improve the strength and durability of bricks. Statement 2 is correct: Fly ash can partially replace Portland cement in concrete mixes. It reacts with the hydration byproducts of cement to form additional cementitious materials, leading to benefits like improved workability, reduced heat of hydration, and enhanced concrete performance. Statement 3 is incorrect: Fly ash primarily consists of silicon dioxide (SiO2), aluminum oxide (Al2O3), and calcium oxide (CaO). However, it may also contain trace amounts of heavy metals like arsenic, mercury, and chromium.

The provision "To uphold and protect the Sovereignty, Unity and Integrity of India" is found in Article 51A(c) of the Indian Constitution.

It is part of the Fundamental Duties added to the Constitution in 1976. These duties are the moral obligations of every citizen to promote the well-being of the nation.

Statement 1 is Incorrect: The westerlies blow between 30° and 60° latitudes in both hemispheres, not between 30° N and 60° S. So, the latitudinal extent mentioned is wrong; it should be 30°–60° N and 30°–60° S.

Statement 2 is Correct: The western disturbances that bring winter rainfall to north-western India originate over the Mediterranean region and are carried by the westerlies. Hence, these moist air masses are indeed part of the westerly wind system.

Westerlies

IceCube is a particle detector at the South Pole that records the interactions of a nearly massless subatomic particle called the neutrino.

IceCube searches for neutrinos from the most violent astrophysical sources, events like exploding stars, gamma-ray bursts, and cataclysmic phenomena involving black holes and neutron stars.

Statement 1 is correct: IceCube is the world's largest neutrino detector, encompassing a cubic kilometre of ice.

Statement 2 is correct: The IceCube telescope is a powerful tool to search for dark matter and could reveal the physical processes associated with the enigmatic origin of the highest energy particles in nature.

Statement 3 is correct: It is buried beneath the surface, extending to about 2,500 meters. Burying it deep in ice is important to enhance the precision of the detector.

In addition to exploring the background of neutrinos produced in the atmosphere, IceCube studies the neutrinos themselves; their energies far exceed those produced by accelerator beams.

Thus, all three statements are correct.

Chakravarti Rajagopalachari (10 December 1878 - 25 December 1972), informally called Rajaji or C.R., was an Indian politician, independence activist, lawyer, writer, historian, and statesman.

Rajagopalachari was the last Governor-General of India, as India soon became a Republic in 1950.

The Vedaranyam Salt Satyagraha (at Tanjore coast in the Madras Presidency) was a march started by Indian statesman C. Rajagopalachari, inspired by the Dandi March as Part of the Civil Disobedience Movement in April, 1930.

An ecosystem is a functional unit of nature where living organisms (biotic factors) interact among themselves and with their physical environment (abiotic factors) such as sunlight, water, and soil.

Key components of an ecosystem:

1. Biotic Components: Includes all living things like plants, animals, and microorganisms.
2. Abiotic Components: Includes non-living elements like air, water, soil, and sunlight.
3. Interdependence: It highlights the flow of energy and cycling of nutrients between the living and non-living components.

Analysis of Options:

• Option A: Describes a 'community' (only interactions between living organisms).
• Option B: Describes the 'biosphere' (the zone of Earth where life exists).
• Option C: Correctly defines an ecosystem as the combination of the biotic community and its abiotic environment.
• Option D: Refers to the 'biota' or 'biodiversity' of a specific region.

The Government of India established NITI Aayog to replace the Planning Commission.

The Planning Commission was established in 1950 and played a vital role in India's economic development through five-year plans. However, NITI Aayog, formed in 2015, was designed to be a more agile and forward-looking institution compared to the Planning Commission.

• Rock-cut Elephant at Dhauli: This sculpture is believed to have been created by Emperor Ashoka of the Mauryan Empire in the 3rd century BCE (around 272-231 BCE).

• Varaha Image at Udayagiri: The Varaha image at Udayagiri Caves is estimated to be from the Gupta period, dating back to around the 5th century CE (c. 410 CE).

• Lingaraja Temple at Bhubaneswar: While the exact date of construction is debated, most scholars believe the Lingaraja Temple originated sometime in the 11th century CE.

• Rock-cut Monuments at Mahabalipuram: The monuments at Mahabalipuram were built over a period by the Pallava dynasty. The earliest structures likely date back to the 7th century CE, with some additions continuing into the 9th century CE.

Therefore, based on their estimated creation dates, the Rock-cut Elephant at Dhauli is the earliest among the listed options.

The Indian Renewable Energy Development Agency (IREDA) is a Non-Banking Financial Institution under the administrative control of Ministry of New and Renewable Energy for providing term loans for renewable energy and energy efficiency projects.

Statement 1 is correct: IREDA is a Public Limited Government Company established under the Companies Act, 1956. Statement 2 is correct: IREDA is also registered as a Non-Banking Financial Company (NBFC) with the Reserve Bank of India (RBI).

Statement 1 is Correct: Banaras Brocades and Sarees were granted Geographical Indication (GI) status in 2009, recognizing the unique handloom weaving traditions and historical origin in Varanasi, Uttar Pradesh.

Statement 2 is Incorrect: While Dal-Bati-Churma is a famous traditional food preparation from Rajasthan, it has not been accorded Geographical Indication (GI) status.

Statement 3 is Correct: Tirupati Laddu, the sacred prasad offered at the Tirumala Venkateswara Temple in Andhra Pradesh, was granted GI status in 2009 to protect its unique recipe and reputation from commercial imitation.

Champaka - Central India (Incorrect): Champaka, also known as Chamba, was located in the present-day Himachal Pradesh region.

Durgara - Jammu (Correct): Durgara corresponds to the present-day Jammu region.

Kuluta - Malabar (Incorrect): Kuluta, also known as Kulu, was situated in the present-day Himachal Pradesh region, bordering Kullu Valley. Malabar refers to the southwestern coastal region of India.

Therefore, only pair 2 is correctly matched.

• The National Aquatic animal of India is the Ganges River Dolphin (Platanista gangetica).
• The Ministry of Environment and Forests notified the Ganges River Dolphin as the National Aquatic Animal on 18th May 2010.
• The dolphin is blind and faces a severe threat from the heavy pollution and habitat destruction in the waters where it lives.
• It has been declared Endangered in the IUCN Red List, and it is assumed that fewer than 2000 individuals remain. This dolphin, called susu or susuk in India, is thought to represent the purity of the Ganga.

Statement 1 is incorrect: India is not a member of Asia-Pacific Economic Cooperation (APEC), a regional forum aimed at promoting economic integration and trade among Pacific Rim countries.

Statement 2 is incorrect: India is not a member of Association of Southeast Asian Nations (ASEAN), though it is an important dialogue partner and participates in ASEAN-led forums under its Act East Policy.

Statement 3 is correct: India is a member of the East Asia Summit (EAS), a strategic forum of ASEAN members and key regional partners, which India joined in 2005.

The Basel III Accord is a set of international banking regulations developed by the Basel Committee on Banking Supervision (BCBS). It was formulated in response to the financial crisis of 2007-2008 and aims to improve the banking sector's resilience to financial and economic stress and improve its risk management by:

Increasing capital adequacy requirements: Banks need to hold more capital relative to their risk-weighted assets to absorb potential losses during financial stress. Enhancing liquidity standards: Banks need to maintain a sufficient level of liquid assets to meet their short-term obligations. Strengthening risk management practices: Banks are required to implement more robust risk management frameworks to identify, measure, and manage various risks they face.

Statement 1 is correct: National Innovation Foundation-India (NIF) is indeed an autonomous body established under the Department of Science and Technology (DST) of the Government of India.

Statement 2 is incorrect: NIF's focus is not on highly advanced scientific research but rather on recognizing and supporting grassroots technological innovations and outstanding traditional knowledge developed by individuals and communities. These innovations often come from outside the formal scientific establishment. So, NIF works on a different level than collaborating with advanced foreign institutions, although its work can complement scientific research efforts.

Capital-augmenting technological progress: This refers to technological advancements that increase the productivity of existing capital goods. In this case, replacing wooden ploughs (a less efficient capital good) with steel ploughs (a more efficient capital good) increases the productivity of the plough itself. Steel ploughs can till more land, last longer, and require less maintenance compared to wooden ploughs.

Both the bank rate and open market operations are components of monetary policy in the Indian economy.

Bank rate: The bank rate is the rate at which the central bank (Reserve Bank of India in the case of India) lends money to commercial banks. It is one of the key tools used by the central bank to control the money supply and credit conditions in the economy.

Open market operations: Open market operations refer to the buying and selling of government securities (bonds) by the central bank in the open market. Through open market operations, the central bank can inject or withdraw liquidity from the banking system, thereby influencing the level of reserves held by banks and the overall money supply in the economy.

Public debt and public revenue are not typically considered components of monetary policy. Public debt refers to the total amount of money owed by the government through borrowing, while public revenue refers to the income generated by the government through taxes and other sources. These factors are more closely related to fiscal policy, which involves government spending and taxation decisions to achieve specific economic objectives.

Agricultural Markets in most parts of the Country are established and regulated under the APMC Acts enacted by the states.

The whole geographical area in the State is divided and declared as a market area wherein the markets are managed by the Market Committees constituted by the State Governments. Once a particular area is declared a market area and falls under the jurisdiction of a Market Committee, no person or agency is allowed freely to carry on wholesale marketing activities.

Statement 1 is correct: The Dugong is a herbivorous marine animal. Dugongs are marine mammals that feed on seagrass meadows.

Statement 2 is incorrect: While once more widespread, dugong populations are now concentrated in specific areas. They are primarily found in -The Gulf of Mannar and Palk Bay off the coast of Tamil Nadu -The Andaman and Nicobar Islands -The Gulf of Kutch

Statement 3 is correct: It is given legal protection under Schedule 1 of the Wildlife (Protection) Act, 1972.

Dugong

The correct answer is the Middle East.

The Golan Heights is a hilly, 1,200 sq-km rocky plateau in south-western Syria in the Middle East region overlooking Lebanon, Syria, and the Jordan Valley.

Golan Heights

The Golan was Syrian territory until 1967 when Israel occupied it in the closing stages of the Six-Day War.

Statement 1 is Incorrect: The first woman President of the Indian National Congress was Annie Besant in 1917, not Sarojini Naidu. Sarojini Naidu became the first Indian woman to preside over the Congress in 1925 (Kanpur Session).

Statement 2 is Correct: Badruddin Tyabji was the first Muslim President of the Indian National Congress, presiding over its third session in 1887 (Madras).

Rupee convertibility means the system where any amount of rupee can be converted into any other currency without any question asked about the purpose for which the foreign exchange is to be used.

Non-convertibility can generally be defined with reference to the transaction for which foreign exchange cannot be legally purchased (e.g., import of consumer goods etc), or transactions which are controlled and approved on a case-by-case basis (like regulated imports etc).

The Goldilocks Zone, also called the habitable zone, refers to the region around a star where conditions might be just right for liquid water to exist on the surface of a planet.

Goldilocks Zone

Scientists believe liquid water is essential for life as we know it. So, when astronomers discover planets outside our solar system (exoplanets), they're particularly interested in those within the Goldilocks Zone of their host star.

Statement 1 is correct. Near Field Communication (NFC) is indeed a contactless communication technology that relies on electromagnetic radio fields to transmit data between devices in close proximity.

Statement 2 is incorrect. NFC operates over a very short range, typically requiring devices to be within a few centimetres of each other for successful communication. A meter is far too large a distance for NFC to function effectively.

Statement 3 is correct. NFC can employ encryption to safeguard sensitive information during transmission. This is an important security feature for applications like contactless payments.

Near Field Communication

Statement 1 is incorrect: The bio-toilets actually utilize bacteria, not fungi, to decompose human waste. These bacteria are anaerobic, meaning they function in an oxygen-free environment within the bio-digester tank.

Statement 2 is incorrect: The end products of decomposition in the bio-toilets are not just ammonia and water vapor. The process generates a combination of:

• Treated water: This water undergoes chlorination before being released.
• Methane: This gas is released in small amounts and vents into the atmosphere.
• Sludge: A minimal amount of solid residue remains after decomposition.

Therefore, the correct answer is None of the above.

Statement 1 is incorrect: The Accelerated Irrigation Benefits Programme (AIBP) was indeed launched during 1996-97, but its objective was to provide central assistance to states to accelerate the pace of irrigation development, not specifically to provide loan assistance to poor farmers.

Statement 2 is correct: The Command Area Development Programme (CADP) was launched in 1974-75, its primary focus was on improving the water-use efficiency and agricultural productivity in the command areas of major and medium irrigation projects.

In India, teak is a dominant tree species in Tropical Deciduous Forests.

These forests are also known as "Monsoon Forests" and are characterized by:

• Rainfall: They receive moderate rainfall, typically ranging from 70 to 200 cm annually.
• Seasonality: They experience a distinct dry season, leading to trees shedding their leaves during this period.
• Vegetation: Tropical Deciduous forests are home to a variety of trees, including teak, sal, shisham, and sandalwood.

Natural Vegetation in India

A seed village, wherein trained group of farmers are involved in the production of seeds of various crops and cater to the needs of themselves, fellow farmers of the village and farmers of neighbouring villages in the appropriate time and at an affordable cost is called a seed village.

Harihara I, along with his brother Bukka I, founded the Vijayanagara Empire in 1336. The capital city, Vijayanagara (Hampi), was established on the south bank of the Tungabhadra River, which is a major tributary of the Krishna River. The rulers of the Sangama dynasty, starting with Harihara I, claimed to rule as the agents of the deity Virupaksha (a form of Lord Shiva), who was the guardian deity of the kingdom. They believed that the land south of the Krishna River belonged to the deity, and they ruled it on His behalf. To signify this divine authority, royal orders were traditionally signed in the name of 'Shri Virupaksha' in the Kannada script.

Statement 1 is Incorrect: A strong central authority is not a defining characteristic of the feudal system. In fact, a weak central government with power dispersed among regional lords is more typical.

Statement 2 is Correct: Land ownership and control were fundamental aspects of the feudal system in India. Powerful landowners (Zamindars, Jagirdars etc.) gained control over vast territories and the peasantry who worked on them.

Statement 3 is Correct: A hierarchical structure with lords granting land to vassals in exchange for military service, taxes, and loyalty was a core principle of the feudal system.

While the Indian feudal system had some unique characteristics, these two elements - land control and the lord-vassal relationship - formed the backbone of the system.

The World Bank publishes the Global Economic Prospects (GEP) report twice a year, typically in January and June. This flagship publication examines global economic developments and prospects, with a specific focus on emerging market and developing economies (EMDEs). It provides detailed analysis of key development issues and includes growth forecasts at the global and regional levels.

Statement 1 is incorrect. IOR-ARC is a regional cooperation initiative of the Indian Ocean Rim countries. It was established in Mauritius in March 1997 with the aim of promoting economic and technical cooperation. IOR-ARC is the only pan-Indian ocean grouping. It brings together countries from three continents having different sizes, economic strengths, and a wide diversity of languages, cultures. Statement 2 is incorrect. It aims to create a platform for trade, socio-economic and cultural cooperation in the Indian Ocean rim area. The Indian Ocean Rim is rich in strategic and precious minerals, metals and other natural resources, marine resources and energy, all of which can be sourced from Exclusive Economic Zones (EEZ), continental shelves and the deep seabed.

The movement that contributed to the split in the Indian National Congress, resulting in the emergence of 'moderates' and 'extremists', was the Swadeshi Movement.

The Swadeshi Movement saw two distinct groups emerge within the Indian National Congress: 1. Moderates: This group, led by leaders like Gopal Krishna Gokhale and Surendranath Banerjee, believed in constitutional and peaceful methods to achieve independence. They supported the boycott of British goods but opposed the use of violence or extreme measures.

2. Extremists (also known as Radicals or Nationalists): This group, led by Bal Gangadhar Tilak, Lala Lajpat Rai, and Bipin Chandra Pal (the Lal-Bal-Pal trio), advocated for more aggressive and revolutionary methods to drive out the British. They supported the use of boycotts, civil disobedience, and even violence if necessary.

The ideological differences between the moderates and extremists intensified during the Swadeshi Movement, eventually leading to the Surat Split in 1907, where the two factions clashed openly at the Congress session, resulting in a temporary split in the party.

Statement 1 is Correct: The Sun's gravitational pull contributes to tide generation. Although the Sun is significantly more massive than the Moon, its immense distance from Earth results in a tidal-generating force that is approximately 46% as strong as the Moon's.

Statement 2 is Correct: The Moon's gravitational pull is the primary force responsible for tides. It exerts a stronger pull on the side of the Earth facing it, drawing ocean water toward it and creating a tidal bulge.

Statement 3 is Correct: Tides are also influenced by centrifugal force, which arises from the revolution of the Earth and Moon around their common center of mass (the barycenter). This force acts in the opposite direction to the Moon's gravitational pull; on the side of the Earth facing away from the Moon, the centrifugal force exceeds the Moon's weakened gravitational pull, creating a second tidal bulge.

The question refers to the historical impact of Babur's arrival in India in 1526.

Statement 1 is incorrect: Gunpowder was not introduced by Babur. It was known in India as early as the mid-14th century. It was used in warfare by the Delhi Sultanate and later by the Bahmani and Vijayanagara kingdoms in the Deccan. Babur's contribution was the introduction of superior gunpowder technology, specifically mobile artillery and the 'Rumi' method of deployment, but not the substance itself.

Statement 2 is incorrect: The arch and dome were introduced to the Indian subcontinent by the Turks during the Delhi Sultanate period (13th century), long before Babur. Examples include the Alai Darwaza and the tombs of the Lodi era. Babur's arrival influenced later Mughal architecture, but the fundamental concepts of the arch and dome were already established.

Statement 3 is correct: Babur was a direct descendant of Timur (Tamerlane) on his father's side. His victory at the First Battle of Panipat (1526) against Ibrahim Lodi led to the establishment of the Mughal Empire, which the Mughals themselves referred to as the Timurid dynasty (Gurkani).

The Labour Bureau, attached to the Ministry of Labour and Employment, is responsible for compiling and publishing the Consumer Price Index Number for Industrial Workers (CPI-IW) in India. This index tracks changes in the retail prices of a basket of goods and services consumed by industrial workers. It serves as a crucial indicator of inflation faced by this specific segment of the population.

The Labour Bureau is responsible for maintaining:

• CPI (Industrial Workers)
• CPI (Rural Labourers)
• CPI (Agricultural Labourers)

The Fair and Remunerative Price of Sugarcane (FRP) for sugarcane in India is approved by the Cabinet Committee on Economic Affairs (CCEA), chaired by the Prime Minister.

The proposal for FRP is determined based on the recommendation of the Commission for Agricultural Costs and Prices (CACP) in its report on the price policy for sugarcane for a particular sugar season.

Namdapha National Park is located in Arunachal Pradesh, India, in the eastern Himalayas.

Due to its significant elevation range, the park experiences a diverse range of climates.

The southern regions have a tropical to subtropical climate, while the higher elevations transition to temperate and even Arctic conditions.

Namdapha National Park

The Montreal Protocol on Substances that Deplete the Ozone Layer is an international treaty adopted in 1987 to protect the stratospheric ozone layer. It mandates the gradual phase-out of the production and consumption of ozone-depleting substances (ODS), such as chlorofluorocarbons (CFCs) and halons. It operates under the framework of the Vienna Convention for the Protection of the Ozone Layer.

• Bretton Woods Conference (1944): Led to the establishment of the International Monetary Fund (IMF) and the World Bank.
• Kyoto Protocol (1997): An international treaty aimed at reducing greenhouse gas emissions to combat global warming.
• Nagoya Protocol (2010): A supplementary agreement to the Convention on Biological Diversity (CBD) focusing on access to genetic resources and fair benefit-sharing.

Statement 1 is correct: Targeted drug delivery is a promising application of nanotechnology in medicine. Nanoparticles can be designed to carry drugs specifically to diseased cells, reducing side effects and improving treatment efficacy.

Statement 2 is correct: Nanotechnology is being explored for gene therapy by creating nanocarriers that can deliver genetic material (e.g., DNA or RNA) into specific cells. This holds the potential for treating various genetic disorders.

Therefore, both statements are correct.

Statement 1 is Correct: The Green Climate Fund (GCF) was established to support developing countries in limiting or reducing their greenhouse gas emissions (mitigation) and adapting to the impacts of climate change (adaptation). Statement 2 is Incorrect: The GCF was established by the United Nations Framework Convention on Climate Change (UNFCCC) during the 2010 COP 16 in Cancun, Mexico. It is not founded under the aegis of UNEP, OECD, ADB, or the World Bank.

IndARC stands for India's first underwater observatory deployed in the Arctic region. Here's a breakdown of its key aspects:

Its location in Kongsfjorden fjord, Svalbard, Norway (situated midway between Norway and the North Pole) and deployment in the year 2014 for studies of the Arctic climate and its influence on the Indian monsoon system.

Statement 1 is Incorrect: While the Congress Socialist Party (CSP) aimed to radicalize the Congress and mobilize peasants and workers, it did not specifically advocate for the evasion of taxes as a policy; its focus was on the abolition of zamindari and the socialistic reorganization of the economy.

Statement 2 is Incorrect: The CSP was founded on the principles of democratic socialism. It explicitly rejected the 'dictatorship of the proletariat'—a concept central to Marxism-Leninism and the Communist Party—preferring to work within the democratic framework of the Indian National Congress.

Statement 3 is Incorrect: The CSP, being a faction within the Indian National Congress, adhered to the Congress's stand of opposing separate electorates. They advocated for joint electorates and believed that the problems of minorities and oppressed classes should be addressed through economic and social reforms rather than communal representation.

Tropical Wet Evergreen Forests are found in regions that have high temperatures and high rainfall throughout the year.

Tropical Evergreen Forest

Arunachal Pradesh: This state is located in the eastern part of India and it receives high rainfall. It is known for its rich biodiversity and is home to Tropical Wet Evergreen Forests.

Himachal Pradesh: This state is located in the northern part of India, in the Himalayan region. The climate here is more temperate and alpine due to its high altitude, and it does not support Tropical Wet Evergreen Forests.

Mizoram: This state is located in the northeastern part of India and it also receives high rainfall. It is known for its rich biodiversity and is home to Tropical Wet Evergreen Forests.

Therefore, Tropical Wet Evergreen Forests occur in Arunachal Pradesh and Mizoram.

Tropical cyclones require specific atmospheric and oceanic conditions to originate, including warm sea surface temperatures (above 26.5°C), the presence of the Coriolis force, and a pre-existing low-pressure disturbance.

1. Role of the ITCZ: The Inter-Tropical Convergence Zone (ITCZ) is a region where the trade winds of the Northern and Southern Hemispheres converge, creating the low-level atmospheric instability and rising moist air necessary for cyclone formation. In the South Atlantic and South Eastern Pacific, the ITCZ stays mostly north of the equator and seldom migrates into these regions, leaving them without the necessary 'trigger' for cyclones.

2. Vertical Wind Shear: These regions are also characterized by strong vertical wind shear (the change in wind speed and direction with height). High shear prevents the vertical development of thunderstorms and prevents them from organizing into a cyclonic structure.

3. Sea Surface Temperatures: While the explanation notes temperatures are generally warm enough, these specific regions are influenced by cold ocean currents (the Benguela Current in the South Atlantic and the Humboldt Current in the South Eastern Pacific), which keep the waters relatively cooler than other tropical basins, further inhibiting cyclone genesis.

Among the given options, the lack of the ITCZ is the primary reason why cyclones do not originate in these areas.

The question refers to the economic trends in India during the decade preceding 2015.

Statement 1 is incorrect: The 'rate of growth' of real GDP refers to the percentage change in GDP from one year to the next. In India, this rate has not 'steadily increased'; instead, it has fluctuated. For example, growth was high in the mid-2000s, slowed down during the 2008 global financial crisis, recovered briefly, and then slowed again around 2012-13. A steady increase would mean the percentage growth rate rose every single year, which did not happen.

Statement 2 is correct: GDP at market prices (in absolute rupee terms) has steadily increased over the last decade. Even though the rate of growth fluctuated, as long as the growth rate remained positive (which it did), the total size of the economy (the absolute GDP value) continued to expand year after year.

Therefore, only statement 2 is correct.

The region described in the passage is most likely experiencing an equatorial climate.

• Clear and bright mornings with sea breeze: This suggests a warm and humid environment near the ocean.

• Heat building up during the day: Equatorial regions receive strong, direct sunlight throughout the year, leading to high daytime temperatures.

• Afternoon thunderstorms: The rising heat in the afternoon creates convection currents, leading to the formation of towering cumulonimbus clouds that bring brief, intense rain showers with thunder and lightning.

• Short-lived rain: Equatorial regions experience frequent, short bursts of rain, followed by clear skies again.

Equatorial Regions of the World

Statement 1 is incorrect: IUCN is an independent membership organization, not a UN body. Governments, NGOs, and scientific institutions can all be members.

Statement 2 is correct: IUCN runs thousands of field projects around the world to better manage natural environments.

Statement 3 is correct: CITES is a legally binding international agreement for countries that have ratified it. However, each member nation implements the regulations through its own domestic laws.

Statement 1 is correct: The Forest Carbon Partnership Facility is a global partnership of governments, businesses, civil society, and Indigenous Peoples focused on reducing emissions from deforestation and forest degradation, forest carbon stock conservation, the sustainable management of forests, and the enhancement of forest carbon stocks in developing countries (activities commonly referred to as REDD).

Statement 2 is incorrect: The FCPF focuses on assisting developing countries with REDD initiatives, not funding individual scientific research.

Statement 3 is correct: To assist countries in their REDD efforts by providing them with financial and technical assistance in building their capacity to benefit from possible future systems of positive incentives for REDD.

Statement 1 is Correct: China is recognized as a Nuclear Weapon State (NWS) under the NPT, as it had manufactured and exploded a nuclear weapon or other nuclear explosive device prior to January 1, 1967.

Statement 2 is Correct: France is recognized as a Nuclear Weapon State (NWS) under the NPT.

Statement 3 is Incorrect: India is not a signatory to the NPT and is not recognized as a Nuclear Weapon State under the treaty, despite possessing nuclear weapons.

Statement 4 is Incorrect: Israel has never signed the NPT and is not recognized as a Nuclear Weapon State under the treaty.

Statement 5 is Incorrect: Pakistan is not a signatory to the NPT and is not recognized as a Nuclear Weapon State under the treaty.

Under the Treaty on the Non-Proliferation of Nuclear Weapons (NPT), only five states are recognized as Nuclear Weapon States: the United States, Russia (formerly the Soviet Union), the United Kingdom, France, and China. These five states also happen to be the permanent members of the United Nations Security Council (P5).

The Beijing Declaration and Platform for Action is a visionary agenda for the empowerment of women.

It's a landmark document adopted at the Fourth World Conference on Women held in Beijing in 1995.

A custodian is a person entrusted with the custody or care of something.

• Whenever Fundamental Rights are denied or restricted, it can be challenged in the Supreme Court under Article 32;
• The dispute between Centre and State can be settled in the Supreme Court under Article 131;
• the Law declared by the Supreme Court shall be binding on all the courts in India under Article 141;
• For the enforcement of decrees - Article 142;
• President of India consulting Supreme Court under Article 143;
• After all, under Article 13, all laws that are inconsistent with or in derogation of any of the fundamental rights shall be void ( Doctrine of Judicial Review).
• Supreme Court judgments are the law of the land;

Based on the above facts, the Supreme Court takes care of the Constitution. So, simply the Supreme Court is the Custodian of the Constitution.

Indravati and Pranhita: These are major left-bank tributaries of the Godavari River.

Tributaries of Godavari

Vamsadhara: This river flows independently into the Bay of Bengal and is not a tributary of Godavari.

Pennar: This river flows entirely within Andhra Pradesh and drains into the Bay of Bengal south of Chennai. It's not a tributary of Godavari.

Statement 1 is Incorrect: Bangladesh is not a member of the Mekong-Ganga Cooperation (MGC) initiative. Statement 2 is Correct: Cambodia is one of the five ASEAN members that founded the MGC along with India. Statement 3 is Incorrect: China is not a participant in the MGC, although the Mekong River originates in the Tibetan Plateau. Statement 4 is Correct: Myanmar is a member country of the MGC, representing the Mekong basin region. Statement 5 is Correct: Thailand is a member country of the MGC and was part of its launch in 2000.

The Mekong-Ganga Cooperation (MGC) is an initiative by six countries: India and five ASEAN countries, namely Cambodia, Lao PDR, Myanmar, Thailand, and Vietnam. It was launched in 2000 at Vientiane, Laos, to facilitate closer contacts among people inhabiting these two major river basins. Since the question asks for those who are not participants, Bangladesh (1) and China (3) are the correct answers.

Influenza (H1N1) virus is a subtype of influenza A virus that was the most common cause of human influenza (flu) in 2009 and is associated with the 1918 outbreak known as the Spanish Flu. It is an orthomyxovirus that contains the glycoproteins haemagglutinin and neuraminidase. For this reason, they are described as H1N1, H1N2 etc., depending on the type of H or N antigens they express with metabolic synergy.

• Haemagglutinin causes red blood cells to clump together and binds the virus to the infected cell.
• Neuraminidase is a type of glycoside hydrolase enzyme which helps to move the virus particles through the infected cell and assist in budding from the host cells.

In June 2009, the World Health Organization (WHO) declared the new strain of swine-origin H1N1 as a pandemic. This strain is often called swine flu by the public media.

The eastward flow of the Equatorial Counter-Current (ECC) is primarily driven by the accumulation of water on the western sides of ocean basins.

1. The North and South Equatorial Currents are driven westward by the Trade Winds, causing water to 'pile up' against the western shores (e.g., the western Pacific or western Atlantic).
2. This accumulation creates a higher sea level in the west compared to the east, resulting in a pressure gradient.
3. In the zone between these two westward currents (the Doldrums), where surface winds are weak, this accumulated water flows back eastward under the influence of gravity to restore the ocean's equilibrium.
4. While the convergence of the two equatorial currents leads to this 'piling up' and subsequent downwelling (sinking of water), the resulting pressure gradient is what facilitates the eastward return flow known as the Equatorial Counter-Current.

Statement 1 is incorrect: Excessive use of nitrogen fertilizers actually reduces the need for nitrogen-fixing microorganisms in the soil. Plants can readily utilize the added nitrogen, so these microbes wouldn't need to fix atmospheric nitrogen for the plants' benefit.

Statement 2 is correct: Nitrogenous fertilizers can release acidic compounds as they break down in the soil, leading to increased soil acidity.

Statement 3 is correct: When applied in excess, nitrogen fertilizers (especially nitrates) can be easily washed away by rain or irrigation water. This can contaminate groundwater sources.

Statement 1 is correct: A committee named the 'Sedition Committee' was set up in 1918 by the British Raj, led by Sir Sidney Rowlatt, a British judge. The purpose of this committee was to investigate political activities considered seditious by the British government, particularly in Bengal and Punjab.

Statement 2 is correct: Gandhi believed the Rowlatt Act, passed based on the committee's recommendations, was unjust. It gave the British authorities broad powers to arrest and detain people suspected of revolutionary activities without trial.

While not the primary tool used by Gandhi, Gandhi did attempt to leverage the support and networks of the Home Rule Leagues to mobilize people against the Rowlatt Act.

Statement 3 is incorrect: Demonstration against the Simon Commission was held in 1928, while the Rowlatt Act was passed in 1919.

1. Srisailam - Nallamala Hills (Correct): Srisailam, a revered Hindu pilgrimage site dedicated to Lord Shiva and Parvati, is situated in the Nallamala Hills range on the border of Andhra Pradesh and Telangana.

2. Omkareshwar - Satmala Hills (Incorrect): Omkareshwar, a holy island town on the Narmada River known for its 12 Shiva Jyotirlinga temples, is located in the Mandhata plateau region, not the Satmala Hills.

3. Pushkar - Mahadeo Hills (Incorrect): Pushkar, a sacred town famous for the only Brahma temple in India, is situated on the shores of Pushkar Lake in Rajasthan, not the Mahadeo Hills.

The Mahadeo Hills are located in Madhya Pradesh, a central Indian state.

Jyotirlingas

Out of the listed countries, only Jordan does not have a coastline on the Mediterranean Sea.

Mediterranean Sea

Syria, Lebanon, and Israel all border the Mediterranean Sea. Jordan is bordered by Israel and the West Bank to the west, effectively separating it from the Mediterranean Sea.

Statement 1 is Incorrect: The size of the Legislative Council of a state cannot be larger than one-third of the total membership of the Legislative Assembly. The Constitution sets a limit to ensure the dominance of the lower house (Legislative Assembly) in a bicameral legislature.

Statement 2 is Incorrect: The Chairman of the Legislative Council is not nominated by the Governor. The members of the Legislative Council themselves elect the Chairman and Deputy Chairman. This ensures the independence of the Upper House from the executive branch (headed by the Governor).

The Easternmost and Westernmost states of India are:

• Easternmost: Arunachal Pradesh
• Westernmost: Gujarat

Extreme Points of India

Statutory Liquidity Ratio (SLR) is the minimum percentage of deposits that a commercial bank has to maintain in the form of liquid cash, gold, or other securities.

1. Mechanism of SLR Reduction: When the RBI reduces the SLR, banks are required to keep a smaller portion of their deposits in liquid assets. This frees up more funds for the banks to use for lending purposes.
2. Impact on Lending Rates: As the supply of loanable funds with the banks increases, they are likely to reduce their lending rates to encourage borrowing and stay competitive. This makes Option C the most likely outcome.
3. Why other options are incorrect:
   • Option A: While a reduction in SLR can stimulate economic activity, it is unlikely to cause a 'drastic' increase in the GDP growth rate on its own.
   • Option B: Foreign Institutional Investors (FIIs) are influenced by global market conditions, interest rate differentials, and ease of doing business, rather than domestic SLR changes.
   • Option D: Reducing the SLR increases the liquidity available to the banking system for lending; it does not reduce it.

Statement 1 is correct: The Rajya Sabha has no power either to reject or to amend a Money Bill. This is a provision under Article 110 of the Indian Constitution.

Statement 2 is correct. The Rajya Sabha cannot vote on the Demands for Grants. This is the exclusive privilege of the Lok Sabha.

Statement 3 is incorrect. The Rajya Sabha can discuss the Annual Financial Statement (Budget), but it does not have the power to vote on the demands for grants. This is also the exclusive privilege of the Lok Sabha.

Option A is incorrect: Controlling inflation is a joint responsibility of both the Government of India and the Reserve Bank of India (RBI). While the government manages fiscal policy and supply-side measures (like buffer stocks), the RBI manages monetary policy.

Option B is incorrect: The RBI plays a central role in controlling inflation. Under the RBI Act, 1934, the RBI has a specific mandate to maintain price stability. The Monetary Policy Committee (MPC) of the RBI adjusts policy rates (like the Repo rate) specifically to keep inflation within a target range (4% +/- 2%).

Option C is correct: Decreased money circulation (contractionary monetary policy) is a standard tool to control inflation. By reducing the liquidity available in the economy, the central bank can reduce aggregate demand, which helps in cooling down rising prices.

Option D is incorrect: Increased money circulation generally leads to an increase in aggregate demand. If the supply of goods and services does not keep pace with this increased demand, it leads to demand-pull inflation.

The Fortaleza Declaration is related to the affairs of the BRICS group of countries.

BRICS stands for Brazil, Russia, India, China, and South Africa. The Fortaleza Declaration was signed during the Sixth BRICS Summit held in Fortaleza, Brazil, in July 2014.

Kalamkari painting refers to a specific type of hand-painted or block-printed textile art originating from the South Indian states, mainly Andhra Pradesh and Telangana. Here's a breakdown of its key characteristics

Kalamkari paintings often depict mythological stories, scenes from nature, and religious figures. Floral and geometric patterns are also common.