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UPSC Prelims 2015 Analysis

Subject wise MCQ distribution

  • Environment & Ecology (18 Questions): Covered biodiversity, climate change, environmental governance, and sustainability. Questions on international conservation initiatives like BioCarbon Fund and Green Climate Fund were prominent. Several questions were maps-based, requiring conceptual clarity and an ability to link static concepts with current affairs.
  • Economy (16 Questions): Topics included monetary policies, banking sector trends, post-1991 reforms, and international economic developments. Many questions required analytical abilities and an elimination-based approach. A mix of conceptual and factual questions, with a significant focus on current affairs.
  • Indian Polity (14 Questions): Focused on constitutional provisions, governance structures, and recent legislative changes. Several questions followed the assertion-reasoning format. Required a strong grasp of NCERT-based themes and core governance concepts.
  • International Relations (10 Questions): Covered global organizations, India’s foreign policy, and international treaties. This section was heavily inclined towards current affairs, testing awareness of recent geopolitical developments. Some questions followed the match the following pattern.
  • Science & Technology (10 Questions): Focused on space technology, biotechnology, AI, and emerging technologies. Many questions required linking current affairs with static concepts, reflecting the increasing importance of interdisciplinary knowledge.
  • History (Ancient: 1, Medieval: 3, Modern: 8, Art & Culture: 4): Modern History had the highest representation, emphasizing national movements, colonial policies, and governance structures. Many questions followed the multi-statement and match the following formats, requiring both factual recall and analytical thinking.
  • Geography (Indian: 8, Physical: 4, World: 2): Had a moderate presence, with emphasis on physical features, climate patterns, and resource distribution. Several questions were maps-based, testing location awareness and conceptual clarity.
  • Social Issues & Schemes (2 Questions): A minor section, covering key government schemes & initiatives related to education, health, and welfare programs. Some questions were designed for elimination-based problem-solving.
Prelims 2015
Subject-Wise Weightage in UPSC Prelims 2015

Difficulty analysis

  • Medium Difficulty (54 Questions): Formed the largest portion, requiring a blend of conceptual clarity and critical thinking.
  • Easy Questions (29 Questions): Nearly one-third of the paper consisted of relatively simple questions, providing scoring opportunities for well-prepared candidates.
  • Hard Questions (17 Questions): A limited but significant number of challenging questions, demanding deeper analytical skills and application-oriented thinking.
Prelims 2015
Difficulty-Level Distribution in UPSC Prelims 2015

Variations in Question framing

  • Multi-Statement Questions (46%) – Required critical thinking, analytical abilities, and elimination strategies. Frequently seen in Polity, Economy, and Environment.
  • Direct Questions (54%) – More straightforward, favoring factual recall, particularly in Geography, History, and Science & Technology.
Prelims 2015
Variations in Question Framing in UPSC Prelims 2015

Current Affairs vs. Static Questions

  • Static-Based (60 Questions): The majority of the paper was based on NCERTs, standard textbooks, and foundational knowledge from traditional sources.
  • Current Affairs-Based (40 Questions): The paper deviated from the past four years' trend. While some topics required inference-based reasoning, many current affairs questions were direct. The focus was more on factual details rather than integrating concepts with dynamic events.
     

Key learning for Future Preparation

  • Strengthen Static Fundamentals: Given that 60% of questions were from static topics, aspirants should focus on NCERTs, standard textbooks, and government reports.
  • Prioritize Environment & Ecology: The increasing weightage highlights the need to cover conservation initiatives, biodiversity, and environmental policies comprehensively.
  • Master Indian Economy Concepts: This section remains crucial, requiring conceptual understanding of financial policies, economic trends, GST, Monetary Policy Committee, and government initiatives.
  • Enhance Multi-Statement Question Solving Techniques: With nearly half the paper in this format, mastering elimination techniques and analytical reasoning is essential.
  • Maintain a Strong Balance Between Static and Dynamic Knowledge: The 40% share of current affairs reinforces the need to integrate contemporary events into static concepts.
The UPSC Prelims 2015 focused on Economy, Geography, Environment, Polity, and History, covering most of the paper. Economy had the highest weightage. The mix of direct and multi-statement questions tested both factual knowledge and analytical skills, highlighting the need for an integrated approach to static and current affairs.

QUESTION 1

MediumIndian PolityPrelims 2015

Consider the following statements:

  1. The Executive Power of the Union of India is vested in the Prime Minister.
  2. The Prime Minister is the ex officio Chairman of the Civil Services Board.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

A. 1 only

B. 2 only

C. Both 1 and 2

D. Neither 1 nor 2

Answer: D

Explanation

Statement 1 - Incorrect The executive power of the Union is vested in the President, who acts on the advice of the Council of Ministers headed by the Prime Minister.

The Constitution of India vests the executive power in the President (Article 53). However, the President exercises this power on the advice of the Council of Ministers, with the Prime Minister as its head (Article 75).

So, the real executive authority lies with the Prime Minister and the Council of Ministers, but formally it's vested in the President.

Statement 2 - Incorrect The Chairperson of the Civil Services Board is the Cabinet Secretary, a senior bureaucrat who leads the bureaucracy of the Government of India.


QUESTION 2

EasyIndian PolityPrelims 2015

There is a Parliamentary System of Government in India because:

A. Lok Sabha is elected directly by the people

B. Parliament can amend the constitution

C. Rajya Sabha cannot be dissolved

D. the Council of Ministers is responsible to the Lok Sabha

Answer: D

Explanation

In a parliamentary system, the executive branch (council of ministers) derives its legitimacy from the legislature (parliament). The Lok Sabha, the lower house directly elected by the people, holds the power to keep the government in check. If the Lok Sabha loses confidence in the council of ministers, it can lead to the resignation of the government.

According to Article 75(3), The Council of Ministers shall be collectively responsible to the House of the People. Hence, the correct option choice is 'D'.


QUESTION 3

EasyIndian PolityPrelims 2015

The ideal of “Welfare State” in the Indian Constitution is enshrined in its

A. Preamble

B. Directive Principles of State Policy

C. Fundamental Rights

D. Seventh Schedule

Answer: B

Explanation

The idea of a "Welfare State" in the Indian Constitution is enshrined in its Directive Principles of State Policy (DPSP).

The DPSP, outlined in Part IV of the Constitution, are a set of guidelines for the government to achieve social and economic justice. These principles, though not enforceable by courts, provide a framework for the government to strive towards goals like

  • Securing and protecting a social order for the welfare of the people (Article 38)
  • Providing adequate means of livelihood for all citizens (Article 39)
  • Promoting equal justice and opportunity (Article 39)
  • Developing the village panchayats (Article 40) -Providing free and compulsory education for all children (Article 45)
  • Improving public health (Article 47)

By outlining these principles, the Constitution emphasizes the government's responsibility for promoting the social and economic well-being of its citizens, reflecting the ideals of a welfare state.


QUESTION 4

MediumIndian PolityPrelims 2015

With reference to the Union Government consider the following statements.

  1. The Department of Revenue is responsible for the preparation of Union Budget that is presented to the parliament
  2. No amount can be withdrawn from the Consolidated Fund of India without the authorization of Parliament of India.
  3. All the disbursements made from Public Account also need Authorization from the Parliament of India.

Which of the following statements given above is/are correct?

A. 1 and 2 only

B. 2 and 3 only

C. 2 only

D. 1, 2, and 3

Answer: C

Explanation

Department of Economic Affairs prepares the Budget. Hence, statement 1 is incorrect.

Public Accounts include provident fund deposits, judicial deposits, savings bank deposits, departmental deposits, remittances and so on. This account is operated by executive action, that is, the payments from this account can be made without parliamentary appropriation. Such payments are mostly like banking transactions. Hence, statement 3 is also incorrect.

As per Article 114 of the Constitution, the government can withdraw money from the Consolidated Fund only after receiving approval from Parliament.

So only the second statement is correct.


QUESTION 5

EasyIndian PolityPrelims 2015

Consider the following Statements regarding the DPSP/ Directive Principles of State Policy:

  1. The Principles spell out the socio-economic democracy in the country
  2. The provisions contained in these Principles are not enforceable by any court.

Which of the statements given below are correct?

A. 1 only

B. 2 only

C. Both 1 & 2

D. Neither 1 nor 2

Answer: C

Explanation

The Principles spell out the socio-economic democracy in the India The Directive Principles of State Policy (DPSP) in Part IV of the Indian Constitution outline the ideals that the government should strive to achieve for its citizens. These principles encompass social justice, economic justice, and political justice, forming the foundation for a socio-economic democracy.

The provisions contained in these Principles are not enforceable by any court The DPSP are not justiciable, meaning they cannot be directly enforced by courts if violated. However, they serve as guidelines for the government in making laws and policies and can be used by the judiciary while interpreting other laws.


QUESTION 6

EasyIndian PolityPrelims 2015

When a bill is referred to a joint sitting of both Houses of the Parliament, it has to be passed by:

A. a simple majority of members present and voting

B. a three-fourths majority of members present and voting

C. a two-thirds majority of the House

D. the absolute majority of the House

Answer: A

Explanation

When a bill is referred to a joint sitting of both houses of the Indian Parliament due to a deadlock, it requires a simpler majority for passage compared to a regular bill passed by each house individually. This provision helps break the impasse and allows for the bill's passage.


QUESTION 7

EasyIndian PolityPrelims 2015

The provisions in the Fifth Schedule and Sixth Schedule in the Constitution of India are made in order to -

A. protect the interests of Scheduled Tribes

B. determine the boundaries between states

C. determine the powers, authorities, and responsibilities of Panchayats

D. protect the interests of all the border States

Answer: A

Explanation

The provisions in the Fifth Schedule and Sixth Schedule in the Constitution of India are made to protect the interests of Scheduled Tribes.

Fifth Schedule Applies to all states except Assam, Meghalaya, Tripura, and Mizoram. It focuses on

Management and administration of Scheduled Areas These are areas with a high concentration of tribal populations. The schedule grants them some autonomy and safeguards their traditional rights over land and resources. Establishment of Tribes Advisory Councils These councils advise the Governor on matters related to the welfare and development of Scheduled Tribes.

Sixth Schedule Applies to the four aforementioned northeastern states with significant tribal populations. It provides greater autonomy compared to the Fifth Schedule by

Creation of Autonomous District Councils (ADCs) These councils have a greater degree of administrative and legislative power within their designated areas. Special provisions for administration of tribal areas This includes protection of customary law, inheritance practices, and social customs of the tribes.


QUESTION 8

MediumIndian PolityPrelims 2015

With Reference to the Fourteenth Finance Commission, which of the following statements is/are correct?

  1. It has increased the share of States in the central divisible pool from 32 per cent to 42 per cent
  2. It has made recommendations concerning sector-specific grants

A. 1 only

B. 2 only

C. Both 1 and 2

D. Neither 1 nor 2

Answer: A

Explanation

Statement 1 - Correct The Fourteenth Finance Commission indeed increased the devolution of tax revenue from the central government to the states.

Statement 2 - Incorrect While promoting formula-based devolution, the commission does not provided recommendations regarding sector-specific grants to ensure focus on critical areas.


QUESTION 9

MediumIndian PolityPrelims 2015

The fundamental object of the Panchayati Raj system is to ensure which among the following?

  1. People’s participation in the development
  2. Political accountability
  3. Democratic decentralization
  4. Financial mobilization

Select the correct answer using the code given below

A. 1, 2 and 3 only

B. 2 and 4 only

C. 1 and 3 only

D. 1, 2, 3 and 4

Answer: C

Explanation

The Panchayati Raj system is designed to empower rural communities by enabling

People's participation in development (1) This involves involving villagers in decision-making processes related to local development projects and resource allocation. Democratic decentralization (3) Power is transferred from the central government to local bodies, allowing communities to address their specific needs and priorities.

While financial mobilization (4) can be a consequence, it's not the fundamental objective. Political accountability (2) is a desirable outcome, but not the sole purpose. The Panchayati Raj system aims to create a more participatory and democratic structure for rural development.

Therefore, only statements 1 and 3 are true.


QUESTION 10

EasyIndian PolityPrelims 2015

“To uphold and protect the Sovereignty Unity and Integrity of India” is a provision made in the:

A. Preamble of the Constitution

B. Directive Principles of State Policy

C. Fundamental Rights

D. Fundamental Duties

Answer: D

Explanation

The provision "To uphold and protect the Sovereignty, Unity and Integrity of India" is found in Article 51A(c) of the Indian Constitution.

It is part of the Fundamental Duties added to the Constitution in 1976. These duties are the moral obligations of every citizen to promote the well-being of the nation.


QUESTION 11

EasyIndian PolityPrelims 2015

The Government of India has established NITI Aayog to replace the

A. Human Rights Commission

B. Finance Commission

C. Law Commission

D. Planning Commission

Answer: D

Explanation

The Government of India established NITI Aayog to replace the Planning Commission.

The Planning Commission was established in 1950 and played a vital role in India's economic development through five-year plans. However, NITI Aayog, formed in 2015, was designed to be a more agile and forward-looking institution compared to the Planning Commission.


QUESTION 12

MediumIndian PolityPrelims 2015

Who/Which of the following is the Custodian of the Constitution of India?

A. The President of India

B. The Prime Minister of India

C. The Lok Sabha Secretariat

D. The Supreme Court of India

Answer: D

Explanation

A custodian is a person entrusted with the custody or care of something.

  • Whenever Fundamental Rights are denied or restricted, it can be challenged in the Supreme Court under Article 32;
  • The dispute between Centre and State can be settled in the Supreme Court under Article 131;
  • the Law declared by the Supreme Court shall be binding on all the courts in India under Article 141;
  • For the enforcement of decrees - Article 142;
  • President of India consulting Supreme Court under Article 143;
  • After all, under Article 13, all laws that are inconsistent with or in derogation of any of the fundamental rights shall be void ( Doctrine of Judicial Review).
  • Supreme Court judgments are the law of the land;

Based on the above facts, the Supreme Court takes care of the Constitution. So, simply the Supreme Court is the Custodian of the Constitution.


QUESTION 13

MediumIndian PolityPrelims 2015

Consider the following statements:

  1. The Legislative Council of a state in India can be larger in size than half of the Legislative Assembly of that particular state.
  2. The Governor of a state nominates the Chairman of the Legislative Council of that particular state.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

A. 1 only

B. 2 only

C. Both 1 and 2

D. Neither 1 nor 2

Answer: D

Explanation

1 is Incorrect The size of the Legislative Council of a state cannot be larger than one-third of the total membership of the Legislative Assembly. The Constitution sets a limit to ensure the dominance of the lower house (Legislative Assembly) in a bicameral legislature.

2 is Incorrect The Chairman of the Legislative Council is not nominated by the Governor. The members of the Legislative Council themselves elect the Chairman and Deputy Chairman. This ensures the independence of the Upper House from the executive branch (headed by the Governor).


QUESTION 14

MediumIndian PolityPrelims 2015

Consider the following statements:

  1. The Rajya Sabha has no power either to reject or to amend a Money Bill
  2. The Rajya Sabha cannot vote on the Demands for Grants.
  3. The Rajya Sabha cannot discuss the Annual Financial Statement.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

A. 1 only

B. 1 and 2 only

C. 2 and 3 only

D. 1, 2 and 3

Answer: B

Explanation

The first statement is correct. The Rajya Sabha has no power either to reject or to amend a Money Bill. This is a provision under Article 110 of the Indian Constitution.

The second statement is also correct. The Rajya Sabha cannot vote on the Demands for Grants. This is the exclusive privilege of the Lok Sabha.

The third statement is incorrect. The Rajya Sabha can discuss the Annual Financial Statement (Budget), but it does not have the power to vote on the demands for grants. This is also the exclusive privilege of the Lok Sabha.

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