UPSC Prelims 2015 Analysis
Subject wise MCQ distribution
- Environment & Ecology (18 Questions): Covered biodiversity, climate change, environmental governance, and sustainability. Questions on international conservation initiatives like BioCarbon Fund and Green Climate Fund were prominent. Several questions were maps-based, requiring conceptual clarity and an ability to link static concepts with current affairs.
- Economy (16 Questions): Topics included monetary policies, banking sector trends, post-1991 reforms, and international economic developments. Many questions required analytical abilities and an elimination-based approach. A mix of conceptual and factual questions, with a significant focus on current affairs.
- Indian Polity (14 Questions): Focused on constitutional provisions, governance structures, and recent legislative changes. Several questions followed the assertion-reasoning format. Required a strong grasp of NCERT-based themes and core governance concepts.
- International Relations (10 Questions): Covered global organizations, India’s foreign policy, and international treaties. This section was heavily inclined towards current affairs, testing awareness of recent geopolitical developments. Some questions followed the match the following pattern.
- Science & Technology (10 Questions): Focused on space technology, biotechnology, AI, and emerging technologies. Many questions required linking current affairs with static concepts, reflecting the increasing importance of interdisciplinary knowledge.
- History (Ancient: 1, Medieval: 3, Modern: 8, Art & Culture: 4): Modern History had the highest representation, emphasizing national movements, colonial policies, and governance structures. Many questions followed the multi-statement and match the following formats, requiring both factual recall and analytical thinking.
- Geography (Indian: 8, Physical: 4, World: 2): Had a moderate presence, with emphasis on physical features, climate patterns, and resource distribution. Several questions were maps-based, testing location awareness and conceptual clarity.
- Social Issues & Schemes (2 Questions): A minor section, covering key government schemes & initiatives related to education, health, and welfare programs. Some questions were designed for elimination-based problem-solving.

Difficulty analysis
- Medium Difficulty (54 Questions): Formed the largest portion, requiring a blend of conceptual clarity and critical thinking.
- Easy Questions (29 Questions): Nearly one-third of the paper consisted of relatively simple questions, providing scoring opportunities for well-prepared candidates.
- Hard Questions (17 Questions): A limited but significant number of challenging questions, demanding deeper analytical skills and application-oriented thinking.

Variations in Question framing
- Multi-Statement Questions (46%) – Required critical thinking, analytical abilities, and elimination strategies. Frequently seen in Polity, Economy, and Environment.
- Direct Questions (54%) – More straightforward, favoring factual recall, particularly in Geography, History, and Science & Technology.

Current Affairs vs. Static Questions
- Static-Based (60 Questions): The majority of the paper was based on NCERTs, standard textbooks, and foundational knowledge from traditional sources.
- Current Affairs-Based (40 Questions): The paper deviated from the past four years' trend. While some topics required inference-based reasoning, many current affairs questions were direct. The focus was more on factual details rather than integrating concepts with dynamic events.
Key learning for Future Preparation
- Strengthen Static Fundamentals: Given that 60% of questions were from static topics, aspirants should focus on NCERTs, standard textbooks, and government reports.
- Prioritize Environment & Ecology: The increasing weightage highlights the need to cover conservation initiatives, biodiversity, and environmental policies comprehensively.
- Master Indian Economy Concepts: This section remains crucial, requiring conceptual understanding of financial policies, economic trends, GST, Monetary Policy Committee, and government initiatives.
- Enhance Multi-Statement Question Solving Techniques: With nearly half the paper in this format, mastering elimination techniques and analytical reasoning is essential.
- Maintain a Strong Balance Between Static and Dynamic Knowledge: The 40% share of current affairs reinforces the need to integrate contemporary events into static concepts.
Subject-Wise Answer Key
QUESTION 1
Consider the following statements:
- The Executive Power of the Union of India is vested in the Prime Minister.
- The Prime Minister is the ex officio Chairman of the Civil Services Board.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
A. 1 only
B. 2 only
C. Both 1 and 2
D. Neither 1 nor 2
QUESTION 2
There is a Parliamentary System of Government in India because:
A. Lok Sabha is elected directly by the people
B. Parliament can amend the constitution
C. Rajya Sabha cannot be dissolved
D. the Council of Ministers is responsible to the Lok Sabha
QUESTION 3
The ideal of “Welfare State” in the Indian Constitution is enshrined in its
A. Preamble
B. Directive Principles of State Policy
C. Fundamental Rights
D. Seventh Schedule
QUESTION 4
With reference to the Union Government consider the following statements.
- The Department of Revenue is responsible for the preparation of Union Budget that is presented to the parliament
- No amount can be withdrawn from the Consolidated Fund of India without the authorization of Parliament of India.
- All the disbursements made from Public Account also need Authorization from the Parliament of India.
Which of the following statements given above is/are correct?
A. 1 and 2 only
B. 2 and 3 only
C. 2 only
D. 1, 2, and 3
QUESTION 5
Consider the following Statements regarding the DPSP/ Directive Principles of State Policy:
- The Principles spell out the socio-economic democracy in the country
- The provisions contained in these Principles are not enforceable by any court.
Which of the statements given below are correct?
A. 1 only
B. 2 only
C. Both 1 & 2
D. Neither 1 nor 2
QUESTION 6
When a bill is referred to a joint sitting of both Houses of the Parliament, it has to be passed by:
A. a simple majority of members present and voting
B. a three-fourths majority of members present and voting
C. a two-thirds majority of the House
D. the absolute majority of the House
QUESTION 7
The provisions in the Fifth Schedule and Sixth Schedule in the Constitution of India are made in order to -
A. protect the interests of Scheduled Tribes
B. determine the boundaries between states
C. determine the powers, authorities, and responsibilities of Panchayats
D. protect the interests of all the border States
QUESTION 8
With Reference to the Fourteenth Finance Commission, which of the following statements is/are correct?
- It has increased the share of States in the central divisible pool from 32 per cent to 42 per cent
- It has made recommendations concerning sector-specific grants
A. 1 only
B. 2 only
C. Both 1 and 2
D. Neither 1 nor 2
QUESTION 9
The fundamental object of the Panchayati Raj system is to ensure which among the following?
- People’s participation in the development
- Political accountability
- Democratic decentralization
- Financial mobilization
Select the correct answer using the code given below
A. 1, 2 and 3 only
B. 2 and 4 only
C. 1 and 3 only
D. 1, 2, 3 and 4
QUESTION 10
“To uphold and protect the Sovereignty Unity and Integrity of India” is a provision made in the:
A. Preamble of the Constitution
B. Directive Principles of State Policy
C. Fundamental Rights
D. Fundamental Duties
QUESTION 11
The Government of India has established NITI Aayog to replace the
A. Human Rights Commission
B. Finance Commission
C. Law Commission
D. Planning Commission
QUESTION 12
Who/Which of the following is the Custodian of the Constitution of India?
A. The President of India
B. The Prime Minister of India
C. The Lok Sabha Secretariat
D. The Supreme Court of India
QUESTION 13
Consider the following statements:
- The Legislative Council of a state in India can be larger in size than half of the Legislative Assembly of that particular state.
- The Governor of a state nominates the Chairman of the Legislative Council of that particular state.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
A. 1 only
B. 2 only
C. Both 1 and 2
D. Neither 1 nor 2
QUESTION 14
Consider the following statements:
- The Rajya Sabha has no power either to reject or to amend a Money Bill
- The Rajya Sabha cannot vote on the Demands for Grants.
- The Rajya Sabha cannot discuss the Annual Financial Statement.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
A. 1 only
B. 1 and 2 only
C. 2 and 3 only
D. 1, 2 and 3