UPSC Prelims 2013 Analysis

Subject-Wise MCQ Distribution

  • Economy (16 Questions): A significant portion covered monetary policies, banking, economic indicators, and core concepts such as inflation and the balance of payments. Many questions followed the assertion-reasoning format, testing both conceptual clarity and practical application.
  • Environment & Ecology (19 Questions): Focused on biodiversity, national parks, environmental pollution, and fundamental ecology concepts. Several questions required an interdisciplinary approach, linking topics to geography, governance, and climate policies.
  • Indian Polity (15 Questions): Included constitutional provisions, policy frameworks, and governmental bodies. The paper tested static knowledge while integrating current affairs-based reasoning, making analytical abilities crucial.
  • Science & Technology (16 Questions): Emphasized fundamental concepts and emerging technologies from biotechnology, space, and AI. Instead of direct current affairs-based questions, many were current affairs-inspired, requiring an understanding of recent developments and their applications.
  • Art & Culture (9 Questions): Had a notable weightage, with a focus on Buddhism & Jainism, the Bhakti movement, architecture, and performing arts. Many questions followed the match the following format, requiring factual knowledge and conceptual linkages.
  • History (8 Questions): Covered Ancient History (2) and Modern History (6), with no Medieval History questionsModern History questions were relatively easy to medium in difficulty, making them scoring opportunities for well-prepared candidates.
  • Geography (13 Questions): Included Physical Geography (5), Indian Geography (5), and World Geography (3). A strong emphasis was placed on conceptual understanding, with several questions integrating maps and geophysical phenomena.
  • Social Issues & Government Schemes (4 Questions): Covered welfare schemes, social development programs, and demographic trends. Many were elimination-based, requiring a clear understanding of policy frameworks.
  • International Relations (0 Questions): Unlike previous years, there were no direct questions on India’s foreign policy or global affairs, marking a deviation in trends.
Prelims 2013
Subject-Wise MCQ Distribution in UPSC Prelims 2013

Difficulty Analysis

  • Easy Questions (39 Questions): Tested foundational knowledge, making them accessible to well-prepared aspirants.
  • Medium Questions (39 Questions): Required analytical skills and an ability to link static concepts with real-world applications, especially in Economy and Science & Technology.
  • Hard Questions (22 Questions): Demanded deep conceptual clarity and critical thinking, particularly in subjects like Economy and Environment.
Prelims 2013
Difficulty Analysis in UPSC Prelims 2013

Variations in Question Framing

  • Multi-Statement Questions (56%) – A significant portion required critical analysis, logical deduction, and elimination strategies. These were common in Polity, Economy, and Environment, with many questions following the assertion-reasoning format.
  • Direct Questions (44%) – Focused on factual recall, particularly in Science & Technology and History. These were relatively easier for candidates with strong static knowledge.
Prelims 2013
Variations in Question Framing in UPSC Prelims 2013

Current Affairs vs. Static Questions

  • Current Affairs-Based Questions (14%) – While fewer in number, many static questions were inspired by current events, requiring candidates to apply their knowledge in real-world contexts.
  • Static Knowledge-Based Questions (86%) – The majority of the paper focused on core subjects, reaffirming the importance of NCERT-based themes, standard books, and foundational concepts.

Key Learnings for Future Preparation

  • Prioritize Static Subjects: Since 86% of the questions were static, aspirants must focus on NCERTs, standard reference books, and core concepts.
  • Master Multi-Statement Questions: Developing skills to break down statements, eliminate incorrect options, and infer logical conclusions is crucial for improving accuracy.
  • Emphasize Environment & Science & Technology: These subjects had a significant presence, requiring conceptual clarity over rote learning.
  • Strengthen Art & Culture Preparation: With 9 questions, this subject played an important role, emphasizing cultural history and heritage.
  • Approach Current Affairs Selectively: Although current affairs questions were fewer, many were inspired by contemporary issues, highlighting the need for smart, selective preparation instead of exhaustive memorization.
UPSC Prelims 2013 emphasized static subjects, with Economy, Environment, and Polity carrying high weightage. Multi-statement questions dominated, testing analytical skills and elimination techniques. Science & Technology and Art & Culture were significant, requiring conceptual clarity. A strong foundation in NCERTs and core subjects was key to tackling the paper effectively.

QUESTION 1

MediumSocial Issues & SchemesPrelims 2013

With reference to the National Legal Services Authority, consider the following statements :

  1. Its objective is to provide free and competent legal services to the weaker sections of the society on the basis of equal opportunity.
  2. It issues guidelines for the State Legal Services Authorities to implement the legal programs and schemes throughout the country.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

A. 1 only

B. 2 only

C. 1 and 2 only

D. None of the above

Answer: C

Explanation

Both statements are correct.

The National Legal Services Authority (NALSA) plays a crucial role in ensuring equal access to justice for all in India.

Providing Free Legal Aid NALSA's primary objective is to offer free and competent legal services to the underprivileged sections of society. This empowers them to navigate the legal system and fight for their rights, regardless of their financial background.

Guiding State Authorities NALSA functions as the apex body, setting guidelines and frameworks for State Legal Services Authorities (SLSAs) to implement legal aid programs and initiatives throughout the country. These SLSAs operate at the state level to deliver legal services to the public.


QUESTION 2

MediumEnvironment & EcologyPrelims 2013

With reference to the food chains in ecosystems, which of the following kinds of an organism is/are known as decomposer organism/organisms?

  1. Virus
  2. Fungi
  3. Bacteria

Select the correct answer using the codes given below.

A. 1 only

B. 2 and 3 only

C. 1 and 3 only

D. 1, 2 and 3

Answer: B

Explanation

Fungi and Bacteria are decomposers.

  • They breakdown organic matter into simple inorganic substances.

  • Virus represents dormant life. They are metabolically inactive as long as they are outside a host body.

  • They are not decomposers. They invade host cells and use their nucleus (DNA machinery) to carry out their life processes.


QUESTION 3

HardScience & TechnologyPrelims 2013

Many transplanted seedlings do not grow because -

A. The new soil does not contain favourable minerals

B. Most of the root hairs grip the new soil too hard

C. Most of the root hairs are lost during the transplantation

D. Leaves get damaged during the Solution plantation

Answer: C

Explanation

Root hairs are extremely delicate, whether on a tree or a seedling. When transplanting young trees from a nursery to a woodland, damage to the roots and root hairs often leads to the death of a tree.


QUESTION 4

MediumIndian PolityPrelims 2013

Who among the following constitute the National Development Council?

  1. The Prime Minister
  2. The Chairman, Finance Commission
  3. Ministers of the Union Cabinet
  4. Chief Ministers of the States

Select the correct answer using the codes given below:

A. 1, 2 and 3 only

B. 1, 3 and 4 only

C. 2 and 4 only

D. 1, 2, 3 and 4

Answer: B

Explanation

The National Development Council (NDC) in India is comprised of the following members

The Prime Minister (who chairs the council) Ministers of the Union Cabinet Chief Ministers of the States

The Chairman, Finance Commission - while the Finance Commission plays a crucial role in recommending the devolution of financial resources from the central government to the states, the Chairman is not a member of the NDC.

Note The National Development Council has been proposed to be abolished, but as of yet, no resolution has been passed. It currently has no assigned work and doesn't hold meetings.


QUESTION 5

MediumEconomyPrelims 2013

Consider the following liquid assets:

  1. Demand deposits with the banks
  2. Time deposits with the banks
  3. Savings deposits with the banks
  4. Currency

The correct sequence of these decreasing order of Liquidity is

A. 1-4-3-2

B. 4-3-2-1

C. 2-3-1-4

D. 4-1-3-2

Answer: D

Explanation

Most liquid assets are the currency assets since they can be used anytime.

The least liquid assets are the time deposits, which are the deposits for a fixed time period and can only be used upon their maturity.

Demand deposits are more liquid than saving deposits because they can be demanded by the holder from the bank at any time.


QUESTION 6

HardEnvironment & EcologyPrelims 2013

Which one among the following industries is the maximum consumer of water in India?

A. Engineering

B. Paper and pulp

C. Textiles

D. Thermal power

Answer: D

Explanation

In India, the largest consumer of water is Agriculture amounting to more than 80% of the total water consumption.

Industrial water consumption is about 1015% of the total.

If we do not consider agriculture as an industry then the highest water consumers are Thermal Power Plants which comprise of 87% of the total industrial water usage or about 812% of the total water consumption. This is because cooling water is a crucial requirement for the thermal power plant. To prevent thermal pollution due to the discharge of heated water, most of the plants have closed loop water cycle. In such a plant, they evaporate the water and force cool it by fans. The water is generally taken from a nearby River or in rare occasions Sea directly via Canal.


QUESTION 7

EasyIndian PolityPrelims 2013

Which of the following bodies does not/do not find mention in the Constitution?

  1. National Development Council
  2. Planning Commission
  3. Zonal Councils

Select the correct answer using the codes given below.

A. 1 only

B. 1 and 2 only

C. 2 and 3 only

D. 1, 2 and 3

Answer: D

Explanation

The Planning Commission and the National Development Council are bodies that were established by an Executive Resolution of the Union Government. On the other hand, Zonal Councils are statutory bodies that were created by an act of the Parliament.

It's important to note that none of these bodies are mentioned in the Constitution.


QUESTION 8

MediumScience & TechnologyPrelims 2013

Fruits stored in a cold chamber exhibit longer storage life because -

A. exposure to sunlight is prevented

B. concentration dioxide in the is increased of carbon environment

C. rate of respiration is decreased

D. there is an increase in humidity

Answer: C

Explanation

Fruits and vegetables continue their metabolic activity after harvest.

Metabolic Activity is manifested by respiration .

Reduction of temperature is an effective means of reducing the rate of respiration .


QUESTION 9

HardEnvironment & EcologyPrelims 2013

Which of the following can be found as pollutants in the drinking water in some parts of India?

  1. Arsenic
  2. Sorbitol
  3. Fluoride
  4. Formaldehyde
  5. Uranium

Select the correct answer using the codes given below.

A. 1 and 3 only

B. 2, 4 and 5 only

C. 1, 3 and 5 only

D. 1, 2, 3, 4 and 5

Answer: C

Explanation

Arsenic, fluoride, and uranium are naturally occurring elements that can leach into groundwater in some regions of India.

Sorbitol is a sugar alcohol not typically found as a pollutant in drinking water.

Formaldehyde is a synthetic compound used in various industrial processes and is not a common contaminant in groundwater.


QUESTION 10

HardEnvironment & EcologyPrelims 2013

Consider the following

  1. Star tortoise
  2. Monitor lizard
  3. Pygmy Hog
  4. Spider monkey

Which of the above found in India?

A. 1, 2 and 3 only

B. 2 and 3 only

C. 1 and 4 only

D. 1, 2,3 and 4

Answer: A

Explanation

The Star tortoise, Monitor lizard, and Pygmy Hog are all species that are naturally found in India.

The Star tortoise is a medium-sized species of tortoise found in the dry and arid forests of India.

Monitor lizards are prevalent in India with four kinds occurring Bengal monitor lizard, water monitor lizard, desert monitor lizard, and yellow monitor lizard.

The Pygmy Hog is a critically endangered species that was once found in Bhutan, Nepal, and India but is now only found in India.

However, Spider monkeys are not found in India. They live in tropical climates, specifically the evergreen forests of Central and South America.

Therefore, the correct answer is 1, 2, and 3 only.


QUESTION 11

EasySocial Issues & SchemesPrelims 2013

Under the Scheduled Tribes and Other Traditional Forest Dwellers (Recognition of Forest Rights) Act, 2006, who shall be the authority to initiate the process for determining the nature and extent of individual or community forest rights or both?

A. State Forest Department

B. District Collector/Deputy Commissioner

C. Tahsildar /Block Development Officer / Mandai Revenue Officer

D. Gram Sabha

Answer: D

Explanation

Under the Forest Rights Act, 2006, the Gram Sabha has been assigned to initiate the process for determining the nature and extent of individual or community forest rights or both that may be given.


QUESTION 12

MediumWorld GeographyPrelims 2013

Which of the following is/are unique characteristic/characteristics of equatorial forests?

  1. Presence of tall, closely set trees with crowns forming a continuous canopy
  2. Coexistence of a large number of species
  3. Presence of numerous varieties of epiphytes

Select the correct answer using the code given below:

A. 1 only

B. 2 and 3 only

C. 1 and 3 only

D. 1, 2 and 3

Answer: D

Explanation

Equatorial forests are located within a 5-10 degree band around the equator. They have a hot, humid climate with consistent summer-like weather. These forests have a complex vertical structure, with distinct layers of vegetation and diverse ecosystems.

The tallest trees, known as emergents, dominate the canopy, while the lower layers are home to a variety of plants and animals. Due to high rainfall and a humid climate, these forests provide a suitable environment for the habitat of numerous varieties of fauna and flora. Epiphytes, which are plants that grow on other plants, thrive in tropical equatorial climates because of the above characteristics of equatorial forests.


QUESTION 13

EasyIndian PolityPrelims 2013

According to the Constitution of India, which of the following are fundamental for the governance of the country?

A. Fundamental Rights

B. Fundamental Duties

C. Directive Principles of State Policy

D. Fundamental Rights and Fundamental Duties

Answer: C

Explanation

Article 37 The provisions contained in this Part shall not be enforceable by any court, but the principles therein laid down are nevertheless fundamental in the governance of the country and it shall be the duty of the State to apply these principles in making laws.

As article 37 is part of DPSP, thus correct answer is 'C'.


QUESTION 14

MediumScience & TechnologyPrelims 2013

Rainbow is produced when sunlight falls on drops of rain. Which of the following physical phenomena are responsible for this?

  1. Dispersion
  2. Refraction
  3. Internal reflection

Select the correct Solution using the codes given below.

A. 1 only

B. 1 and 2 only

C. 2 and 3 only

D. 1, 2 and 3

Answer: D

Explanation

A rainbow is always formed in a direction opposite to that of the Sun. The water droplets act like small prisms.

Physical Phenomena Involved here are

Refraction Light bends when it enters and exits water droplets, due to the change in speed when traveling between air and water. Dispersion White sunlight is made up of different colors (wavelengths) of light. When light refracts, these different colors bend at slightly different angles, separating them. Internal reflection Light bounces off the inside of the back of the raindrop.

The correct solution is (d) 1, 2 and 3


QUESTION 15

EasyIndian PolityPrelims 2013

What will follow if a Money Bill is substantially amended by the Rajya Sabha?

A. The Lok Sabha may still proceed with the Bill, accepting or not accepting the recommendations of the Rajya Sabha

B. The Lok Sabha cannot consider the Bill further

C. The Lok Sabha may send the Bill to the Rajya Sabha for reconsideration

D. The President may call a joint sitting for passing the Bill

Answer: A

Explanation

The Lok Sabha (Lower House) has the final say in the matter of Money Bill. Here's the process

The Money Bill originates in the Lok Sabha. The Lok Sabha passes the Money Bill. The Bill is sent to the Rajya Sabha for recommendations. The Rajya Sabha can discuss the Bill and recommend amendments within 14 days. Two scenarios can occur Rajya Sabha returns the Bill without recommendations or with recommendations accepted by the Lok Sabha The Bill is deemed to have been passed by both Houses of Parliament in its original or amended form. Rajya Sabha recommends amendments that the Lok Sabha disagrees with (substantial amendments) The Lok Sabha can either accept the recommendations of the Rajya Sabha or reject them.

If the Lok Sabha rejects the amendments, the Bill is deemed to have been passed by both Houses in the form in which it was passed by the Lok Sabha (original form). Essentially, the Rajya Sabha's power to amend a Money Bill is limited. While they can propose recommendations, the Lok Sabha has the final authority to decide whether to accept or reject those changes.


QUESTION 16

EasyIndian PolityPrelims 2013

Consider the following statements

  1. An amendment to the Constitution of India can be initiated by the introduction of a bill in the Lok Sabha only.
  2. If such an amendment seeks to make changes in the federal character of the Constitution, the amendment also requires to be ratified by the legislature of all the States of India.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

A. 1 only

B. 2 only

C. Both 1 and 2

D. Neither 1 nor 2

Answer: D

Explanation

Statement 1 Incorrect An amendment to the Constitution of India can be initiated by the introduction of a bill in either house of Parliament, the Lok Sabha or the Rajya Sabha.

Statement 2 Incorrect If an amendment seeks to make changes in the federal character of the Constitution, the amendment requires ratification by the legislatures of at least half of the States of India. This is a special provision to ensure a wider consensus for changes affecting the balance of power between the center and the states.


QUESTION 17

MediumEnvironment & EcologyPrelims 2013

Which of the following leaf modifications occurs/occur in desert areas to inhibit water loss?

  1. Hard and waxy leaves
  2. Tiny leaves or no leaves
  3. Thorns instead of leaves

Select the correct answer using the codes given below.

A. 1 and 2 only

B. 2 only

C. 1 and 3 only

D. 1, 2 and 3

Answer: D

Explanation

All the options are correct. The vegetation of hot desert climate is the xerophytic type which has special characteristics to withstand very high rate of evaporation.

  • They have long roots, to reach deep water sources.
  • Thick barks, to reduce water loss.
  • Waxy leaves, to minimize evaporation.
  • Presence of thorns and little leaves, to reduce water loss.

QUESTION 18

MediumEnvironment & EcologyPrelims 2013

Which of the following adds/add nitrogen to the soil?

  1. Excretion of urea by animals
  2. Burning of coal by man
  3. Death of vegetation

Select the correct answer using the codes given below.

A. 1 only

B. 2 and 3 only

C. 1 and 3 only

D. 1, 2 and 3

Answer: C

Explanation

Nitrogenous Waste products of Living organisms such as urea and uric acid and dead remains of organisms are converted back to inorganic ammonia by the bacteria.

  • Animal Waste like Urea, Uric acid and Death of vegetation add nitrogen in the form of nitrates directly into the soil.

  • Coal combustion adds nitrogen to the atmosphere and from there it falls back to earth in the form of acid rain and acid rain adds nitrogen to the soil.


QUESTION 19

HardScience & TechnologyPrelims 2013

Consider the following animals:

  1. Sea cow
  2. Sea horse
  3. Sea lion

Which of the above is/are mammal/mammals?

A. 1 only

B. 1 and 3 only

C. 2 and 3 only

D. 1, 2 and 3

Answer: B

Explanation

Among marine creatures, the sea cow and sea lion are mammals, while the sea horse is a fish.

The sea cow, a herbivorous marine mammal, resides in the Indian and Pacific Oceans, growing to 3m and weighing around 600kg. Sadly, it's vulnerable due to habitat degradation and hunting.

The sea lion, a carnivorous marine mammal, breeds on Pacific beaches. It grows to 2.5m, weighs around 350kg, and is Endangered.

The sea horse, a carnivorous marine fish, is found in shallow tropical waters. It grows to 35cm, weighs around 200g, and is vulnerable due to habitat damage and fishing.


QUESTION 20

EasyEnvironment & EcologyPrelims 2013

Acid rain is caused by the pollution of the environment by -

A. Carbon dioxide and nitrogen

B. Carbon monoxide and carbon dioxide

C. Ozone and carbon dioxide

D. Nitrous oxide and sulphur dioxide

Answer: D

Explanation

Acid rain is caused by the pollution of the environment by primarily sulphur dioxide and nitrogen oxides.

These pollutants are released into the atmosphere during the burning of fossil fuels, like coal, for electricity generation and from the exhaust of vehicles.

When they reach the atmosphere, they react with water, oxygen, and other chemicals to form sulphuric and nitric acid, which fall back to Earth as acid rain.


QUESTION 21

EasyModern HistoryPrelims 2013

The people of India agitated against the arrival of Simon Commission because:

A. Indians never wanted the review of the working of the Act of 1919

B. Simon Commission recommended the abolition of Dyarchy Diarchy in the Provinces

C. There was no Indian member in the Simon Commission

D. The Simon Commission suggested the partition of the country

Answer: C

Explanation

Indians fiercely opposed the Simon Commission's arrival in 1928 because it had no Indian members. This exclusion from a body deciding India's future governance was seen as insulting and undemocratic, fueling the fight for independence.


QUESTION 22

HardWorld GeographyPrelims 2013

Which one of the following pairs is correctly matched? Geographical Feature -- Region

A. Abyssinian Plateau -- Arabia

B. The Atlas Mountains -- North-Western Africa

C. Guiana Highlands -- South-Western Africa

D. Okavango Basin -- Patagonia

Answer: B

Explanation

The Atlas Mountains are a mountain range in the Maghreb . It stretches around 2,500 km (1,600 mi) through Morocco, Algeria and Tunisia . The range's highest peak is Toubkal, with an elevation of 4,167 metres (13,671 ft) in southwestern Morocco. It separates the Mediterranean and Atlantic coastlines from the Sahara Desert .

The Abyssinian plateau is in Ethiopia (in Africa).

Guiana Highland is in South America.

Okavango basin/swamp in Southern part of Africa.


QUESTION 23

MediumPhysical GeographyPrelims 2013

Consider the following:

  1. Electromagnetic radiation
  2. Geothermal energy
  3. Gravitational force
  4. Plate Movements
  5. Rotation of the earth
  6. Revolution of the earth

Which of the above are responsible for bringing dynamic changes on the surface of the earth?

A. 1, 2, 3 and 4 only

B. 1, 3, 5 and 6 only

C. 2, 4, 5 and 6 only

D. 1, 2, 3, 4, 5 and 6

Answer: D

Explanation

All of the listed phenomena (1-6) are responsible for bringing dynamic changes on the surface of the Earth.

Electromagnetic Radiation Sunlight drives weather patterns, influences temperatures, and is crucial for plant life (photosynthesis).

Geothermal Energy Heat from the Earth's core fuels volcanic activity, drives plate tectonics, and shapes landforms.

Gravitational Force The Moon's gravity creates tides in our oceans, influencing coastlines and erosion.

Plate Movements The movement of tectonic plates causes mountain formation, earthquakes, and continental drift, constantly reshaping the Earth's surface.

Rotation of the Earth Earth's rotation creates day and night cycles, affecting weather patterns and influencing wind and ocean currents.

Revolution of the Earth Earth's revolution around the Sun causes seasons, impacting temperatures and weather patterns globally.

These forces act together in a complex interplay, constantly sculpting and reshaping the Earth's surface over vast timescales.


QUESTION 24

EasyEconomyPrelims 2013

In India, deficit financing is used for raising resources for

A. Economic development

B. Redemption of public debt

C. Adjusting the balance of payments

D. Reducing foreign debt

Answer: A

Explanation

In India, deficit financing is used to raise resources for meeting the government's expenditure requirements when its revenue or receipts fall short of its planned expenditures. In other words, deficit financing is a way for the government to finance its budget deficit to stimulate economic growth.


QUESTION 25

HardScience & TechnologyPrelims 2013

Mycorrhizal Biotechnology has been used in rehabilitating degraded sites because mycorrhiza enables the plants to -

  1. Resist drought and increase absorptive area
  2. Tolerate extremes of pH
  3. Resist disease infestation

Select the correct answer using the codes given below:

A. 1 only

B. 1 and 2 only

C. 1, 2 and 3 only

D. 2 and 3 only

Answer: C

Explanation

Mycorrhizal plants have tolerance to adverse soil, PH, high temp., drought, and toxic heavy metals.

The most important role of Mycorrhizal fungi is to absorb nutrients and water from the soil and transfer them to their hosts.

Mycorrhizae help plants withstand root diseases.

Oxalic acid production by mycorrhizal fungi contributes to disease suppression.

Hence, all three statements are correct. Answer (c).


QUESTION 26

MediumEnvironment & EcologyPrelims 2013

Due to improper/indiscriminate disposal of old and used computers or their parts, which of the following are released into the environment as e-waste?

  1. Beryllium
  2. Cadmium
  3. Chromium
  4. Heptachlor
  5. Mercury
  6. Lead
  7. Plutonium

Select the correct answer using the codes given below.

A. 1, 3, 4, 6 and 7 only

B. 1, 2, 3, 5 and 6 only

C. 2, 4, 5 and 7 only

D. 1, 2, 3, 4, 5, 6 and 7

Answer: B

Explanation

Out of the listed elements, the following are released into the environment due to improper e-waste disposal

  1. Beryllium
  2. Cadmium
  3. Chromium
  4. Mercury
  5. Lead Here's why these elements are found in e-waste and why the others are not

Beryllium, Cadmium, Chromium, Mercury, and Lead These are all heavy metals commonly used in various electronic components like circuit boards, batteries, and monitors. Improper disposal of e-waste can cause these toxic materials to leach into the soil and water, posing environmental and health risks.

Heptachlor This is an organic compound historically used as an insecticide. While it may have been present in some older electronic equipment, it's not a typical component of modern electronics and wouldn't be a major concern in e-waste disposal.

Plutonium This is a radioactive element primarily used in nuclear weapons and reactors. It's not a component of electronic devices and wouldn't be present in e-waste.

So, the answer should not contain 4 and 7.


QUESTION 27

EasyModern HistoryPrelims 2013

The Ilbert Bill controversy was related to the:

A. Imposition restrictions the Indians of certain to carry arms by Indians

B. Imposition of restrictions on newspapers and magazines published in Indian languages

C. Removal of disqualifications imposed on the Indian magistrates with regard to the trial of the Europeans

D. Removal of a duty on imported cotton cloth

Answer: C

Explanation

The Ilbert Bill (1883) of Lord Ripon sought to empower the Indian district Magistrates and sessions judges to try Europeans in criminal cases.

  • Under the existing laws, the Indian members of ICS were not authorized to try Europeans in their courts.

This move was aimed at eliminating the racial discrimination prevalent in the judiciary system, marking a significant step towards equality in colonial India.


QUESTION 28

MediumEnvironment & EcologyPrelims 2013

In which of the following States is lion-tailed macaque found in its natural habitat?

  1. Tamil Nadu
  2. Kerala
  3. Karnataka
  4. Andhra Pradesh

Select the correct answer using the codes given below.

A. 1, 2 and 3 only

B. 2 only

C. 1, 3 and 4 only

D. 1, 2, 3 and 4

Answer: A

Explanation

The lion-tailed macaque (Macaca silenus), or the wanderoo, is an Old World monkey endemic to the Western Ghats of South India.

A recent assessment for IUCN reports 3000-3500 of these animals live scattered over several areas in Tamil Nadu, Kerala, Karnataka.

The lion-tailed macaque ranks among the rarest and most threatened primates.

IUCN Status - Endangered.

Silent Valley has the largest number of lion-tailed macaques in South India.


QUESTION 29

MediumArt & CulturePrelims 2013

In the context of the cultural history of India, a pose in dance and dramatics called ‘Tribhanga’ has been a favourite of Indian artists from ancient times till today. Which one of the following statements best describes this pose?

A. One leg is bent and the body is slightly but oppositely curved at waist and neck

B. Facial expressions, hand gestures and make-up are combined to symbolize certain epic or historic characters

C. Movements of body, face and hands are used to express oneself or to tell a story

D. A little smile, slightly curved waist and certain hand gestures are emphasized to express the feelings of love or eroticism

Answer: A

Explanation

Tribhanga or Tribunga is a (tri-bent pose) standing body position or stance used in traditional Indian sculpture, art, and Indian classical dance forms like Odissi.

As compared with the contrapposto pose, Tribhanga, literally meaning three parts break, consists of three bends in the body; at the neck, waist, and knee, hence the body is oppositely curved at the waist and neck which gives it a gentle "S" shape and is considered the most graceful and sensual of the Odissi positions.

It has been closely associated with the Hindu deity Krishna who is often portrayed in this posture.


QUESTION 30

MediumScience & TechnologyPrelims 2013

With reference to the usefulness of the by-products of the sugar industry, which of the following statements is/are correct?

  1. Bagasse can be used as biomass fuel for the generation of energy.
  2. Molasses can be used as one of the feedstocks for the production of synthetic chemical fertilizers.
  3. Molasses can be used for the production of ethanol.

Select the correct answer using the codes given below.

A. 1 only

B. 2 and 3 only

C. 1 and 3 only

D. 1, 2 and 3

Answer: C

Explanation

Bagasse This fibrous residue left after sugarcane juice extraction is a valuable biomass fuel. It can be burned to generate electricity or heat, often powering the sugar mills themselves.

Molasses While molasses isn't directly used to produce synthetic fertilizers, it can be fermented to create ethanol, a biofuel. Ethanol can be used as a transportation fuel or blended with gasoline.

Synthetic Fertilizers Molasses don't directly contribute to the production of synthetic chemical fertilizers. These fertilizers are typically manufactured using chemical processes involving elements like nitrogen, phosphorus, and potassium.

Thus, statements 1&3 are correct while statement 2 is wrong.


QUESTION 31

MediumEnvironment & EcologyPrelims 2013

Consider the following fauna of India:

  1. Gharial
  2. Leatherback turtle
  3. Swamp deer

Which of the above is/are endangered?

A. 1 and 2 only

B. 3 only

C. 1, 2 and 3 only

D. None

Answer: C

Explanation

The gharial (Gavialis gangeticus), also known as the gavial or fish-eating crocodile, is a crocodilian in the family Gavialidae and is native to the northern part of the Indian subcontinent. As the population has declined drastically since the 1930s, the gharial is listed as Critically Endangered on the IUCN Red List. It once inhabited all the major river systems of the Indian subcontinent, from the Indus River in the west to the Irrawaddy River in the east.

The leatherback sea turtle (Dermochelys coriacea), sometimes called the lute turtle, leathery turtle or simply the luth, is the largest of all living turtles and is the fourth-heaviest modern reptile behind three crocodilians. It is listed as Critically Endangered on the IUCN red list.

The barasingha, also called swamp deer, is a deer species distributed in the Indian subcontinent. Populations in northern and central India are fragmented, and two isolated populations occur in southwestern Nepal. It is listed as Vulnerable on the IUCN red list. It used to be endangered, but conservation efforts have helped improve its status


QUESTION 32

EasyEnvironment & EcologyPrelims 2013

In the grasslands, trees do not replace the grasses as a part of an ecological succession because of

A. Insects and fungi

B. Limited sunlight and the paucity of nutrients

C. Water limits and fire

D. None of the above

Answer: C

Explanation

The precipitation is so erratic that drought and fire prevent large forests from growing.

  • Grasses can survive fires because they grow from the bottom instead of the top.

  • Their stems can grow again after being burned off.

  • The soil of most grasslands is also too thin and dry for trees to survive.


QUESTION 33

HardArt & CulturePrelims 2013

Consider the following pairs :

  1. Limboo (Limbu): Sikkim
  2. Karbi: Himachal Pradesh
  3. Dongaria: Odisha
  4. Bonda: Tamil Nadu

Which of the above pairs are correctly matched?

A. 1 and 3 only

B. 1 and 2 only

C. 2 and 3 only

D. 1, 2, 3 and 4

Answer: A

Explanation

  1. Limboo (Limbu) Limbu, the second most numerous tribe of the indigenous people called Kiranti, live in Nepal, on the easternmost section of the Himalayas east of the Arun River, and in northern India, mostly in the states of Sikkim, West Bengal, and Assam.

  2. Karbi Karbi people live in Assam and Meghalaya, not Himachal Pradesh.

  3. Dongaria This one is correct. The Dongaria Kondh tribe is indigenous to Odisha.

  4. Bonda The Bonda tribe resides in the Malkangiri district of Odisha, not Tamil Nadu.


QUESTION 34

EasyIndian PolityPrelims 2013

Which one of the following statements is correct?

A. In India, the same person cannot be appointed as Governor for two or more States at the same time

B. The Judges of the High Court of the States in India are appointed by the Governor of the State just as the Judges of the Supreme Court are appointed by the President

C. No procedure has been laid down in the Constitution of India for the removal of a Governor from his/her post

D. In the case of a Union Territory having a legislative setup, the Chief Minister is appointed by the Lt. Governor on the basis of majority support.

Answer: C

Explanation

The 7th Amendment permitted the appointment of the same person as Governor for two or more states. This was implemented to streamline administration, particularly during the period of state reorganisation. Hence, option 'A' is incorrect.

The judges of the High Court is also appointed by the President like the Judges of the Supreme Court. Hence, option 'B' is incorrect.

Option 'C' is correct as no procedure for the removal of the Governor is mentioned in the Constitution as the Governor works under the pleasure of the President.

The Chief Minister of a Union Territory is appointed by the President and not by the Lt. Governor. Hence Option 'D' is incorrect.


QUESTION 35

EasyEnvironment & EcologyPrelims 2013

Which one of the following terms describes not only the physical space occupied by an organism but also its functional role in the community of organisms?

A. Ecotone

B. Ecological niche

C. Habitat

D. Home range

Answer: B

Explanation

In ecology, a niche is a term describing the relational position of a species or population in an ecosystem.

More formally, the niche includes how a population responds to the abundance of its resources and enemies (e.g., by growing when resources are abundant, and predators, parasites, and pathogens are scarce) and how it affects those same factors (e.g., by reducing the abundance of resources through consumption and contributing to the population growth of enemies by falling prey to them).

Gause's competitive exclusion principle says that those species having identical requirements cannot occupy the same niche indefinitely.


QUESTION 36

HardIndian GeographyPrelims 2013

Which of the following is/are the characteristic/ characteristics of Indian coal?

  1. High ash content
  2. Low sulphur content
  3. The low ash fusion temperature

Select the correct answer using the codes given below.

A. 1 only

B. 1 and 2 only

C. 2 and 3 only

D. 1, 2 and 3

Answer: B

Explanation

The most significant characteristic of Indian coal is its high ash content, which varies from 35 to 45 per cent, compared with that of coal in other parts of the world, which is around 15 per cent.

Besides high ash content, another reason for entrained gasifiers (that operate at higher temperatures than fluidised bed gasifiers), commonly used in IGCC plants abroad, being not suitable for Indian coal has a high ash fusion temperature of about 1,500

However, Indian coal's sulphur content is low, about 0.5 per cent.


QUESTION 37

MediumSocial Issues & SchemesPrelims 2013

Priority Sector Lending by banks in India constitutes the lending to:

A. Agriculture

B. Micro and small enterprises

C. Weaker Sections

D. All of the above

Answer: D

Explanation

Banks have to lend minimum of 40% to priority sector which includes all of the given sectors

Priority Sector Lending is an important role given by the Reserve Bank of India (RBI) to the banks for providing a specified portion of the bank lending to a few specific sectors like

  • Agriculture and allied activities,
  • Micro and small enterprises ,
  • Poor people for housing ,
  • Students for education , and
  • Other low income groups and weaker sections .

This is essentially meant for all-round development of the economy as opposed to focusing only on the financial sector.


QUESTION 38

MediumEconomyPrelims 2013

The Reserve Bank of India regulates the commercial banks in matters of -

  1. Liquidity of assets
  2. Branch expansion
  3. Merger of banks
  4. Winding-up of banks

Select the correct answer using the codes given below.

A. 1 and 4 only

B. 1 and 2 only

C. 2, 3 and 4 only

D. 1, 2, 3 and 4

Answer: D

Explanation

The Reserve Bank of India (RBI) regulates commercial banks in all of the following matters

Liquidity of assets The RBI uses various tools like Cash Reserve Ratio (CRR) and Statutory Liquidity Ratio (SLR) to ensure banks maintain a certain level of liquid assets to meet withdrawal demands and facilitate smooth functioning of the financial system.

Branch expansion The RBI grants licenses to banks for opening new branches to ensure wider access to banking services across the country, particularly in underserved areas.

Merger of banks Mergers can be a way to strengthen the banking sector. The RBI carefully evaluates proposed mergers to ensure financial stability and protect depositors' interests.

Winding-up of banks In case a bank experiences severe financial difficulties and poses a risk to the system, the RBI, in consultation with the government, can initiate the process of winding up the bank to protect depositors and maintain financial stability.


QUESTION 39

MediumEconomyPrelims 2013

Which of the following constitute Capital Account?

  1. Foreign Loans
  2. Foreign Direct Investment
  3. Private Remittances
  4. Portfolio Investment

Select the correct answer using the codes given below.

A. 1, 2 and 3 only

B. 1, 2 and 4 only

C. 3 and 4 only

D. 1, 2 and 3

Answer: B

Explanation

The capital account and the current account are the two main components of a nation's balance of payment.

Whereas the current account reflects a nation's net income, the capital account reflects the net change in ownership of assets.

  • Thus, it is clear that private remittances are part of the current account .

  • On the other hand, foreign Loans, FII (Foreign Institutional Investor) and FDI (Foreign Direct Investment) are part of the capital account .

  • Remittances fall under Current Account .


QUESTION 40

HardIndian GeographyPrelims 2013

Consider the following statements:

  1. Natural gas occurs in the Gondwana beds.
  2. Mica occurs in abundance in Kodarma.
  3. Dharwars are famous for petroleum.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

A. 1 only

B. 2 only

C. 2 and 3 only

D. None

Answer: B

Explanation

KG basin, Assam, Gulf of Khambhat, Cuddalore district of Tamil Nadu, Barmer in Rajasthan etc. are the areas where natural gas can be found.

Kodarma mines in Jharkhand are one of the important mica producing areas.

The Dharwar rocks are rich in iron ore, manganese, lead, zinc, gold, silver etc. Gondwana is famous for coal fields, not natural gas.


QUESTION 41

HardIndian GeographyPrelims 2013

The Narmada river flows to the west, while most other large peninsular rivers flow to the east. Why?

  1. It occupies a linear rift valley.
  2. It flows between the Vindhyas and the Satpuras.
  3. The land slopes to the west from Central India.

Select the correct answer using the codes given below.

A. 1 only

B. 1 and 3 only

C. 2 and 3 only

D. None

Answer: A

Explanation

The Narmada and the Tapi flow through the rift valley.

Statement 3 is wrong as land slopes to the east in the region.

Statement 2 is factually correct however, is not the reason for the rivers to flow to the west.


QUESTION 42

MediumScience & TechnologyPrelims 2013

Which of the following diseases can be transmitted from one person to another through tattooing?

  1. Chikungunya
  2. Hepatitis B
  3. HIV-AIDS

Select the correct answer using the codes given below.

A. 1 only

B. 1 and 2 only

C. 2 and 3 only

D. 1, 2 and 3

Answer: C

Explanation

Hepatitis B is a liver infection that can lead to liver failure and cancer. It's spread through contact with the blood, open sores, or body fluids of an infected person.

HIV is a virus that destroys the white blood cells responsible for fighting infections. It can result in AIDS, the final stage of infection. It spreads mainly through unprotected sex, sharing drug needles, or contact with infected blood.

Chikungunya is a mosquito-borne viral disease that cannot be spread through tattooing.


QUESTION 43

EasyEconomyPrelims 2013

Disguised unemployment generally means

A. A Large number of people remain unemployed

B. Alternative employment is not available

C. Marginal productivity of labour is zero

D. Productivity of workers is low

Answer: C

Explanation

Disguised unemployment, means that more people are engaged in a job that can be done with fewer people, normally seen in agriculture where the whole family is involved. It means extra people can be removed without affecting the productivity, i.e. their marginal productivity is zero.


QUESTION 44

MediumScience & TechnologyPrelims 2013

Which of the following statements is/are correct?

  1. Viruses lack enzymes necessary for the generation of energy.
  2. Viruses can be cultured in any synthetic medium.
  3. Viruses are transmitted from one organism to another by biological vectors only.

Select the correct answer using the codes given below.

A. 1 only

B. 1 and 2 only

C. 1 and 3 only

D. 1, 2 and 3

Answer: A

Explanation

Since Viruses lack organelles and are totally dependent on the host cell's metabolic machinery for replication, they cannot be grown in synthetic media.

In the laboratory, animal viruses are grown in animals or animal cell culture, and plant viruses are grown in plants or plant plant cell culture.

There are two categories of Vectors biological and mechanical.

  • If the virus increases its number while in association with a vector, then that vector is termed as being biological.
  • Conversely, the vector is termed to be mechanical, if the virus doesnt increase its number while in association with that vector.

Arthropods such as wasps, which repeatedly can sting multiple animals, could serve as mechanical vectors by transporting viruses on the surface of their stingers.


QUESTION 45

EasyPhysical GeographyPrelims 2013

The most important fishing grounds of the world are found in the regions where:

A. Warm and cold atmospheric currents meet

B. Rivers drain out large amounts of fresh water into the sea

C. Warm and cold oceanic currents meet

D. Continental shelf is undulating

Answer: C

Explanation

The most important fishing grounds of the world are found in the regions where warm and cold oceanic currents meet.

Here's why

Nutrient-rich waters When warm and cold currents converge, a process known as upwelling occurs. This upwelling brings nutrient-rich deep ocean water to the surface. These nutrients act like fertilizer for plankton, which forms the base of the marine food chain.

Abundant Marine Life The abundance of plankton attracts a vast array of fish species, making these areas highly productive fishing grounds. Examples include The Grand Banks (Newfoundland) - Labrador Current (cold) meets the Gulf Stream (warm) The Humboldt Current (South America) - cold, nutrient-rich current flowing up the western coast The Canary Current (West Africa) - cold, nutrient-rich current flowing up the western coast


QUESTION 46

HardArt & CulturePrelims 2013

With reference to the history of philosophical thought in India, consider the following statements regarding Sankhya school:

  1. Sankhya does not accept the theory of rebirth or transmigration of the soul.
  2. Sankhya holds that it is the self-knowledge that leads to liberation and not any exterior influence or agent.

Which of the statements given above is /are correct?

A. 1 only

B. 2 only

C. 1 and 2

D. Neither 1 nor 2

Answer: B

Explanation

The founder of the Sankya School of Philosophy was Maharishi Kapil.

There are some distinct features of this philosophy There are only two realities viz. Purusha and Prakriti. The above three points lead to the conclusion that this school does not believe in the existence of God.

Sankhya School of Philosophy, dualism consists of the fundamental differences between consciousness and matter. It is different from dualism in the West because that dualism differentiates between mind and body. According to this philosophy, the knowledge that leads to Liberation i.e Viveka Jnana (knowledge through discrimination). Hence statement 2 is correct.

Sankhya accepts the theory of rebirth or transmigration of the soul. Hence statement 1 is not correct.


QUESTION 47

EasyEconomyPrelims 2013

In the context of Indian economy, Open Market Operations’ refers to:

A. Borrowing by scheduled banks from the RBI

B. Lending by commercial banks to industry and trade

C. Purchase and sale of government securities by the RBI

D. None of the above

Answer: C

Explanation

In India, Open Market Operations involve the Reserve Bank of India buying or selling government securities to regulate liquidity and interest rates.

When the RBI buys securities, it injects money into the market, lowering interest rates and stimulating the economy.

Conversely, selling securities absorbs money from the market, raising interest rates, and managing inflation. OMOs are a vital tool for the RBI to achieve monetary policy goals and foster economic growth.


QUESTION 48

HardArt & CulturePrelims 2013

Consider the following historical places:

  1. Ajanta Caves
  2. Lepakshi Temple
  3. Sanchi Stupa

Which of the above places is/are also known for mural paintings?

A. 1 only

B. 1 and 2 only

C. 3 only

D. 1, 2 and 3

Answer: B

Explanation

Mural, is a painting applied to and made integral with the surface of a wall or ceiling.

The term may properly include painting on fired tiles but ordinarily does not refer to mosaic decoration unless the mosaic forms part of the overall scheme of the painting.

It is well known that the Ajanta caves have mural paintings. These paintings have Buddhist religious themes and depict the Jatakales.

The Lepakshi temple also has mural paintings of Vijayanagara kings.

The Sanchi stupa, on the other hand, does not have mural paintings.


QUESTION 49

EasyEconomyPrelims 2013

Supply of money remaining the same when there is an increase in demand for money, there will be:

A. a fall in the level of prices

B. an increase in the rate of interest

C. a decrease in the rate of interest

D. an increase in the level of income and employment

Answer: B

Explanation

With an increase in demand for money, people will deposit less money in banks. Hence, banks will increase the rate of interest to attract people to deposit money in the bank. Or,

Supply remains the same, increase in demand for money will lead to more options to lend money for the banks. Thus, banks will lend money at greater rate of interest to earn more money as there are more customers for the same amount of money.


QUESTION 50

MediumModern HistoryPrelims 2013

Annie Besant was:

  1. Responsible for starting the Home Rule Movement
  2. The founder of the Theosophical Society
  3. Once the President of the Indian National Congress

Select the correct statement/statements using the codes given below.

A. 1 only

B. 1 and 2 only

C. 1 and 3 only

D. 1, 2 and 3

Answer: C

Explanation

Annie Besant, (1 October 1847 - 20 September 1933), was a former British socialist, theosophist, women's rights activist, writer, orator, and supporter of both Irish and Indian self-rule .

She became a member of the Theosophical Society and a prominent lecturer on the subject, though Theosophical Society was founded by Blavatsky and Colonel Olcott in Adyar in 1875. As part of her Theosophy-related work, she travelled to India .

She also became involved in politics in India, joining the Indian National Congress. When World War I broke out in 1914, she helped launch the Home Rule League to campaign for democracy in India, and dominion status within the British Empire. This led to her election as president of the India National Congress, in late 1917.


QUESTION 51

MediumEconomyPrelims 2013

The National income of a country for a given period is equal to the:

A. The total value of goods and services produced by the nationals

B. Sum of total consumption and investment expenditure

C. Sum of personal income of all individuals

D. Money value of final goods and services produced

Answer: D

Explanation

The National income of a country for a given period is defined as the total monetary value of all final goods and services produced within the geographical boundaries of the country during that period. Here are the key points to remember

It does not include the total value of goods and services produced by the nationals (option A) as it may include the production outside the country.

It is not the sum of total consumption and investment expenditure (option B) as it excludes the value of intermediate goods and services.

It is also not the sum of personal income of all individuals (option C) as it includes the income from production and not just personal income.

Therefore, the correct answer is the money value of final goods and services produced (option D).


QUESTION 52

EasyPhysical GeographyPrelims 2013

Variations in the length of daytime and nighttime from season to season are due to -

A. The earth’s rotation on its axis

B. Revolution of the earth on a tilted axis

C. Latitudinal position of the place

D. The earth’s revolution around the sun in an elliptical manner

Answer: B

Explanation

The Earth's axis is tilted at an angle of 23.5 degrees relative to its path around the Sun. This tilt means that different parts of the Earth receive direct sunlight for varying lengths of time throughout the year, leading to seasonal changes in day and night length.

Hence the correct answer is (b)


QUESTION 53

MediumEconomyPrelims 2013

Economic growth in country X will necessarily have to occur if

A. there is technical progress in the world economy

B. there is population growth in X

C. there is a capital formation in X

D. the volume of trade grows in the world economy

Answer: C

Explanation

Internally capital formation takes place when a country does not spend all its current income on consumption, but saves a part of it and uses it for investment to increase further production. This act of saving and investment is described as capital accumulation or capital formation .

Capital formation This refers to investments in physical and human capital, such as building new factories, improving infrastructure, and educating the workforce. Increased capital allows for greater production and innovation.


QUESTION 54

EasyEnvironment & EcologyPrelims 2013

With reference to food chains in ecosystems, consider the following statements :

  1. A food chain illustrates the order in which a chain of organisms feeds upon each other.
  2. Food chains are found within the populations of a species.
  3. A food chain illustrates the numbers of each organism which are eaten by others.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

A. 1 only

B. 1 and 2 only

C. 1, 2 and 3

D. None

Answer: A

Explanation

Food chain, in ecology, is the sequence of transfers of matter and energy in the form of food from organism to organism.

  • Food chains are not found within the populations of a species, because technically, the food chain is the sequence of organisms through which the energy flows.

  • Food chains intertwine locally into a food web because most organisms consume more than one type of animal or plant.


QUESTION 55

EasySocial Issues & SchemesPrelims 2013

To obtain full benefits of demographic dividend, what should India do?

A. Promoting skill development

B. Introducing more social security schemes

C. Reducing infant mortality rate

D. Privatization of higher education

Answer: A

Explanation

To rip the maximum demographic dividend, India has to promote skill development. This is what the Economic Survey and 12th FYP have been advocating.


QUESTION 56

EasyIndian PolityPrelims 2013

‘Economic Justice’ the objectives of Constitution has been as one of the Indian provided in:

A. the Preamble and Fundamental Rights

B. the Preamble and the Directive Principles of State Policy

C. the Fundamental Rights and the Directive Principles of State Policy

D. None of the above

Answer: B

Explanation

The Preamble secures to all citizens of India equality of status and opportunities for all individuals without any discrimination.

Preamble embraces three dimensions of justice -

  • social
  • political
  • economic

DPSP Art. 38 To promote the welfare of people by securing a social order permeated by justice-Social, economic and political- and to minimize the inequalities of income, status, facilities and opportunities.


QUESTION 57

EasyEconomyPrelims 2013

Which one of the following is likely to be the most inflationary in its effect?

A. Repayment of public debt

B. Borrowing from the public to finance a budget deficit

C. Borrowing from banks to finance a budget deficit

D. Creating new money to finance a budget deficit

Answer: D

Explanation

Creating new money to finance a budget deficit will be the most inflationary effect. Because it increases the money supply without any increase in the production of goods and services.


QUESTION 58

MediumAncient HistoryPrelims 2013

The Chinese traveller Yuan Chwang (Hiuen Tsang) who visited India recorded the general conditions and culture of India at that time. In this context, which of the following statements is/are correct?

  1. The roads and river-routes were completely immune from the robbery.
  2. As regards punishment for offences, ordeals by fire, water and poison were the instruments for determining the innocence or guilt of a person.
  3. The tradesmen had to pay duties at ferries and barrier stations.

Select the correct answer using the codes given below.

A. 1 only

B. 1 and 2 only

C. 2 and 3 only

D. 1, 2 and 3

Answer: C

Explanation

Statement 1 is wrong because Yuan Chwang himself was robbed and the thugs had decided to sacrifice him, but he was saved by a hurricane.

Statement 2 and 3 are correct. The narrative proceeds to describe the four ordeals by which the innocence or guilt of an accused person is determined. These are by water, by fire, by weighing, and by poison.

Under the Revenue and taxation system, Yuan Chwang notes that Tradesmen go to and fro bartering their merchandise after paying light duties at ferries and barrier stations.


QUESTION 59

MediumEnvironment & EcologyPrelims 2013

Consider the following pairs about parks and rivers passing through them:

  1. Corbett National Park: Ganga
  2. Kaziranga National Park: Manas
  3. Silent Valley National Park: Kaveri

Which of the above pairs is/are correctly matched?

A. 1 and 2 only

B. 3 only

C. 1 and 3 only

D. None

Answer: D

Explanation

Ramganga River (not the Ganga River) passes through Jim Corbett National Park, located in Uttarakhand state, which is the oldest national park of India.

Kaziranga in Aasam is a vast stretch of tall elephant grass, marshland and dense tropical moist broadleaf forests crisscrossed by four main rivers Brahmaputra, Diphlu, Mora Diphlu and Mora Dhansiri and has numerous small water bodies.

The Kunthipuzha River passes through the Silent Valley National Park, located in the Kerala state.

Thus, no pair is correctly matched.


QUESTION 60

EasyIndian PolityPrelims 2013

The Parliament can make any law for whole or any part of India for implementing international treaties

A. with the consent of all the States

B. with the consent of the majority of States

C. with the consent of the States concerned

D. without the consent of any State

Answer: D

Explanation

The Indian Parliament has the authority to enact laws applicable throughout the country (or any specific region) to fulfil its obligations under international treaties. This power is enshrined in Article 253 of the Indian Constitution.

Unlike some situations where the Parliament might require state consent for legislative actions, Article 253 grants the authority to enact these laws without needing approval from individual states.

Also, the Constitution empowers Parliament to make laws on any matter in the state list under five extraordinary circumstances

  • Rajya Sabha passes the resolution(Article 249)
  • National emergency(Article 250)
  • States make a request(Article 252)
  • To implement international agreements(Article 253)
  • During the President's rule (Article 356).

QUESTION 61

EasyEconomyPrelims 2013

Which one of the following groups of items are included in India’s foreign-exchange reserves?

A. Foreign-currency assets, Special Drawing Rights SDRs and loans from foreign countries

B. Foreign-currency assets, gold holdings of the RBI and SDRs

C. Foreign-currency assets, loans from the World Bank and SDRs

D. Foreign-currency assets, gold holdings of the RBI and loans from the World Bank

Answer: B

Explanation

India's foreign-exchange reserves include

Foreign currency assets (FCAs) This is the largest component, consisting of deposits and holdings in major currencies like US Dollars, Euros, and Yen.

Gold reserves India holds a significant amount of gold bullion as part of its foreign exchange reserves.

Special drawing rights (SDRs) These are international reserve assets created by the International Monetary Fund (IMF) that supplement official foreign reserves.

Reserve position in the IMF This refers to India's quota or shareholding position in the IMF, which can be a source of additional foreign currency if needed.


QUESTION 62

HardScience & TechnologyPrelims 2013

Improper handling and storage of cereal grains and oilseeds result in the production of toxins known as aflatoxins which are not generally destroyed by normal cooking process. Aflatoxins are produced by

A. bacteria

B. protozoa

C. moulds

D. viruses

Answer: C

Explanation

Aflatoxins are poisonous carcinogens that are produced by certain moulds (Aspergillus flavus and Aspergillus parasiticus) which grow in soil , decaying vegetation , hay, and grain .


QUESTION 63

MediumIndian PolityPrelims 2013

Consider the following statements:

  1. The Chairman and the Deputy Chairman of the Rajya Sabha are not the members of that House.
  2. While the nominated members of the two Houses of the Parliament have no voting right in the presidential election, they have the right to vote in the election of the Vice President.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

A. 1 only

B. 2 only

C. Both 1 and 2

D. Neither 1 nor 2

Answer: B

Explanation

Deputy chairman is elected by the Rajya Sabha itself, among its members.

The electoral college for VP consists of both elected and nominated members of parliament (in case of the president only elected members).


QUESTION 64

MediumAncient HistoryPrelims 2013

Which of the following characterizes/ characterize the people of Indus Civilization?

  1. They possessed great palaces and temples.
  2. They worshipped both male and female deities.
  3. They employed horse-drawn chariots in warfare.

Select the correct statement/ statements using the codes given below.

A. 1 and 2 only

B. 2 only

C. 2 and 3 only

D. None of the statements given above is correct

Answer: B

Explanation

No temples or religious places have been discovered in Harappan cities.

Figurines resembling a female deity have been found. They suggest the worship of Mother Goddess.

A seal with a male figure sitting in a yogic posture with a trident-like headgear, surrounded by animals, has been found. This has a lot of similarities with Shiva. From this, it is figured that the Harappans might be worshipping Shiva.

based on the Indus seals, it can be said that a large number of animals, including goats, buffaloes, oxen, elephants, dogs, and camels were domesticated.

But the Harappans seem not to have been familiar with the horse.


QUESTION 65

MediumScience & TechnologyPrelims 2013

Ball bearings are used in bicycles, cars, etc., because

A. the actual area of contact between the wheel and axle is increased

B. the effective area of contact between the wheel and axle is increased

C. the effective area of contact between the wheel and axle is reduced

D. None of the above statements is correct

Answer: C

Explanation

A ball bearing is a type of Rolling element bearing that uses the ball to maintain the separation between the bearing races. The purpose of round ball bearings is to reduce the surface area of contact between the object being moved and the one which is providing the power.

Thus, reduced area means less friction and more efficiency. The balls have a much lower coefficient of friction than the two flat surfaces sliding against each other.


QUESTION 66

MediumIndian PolityPrelims 2013

In the context of India, which of the following principles is/are implied institutionally in the parliamentary government?

  1. Members of the Cabinet are Members of Parliament.
  2. Ministers hold the office till they enjoy confidence in the Parliament.
  3. Cabinet is headed by the Head of the State.

Select the correct answer using the codes given below.

A. 1 and 2 only

B. 3 only

C. 2 and 3 only

D. 1, 2 and 3

Answer: A

Explanation

In the context of India's parliamentary government, the following principles are implied institutionally

Members of the Cabinet are Members of Parliament Ministers hold the office till they enjoy confidence in the Parliament. Correct Here's why these principles are essential

Close Link Between Legislature and Executive By requiring Cabinet members to be MPs, a close connection is established between the legislative and executive branches. This ensures the government is accountable to the legislature, which represents the people.

Collective Responsibility The principle of collective responsibility implies that the Cabinet functions as a unified body. If the Parliament loses faith in the government through a no-confidence motion, the entire Cabinet, including the Prime Minister, is expected to resign. Incorrect Principle

Cabinet is not headed by the Head of State. In India, the President is the Head of State, but the Prime Minister leads the Cabinet. The Prime Minister is the head of government and wields significant executive power.


QUESTION 67

EasyPhysical GeographyPrelims 2013

On the planet earth, most of the freshwater exists as ice caps and glaciers. Out of the remaining freshwater, the largest proportion

A. is found in the atmosphere as moisture and clouds

B. is found in freshwater lakes and rivers

C. exists as groundwater

D. exists as soil moisture

Answer: C

Explanation

According to the U.S. Geological Survey, over 68 percent of the freshwater on Earth is found in ice caps and glaciers, and just over 30 percent is found in groundwater.

Only about 0.3 percent of our freshwater is found in the surface water of lakes, rivers, and swamps.


QUESTION 68

EasyIndian PolityPrelims 2013

Consider the following statements:

  1. The Council of Ministers at the Centre shall be collectively responsible to the Parliament.
  2. The Union Ministers shall hold the office during the pleasure of the President of India.
  3. The Prime Minister shall communicate to the President about the proposals for Legislation.

Which of the Statements given above is/are correct?

A. 1 only

B. 1 and 2 only

C. 2 and 3 only

D. 1, 2 and 3

Answer: C

Explanation

The Council of Ministers in the Centre shall be collectively responsible to Lok Sabha, not parliament. Hence statement 1 is not correct. The Union Ministers shall hold the office during the pleasure of the President of India. Hence statement 2 is correct. The Prime Minister shall communicate to the President about the proposals for legislation. Hence statement 3 is correct.


QUESTION 69

MediumScience & TechnologyPrelims 2013

The known forces of nature can be divided into four classes, viz, gravity, electromagnetism, weak nuclear force and strong nuclear force. With reference to them, which one of the following statements is not correct?

A. Gravity is the strongest of the four

B. Electromagnetism act only on particles with an electric charge

C. Weak nuclear force causes radioactivity

D. Strong nuclear force holds protons and neutrons inside the nuclear of an atom.

Answer: A

Explanation

Statement 1 is incorrect since gravity is actually the weakest of the four fundamental forces for a given distance.

Electromagnetism acts only on charged particles, where the charge can be negative or positive.

The weak force is responsible for the existence and structure of atomic nuclei including radioactivity and nuclear fusion .

Strong nuclear force is responsible for holding protons and neutrons together inside the atomic nucleus and is 100 times stronger than electromagnetism .


QUESTION 70

MediumEnvironment & EcologyPrelims 2013

Consider the following pairs:

Protected areasRegion
1. Nokrek Biosphere ReserveGaro Hills
2. Logtak (Loktak) LakeBarail Range
3. Namdapha National ParkDafla Hills

Which of the above pairs is/are correctly matched?

A. None

B. 2 and 3 only

C. 1,2 and 3 only

D. 1 only

Answer: D

Explanation

Out of the listed pairs, only Nokrek Biosphere Reserve is correctly matched to Garo Hills.

Nokrek Biosphere Reserve This is situated in the Garo Hills of Meghalaya.

Logtak (Loktak) Lake This freshwater lake(famous for Phumdis) is located in Manipur, not the Barail Range (which is a mountain range in Assam).

Namdapha National Park This national park is indeed found in Arunachal Pradesh, but not specifically in the Dafla Hills region. It's on the eastern border with Myanmar.


QUESTION 71

HardArt & CulturePrelims 2013

With reference to the history of Indian rock-cut architecture, consider the following statements:

  1. The caves at Badami are the oldest surviving rock-cut caves in India.
  2. The Barabar rock-cut caves were originally made for Ajivikas by Emperor Chandragupta Maurya.
  3. At Ellora, caves were made for different faiths.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

A. 1 only

B. 1 and 2 only

C. 3 only

D. 1, 2 and 3

Answer: C

Explanation

The oldest caves in India are the Barabar rock-cut caves and not the Badami, so statement one is incorrect. The Barabar caves were built during the 3rd Century BC and belong to the period of Ashoka and his son Dasaratha. Those caves were used by the ascetics of the Ajivika sect. Thus, statement 2 is also incorrect.

Statement 3 is correct. The caves at Ellora depict Hinduism, Jainism and Buddhism.

On the other hand, the caves at Ajanta are mostly Buddhist.


QUESTION 72

MediumEnvironment & EcologyPrelims 2013

Which one of the following is the correct sequence of ecosystems in the order of decreasing productivity?

A. Oceans, lakes, grasslands, mangroves

B. Mangroves, oceans, grasslands, lakes

C. Mangroves, grasslands, lakes, oceans

D. Oceans, mangroves, lakes, grasslands

Answer: C

Explanation

The correct sequence of ecosystems in order of decreasing productivity is

  1. Mangroves > 2. Grasslands > 3. Lakes > 4. Oceans

Mangroves These coastal ecosystems boast exceptionally high productivity due to several factors. They receive rich nutrients from both land and sea, have a warm climate, and benefit from tidal flushing that brings in fresh nutrients and removes waste products.

Grasslands These moderate-productivity ecosystems are characterized by abundant grasses and herbaceous plants. Their productivity depends on factors like rainfall, soil quality, and grazing pressure.

Lakes Freshwater lakes exhibit varying levels of productivity depending on the nutrient availability (oligotrophic - nutrient-poor, eutrophic - nutrient-rich). Generally, they are less productive than mangroves and grasslands.

Oceans Marine ecosystems, particularly open oceans, have the lowest overall productivity. Nutrient availability is limited in vast stretches of the ocean, leading to a slower rate of organic matter production compared to the other ecosystems listed.


QUESTION 73

EasyScience & TechnologyPrelims 2013

Recombinant DNA technology (Genetic Engineering) allows genes to be transferred

  1. Across different species of plants.
  2. From animals to plants.
  3. From microorganisms to higher organisms.

Select the correct Solution using the codes given below.

A. 1 only

B. 1 and 2 only

C. 2 and 3 only

D. 1, 2 and 3

Answer: D

Explanation

Recombinant DNA technology is a major DNA-based tool that opens a new age for modern biotechnology. With this technology, a gene or multiple genes can be identified, cut, and inserted into the genome of another organism.

Golden rice is developed by transferring carrot genes to rice. The new variety of rice contains Vitamin A. Hence, Statement 1 is correct (across different species of plants).

In 1953, scientists discovered the structure of DNA, and in 1972, researchers developed a method for cutting and splicing DNA. That method became known as recombinant DNA, or rDNA. Since then, researchers have learned how to move genetic material in the form of DNA from one plant or animal to another. They can also take DNA from an animal and place it in a plant, and vice versa.


QUESTION 74

HardScience & TechnologyPrelims 2013

Consider the following minerals -

  1. Calcium
  2. Iron
  3. Sodium

Which of the minerals given above is/are required by the human body for the contraction of muscles?

A. 1 only

B. 1 and 2 only

C. 1 and 3 only

D. 1, 2 and 3

Answer: D

Explanation

All the given minerals have a role in contraction of muscles in the human body.

Calcium Calcium is essential for activating enzymes which cause muscle contraction.

Iron Iron helps support continued muscle function by supporting energy production in your muscle cells so that muscle fibers always have the energy they need to contract properly. Iron also helps muscles store oxygen to fuel muscle contractions and promotes healthy circulation so that muscles can get additional oxygen from the bloodstream.

Sodium One needs sodium for muscle contraction because it balances potassium to maintain membrane potential.


QUESTION 75

EasyModern HistoryPrelims 2013

Quit India Movement was launched in response to:

A. Cabinet Mission Plan

B. Cripps Proposals

C. Simon Commission Report

D. Wavell Plan

Answer: B

Explanation

The Quit India Movement was launched in 1942 in response to the failure of the Cripps Proposals.

The Cripps Mission, led by Sir Stafford Cripps, aimed to secure Indian cooperation in World War II by offering limited self-government after the war. However, the proposals were rejected by both the Indian National Congress and the Muslim League as they were deemed inadequate.

The Wavell Plan was an event of 1945 and the Cabinet Mission Plan was announced in 1946, much later than the Quit India movement while the Simon Commission arrived in India in 1928.


QUESTION 76

EasyEconomyPrelims 2013

The balance of payments of a country is a systematic record of

A. all import and export transactions of a country during a given period of time, normally a year

B. goods exported from a country during a year

C. the economic transaction between the government of one country to another

D. capital movements from one country to another

Answer: A

Explanation

The balance of payment records the transaction in goods, services, and assets between residents (and not governments) of one country with the rest of the world.


QUESTION 77

MediumIndian PolityPrelims 2013

Consider the following statements:

  1. National Development Council is an organ of the Planning Commission.
  2. The Economic and Social Planning is kept in the Concurrent List in the Constitution of India.
  3. The Constitution of India prescribes that Panchayats should be assigned the task of preparation of plans for economic development and social justice.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

A. 1 only

B. 1 and 2 only

C. 2 and 3 only

D. 1, 2 and 3

Answer: C

Explanation

The National Development Council (NDC) is not an organ of the Planning Commission. It's an independent advisory body headed by the Prime Minister and includes Chief Ministers of all states, Union Cabinet Ministers, and members of the NITI Aayog (successor to the Planning Commission).

  • It was set up on 6 August 1952.

Economic and Social Planning is listed in the Concurrent List (List III) of the Seventh Schedule of the Indian Constitution.

The Constitution (Article 243G) empowers Panchayats (local village governments) to prepare plans for economic development and social justice at the village level. This promotes decentralized planning and community participation.

Hence statement one is incorrect and statements two and three are correct.


QUESTION 78

MediumArt & CulturePrelims 2013

Which one of the following describes best the concept of Nirvana in Buddhism?

A. A state of bliss and rest

B. The complete annihilation of self

C. The extinction of the flame of desire

D. A mental stage beyond all comprehension

Answer: C

Explanation

Nirvana (Sanskrit for "becoming extinguished" or "blowing out") is a central concept in Indian religious thought, particularly within Buddhism.

It represents the ultimate goal sought by practitioners of certain meditation disciplines, signifying the extinction of desire, hatred, and ignorance.

In Buddhism, Nirvana holds the distinction of being the oldest and most prevalent designation for the ultimate objective on the Buddhist path. This state of liberation is believed to lead to the cessation of suffering and rebirth.


QUESTION 79

EasyArt & CulturePrelims 2013

Which of the following statements is/are applicable to Jain doctrine?

  1. The surest way of annihilating Karma is to practice penance.
  2. Every object, even the smallest particle has a soul.
  3. Karma is the bane of the soul and must be ended.

Select the correct answer using the codes given below

A. 1 only

B. 1 and 2 only

C. 2 and 3 only

D. 1, 2 and 3

Answer: D

Explanation

Jainismis, Indian religion teaching a path to spiritual purity and enlightenment through disciplined nonviolence (ahimsa, literally noninjury) to all living creatures.

The annihilation (nirjara) of karma comes about through penance.

Souls are not only the property of animal and plant life, but also of entities such as stones, rocks, running water, and many other natural objects not looked upon as living by other sects.

The Jaina holds that every living and non-living being is gifted with souls. They are obstructed by karma, just as the natural light of the sun is hindered by clouds. By removing the karma, a soul can remove bondage and regain its natural perfections.


QUESTION 80

MediumModern HistoryPrelims 2013

The demand for the Tebhaga Peasant Movement in Bengal was for:

A. The reduction of the share of the landlords from one-half of the crop to one-third

B. The grant of ownership of land to peasants as they were the actual cultivators of the land

C. The uprooting of the Zamindari system and the end of serfdom

D. Writing off all peasant debts

Answer: A

Explanation

The Tebhaga movement was significant peasant agitation, initiated in Bengal by the Kisan Sabha (peasant front of the Communist Party of India) in 1946-47.

At that time sharecroppers had contracted to give half of their harvest to the landlords. The demand of the Tebhaga (sharing by thirds ) movement was to reduce the landlord share to one third.


QUESTION 81

EasyEconomyPrelims 2013

A rise in the general level of prices may be caused by:

  1. an increase in the money supply
  2. a decrease in the aggregate level of output
  3. an increase in the effective demand

Select the correct answer using the codes given below.

A. 1 only

B. 1 and 2 only

C. 2 and 3 only

D. 1, 2 and 3

Answer: D

Explanation

It a direct application based question.

1st statement is correct as increase in money supply will cause inflation.

2nd and 3rd statement are obviously correct as they represent supply and demand side of products.


QUESTION 82

HardEnvironment & EcologyPrelims 2013

Consider the following organisms:

  1. Agaricus
  2. Nostoc
  3. Spirogyra

Which of the above is/are used as biofertilizer/biofertilizers

A. 1 and 2

B. 2 only

C. 2 and 3

D. 3 only

Answer: B

Explanation

Out of the three organisms listed, only 2. Nostoc is commonly used as a biofertilizer.

Agaricus This is a type of mushroom and not typically used as a biofertilizer.

Nostoc This is a filamentous, nitrogen-fixing cyanobacterium. Cyanobacteria, also known as blue-green algae, are one of the main groups of organisms used in biofertilizers due to their ability to fix atmospheric nitrogen and make it available to plants.

Spirogyra This is a green alga and not generally used as a biofertilizer.


QUESTION 83

EasyEconomyPrelims 2013

An increase in the Bank Rate generally indicates that the:

A. market rate of interest is likely to fall

B. Central Bank is no longer making loans to commercial banks

C. Central Bank is following an easy money policy

D. Central Bank is following a tight money policy

Answer: D

Explanation

Bank rate is the rate charged by the central bank for lending funds to commercial banks.

To curb liquidity, the central bank can resort to raising the bank rate and vice versa.

An increase in rate points toward a tight money policy is being followed by the RBI.


QUESTION 84

EasyIndian PolityPrelims 2013

Consider the following statements: The Parliamentary Committee on Public Accounts:

  1. Consists of not more than 25 Members of the Lok Sabha
  2. Scrutinizes appropriation finance accounts of Government
  3. Examines the report Comptroller and Auditor and General of India

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

A. 1 only

B. 1 and 2 only

C. 2 and 3 only

D. 1, 2 and 3

Answer: C

Explanation

The Parliamentary Committee on Public Accounts (PAC) consists of not more than 22 members, not 25, elected by the Lok Sabha (the lower house) and Rajya Sabha (the upper house) of the Indian Parliament according to the principle of proportional representation. Hence, statement one is wrong.

The PAC's primary function is to scrutinize the appropriation (budget) accounts of the Government of India. This involves examining how the government has spent the funds allocated to it by Parliament. Hence, statement two is correct,

The PAC examines the reports of the Comptroller and Auditor General of India (CAG). The CAG is an independent statutory authority that audits the accounts of the Union Government and the State governments. The PAC uses the CAG's reports as a basis for its scrutiny of government spending. Hence, statement three is also correct.


QUESTION 85

EasyIndian GeographyPrelims 2013

Consider the following crops

  1. Cotton
  2. Groundnut
  3. Rice
  4. Wheat

Which of these are Kharif crops?

A. 1 only

B. 1, 2 and 3 only

C. 2 and 3 only

D. 1, 2, 3 and 4

Answer: B

Explanation

The word Kharif is Arabic for autumn, since the season coincides with the beginning of autumn or winter.

Kharif crops also are known as monsoon crops. These are the crops that are cultivated in the monsoon season. The Kharif season differs in every state of the country but is generally from June to September.

These crops are usually sown at the beginning of the monsoon season around June and harvested by September or October. Rice, maize, bajra, ragi, soybean, groundnut, cotton are all Kharif types of crops.


QUESTION 86

EasyModern HistoryPrelims 2013

With reference to Indian History, the Members of the Constituent Assembly from the Provinces were:

A. Directly elected by the people of those Provinces

B. Nominated by the Indian National Congress and the Muslim League

C. Elected by the Provincial Legislative Assemblies

D. Selected by the Government for their expertise in constitutional matters

Answer: C

Explanation

The Constituent Assembly of India was partially elected to write the Constitution of India. Following India's independence from Great Britain in 1947, its members served as the nation's first Parliament.

The members of the Constituent Assembly were elected by the provincial assemblies by a single, transferable vote system of proportional representation .


QUESTION 87

HardPhysical GeographyPrelims 2013

The annual range of temperature in the interior of the continents is high as compared to coastal areas. What is/are the reason/reasons?

  1. Thermal difference between land and water
  2. Variation in altitude between continents and oceans
  3. Presence of strong winds in the interior
  4. Heavy rains in the interior as compared to coasts

Select the correct answer using the codes given below.

A. 1 only

B. 1 and 2 only

C. 2 and 3 only

D. 1, 2, 3 and 4

Answer: A

Explanation

The correct answer is 1 only (Thermal difference between land and water).

Here's why Thermal difference Land heats up and cools down much faster than water. This is because water has a higher specific heat capacity, meaning it takes more energy to heat it up and more energy to cool it down. Coastal areas, being influenced by large water bodies, experience a moderating effect on temperature fluctuations. The temperature changes are more gradual throughout the year.

Variation in altitude (2) While altitude can affect temperature (higher altitude generally means cooler temperatures), this is not the primary reason for the difference between continental interiors and coasts. Both continents and oceans have variations in altitude.

Strong winds (3) Winds can play a role in influencing local temperatures, but their presence wouldn't explain the consistent pattern of higher annual ranges seen in continental interiors.

Heavy rainfall (4) Rainfall patterns can affect temperature to some extent, but coastal areas often receive more rainfall compared to continental interiors. This wouldn't explain the higher annual range observed inland.


QUESTION 88

EasyIndian PolityPrelims 2013

Consider the following statements: Attorney General of India can

  1. take part in the proceedings of the Lok Sabha
  2. be a member of a committee of the Lok Sabha
  3. speak in the Lok Sabha
  4. vote in the Lok Sabha

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

A. 1 and 4 only

B. 1 and 2 only

C. 2, 3 and 4 only

D. 1, 2 and 3

Answer: D

Explanation

According to Article 88 of the Constitution every Minister and the Attorney-General of India shall have the right to speak in, and otherwise to take part in the proceedings of either House, any joint sitting of the Houses, and any committee of Parliament of which he may be named a member, but shall not by virtue of this article be entitled to vote.


QUESTION 89

MediumEconomyPrelims 2013

Consider the following statements :

  1. Inflation benefits the debtors.
  2. Inflation benefits the bondholders.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

A. 1 only

B. 2 only

C. Both 1 and 2

D. Neither 1 nor 2

Answer: A

Explanation

Inflation redistributes wealth from creditors to debtors i.e., lenders suffer and borrowers benefit out of inflation.

  • Bondholders - This person has lent money (to the debtor) and received a bond in return. So, he is the lender, he suffers.

Therefore, Answer choice is (A) 1 only (Debtor benefits from inflation).


QUESTION 90

MediumEnvironment & EcologyPrelims 2013

Photochemical smog is a resultant of the reaction among -

A. NO2, O3 and peroxyacetyl nitrate in the presence of sunlight

B. CO, O2 and peroxyacetyl nitrate in the presence of sunlight

C. CO, CO2 and NO2 at low temperature

D. High concentration of NO2, O3 and CO in the evening

Answer: A

Explanation

The correct answer is Nitrogen Dioxide, Ozone, and peroxyacetyl nitrate in the presence of sunlight.

Nitrogen Dioxide Released mainly from vehicle exhaust and industrial emissions.

Sunlight Sunlight's energy initiates the chemical reactions that form smog.

Volatile Organic Compounds These are released from gasoline, paints, solvents, and other sources. They react with NO2 in the presence of sunlight.

Ozone Ground-level ozone is a major component of photochemical smog, created by the reactions between NO2 and VOCs. Peroxyacetyl Nitrate (PAN) PAN is another harmful component of smog, formed in the same reactions.

The simplified process Sunlight triggers reactions between Nitrogen Dioxide and VOCs, leading to the formation of ozone, PAN, and other noxious components of photochemical smog.


QUESTION 91

EasyArt & CulturePrelims 2013

Some Buddhist rock-cut caves are called Chaityas, while the others are called Viharas. What is the difference between the two?

A. Vihara is a place of worship, while Chaitya is the dwelling place of the monks

B. Chaitya is a place of worship, while Vihara is the dwelling place of the monks

C. Chaitya is the stupa at the far end of the cave, while Vihara is the hall axial to it

D. There is no material difference between the two

Answer: B

Explanation

A chaitya is a Buddhist shrine or prayer hall with a stupa at one end. In modern texts on Indian architecture, the term chaitya-griha is often used to denote an assembly or prayer hall that houses a stupa.

Vihara generally refers to a monastery for Buddhist renunciates. The concept is ancient and in early Sanskrit and Pali texts, it meant any arrangement of space or facilities for pleasure and entertainment.

The term evolved into an architectural concept wherein it refers to living quarters for monks with an open shared space or courtyard, particularly in Buddhism. The term is also found in Ajivika, Hindu, and Jain monastic literature, usually referring to the temporary refuge for wandering monks or nuns during the annual Indian monsoons.

In modern Jainism, the monks continue to wander from town to town except during the rainy season (Chaturmas), the term "vihara" refers to their wanderings. Vihara or vihara hall has a more specific meaning in the architecture of India, especially ancient Indian rock-cut architecture. Here it means a central hall, with small cells connected to it, sometimes with beds carved from stone.


QUESTION 92

EasyIndian PolityPrelims 2013

The Government enacted the Panchayat Extension to Scheduled Areas (PESA) Act in 1996. Which one of the following is not identified as its objective?

A. To provide self-governance

B. To recognize traditional rights

C. To create autonomous regions in tribal areas

D. To free tribal people from exploitation

Answer: C

Explanation

PESA doesnt deal with the creation of autonomous regions in tribal areas.

The Sixth Schedule provides for the administration of certain tribal areas as autonomous entities. The provisions of the sixth schedule are provided under Articles 244(2) and 275(1) of the Indian Constitution.


QUESTION 93

HardScience & TechnologyPrelims 2013

During a thunderstorm, the thunder in the skies is produced by the

  1. Meeting of cumulonimbus clouds in the sky
  2. Lightning that separates the nimbus clouds
  3. Violent upward movement of air and water particles

Select the correct answer using the codes given below

A. 1 only

B. 1 and 2 only

C. 1 and 3 only

D. None of the above produces the thunder

Answer: D

Explanation

Cumulonimbus is an overgrown cumulus cloud, extending from tremendous vertical height from a base of 2000 feet to over 30,000 feet, they are black and white globular masses that take a fantastic range of shapes. They are also referred to as a thunder-cloud and bring convectional rain, accompanied by lightning and thunder. Thunder is the sound caused by a lightning discharge. Lightning heats the air in its path and causes a large over-pressure of the air within its channel. The channel expands supersonically into the surrounding air as a shock wave and creates an acoustic signal that is heard as thunder.


QUESTION 94

HardScience & TechnologyPrelims 2013

The efforts to detect the existence of Higgs boson particle have become frequent news in the recent past. What is /are the importance/importance of discovering this particle?

  1. It will enable us to understand as to why elementary particles have mass.
  2. It will enable us in the near future to develop the technology to transferring matter from one point to another without traversing the physical space between them.
  3. It will enable us to create better fuels for nuclear fission.

Select the correct answer using the codes given below:

A. 1 only

B. 1 and 2 only

C. 2 and 3 only

D. 1, 2 and 3

Answer: A

Explanation

Higgs Boson is a particle postulated by the standard model of Physics to provide mass to all particles in the universe. Discovery of the Higgs Boson will help us further understand why elementary particles have mass.

The technology of transferring physical matter without traversing the physical space in between is not presently related to the discovery of Higgs Boson.

Similarly, Higgs Boson will not help in creating better fuels for nuclear fission. It has to be understood that the discovery of Higgs Boson will only confirm what has been already been theorised and is not the discovery of the new principle in Physics.


QUESTION 95

HardArt & CulturePrelims 2013

Consider the following Bhakti Saints:

  1. Dadu Dayal
  2. Guru Nanak
  3. Tyagaraja

Who among the above was/were preaching when the Lodi dynasty fell and Babur took over?

A. 1 and 3

B. 2 only

C. 2 and 3 only

D. 1 and 2

Answer: B

Explanation

Babur took over in 1526, Dadu Dayal lived between 1544-1603 and Tyagaraja between 1767-1847, thus statements one and three are definitely incorrect.

Guru Nanak lived between 1469 and 1539 and was preaching in 1526 when the Lodi Dynasty fell and Babur took over.


QUESTION 96

HardWorld GeographyPrelims 2013

“Climate is extreme, rainfall is scanty and the people used to be nomadic herders.” The above statement best describes which of the following regions?

A. African Savannah

B. North American Prairie

C. Siberian Tundra

D. Central Asian Steppe

Answer: D

Explanation

Steppes are usually characterized by a semi-arid or continental climate. Extremes can be recorded in the summer of up to 45 C (113 F) and in winter, 55 C (67 F). Besides this huge difference between summer and winter, the differences between day and night are also very great.

African Savannah & North American Prairie These regions have more rainfall and varied landscapes compared to the Steppe. Nomadic herding existed, but wasn't the sole way of life.

Siberian Tundra Colder, less rain, permafrost. Not ideal for grazing animals. Nomadic herding is less prevalent.

Therefore, the Central Asian Steppe, with its extreme climate, limited rainfall, and historical dependence on nomadic herding, best fits the description in the statement.


QUESTION 97

MediumScience & TechnologyPrelims 2013

Consider the following phenomena:

  1. Size of the sun at dusk
  2. Colour of the sun at dawn
  3. Moon being visible at dawn
  4. The twinkle of stars in the sky
  5. Polestar being visible in the sky

Which of the above are optical illusions?

A. 1, 2 and 3

B. 3, 4 and 5

C. 1, 2 and 4

D. 2, 3 and 5

Answer: C

Explanation

Out of the listed phenomena, 1, 2, and 4 are optical illusions.

Size of the sun at dusk The sun doesn't actually change size throughout the day. The atmosphere acts like a lens, bending the sunlight slightly, making the sun appear larger near the horizon.

Colour of the sun at dawn and dusk The sun doesn't change colour either. Sunlight is made up of various colours with different wavelengths. As sunlight travels through a thicker layer of atmosphere at sunrise and sunset, shorter wavelengths (like blue and violet) scatter more easily, leaving the remaining light to appear redder or orange.

Moon being visible at dawn This one is not an illusion. Depending on the phases of the moon and your location, the moon can indeed be visible at dawn.

The twinkle of stars Stars twinkle due to the Earth's atmosphere. The starlight gets bent as it travels through the different layers of air with varying temperatures and densities. This creates a shimmering effect, making the stars appear to twinkle.

Polarstar being visible in the sky This is not an illusion either. The North Star (Polaris) is nearly aligned with the Earth's axis, making it appear relatively stationary in the night sky compared to other stars that seem to move across the sky due to Earth's rotation. As long as you're in the Northern Hemisphere with a clear view of the northern sky, you should be able to see Polaris.


QUESTION 98

EasyEnvironment & EcologyPrelims 2013

Contour bunding is a method of soil conservation used in

A. Desert margins, liable to strong wind action

B. Low flat plains, close to stream courses, liable to flooding

C. Scrublands, liable to spread of weed growth

D. None of the above

Answer: D

Explanation

Contour Bunding is associated with terracing, to check the flow of water on a hill slope in order to reduce soil erosion. This method is crucial for preventing soil erosion and is a part of sustainable land management practices.


QUESTION 99

EasyIndian GeographyPrelims 2013

Which of the following statements regarding laterite soils of India are correct?

  1. They are generally red in colour.
  2. They are rich in nitrogen and potash.
  3. They are well-developed in Rajasthan and UP.
  4. Tapioca and cashew nuts grow well on these soils.

Select the correct answer using the codes given below.

A. 1 only

B. 1 and 2 only

C. 1 and 4 only

D. 1, 2, 3 and 4

Answer: C

Explanation

Laterite is soil and rock type rich in iron and aluminium but poor in nitrogen, potash, potassium, lime and organic matter and is commonly considered to have formed in hot and wet tropical areas.

  • Nearly all laterites are of rusty-red colouration, because of high iron oxide content.
  • They develop by intensive and prolonged weathering of the underlying parent rock.
  • Tropical weathering (alteration) is a prolonged process of chemical weathering which produces a wide variety in the thickness, grade, chemistry and ore mineralogy of the resulting soils.
  • The majority of the land area containing laterites is between the tropics of Cancer and Capricorn.
  • Laterite soil commonly found in areas of high altitude and heavy rainfall in Karnataka, TN, MP, Bihar, Orissa, Assam, and Meghalaya.
  • Plants like Cashew grow well along with Tapioca in this type of soil.

QUESTION 100

MediumEconomyPrelims 2013

Which of the following grants/ grant direct credit assistance to rural households?

  1. Regional Rural Banks
  2. National Bank for Agriculture and Rural Development
  3. Land Development Banks

Select the correct answer using the codes given below:

A. 1 only

B. 1 and 2 only

C. 1 and 3 only

D. 1, 2 and 3

Answer: C

Explanation

1 and 3 only (Regional Rural Banks and Land Development Banks) provide direct credit to rural households.

While NABARD refinances rural financial institutions, it doesn't directly lend to households.

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