UPSC Prelims 2013 Analysis
Subject-Wise MCQ Distribution
- Economy (16 Questions): A significant portion covered monetary policies, banking, economic indicators, and core concepts such as inflation and the balance of payments. Many questions followed the assertion-reasoning format, testing both conceptual clarity and practical application.
- Environment & Ecology (19 Questions): Focused on biodiversity, national parks, environmental pollution, and fundamental ecology concepts. Several questions required an interdisciplinary approach, linking topics to geography, governance, and climate policies.
- Indian Polity (15 Questions): Included constitutional provisions, policy frameworks, and governmental bodies. The paper tested static knowledge while integrating current affairs-based reasoning, making analytical abilities crucial.
- Science & Technology (16 Questions): Emphasized fundamental concepts and emerging technologies from biotechnology, space, and AI. Instead of direct current affairs-based questions, many were current affairs-inspired, requiring an understanding of recent developments and their applications.
- Art & Culture (9 Questions): Had a notable weightage, with a focus on Buddhism & Jainism, the Bhakti movement, architecture, and performing arts. Many questions followed the match the following format, requiring factual knowledge and conceptual linkages.
- History (8 Questions): Covered Ancient History (2) and Modern History (6), with no Medieval History questions. Modern History questions were relatively easy to medium in difficulty, making them scoring opportunities for well-prepared candidates.
- Geography (13 Questions): Included Physical Geography (5), Indian Geography (5), and World Geography (3). A strong emphasis was placed on conceptual understanding, with several questions integrating maps and geophysical phenomena.
- Social Issues & Government Schemes (4 Questions): Covered welfare schemes, social development programs, and demographic trends. Many were elimination-based, requiring a clear understanding of policy frameworks.
- International Relations (0 Questions): Unlike previous years, there were no direct questions on India’s foreign policy or global affairs, marking a deviation in trends.

Difficulty Analysis
- Easy Questions (39 Questions): Tested foundational knowledge, making them accessible to well-prepared aspirants.
- Medium Questions (39 Questions): Required analytical skills and an ability to link static concepts with real-world applications, especially in Economy and Science & Technology.
- Hard Questions (22 Questions): Demanded deep conceptual clarity and critical thinking, particularly in subjects like Economy and Environment.

Variations in Question Framing
- Multi-Statement Questions (56%) – A significant portion required critical analysis, logical deduction, and elimination strategies. These were common in Polity, Economy, and Environment, with many questions following the assertion-reasoning format.
- Direct Questions (44%) – Focused on factual recall, particularly in Science & Technology and History. These were relatively easier for candidates with strong static knowledge.

Current Affairs vs. Static Questions
- Current Affairs-Based Questions (14%) – While fewer in number, many static questions were inspired by current events, requiring candidates to apply their knowledge in real-world contexts.
- Static Knowledge-Based Questions (86%) – The majority of the paper focused on core subjects, reaffirming the importance of NCERT-based themes, standard books, and foundational concepts.
Key Learnings for Future Preparation
- Prioritize Static Subjects: Since 86% of the questions were static, aspirants must focus on NCERTs, standard reference books, and core concepts.
- Master Multi-Statement Questions: Developing skills to break down statements, eliminate incorrect options, and infer logical conclusions is crucial for improving accuracy.
- Emphasize Environment & Science & Technology: These subjects had a significant presence, requiring conceptual clarity over rote learning.
- Strengthen Art & Culture Preparation: With 9 questions, this subject played an important role, emphasizing cultural history and heritage.
- Approach Current Affairs Selectively: Although current affairs questions were fewer, many were inspired by contemporary issues, highlighting the need for smart, selective preparation instead of exhaustive memorization.
Subject-Wise Answer Key
QUESTION 1
Who among the following constitute the National Development Council?
- The Prime Minister
- The Chairman, Finance Commission
- Ministers of the Union Cabinet
- Chief Ministers of the States
Select the correct answer using the codes given below:
A. 1, 2 and 3 only
B. 1, 3 and 4 only
C. 2 and 4 only
D. 1, 2, 3 and 4
QUESTION 2
Which of the following bodies does not/do not find mention in the Constitution?
- National Development Council
- Planning Commission
- Zonal Councils
Select the correct answer using the codes given below.
A. 1 only
B. 1 and 2 only
C. 2 and 3 only
D. 1, 2 and 3
QUESTION 3
According to the Constitution of India, which of the following are fundamental for the governance of the country?
A. Fundamental Rights
B. Fundamental Duties
C. Directive Principles of State Policy
D. Fundamental Rights and Fundamental Duties
QUESTION 4
What will follow if a Money Bill is substantially amended by the Rajya Sabha?
A. The Lok Sabha may still proceed with the Bill, accepting or not accepting the recommendations of the Rajya Sabha
B. The Lok Sabha cannot consider the Bill further
C. The Lok Sabha may send the Bill to the Rajya Sabha for reconsideration
D. The President may call a joint sitting for passing the Bill
QUESTION 5
Consider the following statements
- An amendment to the Constitution of India can be initiated by the introduction of a bill in the Lok Sabha only.
- If such an amendment seeks to make changes in the federal character of the Constitution, the amendment also requires to be ratified by the legislature of all the States of India.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
A. 1 only
B. 2 only
C. Both 1 and 2
D. Neither 1 nor 2
QUESTION 6
Which one of the following statements is correct?
A. In India, the same person cannot be appointed as Governor for two or more States at the same time
B. The Judges of the High Court of the States in India are appointed by the Governor of the State just as the Judges of the Supreme Court are appointed by the President
C. No procedure has been laid down in the Constitution of India for the removal of a Governor from his/her post
D. In the case of a Union Territory having a legislative setup, the Chief Minister is appointed by the Lt. Governor on the basis of majority support.
QUESTION 7
‘Economic Justice’ the objectives of Constitution has been as one of the Indian provided in:
A. the Preamble and Fundamental Rights
B. the Preamble and the Directive Principles of State Policy
C. the Fundamental Rights and the Directive Principles of State Policy
D. None of the above
QUESTION 8
The Parliament can make any law for whole or any part of India for implementing international treaties
A. with the consent of all the States
B. with the consent of the majority of States
C. with the consent of the States concerned
D. without the consent of any State
QUESTION 9
Consider the following statements:
- The Chairman and the Deputy Chairman of the Rajya Sabha are not the members of that House.
- While the nominated members of the two Houses of the Parliament have no voting right in the presidential election, they have the right to vote in the election of the Vice President.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
A. 1 only
B. 2 only
C. Both 1 and 2
D. Neither 1 nor 2
QUESTION 10
In the context of India, which of the following principles is/are implied institutionally in the parliamentary government?
- Members of the Cabinet are Members of Parliament.
- Ministers hold the office till they enjoy confidence in the Parliament.
- Cabinet is headed by the Head of the State.
Select the correct answer using the codes given below.
A. 1 and 2 only
B. 3 only
C. 2 and 3 only
D. 1, 2 and 3
QUESTION 11
Consider the following statements:
- The Council of Ministers at the Centre shall be collectively responsible to the Parliament.
- The Union Ministers shall hold the office during the pleasure of the President of India.
- The Prime Minister shall communicate to the President about the proposals for Legislation.
Which of the Statements given above is/are correct?
A. 1 only
B. 1 and 2 only
C. 2 and 3 only
D. 1, 2 and 3
QUESTION 12
Consider the following statements:
- National Development Council is an organ of the Planning Commission.
- The Economic and Social Planning is kept in the Concurrent List in the Constitution of India.
- The Constitution of India prescribes that Panchayats should be assigned the task of preparation of plans for economic development and social justice.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
A. 1 only
B. 1 and 2 only
C. 2 and 3 only
D. 1, 2 and 3
QUESTION 13
Consider the following statements: The Parliamentary Committee on Public Accounts:
- Consists of not more than 25 Members of the Lok Sabha
- Scrutinizes appropriation finance accounts of Government
- Examines the report Comptroller and Auditor and General of India
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
A. 1 only
B. 1 and 2 only
C. 2 and 3 only
D. 1, 2 and 3
QUESTION 14
Consider the following statements: Attorney General of India can
- take part in the proceedings of the Lok Sabha
- be a member of a committee of the Lok Sabha
- speak in the Lok Sabha
- vote in the Lok Sabha
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
A. 1 and 4 only
B. 1 and 2 only
C. 2, 3 and 4 only
D. 1, 2 and 3
QUESTION 15
The Government enacted the Panchayat Extension to Scheduled Areas (PESA) Act in 1996. Which one of the following is not identified as its objective?
A. To provide self-governance
B. To recognize traditional rights
C. To create autonomous regions in tribal areas
D. To free tribal people from exploitation