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UPSC Prelims 2013 Analysis

Subject-Wise MCQ Distribution

  • Economy (16 Questions): A significant portion covered monetary policies, banking, economic indicators, and core concepts such as inflation and the balance of payments. Many questions followed the assertion-reasoning format, testing both conceptual clarity and practical application.
  • Environment & Ecology (19 Questions): Focused on biodiversity, national parks, environmental pollution, and fundamental ecology concepts. Several questions required an interdisciplinary approach, linking topics to geography, governance, and climate policies.
  • Indian Polity (15 Questions): Included constitutional provisions, policy frameworks, and governmental bodies. The paper tested static knowledge while integrating current affairs-based reasoning, making analytical abilities crucial.
  • Science & Technology (16 Questions): Emphasized fundamental concepts and emerging technologies from biotechnology, space, and AI. Instead of direct current affairs-based questions, many were current affairs-inspired, requiring an understanding of recent developments and their applications.
  • Art & Culture (9 Questions): Had a notable weightage, with a focus on Buddhism & Jainism, the Bhakti movement, architecture, and performing arts. Many questions followed the match the following format, requiring factual knowledge and conceptual linkages.
  • History (8 Questions): Covered Ancient History (2) and Modern History (6), with no Medieval History questionsModern History questions were relatively easy to medium in difficulty, making them scoring opportunities for well-prepared candidates.
  • Geography (13 Questions): Included Physical Geography (5), Indian Geography (5), and World Geography (3). A strong emphasis was placed on conceptual understanding, with several questions integrating maps and geophysical phenomena.
  • Social Issues & Government Schemes (4 Questions): Covered welfare schemes, social development programs, and demographic trends. Many were elimination-based, requiring a clear understanding of policy frameworks.
  • International Relations (0 Questions): Unlike previous years, there were no direct questions on India’s foreign policy or global affairs, marking a deviation in trends.
Prelims 2013
Subject-Wise MCQ Distribution in UPSC Prelims 2013

Difficulty Analysis

  • Easy Questions (39 Questions): Tested foundational knowledge, making them accessible to well-prepared aspirants.
  • Medium Questions (39 Questions): Required analytical skills and an ability to link static concepts with real-world applications, especially in Economy and Science & Technology.
  • Hard Questions (22 Questions): Demanded deep conceptual clarity and critical thinking, particularly in subjects like Economy and Environment.
Prelims 2013
Difficulty Analysis in UPSC Prelims 2013

Variations in Question Framing

  • Multi-Statement Questions (56%) – A significant portion required critical analysis, logical deduction, and elimination strategies. These were common in Polity, Economy, and Environment, with many questions following the assertion-reasoning format.
  • Direct Questions (44%) – Focused on factual recall, particularly in Science & Technology and History. These were relatively easier for candidates with strong static knowledge.
Prelims 2013
Variations in Question Framing in UPSC Prelims 2013

Current Affairs vs. Static Questions

  • Current Affairs-Based Questions (14%) – While fewer in number, many static questions were inspired by current events, requiring candidates to apply their knowledge in real-world contexts.
  • Static Knowledge-Based Questions (86%) – The majority of the paper focused on core subjects, reaffirming the importance of NCERT-based themes, standard books, and foundational concepts.

Key Learnings for Future Preparation

  • Prioritize Static Subjects: Since 86% of the questions were static, aspirants must focus on NCERTs, standard reference books, and core concepts.
  • Master Multi-Statement Questions: Developing skills to break down statements, eliminate incorrect options, and infer logical conclusions is crucial for improving accuracy.
  • Emphasize Environment & Science & Technology: These subjects had a significant presence, requiring conceptual clarity over rote learning.
  • Strengthen Art & Culture Preparation: With 9 questions, this subject played an important role, emphasizing cultural history and heritage.
  • Approach Current Affairs Selectively: Although current affairs questions were fewer, many were inspired by contemporary issues, highlighting the need for smart, selective preparation instead of exhaustive memorization.
UPSC Prelims 2013 emphasized static subjects, with Economy, Environment, and Polity carrying high weightage. Multi-statement questions dominated, testing analytical skills and elimination techniques. Science & Technology and Art & Culture were significant, requiring conceptual clarity. A strong foundation in NCERTs and core subjects was key to tackling the paper effectively.

QUESTION 1

MediumIndian PolityPrelims 2013

Who among the following constitute the National Development Council?

  1. The Prime Minister
  2. The Chairman, Finance Commission
  3. Ministers of the Union Cabinet
  4. Chief Ministers of the States

Select the correct answer using the codes given below:

A. 1, 2 and 3 only

B. 1, 3 and 4 only

C. 2 and 4 only

D. 1, 2, 3 and 4

Answer: B

Explanation

The National Development Council (NDC) in India is comprised of the following members

The Prime Minister (who chairs the council) Ministers of the Union Cabinet Chief Ministers of the States

The Chairman, Finance Commission - while the Finance Commission plays a crucial role in recommending the devolution of financial resources from the central government to the states, the Chairman is not a member of the NDC.

Note The National Development Council has been proposed to be abolished, but as of yet, no resolution has been passed. It currently has no assigned work and doesn't hold meetings.


QUESTION 2

EasyIndian PolityPrelims 2013

Which of the following bodies does not/do not find mention in the Constitution?

  1. National Development Council
  2. Planning Commission
  3. Zonal Councils

Select the correct answer using the codes given below.

A. 1 only

B. 1 and 2 only

C. 2 and 3 only

D. 1, 2 and 3

Answer: D

Explanation

The Planning Commission and the National Development Council are bodies that were established by an Executive Resolution of the Union Government. On the other hand, Zonal Councils are statutory bodies that were created by an act of the Parliament.

It's important to note that none of these bodies are mentioned in the Constitution.


QUESTION 3

EasyIndian PolityPrelims 2013

According to the Constitution of India, which of the following are fundamental for the governance of the country?

A. Fundamental Rights

B. Fundamental Duties

C. Directive Principles of State Policy

D. Fundamental Rights and Fundamental Duties

Answer: C

Explanation

Article 37 The provisions contained in this Part shall not be enforceable by any court, but the principles therein laid down are nevertheless fundamental in the governance of the country and it shall be the duty of the State to apply these principles in making laws.

As article 37 is part of DPSP, thus correct answer is 'C'.


QUESTION 4

EasyIndian PolityPrelims 2013

What will follow if a Money Bill is substantially amended by the Rajya Sabha?

A. The Lok Sabha may still proceed with the Bill, accepting or not accepting the recommendations of the Rajya Sabha

B. The Lok Sabha cannot consider the Bill further

C. The Lok Sabha may send the Bill to the Rajya Sabha for reconsideration

D. The President may call a joint sitting for passing the Bill

Answer: A

Explanation

The Lok Sabha (Lower House) has the final say in the matter of Money Bill. Here's the process

The Money Bill originates in the Lok Sabha. The Lok Sabha passes the Money Bill. The Bill is sent to the Rajya Sabha for recommendations. The Rajya Sabha can discuss the Bill and recommend amendments within 14 days. Two scenarios can occur Rajya Sabha returns the Bill without recommendations or with recommendations accepted by the Lok Sabha The Bill is deemed to have been passed by both Houses of Parliament in its original or amended form. Rajya Sabha recommends amendments that the Lok Sabha disagrees with (substantial amendments) The Lok Sabha can either accept the recommendations of the Rajya Sabha or reject them.

If the Lok Sabha rejects the amendments, the Bill is deemed to have been passed by both Houses in the form in which it was passed by the Lok Sabha (original form). Essentially, the Rajya Sabha's power to amend a Money Bill is limited. While they can propose recommendations, the Lok Sabha has the final authority to decide whether to accept or reject those changes.


QUESTION 5

EasyIndian PolityPrelims 2013

Consider the following statements

  1. An amendment to the Constitution of India can be initiated by the introduction of a bill in the Lok Sabha only.
  2. If such an amendment seeks to make changes in the federal character of the Constitution, the amendment also requires to be ratified by the legislature of all the States of India.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

A. 1 only

B. 2 only

C. Both 1 and 2

D. Neither 1 nor 2

Answer: D

Explanation

Statement 1 Incorrect An amendment to the Constitution of India can be initiated by the introduction of a bill in either house of Parliament, the Lok Sabha or the Rajya Sabha.

Statement 2 Incorrect If an amendment seeks to make changes in the federal character of the Constitution, the amendment requires ratification by the legislatures of at least half of the States of India. This is a special provision to ensure a wider consensus for changes affecting the balance of power between the center and the states.


QUESTION 6

EasyIndian PolityPrelims 2013

Which one of the following statements is correct?

A. In India, the same person cannot be appointed as Governor for two or more States at the same time

B. The Judges of the High Court of the States in India are appointed by the Governor of the State just as the Judges of the Supreme Court are appointed by the President

C. No procedure has been laid down in the Constitution of India for the removal of a Governor from his/her post

D. In the case of a Union Territory having a legislative setup, the Chief Minister is appointed by the Lt. Governor on the basis of majority support.

Answer: C

Explanation

The 7th Amendment permitted the appointment of the same person as Governor for two or more states. This was implemented to streamline administration, particularly during the period of state reorganisation. Hence, option 'A' is incorrect.

The judges of the High Court is also appointed by the President like the Judges of the Supreme Court. Hence, option 'B' is incorrect.

Option 'C' is correct as no procedure for the removal of the Governor is mentioned in the Constitution as the Governor works under the pleasure of the President.

The Chief Minister of a Union Territory is appointed by the President and not by the Lt. Governor. Hence Option 'D' is incorrect.


QUESTION 7

EasyIndian PolityPrelims 2013

‘Economic Justice’ the objectives of Constitution has been as one of the Indian provided in:

A. the Preamble and Fundamental Rights

B. the Preamble and the Directive Principles of State Policy

C. the Fundamental Rights and the Directive Principles of State Policy

D. None of the above

Answer: B

Explanation

The Preamble secures to all citizens of India equality of status and opportunities for all individuals without any discrimination.

Preamble embraces three dimensions of justice -

  • social
  • political
  • economic

DPSP Art. 38 To promote the welfare of people by securing a social order permeated by justice-Social, economic and political- and to minimize the inequalities of income, status, facilities and opportunities.


QUESTION 8

EasyIndian PolityPrelims 2013

The Parliament can make any law for whole or any part of India for implementing international treaties

A. with the consent of all the States

B. with the consent of the majority of States

C. with the consent of the States concerned

D. without the consent of any State

Answer: D

Explanation

The Indian Parliament has the authority to enact laws applicable throughout the country (or any specific region) to fulfil its obligations under international treaties. This power is enshrined in Article 253 of the Indian Constitution.

Unlike some situations where the Parliament might require state consent for legislative actions, Article 253 grants the authority to enact these laws without needing approval from individual states.

Also, the Constitution empowers Parliament to make laws on any matter in the state list under five extraordinary circumstances

  • Rajya Sabha passes the resolution(Article 249)
  • National emergency(Article 250)
  • States make a request(Article 252)
  • To implement international agreements(Article 253)
  • During the President's rule (Article 356).

QUESTION 9

MediumIndian PolityPrelims 2013

Consider the following statements:

  1. The Chairman and the Deputy Chairman of the Rajya Sabha are not the members of that House.
  2. While the nominated members of the two Houses of the Parliament have no voting right in the presidential election, they have the right to vote in the election of the Vice President.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

A. 1 only

B. 2 only

C. Both 1 and 2

D. Neither 1 nor 2

Answer: B

Explanation

Deputy chairman is elected by the Rajya Sabha itself, among its members.

The electoral college for VP consists of both elected and nominated members of parliament (in case of the president only elected members).


QUESTION 10

MediumIndian PolityPrelims 2013

In the context of India, which of the following principles is/are implied institutionally in the parliamentary government?

  1. Members of the Cabinet are Members of Parliament.
  2. Ministers hold the office till they enjoy confidence in the Parliament.
  3. Cabinet is headed by the Head of the State.

Select the correct answer using the codes given below.

A. 1 and 2 only

B. 3 only

C. 2 and 3 only

D. 1, 2 and 3

Answer: A

Explanation

In the context of India's parliamentary government, the following principles are implied institutionally

Members of the Cabinet are Members of Parliament Ministers hold the office till they enjoy confidence in the Parliament. Correct Here's why these principles are essential

Close Link Between Legislature and Executive By requiring Cabinet members to be MPs, a close connection is established between the legislative and executive branches. This ensures the government is accountable to the legislature, which represents the people.

Collective Responsibility The principle of collective responsibility implies that the Cabinet functions as a unified body. If the Parliament loses faith in the government through a no-confidence motion, the entire Cabinet, including the Prime Minister, is expected to resign. Incorrect Principle

Cabinet is not headed by the Head of State. In India, the President is the Head of State, but the Prime Minister leads the Cabinet. The Prime Minister is the head of government and wields significant executive power.


QUESTION 11

EasyIndian PolityPrelims 2013

Consider the following statements:

  1. The Council of Ministers at the Centre shall be collectively responsible to the Parliament.
  2. The Union Ministers shall hold the office during the pleasure of the President of India.
  3. The Prime Minister shall communicate to the President about the proposals for Legislation.

Which of the Statements given above is/are correct?

A. 1 only

B. 1 and 2 only

C. 2 and 3 only

D. 1, 2 and 3

Answer: C

Explanation

The Council of Ministers in the Centre shall be collectively responsible to Lok Sabha, not parliament. Hence statement 1 is not correct. The Union Ministers shall hold the office during the pleasure of the President of India. Hence statement 2 is correct. The Prime Minister shall communicate to the President about the proposals for legislation. Hence statement 3 is correct.


QUESTION 12

MediumIndian PolityPrelims 2013

Consider the following statements:

  1. National Development Council is an organ of the Planning Commission.
  2. The Economic and Social Planning is kept in the Concurrent List in the Constitution of India.
  3. The Constitution of India prescribes that Panchayats should be assigned the task of preparation of plans for economic development and social justice.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

A. 1 only

B. 1 and 2 only

C. 2 and 3 only

D. 1, 2 and 3

Answer: C

Explanation

The National Development Council (NDC) is not an organ of the Planning Commission. It's an independent advisory body headed by the Prime Minister and includes Chief Ministers of all states, Union Cabinet Ministers, and members of the NITI Aayog (successor to the Planning Commission).

  • It was set up on 6 August 1952.

Economic and Social Planning is listed in the Concurrent List (List III) of the Seventh Schedule of the Indian Constitution.

The Constitution (Article 243G) empowers Panchayats (local village governments) to prepare plans for economic development and social justice at the village level. This promotes decentralized planning and community participation.

Hence statement one is incorrect and statements two and three are correct.


QUESTION 13

EasyIndian PolityPrelims 2013

Consider the following statements: The Parliamentary Committee on Public Accounts:

  1. Consists of not more than 25 Members of the Lok Sabha
  2. Scrutinizes appropriation finance accounts of Government
  3. Examines the report Comptroller and Auditor and General of India

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

A. 1 only

B. 1 and 2 only

C. 2 and 3 only

D. 1, 2 and 3

Answer: C

Explanation

The Parliamentary Committee on Public Accounts (PAC) consists of not more than 22 members, not 25, elected by the Lok Sabha (the lower house) and Rajya Sabha (the upper house) of the Indian Parliament according to the principle of proportional representation. Hence, statement one is wrong.

The PAC's primary function is to scrutinize the appropriation (budget) accounts of the Government of India. This involves examining how the government has spent the funds allocated to it by Parliament. Hence, statement two is correct,

The PAC examines the reports of the Comptroller and Auditor General of India (CAG). The CAG is an independent statutory authority that audits the accounts of the Union Government and the State governments. The PAC uses the CAG's reports as a basis for its scrutiny of government spending. Hence, statement three is also correct.


QUESTION 14

EasyIndian PolityPrelims 2013

Consider the following statements: Attorney General of India can

  1. take part in the proceedings of the Lok Sabha
  2. be a member of a committee of the Lok Sabha
  3. speak in the Lok Sabha
  4. vote in the Lok Sabha

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

A. 1 and 4 only

B. 1 and 2 only

C. 2, 3 and 4 only

D. 1, 2 and 3

Answer: D

Explanation

According to Article 88 of the Constitution every Minister and the Attorney-General of India shall have the right to speak in, and otherwise to take part in the proceedings of either House, any joint sitting of the Houses, and any committee of Parliament of which he may be named a member, but shall not by virtue of this article be entitled to vote.


QUESTION 15

EasyIndian PolityPrelims 2013

The Government enacted the Panchayat Extension to Scheduled Areas (PESA) Act in 1996. Which one of the following is not identified as its objective?

A. To provide self-governance

B. To recognize traditional rights

C. To create autonomous regions in tribal areas

D. To free tribal people from exploitation

Answer: C

Explanation

PESA doesnt deal with the creation of autonomous regions in tribal areas.

The Sixth Schedule provides for the administration of certain tribal areas as autonomous entities. The provisions of the sixth schedule are provided under Articles 244(2) and 275(1) of the Indian Constitution.

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