UPSC Prelims 2012 Analysis

Subject-Wise MCQ Distribution

  • Environment & Ecology (19 Questions): A major section covering biodiversityclimate change, and conservation efforts. Many questions required an analytical approach to assess real-world environmental challenges.
  • Indian Polity (19 Questions): Focused on constitutional provisionsgovernance structures, and landmark amendments. Assertion-based questions tested conceptual clarity on topics like Fundamental Rights and Directive Principles of State Policy.
  • Economy (14 Questions): Covered fiscal policieseconomic surveysbudget allocations, and government schemes. Some questions included match the following formats, requiring a thorough understanding of financial policies and their implications.
  • Science & Technology (12 Questions): Featured questions on technological advancementsspace explorationbiotechnology, and emerging innovations. The emphasis was on the application of concepts rather than rote memorization.
  • Modern History (11 Questions): Covered the freedom struggle, key leaders, and socio-political developments. Some questions required an understanding of historical events using maps to trace significant movements.
  • Art & Culture (6 Questions): Highlighted Indian heritageclassical art formsarchitecture, and performing arts. Many questions were NCERT-based, requiring strong factual recall.
  • Social Issues & Schemes (6 Questions): Addressed government initiativessocio-economic policies, and contemporary issues. The focus was on their impact and implementation.
  • Physical Geography (5 Questions): Included applied and conceptual questions on landformsclimate patterns, and natural phenomenaMaps were critical for solving location-based questions.
  • Indian Geography (4 Questions): Covered India’s physical and economic geography, emphasizing agriculturemineral distribution, and river systems.
  • Ancient History (3 Questions): Topics included early civilizationsdynasties, and historical literature, with a focus on factual recall and interpretation.
  • World Geography (1 Question): A minor section covering global landforms and climate zones, often requiring map-based understanding.
  • International Relations & Medieval History (0 Questions): These sections were not represented in this year’s paper, indicating a shift in emphasis.
Prelims 2012
Subject-Wise MCQ Distribution in UPSC Prelims 2012

Difficulty Analysis

  • Easy (28 Questions): Covered foundational concepts and straightforward factual recall, allowing candidates to score quickly.
  • Medium (47 Questions): Required conceptual claritylogical reasoning, and analytical thinking to connect topics with real-world applications.
  • Hard (25 Questions): Demanded in-depth understandingapplication-based thinking, and advanced problem-solving abilities, particularly in Economy and Environment.
Prelims 2012
Difficulty Analysis in UPSC Prelims 2012

Variations in Question Framing

  • Multi-Statement Questions (71 Questions): The dominant type, requiring analytical abilitieslogical elimination, and assertion-based reasoning. Topics from PolityEconomy, and Environment frequently appeared in this format.
  • Direct Questions (29 Questions): Focused on factual recall and straightforward concepts, particularly in History and Geography. Many of these relied on NCERT-based learning.
Prelims 2012
Variations in Question Framing in UPSC Prelims 2012

Current Affairs vs. Static Questions

  • Static-Based Questions (74 Questions): A significant majority, emphasizing NCERTs, reference books, and sources like LaxmikanthSpectrum, and GC Leong.
  • Current Affairs-Based Questions (26 Questions): A noticeable increase compared to previous years, focusing on government policiesinternational developments, and science-related topics.

Key Learnings for Future Preparation

  • Prioritize Key Subjects: Focus on Indian PolityEnvironment & Ecology, and Economy, as they had the highest weightage.
  • Enhance Analytical Abilities: With 71% multi-statement questions, develop assertion-reasoning skills and elimination techniques for complex options.
  • Master "Match the Following" Questions: Many questions required conceptual pairing, particularly in EconomyArt & Culture, and History.
  • Integrate NCERTs & Maps: A strong foundation in NCERT textbooks and map-based learning is crucial for GeographyHistory, and Environment topics.
  • Adapt to Difficulty Levels: Since medium and hard questions dominated the paper, move beyond basic memorization and emphasize conceptual clarity.
  • Practice Previous Year Questions (PYQs): Familiarize yourself with question patterns, particularly in assertion-based and multi-statement formats.
  • Use Mock Tests Effectively: Given the complexity of questions, regularly practice UPSC-level test papers to refine decision-making and time management.
UPSC Prelims 2012 emphasized Polity, Environment, and Economy, with a strong focus on analytical reasoning through multi-statement questions. Static subjects dominated, though current affairs had an increased presence. Conceptual clarity, elimination techniques, and NCERT-based preparation were key. Geography, History, and Science required map-based and application-oriented understanding.

QUESTION 1

HardIndian GeographyPrelims 2012

Consider the following crops of India :

  1. Groundnut
  2. Sesamum
  3. Pearl millet

Which of the above is/are predominantly rainfed crop/crops?

A. 1 and 2 only

B. 2 and 3 only

C. 3 only

D. 1, 2 and 3

Answer: D

Explanation

All three crops listed (Groundnut, Sesamum, and Pearl millet) are predominantly rainfed crops in India.

Rainfed Agriculture This refers to agricultural practices that rely primarily on rainfall for irrigation. It's a common practice in India, especially for crops grown in areas with limited access to irrigation facilities.

Groundnut, Sesamum, and Pearl millet These crops are known for their drought tolerance and ability to adapt to varying rainfall patterns. They are well-suited for rainfed agriculture and are extensively cultivated in different parts of India.


QUESTION 2

MediumScience & TechnologyPrelims 2012

Consider the following statements - If there were no phenomenon of capillarity

  1. It would be difficult to use a kerosene lamp
  2. One would not be able to use a straw to consume a soft drink
  3. The blotting paper would fail to function
  4. The big trees that we see around would not have grown on the earth

A. 1,2 and 3 only

B. 1,3 and 4 only

C. 2 and 4

D. 1,2,3 and 4

Answer: B

Explanation

Capillarity, or capillary action, is the ability of a liquid to flow in narrow spaces without the assistance of, and in opposition to, external forces like gravity.

Capillary action allows the kerosene to rise up the wick, where it can then be ignited.

Drinking with a straw relies on the principle of air pressure rather than capillarity. When you suck the air out of the straw, you create a pressure difference that forces the drink into the straw.

Blotting paper absorbs ink or any liquid due to capillary action, where the liquid is drawn into the small pores of the blotting paper.

Capillary action is critical for transporting water from the roots to the leaves of tall trees against the force of gravity.


QUESTION 3

MediumEnvironment & EcologyPrelims 2012

How does the National Biodiversity Authority (NBA) help in protecting Indian agriculture?

  1. NBA checks the biopiracy and protects indigenous and traditional genetic resources.
  2. NBA directly monitors and supervises the scientific research on genetic modification of crop plants.
  3. Application for Intellectual Property Rights related to genetic/biological resources cannot be made without the approval of the NBA.

A. 1 only

B. 2 and 3 only

C. 1 and 3 only

D. 1, 2 and 3

Answer: C

Explanation

The National Biodiversity Authority (NBA) was established in 2003 to implement India's Biological Diversity Act (2002).The NBA is a statutory and autonomous body and it performs facilitative, regulatory and advisory functions for the Government of India on issues of conservation, sustainable use of biological resources and fair and equitable sharing of benefits arising out of the use of biological resources.

The National Biodiversity Authority (NBA) plays a crucial role in protecting Indian agriculture by checking biopiracy and protecting indigenous and traditional genetic resources.

While the NBA does have a regulatory role, it does not directly monitor and supervise scientific research on genetic modification of crop plants. This task is typically handled by other scientific and regulatory bodies.

Any application for Intellectual Property Rights related to genetic or biological resources cannot be made without the approval of the NBA. This is a significant measure to prevent the exploitation of India's rich biodiversity without proper compensation and benefit sharing.

Therefore, only statements 1 and 3 are correct.


QUESTION 4

HardEconomyPrelims 2012

With reference to consumers’ rights/ privileges under the provisions of law in India, which of the following statements is/are correct?

  1. Consumers are empowered to take samples for food testing.
  2. When a consumer files a complaint in any consumer forum, no fee is required to be paid.
  3. In case of death of a consumer, his/her legal heir can file a complaint in the consumer forum on his / her behalf.

Select the correct answer using the codes given below:

A. 1 Only

B. 2 and 3 Only

C. 1 and 3 Only

D. 1, 2 and 3

Answer: C

Explanation

Under the provisions of the law in India, consumers are indeed empowered to take samples for food testing. This is part of the consumer's right to be informed about the quality, quantity, potency, purity, standard and price of goods or services.

When a consumer files a complaint in any consumer forum, there is a nominal fee that needs to be paid. This fee is meant to cover administrative costs.

In case of the death of a consumer, his/her legal heir can file a complaint in the consumer forum on his/her behalf. This is to ensure that the rights of the consumer are protected, even after their death.

Therefore, the correct answer is statements 1 and 3 only.


QUESTION 5

MediumSocial Issues & SchemesPrelims 2012

The endeavour of ‘Janani Suraksha Yojana’ Programme is

  1. to promote institutional deliveries
  2. to provide monetary assistance to the mother to meet the cost of delivery
  3. to provide for wage loss due to pregnancy and confinement

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

A. 1 and 2 Only

B. 2 Only

C. 3 Only

D. 1, 2, & 3

Answer: A

Explanation

Janani Suraksha Yojana (JSY)

  • It is a safe motherhood intervention under the National Rural Health Mission (NRHM) being implemented to reduce maternal and neonatal mortality by promoting institutional delivery among poor pregnant women. Hence, statement 1 is correct.

  • JSY is a 100 % centrally sponsored scheme and it integrates cash assistance with delivery and post-delivery care. Hence statement 2 is correct.

The Yojana has identified ASHA, the accredited social health activist as an effective the link between the Government and poor pregnant women.

Pradhan Mantri Matru Vandana Yojana To provide compensation for the wage loss in terms of cash incentives so that the woman can take adequate rest before and after delivery of the first living child. Hence, statement 3 is not correct.


QUESTION 6

MediumIndian PolityPrelims 2012

The National Green Tribunal Act, 2010 was enacted in consonance with which of the following provisions of the Constitution of India?

  1. Right to a healthy environment, construed as a part of Right to life under Article 21
  2. Provision of grants for raising the level of administration in the Scheduled Areas for the welfare of Scheduled Tribes under Article 275( 1)
  3. Powers and functions of Gram Sabha as mentioned under Article 243(A)

Select the correct answer:

A. 1 Only

B. 2 and 3 Only

C. 1 and 3 only

D. 1, 2 and 3

Answer: A

Explanation

The National Green Tribunal Act, 2010 was indeed enacted in consonance with the Right to a healthy environment, which is construed as a part of the Right to life under Article 21 of the Constitution of India.

The National Green Tribunal Act, 2010 does not have any direct relation with the provision of grants for raising the level of administration in the Scheduled Areas for the welfare of Scheduled Tribes under Article 275(1) of the Constitution of India.

The National Green Tribunal Act, 2010 does not have any direct relation with the powers and functions of Gram Sabha as mentioned under Article 243(A) of the Constitution of India.

Hence only statement 1 is correct.


QUESTION 7

MediumIndian PolityPrelims 2012

According to the Constitution of India, it is the duty of the President of India to cause to be laid before the Parliament which of the following?

  1. The Recommendations of the Union Finance Commission
  2. The Report of the Public Accounts Committee
  3. The Report of the Comptroller and Auditor General
  4. The Report of the National Commission for Scheduled Castes

Select the correct answer using the codes given below:

A. 1 only

B. 2 and 4 only

C. 1, 3 and 4 only

D. 1, 2, 3 and 4

Answer: C

Explanation

The correct answer is 1, 3 and 4

The President of India is required to present the following reports before both houses of Parliament

  1. The Recommendations of the Union Finance Commission (deals with the distribution of revenue between centre and states)
  2. The Report of the Comptroller and Auditor General (CAG) (audits government accounts)
  3. The Report of the National Commission for Scheduled Castes (works on upliftment of Scheduled Castes)

Note: The Report of the Public Accounts Committee (PAC) is not laid by the President. The PAC is a parliamentary committee that scrutinizes the CAG report.


QUESTION 8

MediumEconomyPrelims 2012

In India, in the overall Index of Industrial Production, the Indices of Eight Core Industries have a combined weight of 37-90%. Which of the following is among those Eight Core Industries?

  1. Cement
  2. Fertilizers
  3. Natural gas
  4. Refinery products
  5. Textiles

Select the correct answer using the codes given below:

A. 1 and 5 only

B. 2, 3 and 4 only

C. 1, 2, 3 and 4 only

D. 1, 2, 3, 4 and 5

Answer: C

Explanation

Index of Eight Core Industries (ICI) refers to a production volume index that measures the collective and individual production performances of eight selected core industries.

The Eight Core Industries in India include Cement, Fertilizers, Natural Gas, Refinery Products, Coal, Crude Oil, Electricity, and Steel.

Textiles is not included in the list of the Eight Core Industries.


QUESTION 9

MediumIndian PolityPrelims 2012

Which of the following are included in the original jurisdiction of the Supreme Court?

  1. A dispute between the Government of India and one or more States
  2. A dispute regarding elections to either House of the Parliament or Legislature of a State
  3. A dispute between the Government of India and a Union Territory
  4. A dispute between two or more States

Select the correct answer using the codes given below:

A. 1 and 2

B. 2 and 3

C. 1 and 4

D. 3 and 4

Answer: C

Explanation

The original jurisdiction of the Supreme Court is the court's authority to hear and decide certain types of cases before they have been heard by any lower court.

The Supreme Court under Article 131 has original jurisdiction over any dispute between the Government of India and one or more States.

The Supreme Court does not have original jurisdiction over disputes regarding elections. These are usually handled by the Election Commission of India and the respective High Courts.

Disputes between the Government of India and a Union Territory are not covered under the original jurisdiction of the Supreme Court.

The Supreme Court has original jurisdiction over any dispute between two or more States.

Therefore, only statements 1 and 4 are correct.


QUESTION 10

HardEnvironment & EcologyPrelims 2012

Biomass gasification is considered to be one of the sustainable solutions to the power crisis in India. In this context, which of the following statements is/are correct?

  1. Coconut shells, groundnut shells and rice husk can be used in biomass gasification.
  2. The combustible gases generated from biomass gasification consist of hydrogen and carbon dioxide only.
  3. The combustible gases generated from biomass gasification can be used for direct heat generation but not in internal combustion engines.

A. 1 only

B. 2 and 3 only

C. 1 and 3 only

D. 1, 2 and 3

Answer: A

Explanation

Biomass gasification is a process that converts organic materials like wood, agricultural residues, or waste into a combustible gas mixture known as synthesis gas or syngas. The resulting syngas can be used as a fuel for various applications, including electricity generation, heating, and as a feedstock for the production of biofuels and chemicals.

Coconut shells, groundnut shells, and rice husk are examples of biomass that can be used in biomass gasification.

The combustible gases generated from biomass gasification do not consist of hydrogen and carbon dioxide only. They also include other gases such as methane and carbon monoxide.

The combustible gases generated from biomass gasification can be used for direct heat generation and also in internal combustion engines.

Therefore, only statement 1 is correct.


QUESTION 11

EasyPhysical GeographyPrelims 2012

Which one of the following sets of elements was primarily responsible for the origin of life on the Earth?

A. Hydrogen, Oxygen, Sodium

B. Carbon, Hydrogen, Nitrogen

C. Oxygen, Calcium, Phosphorus

D. Carbon, Hydrogen, Potassium

Answer: B

Explanation

The origin of life on Earth is believed to have been initiated by the formation of complex organic molecules, which are primarily composed of carbon, hydrogen, and nitrogen.

These elements are essential for the development of the fundamental building blocks of life, such as amino acids, nucleic acids (DNA and RNA), and other biomolecules.

Carbon is the central element in organic chemistry and is the backbone of all living organisms, forming the complex structures of biomolecules. Hydrogen and nitrogen are also crucial elements that participate in the formation of these organic molecules, providing the necessary bonds and functional groups.

The other sets of elements mentioned in the options are not the primary elements responsible for the origin of life. Oxygen, sodium, calcium, and phosphorus are important for other aspects of life, such as energy production and signal transduction, but they are not the key elements that initiated the formation of the first living organisms.


QUESTION 12

MediumPhysical GeographyPrelims 2012

Consider the following factors:

  1. Rotation of the Earth
  2. Air pressure and wind
  3. The density of ocean water
  4. Revolution of the Earth

Which of the above factors influence the ocean currents?

A. 1 and 2 only

B. 1, 2 and 3

C. 1 and 4

D. 2, 3 and 4

Answer: B

Explanation

The rotation of the Earth, also known as the Coriolis effect, influences the direction of ocean currents. In the Northern Hemisphere, currents are deflected to the right, while in the Southern Hemisphere, they are deflected to the left.

Wind-driven currents, which are caused by the wind blowing across the surface of the ocean, are one of the primary types of ocean currents. Changes in air pressure can also affect ocean currents.

Density-driven currents, also known as thermohaline currents, are caused by differences in the density of ocean water. The density of ocean water is influenced by temperature and salinity.

The revolution of the Earth refers to the Earth's orbit around the Sun, which causes the change of seasons. However, it does not directly influence the ocean currents.

Therefore, the factors that influence the ocean currents are the rotation of the Earth, air pressure and wind, and the density of ocean water.


QUESTION 13

HardEnvironment & EcologyPrelims 2012

What is the difference between the antelopes Oryx and Chiru?

A. Oryx is adapted to live in hot and arid areas whereas Chiru is adapted to live in steppes and semi-desert areas of cold high mountains

B. Oryx is poached for its antlers whereas Chiru is poached for its musk

C. Oryx exists in western India only whereas Chiru exists in north-east India only.

D. None of the statements a, b and c given above is correct

Answer: A

Explanation

Oryx is a genus consisting of four large antelope species. They are adapted to live in hot and arid areas like Africa and Arabia. They are very striking in appearance and all have distinctive long horns (both male and female have horns).

On the other hand, Chiru, also known as the Tibetan antelope, is adapted to live in steppes and semi-desert areas of cold high mountains of the Tibetan Plateau. They are a small, unique species related to goats and sheep.

Therefore, the statement "Oryx is adapted to live in hot and arid areas whereas Chiru is adapted to live in steppes and semi-desert areas of cold high mountains" correctly describes the difference between the two species.


QUESTION 14

MediumScience & TechnologyPrelims 2012

Other than resistance to pests, what are the prospects for which genetically engineered plants have been created?

  1. To enable them to withstand drought
  2. To increase the nutritive value of the produce
  3. To enable them to grow and do photosynthesis in spaceships and space stations
  4. To increase their shelf life

Select the correct answer using the codes given below:

A. 1 and 2 only

B. 3 and 4 only

C. 1, 2 and 4 only

D. 1, 2, 3 and 4

Answer: C

Explanation

Genetically engineered plants have been created for various purposes beyond just resistance to pests.

They have been developed to enable them to withstand drought by introducing genes that help the plants conserve water or tolerate dry conditions. This allows them to survive better in drought-prone areas.

Another prospect is to increase the nutritive value of the produce. This can involve enhancing the plants with additional nutrients or higher protein content to improve the overall nutritional quality of the crop.

Increasing the shelf life of produce is also a common goal for genetic engineering to reduce food waste and improve storage capabilities.

While the idea of enabling plants to grow and do photosynthesis in spaceships and space stations is a futuristic concept, it is not a current application of genetically engineered plants.

Therefore, the correct answer is 1, 2 and 4.


QUESTION 15

EasyEconomyPrelims 2012

The Reserve Bank of India (RBI) acts as a bankers’ bank. This would imply which of the following?

  1. Other banks retain their deposits with the RBI.
  2. The RBI lends funds to the commercial banks in times of need.
  3. The RBI advises the commercial banks on monetary matters.

Select the correct answer using the codes given below :

A. 2 and 3 only

B. 1 and 2 only

C. 1 and 3 only

D. 1, 2 and 3

Answer: D

Explanation

Commercial banks keep a portion of their reserves with the RBI for various reasons, including regulatory requirements and secure storage.

The RBI acts as a lender of last resort, providing liquidity to banks facing temporary shortages.

The RBI does have a role in advising the commercial banks on monetary matters, by giving out advisories time to time.

Therefore, all statements are correct.


QUESTION 16

HardAncient HistoryPrelims 2012

With reference to the scientific progress of ancient India, which of the statements given below are correct?

  1. Different kinds of specialized surgical instruments were in common use by the 1st century AD.
  2. Transplant of internal organs in the human body had begun by the beginning of 3rd century AD.
  3. The concept of the sine of an angle was known in 5th century AD.
  4. The concept of cyclic quadrilaterals was known in 7th century AD.

Select the correct answer using the codes given below:

A. 1 and 2 only

B. 3 and 4 only

C. 1, 3 and 4 only

D. 1, 2, 3 and 4

Answer: C

Explanation

Ancient Indian texts such as the Sushruta Samhita, dating back to around the 6th century BCE, describe various surgical instruments and techniques used in surgeries. By the 1st century AD, specialized surgical instruments were indeed in common use in ancient India.

There is no evidence to suggest that organ transplantation, as understood in modern medicine, was practised in ancient India by the beginning of the 3rd century AD.

The concept of trigonometry, including the sine function, was known in ancient India. The Indian mathematician Aryabhata, who lived in the 5th century AD, made significant contributions to trigonometry and provided tables of trigonometric values in his work Aryabhatiya.

The concept of cyclic quadrilaterals, along with other geometric concepts, was known in ancient India. The mathematician Brahmagupta, who lived in the 7th century AD, discussed cyclic quadrilaterals in his mathematical treatise Brahmasphutasiddhanta.

Therefore, the correct answer is options 1, 3, and 4.


QUESTION 17

HardScience & TechnologyPrelims 2012

A team of scientists at Brookhaven National Laboratory including those from India created the heaviest antimatter (anti-helium nucleus). What is/are the implications/ implications of the creation of antimatter?

  1. It will make mineral prospecting and oil exploration easier and cheaper
  2. It will help probe the possibility of the existence of stars and galaxies made of antimatter
  3. It will help understand the evolution of the universe
  4. None of the above

A. 1 only

B. 2 and 3 only

C. 3 only

D. 1, 2 and 3 only

Answer: B

Explanation

The creation of antimatter, specifically the anti-helium nucleus, has significant implications in the field of astrophysics and cosmology.

It does not directly contribute to making mineral prospecting and oil exploration easier and cheaper.

However, it does help in probing the possibility of the existence of stars and galaxies made of antimatter. This is because antimatter is the 'opposite' of normal matter, and its existence could imply the existence of antimatter celestial bodies.

Additionally, understanding antimatter and its properties can contribute to our understanding of the evolution of the universe, as it plays a role in the theories and models that describe the universe's history and future.

Therefore, the implications of the creation of antimatter are that it will help probe the possibility of the existence of stars and galaxies made of antimatter and it will help understand the evolution of the universe.


QUESTION 18

MediumEconomyPrelims 2012

Which of the following measures would result in an increase in the money supply in the economy?

  1. Purchase of government securities from the public by the Central Bank
  2. Deposit of currency in commercial banks by the public
  3. Borrowing by the government from the Central Bank
  4. Sale of government securities to the public by the Central Bank

Select the correct answer using the codes given below:

A. 1 only

B. 2 and 4 only

C. 1 and 3

D. 2, 3 and 4

Answer: C

Explanation

  1. Purchase of government securities from the public by the Central Bank This injects money into the economy. When the Central Bank buys securities, it pays for them with newly created money, effectively increasing the money supply.

  2. Deposit of currency in commercial banks by the public This doesn't directly increase the money supply. While the public has less cash on hand, the banks now have more reserves. However, the total amount of money in circulation remains the same.

  3. Borrowing by the government from the Central Bank This can increase the money supply. If the Central Bank creates new money to lend to the government, it injects new money into the system.

  4. Sale of government securities to the public by the Central Bank This decreases the money supply. When the Central Bank sells securities, it absorbs money from the public in exchange for the securities, taking money out of circulation.

Therefore, statements 1 and 3 are correct.


QUESTION 19

EasyIndian PolityPrelims 2012

What is the provision to safeguard the autonomy of the Supreme Court of India?

  1. While appointing the Supreme Court Judges, the President of India has to consult the Chief Justice of India.
  2. The Supreme Court Judges can be removed by the Chief Justice of India only.
  3. The salaries of the Judges are charged on the Consolidated Fund of India to which the legislature does not have to vote.
  4. All appointments of officers and staff of the Supreme Court of India are made by the Government only after consulting the Chief Justice of India.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

A. 1 and 3 only

B. 3 and 4 only

C. 4 only

D. 1, 2, 3 and 4

Answer: A

Explanation

  1. While appointing the Supreme Court Judges, the President of India has to consult the Chief Justice of India. This ensures that the judiciary has a say in its own composition. Thus, statement 1 is correct.

  2. The judges of the Supreme Court can only be removed by the President of India on the grounds of proven misbehaviour or incapacity, and that too after an address by the Parliament has been supported by a majority of the total membership of that House and by two-thirds of the members present and voting. Thus, statement 2 is incorrect.

  3. The salaries of the Judges are charged on the Consolidated Fund of India to which the legislature does not have to vote. This provision ensures the financial autonomy of the judiciary and protects it from any kind of legislative pressure or executive influence. Thus, statement 3 is correct.

  4. All appointments of officers and staff of the Supreme Court of India are made by the Supreme Court itself. Thus, statement 4 is incorrect.


QUESTION 20

MediumEnvironment & EcologyPrelims 2012

Consider the following areas:

  1. Bandipur
  2. Bhitarkanika
  3. Manas
  4. Sunderbans

Which of the above are Tiger Reserves?

A. 1 and 2 only

B. 1, 3 and 4 only

C. 2, 3 and 4 only

D. 1, 2, 3 and 4

Answer: B

Explanation

The tiger reserves of India were set up in 1973 and are governed under Project Tiger, which is administered by the National Tiger Conservation Authority, Government of India. A Tiger Reserve is an area that is dedicated to the conservation and protection of the tiger population. It aims to provide a safe and secure environment for tigers to thrive by ensuring the preservation of their habitats and prey species.

Bandipur is a Tiger Reserve located in Karnataka. Manas is a National Park, UNESCO Natural World Heritage site, a Project Tiger Reserve, an Elephant Reserve and a Biosphere Reserve in Assam. Sunderbans is a Tiger Reserve located in West Bengal.

However, Bhitarkanika is a wetland famous for its bird diversity and is not a Tiger Reserve.

Therefore, Bandipur, Manas, and Sunderbans are declared Tiger Reserves.


QUESTION 21

EasyIndian PolityPrelims 2012

Which of the following special powers have been conferred on the Rajya Sabha by the Constitution of India?

A. To change the existing territory of a State and to change the name of a State

B. To pass a resolution empowering the Parliament to make laws in the State List and to create one or more All India Services

C. To amend the election procedure of the President and to determine the pension of the President after his/her retirement

D. To determine the functions of the Election Commission and to determine the number of Election Commissioners

Answer: B

Explanation

The Rajya Sabha has special powers in these two areas

Authorizing Legislation on the State List (Article 249) It can pass a resolution by a two-thirds majority to empower the Parliament to legislate on a subject in the State List, typically under the control of individual states. This happens if the Rajya Sabha considers it necessary for the national interest.

Creation of All-India Services (Article 312) Through a special resolution with a two-thirds majority, the Rajya Sabha can initiate the creation of new All-India Services. These are elite civil service positions serving both the central government and states, promoting national integration and uniformity in governance.

Options (a), (c), and (d) are not special powers of the Rajya Sabha

Changing state territories or names, amending the President's election procedure and determining their pension and Determining Election Commission functions and the number of commissioners are powers shared by both houses of Parliament.


QUESTION 22

MediumEnvironment & EcologyPrelims 2012

What would happen if phytoplankton of an ocean is completely destroyed for some reason?

  1. The ocean as a carbon sink would be adversely affected.
  2. The food chains in the ocean would be adversely affected.
  3. The density of ocean water would drastically decrease.

A. 1, 2 and 3

B. 2 only

C. 3 only

D. 1 and 2 only

Answer: D

Explanation

Phytoplankton are microscopic, single-celled photosynthetic organisms that live suspended in water. They play a crucial role in the ocean's carbon cycle and food chains.

Phytoplankton absorb carbon dioxide from the atmosphere and convert it into organic carbon, a process known as carbon sequestration. This makes the ocean a significant carbon sink. If phytoplankton were to be completely destroyed, this process would be disrupted, adversely affecting the ocean's ability to act as a carbon sink.

Phytoplankton form the base of the marine food chain. They are consumed by small marine animals, which are in turn eaten by larger ones, and so on. If phytoplankton were to be completely destroyed, it would disrupt the food chains in the ocean.

The density of ocean water is primarily determined by its temperature and salinity, not by the presence of phytoplankton.


QUESTION 23

MediumSocial Issues & SchemesPrelims 2012

With reference to National Rural Health Mission, which of the following are the jobs of ‘ASHA’, a trained community health worker?

  1. Accompanying women to the health facility for antenatal care checkup
  2. Using pregnancy test kits for early detection of pregnancy
  3. Providing information on nutrition and immunization
  4. Conducting the delivery of the baby

Select the correct answer using the codes given below:

A. 1, 2 and 3 only

B. 2 and 4 Only

C. 1 and 3 only

D. 1, 2, 3 & 4

Answer: A

Explanation

ASHA workers (Accredited Social Health Activists) play a vital role in the National Rural Health Mission (NRHM) by acting as a bridge between the community and healthcare services.

Correct options

  • Accompanying women to the health facility for antenatal care checkups ASHA workers provide support and encouragement to pregnant women, ensuring they attend essential checkups and access healthcare services.
  • Providing information on nutrition and immunization Educating families about proper nutrition and the importance of immunization for children is a key responsibility of ASHA workers.
  • Using pregnancy test kits for early detection of pregnancy While not always the case, some ASHA workers might be trained and equipped to use pregnancy test kits for basic health screening.

Incorrect option Conducting the delivery of the baby Delivering babies is a task typically performed by skilled medical professionals like doctors or midwives at healthcare facilities. While ASHA workers might play a supportive role during pregnancy, childbirth is not within their scope of practice.

Therefore, the correct answer is a combination of 1, 2, and 3.


QUESTION 24

HardArt & CulturePrelims 2012

With reference to Dhrupad, one of the major traditions of India that has been kept alive for centuries, which of the following statements are correct?

  1. Dhrupad originated and developed in the Rajput kingdoms during the Mughal period.
  2. Dhrupad is primarily devotional and spiritual music.
  3. Dhrupad Alap uses Sanskrit syllables from Mantras.

Select the correct answer using the codes given below:

A. 1 and 2 only

B. 2 and 3 only

C. 1, 2 and 3

D. None of the above is correct

Answer: B

Explanation

Dhrupad is the most ancient style of Hindustani classical music that has survived until today in its original form. The Dhrupad was initially mentioned in Natyashastra, in the ancient period. The Dhrupad tradition is a major tradition of Indian culture. Hence, statement 1 is incorrect.

The nature of Dhrupad music is spiritual. Seeking not to entertain, but to induce feelings of peace and contemplation in the listener. The word Dhrupad is derived from DHRUVA the steadfast evening star that moves through our galaxy and PADA meaning poetry. It is a form of devotional music that traces its origin to the ancient text of Sama Veda. The SAM VEDA was chanted with the help of melody and rhythm called Samgana. Gradually this developed into other vocal styles called Chhanda and Prabandha with the introduction of verse and meter. The fusion of these two elements led to the emergence of Dhrupad. Therefore, statements 2 and 3 are correct.


QUESTION 25

MediumSocial Issues & SchemesPrelims 2012

How does the National Rural Livelihood Mission seek to improve livelihood options of rural poor?

  1. By setting up a large number of new manufacturing industries and agri-business centres in rural areas
  2. By strengthening ‘self-help groups’ and providing skill development
  3. By supplying seeds, fertilizers, diesel pump-sets and micro-irrigation equipment free of cost to farmers

Select the correct answer using the codes given below:

A. 1 & 2

B. 2 Only

C. 1 & 3 Only

D. 1, 2 & 3

Answer: B

Explanation

The National Rural Livelihood Mission (NRLM) aims to improve the livelihood options of the rural poor in India.

It does not focus on setting up new manufacturing industries or agribusiness centres in rural areas as mentioned in option 1. Instead, the mission focuses on strengthening "self-help groups" (SHGs) and providing skill development to help rural households access financial and other resources.

This is aimed at improving the livelihoods of the rural poor by promoting sustainable livelihood opportunities through access to financial resources, technical knowledge, and market linkages. Option 2 correctly mentions this aspect.

Option 3 mentions the provision of inputs like seeds, fertilizers, diesel pump-sets, and micro-irrigation equipment, but it is not provided free of cost. The mission promotes their access and availability to the rural poor through credit linkages and financial inclusion.

Therefore, the correct answer is option 2 only.


QUESTION 26

HardModern HistoryPrelims 2012

Consider the following :

  1. Assessment of land revenue on the basis of nature of the soil and the quality of crops
  2. Use of mobile cannons in warfare
  3. Cultivation of tobacco and red chillies

Which of the above was/were introduced into India by the English?

A. 1 only

B. 1 and 2

C. 2 and 3

D. None

Answer: D

Explanation

Raja Todarmal had introduced the assessment of land revenue on the basis of nature of the soil and the quality of crops, as Akbar?s able minister.

Akbar?s grandfather Babur had already done conquest Delhi through his brilliant use of mobile light canon, centuries before British.

Red chillies and tobacco were grown in India before the arrival of the British.


QUESTION 27

HardAncient HistoryPrelims 2012

With reference to the guilds (Shreni) of ancient India that played a very important role in the country’s economy, which of the following statements is /are correct?

  1. Every guild was registered with the central authority of the State and the king was the chief administrative authority on them.
  2. The wages, rules of work, standards and prices were fixed by the guild.
  3. The guild had judicial powers over its own members.

Select the correct answer using the codes given below:

A. 1 and 2 only

B. 3 only

C. 2 and 3 only

D. 1, 2 and 3

Answer: C

Explanation

While guilds were indeed important economic entities in ancient India, they were not necessarily registered with the central authority of the state, nor was the king the chief administrative authority over them. Guilds operated largely autonomously and were governed by their own rules and regulations, although they often interacted with local authorities for various purposes. Hence, statement 1 is incorrect.

Guilds played a significant role in regulating various aspects of economic activities, including setting wages, standards, and prices for goods and services produced by their members. They helped maintain quality control and standardized practices within their respective trades. Hence, statement 2 is correct.

Guilds might have had some internal mechanisms for resolving disputes among their members, possibly involving arbitration or mediation. Thus, statement 3 is also correct.


QUESTION 28

EasyArt & CulturePrelims 2012

With reference to the history of ancient India, which of the following was/were common to both Buddhism and Jainism?

  1. Avoidance of extremities of penance and enjoyment
  2. Indifference to the authority of the Vedas
  3. Denial of the efficacy of rituals

Select the correct answer using the codes given below:

A. 1 only

B. 2 and 3 only

C. 1 and 3 only

D. 1, 2 and 3

Answer: B

Explanation

Buddhism advocated the middle path i.e. avoidance of extremities of penance and enjoyment. On the other hand, Jainism advocated extreme penance and asceticism. Hence, statement 1 is incorrect.

Both Buddhism and Jainism rejected the authority of the Vedas, the sacred scriptures of Hinduism. They did not consider the Vedas as the ultimate source of religious authority and guidance. Denial of the efficacy of rituals. Thus, statement 2 is correct.

Both Buddhism and Jainism emphasized inner spiritual development and moral conduct over external rituals and sacrifices. They taught that liberation (moksha) could be achieved through the right understanding, ethical behaviour, and mental discipline rather than ritualistic practices. Thus, statement 3 is also correct.


QUESTION 29

EasyAncient HistoryPrelims 2012

The religion of early Vedic Aryans was primarily of -

A. bhakti

B. image worship and Yajnas

C. worship of nature and Yajnas

D. worship of nature and Bhakti

Answer: C

Explanation

The religion of early Vedic Aryans was primarily worship of nature and Yajnas.

Focus on Nature The Rig Veda, a key text of early Vedic Aryans, features numerous hymns dedicated to natural elements like the sun, sky, rivers, and fire. These elements were personified as deities and worshipped for their life-sustaining power.

Yajnas (Sacrifices) Ritualistic sacrifices called Yajnas were a central aspect of Vedic religion. These elaborate ceremonies involved offerings to the gods, chants, and prayers seeking their favour and blessings.


QUESTION 30

EasyIndian PolityPrelims 2012

Which of the following is/are among the Fundamental Duties of citizens laid down in the Indian Constitution?

  1. To preserve the rich heritage of our composite culture
  2. To protect the weaker sections from social injustice
  3. To develop the scientific temper and spirit of inquiry
  4. To strive towards excellence in all spheres of individual and collective activity

Select the correct answer using the codes given below:

A. 1 and 2 only

B. 2 only

C. 1, 3 and 4 only

D. 1, 2, 3 and 4

Answer: C

Explanation

The following of the listed Fundamental Duties are enshrined in the Indian Constitution

  • To preserve the rich heritage of our composite culture
  • To develop the scientific temper and spirit of inquiry
  • To strive towards excellence in all spheres of individual and collective activity

These are all part of the 11 Fundamental Duties added to the Constitution.

While protecting the weaker sections from social injustice is a noble cause, it is not explicitly listed as a Fundamental Duty.


QUESTION 31

MediumEnvironment & EcologyPrelims 2012

Consider the following kinds of organisms :

  1. Bat
  2. Bee
  3. Bird

Which of the above is/are pollinating agent/agents?

A. 1 and 2 only

B. 2 only

C. 1 and 3 only

D. 1, 2 and 3

Answer: D

Explanation

Pollination is the transfer of pollen from the male parts of a flower to the female parts of a flower of the same species, which results in fertilization and the production of seeds.

Bats are known to be pollinators, especially of tropical and desert plants. When they feed on the nectar of these plants, pollen sticks to their bodies and is transferred to other flowers as the bat moves around.

Bees are perhaps the most well-known pollinators. They collect nectar and pollen for food, and in the process, they transfer pollen from the male anthers of a flower to the female stigma.

Certain birds, like hummingbirds, also play a role in pollination. They feed on the nectar of certain flowers, and like bees and bats, pollen sticks to their bodies and is transferred to other flowers.

Therefore, all three organisms listed - bats, bees, and birds - are pollinating agents.


QUESTION 32

EasyIndian PolityPrelims 2012

The distribution of powers between the Centre and the States in the Indian Constitution is based on the scheme provided in the -

A. Morley-Minto Reforms, 1909

B. Montagu-Chelmsford Act, 1919

C. Government of India Act, 1935

D. Indian Independence Act, 1947

Answer: C

Explanation

The provisions of the Government of India Act 1935, though never implemented fully, had a great impact on the Constitution of India.

The act had the provision of the division of powers into three lists - Federal, Provincial and Concurrent which inspired the current scheme of distribution of powers between the Centre and the States in Union, State and Concurrent List.


QUESTION 33

MediumEconomyPrelims 2012

Consider the following statements: The price of any currency in the international market is decided by the

  1. World Bank
  2. demand for goods/services provided by the country concerned
  3. stability of the government of the concerned country
  4. economic potential of the country in question

Which of the statements given above are correct?

A. 1, 2, 3 and 4

B. 2 and 3 only

C. 3 and 4 only

D. 1 and 4 only

Answer: B

Explanation

The price of any currency in the international market is primarily determined by the demand for goods and services provided by the country. This is because if a country's goods and services are in high demand globally, then the demand for its currency will also increase, leading to an increase in its value.

The stability of the government of the concerned country also plays a role as it affects investor confidence. A stable government is more likely to have sound economic policies, which can lead to a stronger currency.

The World Bank does not decide the price of a currency in the international market. The economic potential of a country can influence the demand for its goods and services, but it does not directly decide the price of the currency.


QUESTION 34

MediumEconomyPrelims 2012

What is/are the recent policy initiative(s) of Government of India to promote the growth of the manufacturing sector?

  1. Setting up of National Investment and Manufacturing Zones
  2. Providing the benefit of ‘single window clearance’
  3. Establishing the Technology Acquisition and Development Fun

Select the correct answer using the codes given below:

A. 1 Only

B. 2 and 3 Only

C. 1 and 3 Only

D. 1, 2 and 3

Answer: D

Explanation

The Government of India has taken several initiatives to promote the growth of the manufacturing sector.

These include the setting up of National Investment and Manufacturing Zones, which are designed to promote investment and boost manufacturing.

The government has also implemented a 'single window clearance' system to streamline the process of obtaining necessary approvals and clearances for businesses.

Additionally, the Technology Acquisition and Development Fund has been established to facilitate the acquisition of clean, green and energy-efficient technologies.

Therefore, all three statements are correct.


QUESTION 35

EasyPhysical GeographyPrelims 2012

A person stood alone in a desert on a dark night and wanted to reach his village which was situated 5 km east of the point where he was standing. He had no instruments to find the direction but he located the polestar. The most convenient way now to reach his village is to walk in the:

A. direction facing the polestar

B. a direction opposite to the polestar

C. direction keeping the polestar to his left

D. direction keeping the polestar to his right

Answer: C

Explanation

The pole star, also known as Polaris, always lies in the northern direction. If the person is standing in the desert and wants to go east, he should keep the pole star to his left. This is because when we face towards the east, the north is on our left.

Therefore, the person should walk in the direction keeping the polestar to his left.


QUESTION 36

MediumPhysical GeographyPrelims 2012

Normally, the temperature decreases with the increase in height from the Earth’s surface, because

  1. the atmosphere can be heated upwards only from the Earth’s surface
  2. there is more moisture in the upper atmosphere
  3. the air is less dense in the upper atmosphere

Select the correct answer using the codes given below:

A. 1 only

B. 2 and 3 only

C. 1 and 3 only

D. 1, 2 and 3

Answer: C

Explanation

The temperature decreases with the increase in height from the Earth's surface due to several reasons.

The Earth's surface absorbs heat from the Sun and then radiates it back into the atmosphere. The lower layers of the atmosphere are thus warmer because they are closer to the heated surface of the Earth. Hence, statement 1 is correct.

There is less moisture in the upper atmosphere. The amount of water vapour decreases with altitude. The majority of the Earth's atmospheric moisture is in the lower atmosphere. Hence, statement 2 is incorrect.

As we move higher from the Earth's surface, the air becomes less dense. This is because the gravitational pull, which pulls everything towards the Earth, decreases with height. Therefore, the air molecules are more spread out and less dense in the upper atmosphere. Hence, statement 3 is correct.


QUESTION 37

MediumModern HistoryPrelims 2012

During the Indian freedom struggle, the National Social Conference was formed. What was the reason for its formation?

A. Different social reform groups or organizations of Bengal region united to form a single body to discuss the issues of larger interest and to prepare appropriate petitions/representations to the government.

B. Indian National Congress did not want to include social reforms in its deliberations and decided to form a separate body for such a purpose

C. Behramji Malabari and M. G. Ranade decided to bring together all the social reform groups of the country under one organization

D. None of the statements a, b and c given above is correct in this context

Answer: B

Explanation

Indian National Congress did not want to include social reforms in its deliberations and decided to form a separate body for such a purpose. National Social Conference was founded by M.G. Ranade and Raghunath Rao. It was virtually the social reform cell of the Indian National Congress.

The Conference met annually as a subsidiary convention of the Indian National Congress, at the same venue, and focused attention on social reform.

The Conference advocated inter-caste marriages and opposed kulinism and polygamy .


QUESTION 38

HardEnvironment & EcologyPrelims 2012

Government of India encourages the cultivation of ‘sea buckthorn’. What is the importance of this plant?

  1. It helps in controlling soil erosion and preventing desertification.
  2. It is a rich source of biodiesel.
  3. It has nutritional value and is well-adapted to live in cold areas of high altitudes.
  4. Its timber is of great commercial value.

A. 1 only

B. 2, 3 and 4 only

C. 1 and 3 only

D. 1, 2, 3 and 4

Answer: C

Explanation

Sea buckthorn is a plant that is known for its multiple benefits.

It is indeed known for its ability to control soil erosion and prevent desertification. This is because it is a soil-binding plant that prevents soil erosion and checks siltation in rivers.

Sea buckthorn is not primarily known as a source of biodiesel. While its berries can be used for various purposes, including medicinal and cosmetic products, it is not commonly cultivated for biodiesel production.

It is also known for its nutritional value and its ability to adapt to cold areas of high altitudes. Its fruit and leaves are rich in vitamins, carotenoids, and omega fatty acids. It is found in the Himalayan region, generally in dry areas such as the cold deserts of Ladakh and Spiti.

Sea buckthorn timber is not of great commercial value. It is primarily cultivated for its berries and leaves, which have various applications in food, medicine, and cosmetics.


QUESTION 39

HardScience & TechnologyPrelims 2012

Lead, ingested or inhaled is a health hazard. After the addition of lead to petrol has been banned, what still are the sources of lead poisoning?

  1. Smelting units
  2. Pens and pencils
  3. Paints
  4. Hair oils and cosmetics

A. 1,2 and 3 only

B. 1 and 3 only

C. 2 and 4 only

D. 1,2,3 and 4

Answer: B

Explanation

Lead is a toxic metal that can cause serious health problems if ingested or inhaled. It is found in various sources, even after its addition to petrol has been banned.

Smelting units are one of the significant sources of lead exposure. During the smelting process, lead is released into the environment, which can be inhaled or ingested.

Paints, especially those used in older houses, can contain lead. When the paint peels or cracks, lead dust can be released into the environment.

However, pens and pencils, as well as hair oils and cosmetics, are not typically sources of lead poisoning.

Therefore, the correct answer includes smelting units and paints.


QUESTION 40

HardEnvironment & EcologyPrelims 2012

The acidification of oceans is increasing. Why is this phenomenon a cause of concern?

  1. The growth and survival of calcareous phytoplankton will be adversely affected.
  2. The growth and survival of coral reefs will be adversely affected.
  3. The survival of some animals that have phytoplanktonic larvae will be adversely affected.
  4. The cloud seeding and formation of clouds will be adversely affected.

A. 1, 2, 3 and 4

B. 2 only

C. 1 and 3 only

D. 1, 2 and 3 only

Answer: D

Explanation

The acidification of oceans can adversely affect the growth and survival of calcareous phytoplankton because their calcium carbonate shells may dissolve in more acidic waters.

The growth and survival of coral reefs are indeed adversely affected by ocean acidification. Corals build their skeletons using calcium carbonate, which can dissolve in more acidic conditions, leading to coral bleaching and reduced coral growth rates.

The survival of some animals that have phytoplanktonic larvae can be adversely affected by ocean acidification. These larvae may struggle to form their calcium carbonate shells in more acidic waters, leading to decreased survival rates.

The adverse effect of ocean acidification on cloud seeding and cloud formation is not directly linked. Ocean acidification primarily affects marine ecosystems, particularly organisms with calcium carbonate shells, and does not directly impact cloud formation processes. Therefore, statement 4 is not correct.


QUESTION 41

MediumEnvironment & EcologyPrelims 2012

If the National Water Mission is properly and completely implemented, how will it impact the country?

  1. Part of the water needs of urban areas will be met through recycling of wastewater.
  2. The water requirements of coastal cities with inadequate alternative sources of water will be met by adopting appropriate technologies that allow for the use of ocean water.
  3. All the rivers of Himalayan origin will be linked to the rivers of peninsular India.
  4. The expenses incurred by farmers for digging bore-wells and for installing motors and pump sets to draw groundwater will be completely reimbursed by the Government.

Select the correct answer using the codes given below:

A. 1 only

B. 1 and 2 only

C. 3 and 4 only

D. 1, 2, 3 and 4

Answer: B

Explanation

National Water Mission is one of the missions established by Government of India to address the impact of climate change on water resources under The National Action Plan on Climate Change (NAPCC). The National Water Mission aims at conservation of water, minimizing wastage and ensuring its more equitable distribution.

It does include plans to meet part of the water needs of urban areas through recycling of wastewater and to meet the water requirements of coastal cities with inadequate alternative sources of water by adopting appropriate technologies that allow for the use of ocean water.

However, the mission does not include linking all the rivers of Himalayan origin to the rivers of peninsular India.

Also, the mission does not include any provision for the reimbursement of expenses incurred by farmers for digging bore-wells and for installing motors and pump sets to draw groundwater. The mission's focus is more on promoting efficient use of water and conservation, rather than on subsidising water extraction.

Therefore, only statements 1 and 2 are correct in the context of the National Water Mission.


QUESTION 42

MediumEconomyPrelims 2012

The basic aim of the Lead Bank Scheme is that:

A. big banks should try to open offices in each district

B. there should be stiff competition among the various nationalized banks

C. individual banks should adopt particular districts for intensive development

D. all the banks should make intensive efforts to mobilize deposits

Answer: C

Explanation

The Lead Bank Scheme was introduced by the Reserve Bank of India in 1969 with the objective of ensuring adequate banking and credit facilities in rural areas.

Under this scheme, individual banks are assigned to particular districts where they are expected to promote banking activities and credit growth.

Therefore, the basic aim of the Lead Bank Scheme is that individual banks should adopt particular districts for intensive development.


QUESTION 43

EasyIndian PolityPrelims 2012

A deadlock between the LokSabha and the RajyaSabha calls for a joint sitting of the Parliament during the passage of -

  1. Ordinary Legislation
  2. Money Bill
  3. Constitution Amendment Bill

Select the correct answer using the codes given below:

A. 1 only

B. 2 and 3 only

C. 1 and 3 only

D. 1, 2 and 3

Answer: A

Explanation

A joint session of parliament can be called under Article 108 of the constitution if the Rajya Sabha fails to adopt a bill passed by the Lok Sabha. A joint sitting of Parliament is a mechanism to resolve a deadlock between the two houses.

Not all bills can be referred to a joint sitting of Parliament. There are two exceptions.

Money bills, which deal with taxation and spending, can only be originated in the Lok Sabha and the Rajya Sabha has limited powers to suggest amendments. Disagreements are usually resolved through conferences between the houses, not a joint sitting.

Constitutional amendment bills require a special majority in both houses, A joint sitting cannot be called. Therefore, a joint sitting is only used for ordinary bills, which are any bills that don't fall under the category of money bills or constitutional amendment bills.


QUESTION 44

EasyEconomyPrelims 2012

Consider the following specific stages of demographic transition associated with economic development:

  1. Low birth rate with a low death rate
  2. High birth rate with a high death rate
  3. High birth rate with a low death rate

Select the correct order of the above stages using the codes given below:

A. 1, 2, 3

B. 2, 1, 3

C. 2, 3, 1

D. 3, 2, 1

Answer: C

Explanation

The demographic transition model describes the transition from high birth and death rates to low birth and death rates as a country develops from a pre-industrial to an industrialised economic system.

High birth rate with a high death rate is the first stage of the demographic transition model. In this stage, both birth and death rates are high, leading to a low net population growth.

High birth rate with a low death rate is the second stage of the demographic transition model. In this stage, improvements in healthcare, sanitation, and food supply lead to a decrease in the death rate while the birth rate remains high, leading to rapid population growth.

Low birth rate with a low death rate is the final stage of the demographic transition model. In this stage, birth rates fall due to changes in social behavior and improvements in contraception, leading to a stable population.


QUESTION 45

MediumScience & TechnologyPrelims 2012

What is the role of ultraviolet (UV) radiation in the water purification systems?

  1. It inactivates /kills the harmful microorganisms in water.
  2. It removes all the undesirable odours from the water.
  3. It quickens the sedimentation of solid particles, removes turbidity and improves the clarity of the water.

A. 1 only

B. 2 and 3 only

C. 1 and 3 only

D. 1, 2 and 3

Answer: A

Explanation

UV radiation can effectively inactivate or kill various harmful microorganisms, such as bacteria, viruses, and protozoa, by damaging their genetic material. This makes it an effective method for disinfecting water and eliminating waterborne pathogens.

UV radiation does not directly remove undesirable odours from water. Odour removal from water typically involves other treatment processes, such as activated carbon filtration, aeration, or chemical treatment.

UV radiation does not have a direct effect on the sedimentation of solid particles, removal of turbidity, or improving the clarity of water. These aspects are typically addressed by other physical and chemical water treatment processes, such as coagulation, flocculation, and filtration.


QUESTION 46

MediumModern HistoryPrelims 2012

Which of the following statements is/are correct regarding Brahmo Samaj?

  1. It opposed idolatry.
  2. It denied the need for a priestly class for interpreting the religious texts.
  3. It popularized the doctrine that the Vedas are infallible.

Select the correct answer using the codes given below:

A. 1 only

B. 1 and 2 only

C. 3 only

D. 1, 2 and 3

Answer: B

Explanation

Brahmo Samaj was a socio-religious reform movement in India, which aimed at purifying Hinduism and promoting monotheism. It was founded by Raja Ram Mohan Roy.

Statement 1 is correct. Brahmo Samaj opposed idolatry and promoted monotheism, believing in a single, formless, and infinite God.

Statement 2 is also correct. Brahmo Samaj denied the need for a priestly class for interpreting religious texts. It advocated for the individual interpretation of religious texts, emphasizing personal understanding over ritualistic observance.

However, statement 3 is incorrect. Brahmo Samaj did not popularize the doctrine that the Vedas are infallible. In fact, it believed in the infallibility of reason and conscience, not of any particular religious text.

Therefore, the correct answer is (B) 1 and 2 only.


QUESTION 47

MediumWorld GeographyPrelims 2012

Which one of the following is the characteristic climate of the Tropical Savannah Region?

A. Rainfall throughout the year

B. Rainfall in winter only

C. An extremely short dry season

D. A definite dry and wet season

Answer: D

Explanation

The Tropical Savannah Region is characterised by a distinct wet and dry season.

This region experiences a hot climate as it lies within the tropical latitudes. The wet season is usually warmer with temperatures ranging from 25 to 30 degrees Celsius, while the dry season is slightly cooler. The rainfall is not evenly distributed throughout the year, with a definite period of heavy rainfall (wet season) followed by a period of little to no rainfall (dry season).


QUESTION 48

MediumIndian PolityPrelims 2012

Which of the following is /are among the noticeable features of the recommendations of the Thirteenth Finance Commission?

  1. A design for the Goods and Services Tax, and a compensation package linked to adherence to the proposed design
  2. A design for the creation of lakhs of jobs in the next ten years in consonance with India’s demographic dividend
  3. Devolution of a specified share of central taxes to local bodies as grants

Select the correct answer using the codes given below:

A. 1 only

B. 2 and 3 only

C. 1 and 3 only

D. 1, 2 and 3

Answer: C

Explanation

The Thirteenth Finance Commission was tasked with making recommendations on the distribution of tax revenues between the Union and the States for the five years from 2010 to 2015.

  1. The Thirteenth Finance Commission did make recommendations regarding the design and implementation of the Goods and Services Tax (GST) and suggested a compensation package for states to offset potential revenue losses from the transition to the GST system.

  2. The Finance Commission is not responsible for job creation. Its mandate is to define the financial relations between the central government and the individual state governments.

  3. One of the key functions of the Finance Commission is to recommend the principles governing the grants-in-aid to the states out of the Consolidated Fund of India. The Thirteenth Finance Commission also made recommendations for the devolution of a specified share of central taxes to local bodies.

Therefore, 1 and 3 are correct statements.


QUESTION 49

EasyEconomyPrelims 2012

Which of the following would include Foreign Direct Investment in India?

  1. Subsidiaries of companies in India
  2. Majority of foreign equity holding in Indian companies
  3. Companies exclusively financed by foreign companies
  4. Portfolio investment

Select the correct answer using the codes given below:

A. 1, 2, 3 and 4

B. 2 and 4 only

C. 1 and 3 only

D. 1, 2 and 3 only

Answer: D

Explanation

Foreign direct investment (FDI) is an investment made by a firm or individual in one country into business interests located in another country.

Foreign direct investments can be made in a variety of ways, including the opening of a subsidiary or associate company in a foreign country, acquiring a controlling interest in an existing foreign company, or by means of a merger or joint venture with a foreign company.

Foreign direct investments are distinguished from portfolio investments in which an investor merely purchases equities of foreign-based companies.

Therefore, the correct answer includes the first three options but not the fourth.


QUESTION 50

EasyEnvironment & EcologyPrelims 2012

Which of the following can be threats to the biodiversity of a geographical area?

  1. Global warming
  2. Fragmentation of habitat
  3. Invasion of alien species
  4. Promotion of vegetarianism

A. 1, 2 and 3 only

B. 2 and 3 only

C. 1 and 4 only

D. 1, 2, 3 and 4

Answer: A

Explanation

Global warming, fragmentation of habitat, and invasion of alien species are all threats to the biodiversity of a geographical area.

Global warming increases the overall temperature of the atmosphere, which can lead to the extinction of certain species that cannot adapt to the change in temperature.

Fragmentation of habitat refers to the division of large habitats into smaller ones. This can lead to a decrease in biodiversity as smaller, isolated habitats may not be able to support as many different species as a larger, connected habitat.

Invasion of alien species can also threaten biodiversity. When a new species is introduced to a habitat, it can outcompete native species for resources, leading to a decrease in biodiversity.

Promotion of vegetarianism, on the other hand, is not a threat to biodiversity. In fact, it can be argued that it helps biodiversity by reducing the demand for meat, which can lead to less habitat destruction for livestock farming.


QUESTION 51

MediumIndian PolityPrelims 2012

Which of the following are the methods of Parliamentary control over public finance in India?

  1. Placing Annual Financial Statement before the Parliament
  2. Withdrawal of money from Consolidated Fund of India only after passing the Appropriation Bill
  3. Provisions of supplementary grants and vote-on-account
  4. A periodic or at least a mid-year review of the programme of the Government against macroeconomic forecasts and expenditure by a Parliamentary Budget Office
  5. Introducing Finance Bill in the Parliament

Select the correct answer using the codes given below:

A. 1, 2, 3 and 5 only

B. 1, 2 and 4 only

C. 3, 4 and 5 only

D. 1, 2, 3, 4 and 5

Answer: A

Explanation

Placing Annual Financial Statement before the Parliament This ensures transparency and allows Parliament to analyze the government's proposed spending.

Withdrawal of money from Consolidated Fund of India only after passing the Appropriation Bill This grants Parliament control over the release of funds.

Provisions of supplementary grants and vote-on-account These mechanisms address unforeseen needs or temporary funding requirements, still requiring Parliamentary approval. Therefore, statements 1,2 and 3 are correct.

There is no parliamentary budget office to review programs of Government. Hence, statement 4 is wrong.

Parliament's approval of the Appropriation Bill and the Finance Bill together authorizes the government's spending plans and revenue-raising measures. Hence, statement 5 is correct.


QUESTION 52

HardIndian PolityPrelims 2012

In the areas covered under the Panchayat (Extension to the Scheduled Areas) Act, 1996, what is the role/power of Gram Sabha?

  1. Gram Sabha has the power to prevent alienation of land in the Scheduled Areas.
  2. Gram Sabha has the ownership of minor forest produce.
  3. Recommendation of Gram Sabha is required for granting prospecting licence or mining lease for any mineral in the Scheduled Areas.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

A. 1 Only

B. 1 and 2

C. 2 and 3 only

D. 1, 2 and 3 Only

Answer: D

Explanation

The Gram Sabha in the Panchayat Act was entrusted with wide-ranging powers starting from consultation on land acquisition to that of ownership over minor forest produces and leases minor minerals. Hence statement 2 is correct.

  • This particular act extends the provisions of Part IX to the Scheduled Areas of the country.

  • PESA brought powers further down to the Gram Sabha level.

  • PESA is a law enacted by the Government of India to cover the "Scheduled Areas", which are not covered in the 73rd Constitutional Amendment. Hence statement 1 is correct.

  • PESA became operative at a time when the Indian economy was opening up all its frontiers to foreign direct investment.

  • Recommendation of Gram Sabha or Panchayat at the appropriate level shall be mandatory for grant of prospecting license or mining lease for minor minerals in the scheduled area. Hence statement 3 is also correct.


QUESTION 53

EasyScience & TechnologyPrelims 2012

Consider the following kinds of organisms :

  1. Bacteria
  2. Fungi
  3. Flowering plants

Some species of which of the above kinds of organisms are employed as biopesticides?

A. 1 only

B. 2 and 3 only

C. 1 and 3 only

D. 1, 2 and 3

Answer: D

Explanation

Biopesticides are certain types of pesticides derived from natural materials such as animals, plants, bacteria, and certain minerals. Bacteria, fungi, and flowering plants all have species that are used as biopesticides.

Bacteria like Bacillus thuringiensis produce proteins that are toxic to certain insects. Fungi can also be used as biopesticides as they can infect and kill insects. Flowering plants can produce compounds that are toxic to certain pests and can be used as biopesticides.


QUESTION 54

MediumIndian PolityPrelims 2012

Consider the following provisions under the Directive Principles of State Policy as enshrined in the Constitution of India :

  1. Securing for citizens of India a uniform civil code
  2. Organizing village Panchayats
  3. Promoting cottage industries in rural areas
  4. Securing for all the workers reasonable leisure and cultural opportunities

Which of the above are the Gandhian Principles that are reflected in the Directive Principles of State Policy?

A. 1, 2 and 4 only

B. 2 and 3 only

C. 1, 3 and 4 only

D. 1, 2, 3 and 4

Answer: B

Explanation

The following Gandhian principles are reflected in the Directive Principles of State Policy (DPSP) listed

Organizing village Panchayats Mahatma Gandhi advocated for decentralized governance and empowering villages through strong Panchayati Raj institutions. Promoting cottage industries in rural areas Gandhi emphasized self-sufficiency and upliftment of rural communities. Promoting cottage industries aligned with his vision for village-based economic development.

While the other options are liberal DPSP

  • The uniform civil code is not directly linked to Gandhian principles.
  • Securing leisure and cultural opportunities is a broader social welfare principle not uniquely Gandhian.

Therefore, the correct answer is 2 and 3 only.


QUESTION 55

HardSocial Issues & SchemesPrelims 2012

How do District Rural Development Agencies (DRDAs) help in the reduction of rural poverty in India?

  1. DRDAs act as Panchayati Raj Institutions in certain specified backward regions of the country.
  2. DRDAs undertake the area-specific scientific study of the causes of poverty and malnutrition and prepare detailed remedial measures.
  3. DRDAs secure inter-sectoral and inter-departmental coordination and cooperation for effective implementation of anti-poverty programmes.
  4. DRDAs watch over and ensure effective utilization of the funds intended for anti-poverty programmes.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

A. 1, 2 & 3 Only

B. 3 & 4 Only

C. 4 Only

D. 1, 2, 3 & 4

Answer: B

Explanation

The DRDAs take the necessary step to improve the awareness regarding rural development and poverty alleviation, particularly among the rural poor. The DRDAs strive to promote transparency in the implementation of different anti-poverty programmes.

They have a role ofcoordinator among departments and as a supervisor of fund use rather than an executive of implementation body.

Therefore only Statements 3 and 4 are correct.


QUESTION 56

MediumIndian PolityPrelims 2012

Regarding the office of the Lok Sabha Speaker, consider the following statements:

  1. He/She holds the office during the pleasure of the President.
  2. He/She need not be a member of the House at the time of his/her election but has to become a member of the House within six months from the date of his/her election.
  3. If he/she intends to resign, the letter of his/her resignation has to be addressed to the Deputy Speaker.

Which of the statements given above is /are correct?

A. 1 and 2 only

B. 3 only

C. 1, 2 and 3

D. None

Answer: B

Explanation

The Speaker of the Lok Sabha does not hold office at the pleasure of the President. The Speaker remains in office until the immediate dissolution of the Lok Sabha.

The Speaker has to be a member of the House at the time of his/her election.

If the Speaker wishes to resign, the letter of resignation is indeed addressed to the Deputy Speaker.

Therefore, only 3 is the correct statement about the Speaker


QUESTION 57

MediumIndian PolityPrelims 2012

Consider the following statements:

  1. Union Territories are not represented in the Rajya Sabha.
  2. It is within the purview of the Chief Election Commissioner to adjudicate the election disputes.
  3. According to the Constitution of India, the Parliament consists of the Lok Sabha and the Rajya Sabha only.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

A. 1 only

B. 2 and 3

C. 1 and 3

D. None

Answer: D

Explanation

Union Territories of Delhi, Puducherry, etc. are represented in Rajya Sabha. So, Statement 1 is incorrect.

Election disputes are decided by High courts & Supreme courts. So, Statement 2 is incorrect.

The President is also part of Parliament as he has to sign bills for them to become Acts. So, Statement 3 is incorrect. Also it is up to court to settle disputes in most of the cases.

So the answer is none, that is option D.


QUESTION 58

HardArt & CulturePrelims 2012

Lord Buddha’s image is sometimes shown with the hand gesture called ‘Bhumisparsha Mudra’. It symbolizes

A. Buddha’s calling of the Earth to watch over Mara and to prevent Mara from disturbing his meditation

B. Buddha’s calling of the Earth to witness his purity and chastity despite the temptations of Mara

C. Buddha’s reminder to his followers that they all arise from the Earth and finally dissolve into the Earth, and thus this life is transitory

D. Both the statements a and b are correct in this context

Answer: B

Explanation

Lord Buddha's 'Bhumisparsha Mudra' symbolises Buddha's calling of the Earth to witness his purity and chastity despite the temptations of Mara.

The Bhumisparsha Mudra is a powerful image that captures a pivotal moment in the Buddha's journey to enlightenment, representing his triumph over temptation, his connection to the earth, and his status as a fully awakened being.


QUESTION 59

MediumEnvironment & EcologyPrelims 2012

The increasing amount of carbon dioxide in the air is slowly raising the temperature of the atmosphere because it absorbs -

A. the water vapour of the air and retains its heat

B. the ultraviolet part of the solar radiation

C. all the solar radiations

D. Infrared part of solar radiation

Answer: D

Explanation

Carbon dioxide and other greenhouse gases in the atmosphere absorb and re-emit infrared radiation (heat) emitted by the Earth's surface. This process traps heat in the atmosphere, leading to the greenhouse effect and contributing to the warming of the Earth's surface temperature.

Therefore, increasing levels of carbon dioxide result in the absorption of the infrared part of solar radiation, leading to the gradual warming of the atmosphere.


QUESTION 60

MediumEnvironment & EcologyPrelims 2012

Which one of the following groups of animals belongs to the category of endangered species?

A. Great Indian Bustard, Musk Deer, Red Panda and Asiatic Wild Ass

B. Kashmir Stag, Cheetal, Blue Bull and Great Indian Bustard

C. Snow Leopard, Swamp Deer, Rhesus Monkey and Saras Crane

D. Lion-tailed Macaque, Blue Bull, Hanuman Langur and Cheetal

Answer: A

Explanation

The correct answer is (a) Great Indian Bustard, Musk Deer, Red Panda, and Asiatic Wild Ass.

The Great Indian Bustard is a large bird found in India and Pakistan that is critically endangered, with only a few hundred individuals remaining in the wild.

The musk deer is a small deer found in the Himalayan region that is also critically endangered, due to habitat loss and poaching.

The red panda is a small carnivorous mammal found in the Himalayan region that is endangered due to habitat loss and poaching.

The Asiatic wild ass, also known as the onager, is a species of horse found in parts of Asia that is endangered due to habitat loss and poaching.


QUESTION 61

HardEnvironment & EcologyPrelims 2012

With reference to the wetlands of India, consider the following statements :

  1. The country’s total geographical area under the category of wetlands is recorded more in Gujarat as compared to other States.
  2. In India, the total geographical area of coastal wetlands is larger than that of wetlands.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

A. 1 only

B. 2 only

C. Both 1 and 2

D. Neither 1 nor 2

Answer: A

Explanation

The country's total geographical area under the category of wetlands is recorded more in Gujarat as compared to other states.

The area under inland wetlands accounts for 69%, coastal wetlands 27%, and other wetlands (smaller than 2.25 ha) 4%. So, the total geographical area of inland wetlands is larger than that of coastal wetlands.

So, only the first statement is correct.


QUESTION 62

HardEnvironment & EcologyPrelims 2012

Consider the following statements: Chlorofluorocarbons, known as ozone-depleting substances, are used

  1. in the production of plastic foams
  2. in the production of tubeless tyres
  3. in cleaning certain electronic components
  4. as pressurizing agents in aerosol cans

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

A. 1, 2 and 3 only

B. 4 only

C. 1, 3 and 4 only

D. 1, 2, 3 and 4

Answer: C

Explanation

Chlorofluorocarbons (CFCs) are synthetic compounds that contain chlorine, fluorine, and carbon. They have been a significant environmental concern due to their role in ozone depletion.

Chlorofluorocarbons (CFCs) were commonly used in the production of plastic foams, such as those used in insulation and packaging materials.

CFCs are not typically used in the production of tubeless tires. Instead, they are often used in the vulcanization process of rubber, which gives tires their durability.

CFCs were used in cleaning certain electronic components due to their solvent properties. However, their use in this application has been significantly reduced due to environmental concerns.

CFCs were commonly used as pressurizing agents in aerosol cans, such as those used for hairspray, deodorant, and household cleaning products.

So, statements 1, 3 and 4 are correct.


QUESTION 63

EasyModern HistoryPrelims 2012

The Lahore Session of the Indian National Congress (1929) is very important in history, because

  1. the Congress passed a resolution demanding complete independence
  2. the rift between the extremists and moderates was resolved in that session
  3. a resolution was passed rejecting the two-nation theory in that session

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

A. 1 only

B. 2 and 3

C. 1 and 3

D. None of the above

Answer: A

Explanation

The 1929 Lahore session under the presidency of Jawaharlal Nehru holds special significance as in this session Purna Swaraj (complete independence) was declared as the goal of the INC. 26 January 1930 was declared as Purna Swaraj Diwas . Therefore, statement 1 is correct.

Other mentioned events did not occur during the Lahore Session of 1929. Therefore, statements 2 and 3 are incorrect.


QUESTION 64

MediumEconomyPrelims 2012

The balance of payments of a country is a systematic record of

A. all import and transactions of a country during a given period normally a year

B. goods exported from a country during a year

C. the economic transaction between the government of one country to another

D. capital movements from one country to another

Answer: A

Explanation

The balance of payments of a country is a systematic record of all economic transactions between residents of a country and the rest of the world during a specific period, typically a quarter or a year. It tracks both the inflow and outflow of money.

In essence, it's a way to measure a country's economic activity with foreign entities.


QUESTION 65

HardSocial Issues & SchemesPrelims 2012

Consider the following:

  1. Hotels and restaurants
  2. Motor transport undertakings
  3. Newspaper establishments
  4. Private medical institutions

The employees of which of the above can have the ‘Social Security’ coverage under “Employees’ State Insurance Scheme’?

A. Only 1, 2 & 3

B. 4 Only

C. 1, 3 & 4 Only

D. 1, 2, 3 & 4

Answer: D

Explanation

The Employees' State Insurance Act, of 1948 is social security legislation that provides for medical care and cash benefits in the contingencies of sickness, maternity, disablement, and death due to employment injury to workers

Coverage

  • The Act applies, in the first instance to non-seasonal factories employing 10 or more persons. The provisions of the Act are being extended area-wise by stages.
  • The Act contains an enabling provision under which the "appropriate government is empowered to extend the provisions of the Act to other classes of establishments - industrial, commercial, agricultural or otherwise.
  • Under these provisions most of the State Govts. have extended the provisions of the Act to new classes of establishments namely shops, hotels, restaurants, cinemas including preview theatres, road-motor transport undertakings, and newspaper establishments employing 20 or more coverable employees.

Hence, 1, 2, 3 and 4 all are correct.


QUESTION 66

MediumIndian GeographyPrelims 2012

A particular State in India has the following characteristics :

  1. It is located on the same latitude which passes through northern Rajasthan.
  2. It has over 80% of its area under forest cover.
  3. Over 12% of forest cover constitutes Protected Area Network in this State.

Which one among the following States has all the above characteristics?

A. Arunachal Pradesh

B. Assam

C. Himachal Pradesh

D. Uttarakhand

Answer: A

Explanation

Arunachal Pradesh

Latitude Arunachal Pradesh is located in the northeastern part of India, roughly on the same latitude as northern Rajasthan. Forest Cover Arunachal Pradesh boasts over 80% forest cover, one of the highest in the country. Protected Area Network A significant portion of Arunachal Pradesh's forest area falls under protected areas like national parks and wildlife sanctuaries. Estimates suggest over 12% of the state's forest cover is part of this network.


QUESTION 67

MediumModern HistoryPrelims 2012

With reference to Ryotwari Settlement, consider the statements :

  1. The rent was paid directly by the peasants to the Government.
  2. The Government gave Pattas to the Ryots.
  3. The lands were surveyed and assessed before being taxed.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

A. 1 Only

B. 1 and 2 Only

C. 1, 2 and 3

D. None

Answer: C

Explanation

The Ryotwari System was a land revenue system implemented by the British in India.

Under this system, the rent was indeed paid directly by the peasants to the government, which validates statement 1. The government also gave pattas or legal documents to the ryots (peasants) as a form of land ownership, which makes statement 2 correct. Lastly, the lands under this system were surveyed and assessed before being taxed, which confirms the accuracy of statement 3.

Therefore, all the three statements are correct.


QUESTION 68

MediumModern HistoryPrelims 2012

Which of the following parties were established by Dr B. R. Ambedkar?

  1. The Peasants and Workers Party of India
  2. All India Scheduled Castes Federation
  3. The Independent Labour Party

Select the correct answer using the codes given below:

A. 1 and 2 only

B. 2 and 3 only

C. 1 and 3 only

D. 1, 2 and 3

Answer: B

Explanation

The Peasants and Workers Party of India was founded in 1947. The party was founded in Maharashtra by Tulsidas Jadhav, Keshavrao Jedhe, and others.

All India Scheduled Castes Federation was founded by Dr. Ambedkar in 1942 to fight for the rights of the Dalit community . It was the successor organization of the Independent Labour Party led by Ambedkar.


QUESTION 69

EasyScience & TechnologyPrelims 2012

Graphene is frequently in the news recently. What is its importance?

  1. It is a two-dimensional material and has good electrical conductivity
  2. It is one of the thinnest but strongest materials tested so far
  3. It is entirely made of silicon and has high optical transparency
  4. It can be used as ‘conducting electrodes’ required for touch screens, LCDs and organic LEDs

A. 1 and 2

B. 3 and 4

C. 1, 2 and 4

D. 1, 2, 3 and 4

Answer: C

Explanation

Graphene is renowned for its excellent electrical conductivity, which stems from its two-dimensional, one-atom-thick structure.

Graphene is famously strong for its very thin structure, making it one of the strongest materials known.

Graphene is made entirely of carbon, arranged in a hexagonal lattice. While it does have high optical transparency, its composition is carbon, not silicon.

Its electrical conductivity, along with its optical transparency, makes graphene an excellent candidate for use in conducting electrodes for various display technologies.

So, statements 1, 2 and 4 are correct.


QUESTION 70

EasyModern HistoryPrelims 2012

Consider the following statements : The most effective contribution made by Dadabhai Naoroji to the cause of Indian National Movement was that he -

  1. Exposed the economic exploitation of India by the British
  2. Interpreted the ancient Indian texts and restored the self-confidence of Indians
  3. Stressed the need for eradication of all the social evils before anything else

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

A. 1 only

B. 2 and 3 only

C. 1 and 3 only

D. 1, 2 and 3

Answer: A

Explanation

Dadabhai Naoroji was credited with doing an economic analysis of British rule, which is considered as the biggest contribution of Moderates . He put forward the drain of wealth theory in which he stated that Britain was completely draining India. He mentioned this theory in his book ?Poverty and Un-British Rule in India?.

While Naoroji was a scholar, he is not particularly known for interpreting ancient Indian texts to restore the self-confidence of Indians. While Naoroji did advocate for social reform, he did not stress the need for eradication of all the social evils before anything else.


QUESTION 71

MediumEconomyPrelims 2012

Recently, there has been a concern over the short supply of a group of elements called ‘rare earth metals’. Why?

  1. China, which is the largest producer of these elements, has imposed some restrictions on their export
  2. Other than China, Australia, Canada and Chile, these elements are not found in any country
  3. Rare earth metals are essential for the manufacture of various kinds of electronic items and there is a growing demand for these elements

A. 1 only

B. 2 and 3

C. 1 and 3

D. 1,2,3

Answer: C

Explanation

China, which is the largest producer of rare earth metals, has indeed imposed restrictions on their export. This has raised concerns about the global supply chain for these essential elements, particularly in industries such as electronics, renewable energy, and defence.

Rare earth metals are found in various countries besides China. While China has a dominant position in rare earth production, other countries like Australia, Canada, the United States, and several others also have significant reserves and production capacities. Hence, statement 2 is incorrect.

Rare earth metals are indeed essential for the manufacture of various electronic items, renewable energy technologies, and defence applications. The growing demand for these elements, coupled with supply chain disruptions and geopolitical factors, has contributed to concerns about their availability in the global market.

So only statements 1 and 3 are correct.


QUESTION 72

MediumIndian GeographyPrelims 2012

Which of the following is the chief characteristic of ‘mixed farming’?

A. Cultivation of both cash crops and food crops

B. Cultivation of two or more crops in the same field

C. Rearing of animals and cultivation of crops together

D. None of the above

Answer: C

Explanation

Mixed farming is a type of agriculture which involves both crops and livestock. This is not to be confused with mixed cultivation, implying merely a series of different crops.

Mixed farming is essentially associated with densely populated, urbanized, and industrialized societies, dependent upon high incomes for the sale of its products and the manufacturing industry for the provision of its inputs.


QUESTION 73

EasyModern HistoryPrelims 2012

The Rowlatt Act aimed at:

A. compulsory economic support to war efforts

B. imprisonment without trial and summary procedures for trial

C. suppression of the Khilafat Movement

D. imposition of restrictions on freedom of the press

Answer: B

Explanation

The Rowlatt Act, officially known as the Anarchical and Revolutionary Crimes Act of 1919, was a legislative measure passed by the British government in India. The primary aim of this act was to curb the rising nationalist sentiment in the country by implementing stringent measures.

One of the key features of this act was that it authorized the government to imprison any person suspected of terrorist activities without a trial. This provision allowed for indefinite detention and imprisonment without any need for a trial or conviction in a court of law.

Therefore, the Rowlatt Act primarily aimed at imprisonment without trial and summary procedures for trial.


QUESTION 74

MediumEconomyPrelims 2012

Which of the following can be said to be essentially the parts of Inclusive Governance?

  1. Permitting the Non-Banking Financial Companies to do banking
  2. Establishing effective District Planning Committees in all the districts
  3. Increasing government spending on public health
  4. Strengthening the Mid-day Meal Scheme

Choose the correct answer:

A. 1 and 2 only

B. 3 and 4 only

C. 2,3 and 4 only

D. 1,2,3 and 4

Answer: C

Explanation

Permitting the Non-Banking Financial Companies to do banking This option is not directly related to inclusive governance. It may have implications for financial inclusion, but it's not inherently a part of inclusive governance.

Establishing effective District Planning Committees in all the districts This contributes to inclusive governance by decentralizing decision-making and involving local communities in the planning and development processes.

Increasing government spending on public health This ensures that essential healthcare services are accessible to all segments of society, thereby promoting inclusivity in healthcare.

Strengthening the Mid-day Meal Scheme This initiative aims to improve nutrition and food security among school children, particularly from disadvantaged backgrounds, thereby promoting inclusivity in education and nutrition.

Therefore, statements 2, 3 and 4 are correct.


QUESTION 75

HardEnvironment & EcologyPrelims 2012

Consider the following:

  1. Black-necked crane
  2. Cheetah
  3. Flying squirrel
  4. Snow leopard

Which of the above are naturally found in India?

A. 1, 2 and 3 only

B. 1, 3 and 4 only

C. 2 and 4 only

D. 1, 2, 3 and 4

Answer: B

Explanation

Black-necked crane is found in the Tibetan and trans-Himalayan regions of India. During the winter, they migrate to warmer regions of the country. So, this is naturally found in India.

Cheetahs were once found in India, but they have been declared extinct in the country since the last century. So, they are not naturally found in India now.

There are several species of flying squirrels found in India, including the Indian Giant Flying Squirrel and the Red Giant Flying Squirrel. So, this is naturally found in India.

Snow leopard is found in the Himalayan region of India. So, this is naturally found in India.

So, the animals naturally found in India are the Black-necked crane, Flying squirrel, and Snow leopard.


QUESTION 76

MediumScience & TechnologyPrelims 2012

With reference to ‘stem cells’, frequently in the news, which of the following statements is/are correct?

a. Stem cells can be derived from mammals only b. Stem cells can be used for screening new drugs c. Stem cells can be used for medical therapies

A. 1 and 2

B. 2 and 3

C. 3 only

D. 1,2,3

Answer: B

Explanation

Stem cells can be derived from various sources, including not just mammals, but also other vertebrates like birds and fish, as well as some invertebrates.

Stem cells provide a powerful tool for drug screening and toxicology studies. They can be used to generate specific types of cells that are targeted by drugs, allowing researchers to evaluate the efficacy and safety of new pharmaceutical compounds before proceeding to clinical trials.

Stem cells have the potential to be used in regenerative medicine to repair or replace damaged tissues and organs. This includes a wide range of applications, from bone marrow transplants (a well-established stem cell therapy for certain blood disorders) to experimental treatments for neurodegenerative diseases, heart disease, diabetes, and more.


QUESTION 77

EasyEnvironment & EcologyPrelims 2012

Vultures which used to be very common in the Indian countryside some years ago are rarely seen nowadays. This is attributed to

A. the destruction of their nesting sites by new invasive species

B. a drug used by cattle owners for treating their diseased cattle

C. the scarcity of food available to them

D. a widespread, persistent and fatal disease among them

Answer: B

Explanation

The decline in vulture populations in India is primarily attributed to a drug used by cattle owners for treating their diseased cattle.

The drug referred to here is diclofenac, which was commonly used to treat cattle but caused kidney failure in vultures that consumed the carcasses of treated animals. This led to a catastrophic decline in vulture populations across the Indian subcontinent.


QUESTION 78

EasyArt & CulturePrelims 2012

The Nagara, Dravida and the Vesara are the:

A. three main racial groups of the Indian subcontinent

B. three main linguistic divisions into which the languages of India can be classified

C. three main styles of Indian temple architecture

D. three main musical Gharanas prevalent in India

Answer: C

Explanation

The three main styles of Indian temple architecture are

  • Nagara or the Northern style
  • Dravida or the Southern style
  • Vesara or Mixed style .

These styles represent the diversity and cultural richness of India's temple architecture.


QUESTION 79

EasyPhysical GeographyPrelims 2012

When you travel to the Himalayas, you will see the following :

  1. Deep gorges
  2. U-turn river courses
  3. Parallel mountain ranges
  4. Steep gradients causing land-sliding

Which of the above can be said to be the evidence for the Himalayas being young fold mountains?

A. 1 and 2 only

B. 1, 2 and 4 only

C. 3 and 4 only

D. 1, 2, 3 and 4

Answer: D

Explanation

The Himalayas are young fold mountains, which are still rising under the influence of the earth's tectonic forces. This continuous vertical growth and the tectonic activity in the region result in certain characteristic features.

Deep gorges are formed due to the erosional activity of rivers flowing through these mountains. The Kali Gandaki Gorge in the Himalayas is one of the deepest in the world.

The rivers in the Himalayas often take sharp turns or U-turns due to the rugged and uneven topography.

The Himalayas consist of a series of parallel mountain ranges such as the Greater Himalayas, Lesser Himalayas, and the Outer Himalayas.

The steep slopes of the Himalayas, combined with the unstable nature of the young rocks, often result in landslides.

Therefore, all of the given features can be said to be evidence for the Himalayas being young fold mountains.


QUESTION 80

EasyScience & TechnologyPrelims 2012

To meet its rapidly growing energy demand, some opine that India should pursue research and development on thorium as the future fuel of nuclear energy. In this context, what advantage does thorium hold over uranium?

A. Thorium is far more abundant in nature than uranium

B. On the basis of per unit mass of mined mineral, thorium can generate more energy compared to natural uranium

C. Thorium produces less harmful waste compared to uranium

D. All of the above

Answer: D

Explanation

Thorium fuel generates no new bomb-usable material in the waste profile; the waste consists of the radioisotope Uranium-233, or U233, which is virtually impossible to weaponize.

Thorium fuel will generate more energy per unit of mass than uranium fuel by a factor of approximately 30.

Thorium is four times more abundant in nature than uranium and is widely distributed throughout the Earth's crust.

All the statements in this question are correct.


QUESTION 81

MediumIndian PolityPrelims 2012

With reference to the Delimitation Commission, consider the following statements :

  1. The orders of the Delimitation Commission cannot be challenged in a Court of Law.
  2. When the orders of the Delimitation Commission are laid before the LokSabha or State Legislative Assembly, they cannot affect any modifications in the orders.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

A. 1 only

B. 2 only

C. Both 1 and 2

D. Neither 1 nor 2

Answer: C

Explanation

Both statements are correct about the Delimitation Commission in India.

Statement 1 is correct The Delimitation Commission's orders are final and have the force of law. This means they cannot be challenged in any court.

Statement 2 is correct Once the Delimitation Commission finalizes its orders and lays them before the Parliament (Lok Sabha) or the respective State Legislative Assembly, these legislative bodies cannot modify the orders. Their role is simply to acknowledge the new delimitation.


QUESTION 82

EasyIndian PolityPrelims 2012

In the Parliament of India, the purpose of an adjournment motion is -

A. to allow a discussion on a definite matter of urgent public importance

B. to let opposition members collect information from the ministers

C. to allow a reduction of specific amount in demand for grant

D. to postpone the proceedings to check the inappropriate or violent behaviour on the part of some members

Answer: A

Explanation

To allow a discussion on a definite matter of urgent public importance.

An adjournment motion is an extraordinary procedure used to bring the attention of the House to a pressing issue that demands immediate discussion. It prioritizes this urgent matter over the scheduled business of the Parliament.


QUESTION 83

MediumIndian PolityPrelims 2012

Which of the following provisions of the Constitution of India have a bearing on Education?

  1. Directive Principles of State Policy
  2. Rural and Urban Local Bodies
  3. Fifth Schedule
  4. Sixth Schedule
  5. Seventh Schedule

Select the correct answer using the codes given below:

A. 1 and 2 only

B. 3, 4 and 5 only

C. 1, 2 and 5 only

D. 1, 2, 3, 4 and 5

Answer: C

Explanation

The following provisions of the Indian Constitution have a bearing on Education

Directive Principles of State Policy (Article 45) This article states that the State shall endeavor to provide free and compulsory education for all children until they complete the age of fourteen years.

Rural and Urban Local Bodies (Schedules 11 and 12) These schedules empower Panchayats and Municipalities to handle education-related matters within their jurisdictions.

Seventh Schedule (Concurrent List) This schedule includes "education" in the Concurrent List, allowing both the Central and State governments to make laws on education. Therefore, the correct answer is 1, 2, and 5

Note The Fifth Schedule and Sixth Schedule deal with the administration of tribal areas and do not directly impact education.


QUESTION 84

MediumScience & TechnologyPrelims 2012

What are the reasons for the people’s resistance to the introduction of Bt brinjal in India?

  1. Bt brinjal has been created by inserting a gene from a soil fungus into its genome.
  2. The seeds of Bt brinjal are terminator seeds and therefore, the farmers have to buy the seeds before every season from the seed companies.
  3. There is an apprehension that the consumption of Bt brinjal may have an adverse impact on health.
  4. There is some concern that the introduction of Bt brinjal may have an adverse effect on biodiversity.

A. 1, 2 & 3 Only

B. 2 & 3 only

C. 3 & 4 only

D. 1,2,3 & 4

Answer: C

Explanation

The resistance to the introduction of Bt brinjal in India is due to several reasons.

Firstly, there is a concern that the consumption of Bt brinjal may have an adverse impact on health. This is due to the fact that it has been genetically modified, and there is still ongoing debate and research about the long-term health effects of consuming genetically modified organisms.

Secondly, there is a concern that the introduction of Bt brinjal may have an adverse effect on biodiversity. This is because the introduction of a genetically modified organism into an ecosystem could potentially disrupt the balance of species and have unforeseen consequences.

The statement about Bt brinjal being created by inserting a gene from a soil fungus into its genome is true, but it is not a reason for resistance.

The statement about the seeds of Bt brinjal being terminator seeds is also not a reason for resistance as Bt brinjal seeds are not terminator seeds. Terminator seeds are genetically modified to be sterile after the first generation, which is not the case with Bt brinjal.


QUESTION 85

MediumEconomyPrelims 2012

Under which of the following circumstances may ‘capital gains’ arise?

  1. When there is an increase in the sales of a product
  2. When there is a natural increase in the value of the property owned
  3. When you purchase a painting and there is a growth in its value due to increase in its popularity

Select the correct answer using the codes given below:

A. 1 only

B. 2 and 3 only

C. 2 only

D. 1, 2 and 3

Answer: B

Explanation

Capital gains arise when there is an increase in the value of a capital asset, such as real estate or an investment, that gives it a higher worth than the purchase price. The gain is not realized until the asset is sold.

Therefore, Increased sales may lead to higher revenue and profits, but not capital gains.

However, a natural increase in the value of property owned or an increase in the value of a painting due to its increased popularity can result in capital gains when these assets are sold.


QUESTION 86

HardEnvironment & EcologyPrelims 2012

The Millennium Ecosystem Assessment describes the following major categories of ecosystem services-provisioning, supporting, regulating, preserving and cultural. Which one of the following is supporting service?

A. Production of food and water

B. Control of climate and disease

C. Nutrient cycling and crop pollination

D. Maintenance of diversity

Answer: C

Explanation

The Millennium Ecosystem Assessment (MA) was called for by the United Nations Secretary-General Kofi Annan in 2000. Initiated in 2001, the objective of the MA was to assess the consequences of ecosystem change for human well-being and the scientific basis for action needed to enhance the conservation and sustainable use of those systems and their contribution to human well-being.

Provisioning services are the products obtained from ecosystems, such as food, water, timber, and fiber.

Regulating services are the benefits obtained from the regulation of ecosystem processes, such as climate regulation, disease control, and water purification.

Cultural services are the non-material benefits people obtain from ecosystems through spiritual enrichment, cognitive development, reflection, recreation, and aesthetic experiences.

Supporting services are those that are necessary for the production of all other ecosystem services. They include nutrient cycling, soil formation, primary production and pollination.

So, nutrient cycling and crop pollination fall under the category of supporting services.


QUESTION 87

MediumArt & CulturePrelims 2012

With reference to the religious history of medieval India, the Sufi mystics were known to pursue which of the following practices?

  1. Meditation and control of breath
  2. Severe ascetic exercises in a lonely place
  3. Recitation of holy songs to arouse a state of ecstasy in their audience

Select the correct answer using the codes given below:

A. 1 and 2 only

B. 2 and 3 only

C. 3 only

D. 1, 2 and 3

Answer: D

Explanation

Sufism emphasises self-purification and achieving a closer connection with God. Meditation and breath control techniques were used to attain inner peace and focus.

Some Sufi mystics practised asceticism, which involved self-denial and austerities. This could involve seclusion or living a simple life with minimal possessions. However, it wasn't the sole or defining practice of Sufism.

Sufi music (Sama) played a significant role in Sufi practice. Singing devotional songs and poems (qawwali) served to create a state of spiritual ecstasy (wajd) and connect with the divine.

Therefore, all three statements are correct.


QUESTION 88

EasyModern HistoryPrelims 2012

The Congress ministries resigned in the seven provinces in 1939, because:

A. the Congress could not form ministries in the other four provinces

B. emergence of a left-wing in the Congress made the working of the ministries impossible

C. there were widespread communal disturbances in their provinces

D. None of the statements a, b and c given above is correct

Answer: D

Explanation

The Congress ministries resigned in the seven provinces in 1939 as a protest against Viceroy Lord Linlithgow's action of declaring India to be a belligerent in the Second World War without consulting the Indian people. This was a pivotal event that fueled India's push for autonomy and marked a turning point in the nationalist struggle. The reasons given in options (a), (b), and (c) are not the correct reasons for the resignation of the Congress ministries in 1939.


QUESTION 89

EasyModern HistoryPrelims 2012

Mahatma Gandhi undertook fast unto death in 1932, mainly because:

A. Round Table Conference failed to satisfy Indian political aspirations

B. Congress and the Muslim League had differences of opinion

C. Ramsay Macdonald announced the Communal Award

D. None of the statements a, b and c given above is correct in this context

Answer: C

Explanation

In September 1932, Mahatma Gandhi began a fast unto death to protest British support of a new Indian Constitution that would incorporate the Communal Award .

The Communal Award was made by the British prime minister Ramsay MacDonald on 16 August 1932, granting separate electorates in India for the Forward Caste, Scheduled Caste, Muslims, Buddhists, Sikhs, Indian Christians, Anglo-Indians, Europeans, and Depressed Classes (now known as the Scheduled Caste) etc.

After just six days, the British accepted an alternate proposal (Poona Pact) and he was able to break the fast.


QUESTION 90

HardIndian GeographyPrelims 2012

Consider the following crops of India :

  1. Cowpea
  2. Green gram
  3. Pigeon pea

Which of the above is/are used as pulse, fodder and green manure?

A. 1 and 2 only

B. 2 only

C. 1 and 3 only

D. 1, 2 and 3

Answer: D

Explanation

All three crops listed (Cowpea, Green gram, Pigeon pea) can be used as pulse, fodder, and green manure.

Pulse These are the dried edible seeds of legumes, which are a good source of protein and dietary fiber for humans.

Fodder These are plants or plant parts used as food for livestock. All three crops are rich in nutrients and can be used as animal feed.

Green manure These are plants grown specifically to be plowed back into the soil to improve its fertility. Legumes like cowpea, green gram, and pigeon pea are nitrogen-fixing plants, meaning they can add nitrogen to the soil, which is a crucial nutrient for plant growth.


QUESTION 91

MediumScience & TechnologyPrelims 2012

Electrically charged particles from space travelling at speeds of several hundred km/sec can severely harm living beings if they reach the surface of the Earth. What prevents them from reaching the surface of the Earth?

A. The Earth’s magnetic field diverts them towards its poles

B. Ozone layer around the Earth reflects them back to outer space

C. Moisture in the upper layers of atmosphere prevents them from reaching the surface of the Earth

D. None of the statements a, b and c given above is correct

Answer: A

Explanation

Electrically charged particles from space, such as those from the solar wind or cosmic rays, are indeed potentially harmful to living organisms.

The Earth's magnetic field plays a crucial role in protecting the surface by diverting these charged particles toward its poles. This phenomenon is responsible for the creation of the auroras the Northern and Southern Lights (Aurora Borealis and Aurora Australis, respectively).

When these charged particles are funneled toward the Earth's poles by its magnetic field, they interact with molecules in the Earth's atmosphere, creating the beautiful light displays rather than causing harm to living beings on the surface.


QUESTION 92

HardEconomyPrelims 2012

Despite having large reserves of coal, why does India import millions of tonnes of coal?

  1. It is the policy of India to save its own coal reserves for the future, and import it from other countries for the present use.
  2. Most of the power plants in India are coal-based and they are not able to get sufficient supplies of coal from within the country.
  3. Steel companies need a large quantity of coking coal which has to be imported.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

A. 1 Only

B. 2 & 3 Only

C. 1 & 3 Only

D. 1,2, & 3

Answer: B

Explanation

India does not have a policy of intentionally conserving its domestic coal reserves for the future and importing coal for current use.

Most of the power plants in India are coal-based, and they are not able to get sufficient supplies of coal from within the country. This is due to various factors such as insufficient domestic production, logistical constraints, and quality issues.

Steel companies need a large quantity of coking coal, which has to be imported. India's domestic reserves of coking coal are not sufficient to meet the demand of its steel industry, hence the need for imports.

Therefore, the second and third statements are correct.


QUESTION 93

HardScience & TechnologyPrelims 2012

Which of the following is /are cited by the scientists as evidence/evidences for the continued expansion of the universe?

  1. Detection of microwaves in space
  2. Observation of the redshift phenomenon in space
  3. Movement of asteroids in space
  4. The occurrence of supernova explosions in space

A. 2 only

B. 1 and 2

C. 1, 3 and 4

D. None of the above

Answer: B

Explanation

The key evidence cited by scientists for the continued expansion of the universe is the observation of the redshift phenomenon in light from distant galaxies.

As the universe expands, the wavelengths of light from these galaxies are stretched, resulting in a shift towards longer, redder wavelengths - the redshift phenomenon. This redshift is considered a strong piece of evidence supporting the expansion of the universe, as predicted by the models of cosmology.


QUESTION 94

EasyModern HistoryPrelims 2012

Which of the following is/are the principal feature(s) of the Government of India Act, 1919?

  1. Introduction of dyarchy in the executive government of the provinces
  2. Introduction of separate communal electorates for Muslims
  3. Devolution of legislative authority by the centre to the provinces

Select the correct answer using the codes given below:

A. 1 only

B. 2 and 3 only

C. 1 and 3 only

D. 1, 2 and 3

Answer: C

Explanation

The Government of India Act, 1919 had several key features. One of these was the introduction of dyarchy in the executive government of the provinces, which meant that certain areas of government were controlled by elected Indian ministers, while others remained under the control of appointed British officials. This is represented in statement 1.

Another feature was the devolution of legislative authority by the centre to the provinces, which is represented in statement 3.

However, the introduction of separate communal electorates for Muslims, which is represented in statement 2, was not a feature of the Government of India Act, 1919. This was actually introduced in the Government of India Act, 1909.

Therefore, the correct answer is (C) 1 and 3 only.


QUESTION 95

MediumIndian PolityPrelims 2012

In India, other than ensuring that public funds are used efficiently and for the intended purpose, what is the importance of the office of the Comptroller and Auditor General (CAG)?

  1. CAG exercises exchequer control on behalf of the Parliament when the President of India declares national emergency/financial emergency.
  2. CAG reports on the execution of projects or programmes by the ministries are discussed by the Public Accounts Committee.
  3. Information from CAG reports can be used by investigating agencies to press charges against those who have violated the law while managing public finances.
  4. While dealing with the audit and accounting of government companies, CAG has certain judicial powers for prosecuting those who violate the law.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

A. 1, 3 and 4 only

B. 2 only

C. 2 and 3 only

D. 1, 2, 3 and 4

Answer: C

Explanation

  1. Incorrect The CAG does not exercise direct control over government spending.

  2. Correct The CAG's reports are a crucial source of information for the Public Accounts Committee (PAC), a parliamentary committee that scrutinizes government spending. The PAC uses CAG reports to identify areas of inefficiency or waste and hold government departments accountable.

  3. Correct CAG reports can uncover financial irregularities or misuse of funds. Law enforcement agencies can use this information to investigate and prosecute those responsible.

  4. Incorrect The CAG does not have judicial powers to prosecute offenders. However, it can recommend disciplinary action or further investigation.


QUESTION 96

HardArt & CulturePrelims 2012

How do you distinguish between Kuchipudi and Bharatanatyam dances?

  1. Dancers occasionally speaking dialogues is found in Kuchipudi dance but not in Bharatanatyam.
  2. Dancing on the brass plate by keeping the feet on its edges is a feature of Bharatanatyam but Kuchipudi dance does not have such a form of movements.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

A. 1 only

B. 2 only

C. Both 1 and 2

D. Neither 1 nor 2

Answer: A

Explanation

Kuchipudi is a Classical Indian dance from Andhra Pradesh. It is also popular all over South India. Vachika abhinaya (use of words or dialogues) is a special feature of the Kuchipudi style.

Bharatanatyam is a classical Indian dance form that originated in the temples of South India. Dancing on brass plates is a feature of Kuchipudi and not Bharatnatyam. Thus, statement 2 is wrong.


QUESTION 97

EasySocial Issues & SchemesPrelims 2012

The Multi-dimensional Poverty Index developed by Oxford Poverty and Human Development Initiative with UNDP support covers which of the following?

  1. Deprivation of education, health, assets and services at the household level
  2. Purchasing power parity at the national level
  3. The extent of the budget deficit and GDP growth rate at the national level

Select the correct answer using the codes given below:

A. 1 Only

B. 2 & 3 Only

C. 1 & 3 Only

D. 1, 2 & 3

Answer: A

Explanation

The Multidimensional Poverty Index (MPI) focuses on identifying poverty beyond just income. It considers various deprivations that a household might experience in different dimensions of well-being.

Education, health, assets, and services are core aspects of a household's well-being. The MPI looks at factors like access to education, quality healthcare, essential assets (like clean water and sanitation), and basic services needed for a decent standard of living.

Purchasing power parity (PPP) is an economic concept used to compare living standards across countries. It's not directly measured in the MPI.

Budget deficit and GDP growth rate are macroeconomic indicators that reflect the health of a nation's economy. While poverty reduction is often a national goal, the MPI focuses on identifying poverty at the household level.

Hence, only statement 1 is incorrect.


QUESTION 98

EasyIndian PolityPrelims 2012

The Prime Minister of India, at the time of his/her appointment:

A. need not necessarily be a member of one of the Houses of the Parliament but must become a member of one of the Houses within six months

B. need not necessarily be a member of one of the Houses of the Parliament but must become a member of the LokSabha within three months

C. must be a member of one of the Houses of the Parliament

D. must be a member of the LokSabha

Answer: A

Explanation

The Prime Minister need not necessarily be a member of one of the Houses of the Parliament but must become a member of one of the Houses within six months


QUESTION 99

HardEnvironment & EcologyPrelims 2012

Consider the following agricultural practices:

  1. Contour bunding
  2. Relay cropping
  3. Zero Tillage

In the context of global climate change, which of the above helps/help in carbon sequestration/storage in the soil?

A. 1 and 2 only

B. 3 only

C. 1, 2 and 3

D. None of them

Answer: C

Explanation

Carbon sequestration is the process of capturing and storing atmospheric carbon dioxide. It is one method of reducing the amount of carbon dioxide in the atmosphere with the goal of reducing global climate change.

Contour bunding is a method of farming that is practiced on the slopes of hills. It helps in reducing soil erosion and increasing the organic matter content in the soil. This in turn helps in carbon sequestration.

Relay cropping is a method where a second crop is sown before the first crop is harvested. While it helps in maintaining soil cover and can contribute to carbon sequestration, it is not as direct a method as contour bunding or zero tillage.

Zero tillage is a way of growing crops from year to year without disturbing the soil through tillage. It increases the amount of water that infiltrates into the soil and increases organic matter retention and cycling of nutrients in the soil. This helps in carbon sequestration.

Therefore, all three practices help in carbon sequestration/storage in the soil.


QUESTION 100

MediumEnvironment & EcologyPrelims 2012

In which one among the following categories of protected areas in India are local people not allowed to collect and use the biomass?

A. Biosphere Reserves

B. National Parks

C. Wetlands declared under Ramsar Convention

D. Wildlife Sanctuaries

Answer: B

Explanation

In Biosphere Reserves, Wildlife Sanctuaries, and Wetlands declared under Ramsar Convention, local people are allowed to collect and use the biomass under certain restrictions.

In National Parks in India, local people are generally not allowed to collect or use biomass. National Parks are areas set aside for the conservation and protection of wildlife and their habitats, with strict regulations in place to minimise human interference and maintain ecological balance. This includes restrictions on activities such as logging, hunting, grazing, and collection of biomass to ensure the preservation of biodiversity.

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