Statement 1 is correct. Sodium lamps emit light in a 360-degree pattern, while LED lamps are directional.

Statement 2 is incorrect. LED lamps generally have a longer lifespan compared to sodium lamps.

Statement 3 is correct. Sodium lamps emit monochromatic light, whereas LED lamps offer a wider spectrum of visible light, providing significant colour advantages in street lighting.

1. The Guptas of Magadha: The Later Gupta dynasty did indeed succeed the imperial Guptas and ruled parts of Magadha during the early 7th century.

2. The Paramaras of Malwa: The Paramara dynasty emerged much later, around the 9th century, and ruled in central India (Malwa region).

3. The Pushyabhutis of Thanesar: The Pushyabhuti dynasty, also known as Vardhana, flourished in the 6th and 7th centuries and held power in parts of North India, including Thanesar.

4. The Maukharis of Kanauj: The Maukhari dynasty rose to prominence after the Guptas and controlled Kanauj for some time.

5. The Yadavas of Devagiri: The Yadava dynasty, also known as the Seuna dynasty, established their kingdom much later, around the 12th century, in western India.

6. The Maitrakas of Valabhi: The Maitrakas were contemporaries of the Guptas and established an independent kingdom in western India (Gujarat) after being tributary chiefs for a while.

Therefore, the correct answer is 1, 3, 4 and 6.

Post Gupta Dynasties

Statement 1 is Incorrect: The International Seabed Authority (ISA) regulates seabed mining in international waters. The Global Ocean Commission was a 2013-2016 international initiative of leaders aiming to reverse ocean degradation, focusing on the high seas.

Statement 2 is Correct: Like other countries, India can apply for and receive exploration licenses from the ISA for areas beyond national jurisdictions. Since 2014, India has obtained licences from the International Sea Bed Authority for seabed mineral exploration in international waters.

Statement 3 is Correct: Rare earth minerals are among the potential resources found on the seabed in international waters, although their commercial viability is still being explored.

Therefore, the correct statements are 2 and 3 only.

• Option (A) is incorrect: Pingali Venkayya designed the tricolour Indian National Flag, but he presented it to Mahatma Gandhi at the INC session in Bezwada (now Vijayawada), not Madanapalle.

• Option (B) is incorrect: Pattabhi Sitaramaiah played an important political role in Andhra but did not lead the Quit India Movement of the Andhra region from Madanapalle.

• Option (C) is correct: Rabindranath Tagore stayed at Theosophical College, Madanapalle, in 1919. During this visit, he translated Jana Gana Mana from Bengali into English as “The Morning Song of India.” This is the historically significant connection between Madanapalle and the National Anthem.

• Option (D) is incorrect: The Theosophical Society was founded in New York in 1875 and later moved its headquarters to Adyar, Chennai in 1882. It was not set up in Madanapalle.

Statement 1 is incorrect. Both Dayabhaga and Mitakshara are the basic to the upper castes alone. Mitakshara school is followed in most of India while Dayabhaga is followed in Bengal and Assam.

Statement 2 is correct. In the Dayabhaga system, sons obtain rights to property only at the death of the father, and in the Mitakshara school, the sons and grandsons have rights over his property even while he is alive.

Statement 3 is incorrect. Both Dayabhaga and Mitakshara schools of Hindu law dealt with women’s property (stridhana). However, while the Mitakshara school imposed significant restrictions on women’s control and excluded them from coparcenary, the Dayabhaga school was relatively liberal, recognizing widows as heirs and granting greater powers over property.

Statement 1 is correct: St. Francis Xavier was a Spanish Jesuit who lived as a Roman Catholic missionary in the 1500s. He was one of the first seven members of the Jesuit order.

Statement 2 is incorrect: He did not die in Goa but at Sachian, an island off the coast of China. A church in memory of St. Xavier called the Church of Bom Jesus, is located in Goa with his mortal remains.

Statement 3 is correct: A feast in honor of St. Xavier is celebrated annually in Goa.

• Filter feeders are a subgroup of suspension-feeding animals that feed by straining suspended matter and food particles from water, typically by passing the water over a specialised filtering structure.

• Some animals that use this method of feeding are clams, krill, sponges, baleen whales, and many fish (including some sharks). Some birds, such as flamingos and certain species of duck, are also filter feeders. Filter feeders can play an important role in clarifying water, and are therefore considered ecosystem engineers. They are also important in bioaccumulation and, as a result, as indicator organisms.

• Oyster is one of the filter feeders.

Pearl Farming

• Pearls are the only gemstones in the world that come from a living creature. Mollusks such as oysters and mussels produce these precious jewels.
• Pearl culture practices are present in Gujarat, Maharashtra, Bihar, Odisha, Kerala, Rajasthan, Jharkhand, Goa, and Tripura.

Option A is correct. In a federal system, power is distributed between the central government and the states. There can be disputes about the division of power or interpretation of the Constitution. An independent judiciary acts as an impartial umpire to settle these disputes and uphold the Constitution. It ensures that both the central government and the states function within their constitutional boundaries.The other options, while relevant to Indian polity, are not exclusive to federal systems

Federal and Unitary Features

Option B is incorrect. The Union Legislature having elected representatives from constituent units is a common feature in both federal and some unitary states with devolved power.

Option C is incorrect. The Union Cabinet having elected representatives from regional parties is not a defining characteristic of federalism. Political party affiliation doesn't necessarily determine the federal structure.

Option D is incorrect. The Fundamental Rights being enforceable by Courts of Law, while essential for a democracy, this feature exists even in some non-federal states.

The Common Carbon Metric (CCM) is a protocol developed by the United Nations Environment Program's Sustainable Buildings & Climate Initiative (UNEP-SBCI) for measuring energy use and reporting greenhouse gas (GHG) emissions from building operations.

Its purpose is to support GHG emissions reductions through accurate measurement of energy efficiency. It is a universal method of measuring a building's carbon footprint and allows emissions from buildings around the world to be consistently assessed and compared.

Therefore, it is used for assessing the carbon footprint of building operations around the world.

Previously a Fundamental Right

• Before 1978, the Indian Constitution guaranteed the right to property as a fundamental right under Article 19(1)(f) and Article 31.
• This meant citizens had the right to acquire, hold, and dispose of their property.
• Article 31 also ensured that the government couldn't take over private property without due compensation and for public purposes only.

Change in 1978

• The 44th Amendment Act of 1978 changed the status of the Right to Property.
• Articles 19(1)(f) and 31 were removed from the list of fundamental rights.
• A new Article, 300-A, was introduced under Part XII of the Constitution.

Current Status: A legal right available to any person.

• Article 300-A states, "No person shall be deprived of his property save by authority of law."
• This means the government can still acquire private property, but only under legal authorization.
• The law should be fair and reasonable, and the government has the power to decide the quantum of compensation.

Statement 1 is Correct. WaterCredit uses microfinance tools to help people access clean water and sanitation solutions. It provides small loans to individuals and households to invest in these facilities.

Statement 2 is Incorrect. WaterCredit is not a global initiative under WHO and World Bank. It's an initiative of Water.org, an international non-profit organization focused on water and sanitation access.

Statement 3 is Correct. WaterCredit aims to empower people by enabling them to pay for their own water and sanitation needs, reducing reliance on potentially unreliable subsidies.

Therefore, the correct answer is 1 and 3 only.

Hedgehogs: Hedgehogs are small mammals have a unique defense mechanism where they roll up into a tight ball, using their sharp spines as a form of protection against predators.

Hedgehog

Marmots: Marmots do not roll up to protect themselves. Instead, they typically rely on burrows and their ability to give warning calls to avoid predators.

Marmot

Pangolins: Similar to hedgehogs, pangolins also roll up into a ball when threatened. They use their tough keratin scales as armor to protect their vulnerable parts.

Pangolin

Statement 1 is Incorrect: The recommendation to designate a minister and a secretary solely for pursuing the subject of administrative reform was made by the first Administrative Reforms Commission (1966), not the N. Gopalaswamy Iyengar Committee. The N. Gopalaswamy Iyengar Committee (1949) focused on the reorganization of the machinery of the Central Government, the grouping of ministries, and the establishment of the Organisation and Methods (O&M) Division.

Statement 2 is Correct: In 1970, the Department of Personnel was established following the recommendations of the first Administrative Reforms Commission (1966). It was initially placed under the Cabinet Secretariat, which functions under the direct charge of the Prime Minister. In 1985, it was reorganized into the Ministry of Personnel, Public Grievances and Pensions, which remains under the Prime Minister's charge.

Statement 1 is incorrect: International Mother Language Day is observed on 21 February every year. It is declared by UNESCO and not UNICEF.

Statement 2 is correct: The demand that Bangla has to be one of the national languages was raised in the Constituent Assembly of Pakistan.

Statement 1 is correct. The Governor of RBI is appointed by the Central Government under the RBI Act, 1934. The Appointments Committee of the Cabinet (ACC), led by the Prime Minister, finalizes the selection. The tenure is typically four years, but the government has the authority to extend or terminate the term.

Statement 2 is incorrect. The Constitution of India does not have any direct provision allowing the Central Government to issue directions to the RBI. However, Section 7 of the RBI Act, 1934, gives the Central Government the power to issue directions to the RBI in the public interest, but this is a statutory provision, not a constitutional one.

Statement 3 is correct. The powers, functions, and responsibilities of the RBI Governor come from the Reserve Bank of India Act, 1934. The Act defines the Governor's role, monetary policy responsibilities, and overall authority over banking regulations.

Statement 1 is Incorrect: The finalists for the inaugural ICC World Test Championship (2019-2021) were decided based on the Percentage of Points (PCT) earned from the total points contested, rather than the absolute number of matches won. This system was introduced by the ICC to account for the disparity in the number of matches played by different teams due to the COVID-19 pandemic.

Statement 2 is Incorrect: New Zealand was ranked ahead of England because they had a higher PCT (70.0%) compared to England (64.1%). In terms of match wins, England actually won more matches (11) than New Zealand (7) during the tournament cycle, directly contradicting the statement.

Statement 1 is incorrect. The Montagu-Chelmsford Reforms of 1919 did not recommend granting voting rights to all women above the age of 21. While the reforms introduced some limited electoral reforms, including the extension of the franchise to a larger section of the Indian population, they did not grant universal suffrage to women.

Statement 2 is correct. The Government of India Act of 1935 introduced reserved seats for women in the legislatures at both the central and provincial levels. These reserved seats were aimed at ensuring representation for women in the political process.

Government of India, Act 1919

• Introduced limited self-government and increased Indian participation
• Introduced Dyarchy (Dual Government) in provinces:

1. Transferred subjects → Administered by Indian ministers
2. Reserved subjects → Administered by British officials

• Bicameral Legislature at the Central Level
• Separate Electorates Continued
• High Commissioner for India in London was created to represent Indian affairs in Britain.
• Subjects divided into Central and Provincial lists
• Voting rights were restricted based on property, income, and education.
  

  Government of India, Act 1919

Government of India, Act 1935

• Created an All-India Federation consisting of British Indian Provinces and Princely States. (Never Implemented)
• Bicameralism extended to six provinces (Bengal, Bombay, Madras, Bihar, Assam, and United Provinces)
• Abolished Dyarchy at the provincial level, Introduced Provincial Autonomy → Governors had to act on ministers' advice (except in special cases)
• Three lists introduced:

1. Federal List (Centre)
2. Provincial List (Provinces)
3. Concurrent List (Both Centre & Provinces)

• Ministers had full control over provincial subjects (except during emergencies)
• Established the Federal Court of India (precursor to the Supreme Court)
• Communal and separate electorates were retained and extended to groups such as Anglo-Indians and Indo-Christians.
• Women were given reservations in Provincial and central legislature.
  

  Government of India, Act 1935

Statement 1 is Correct: Under the RBI Retail Direct scheme, retail investors can participate in the primary market for Government Securities (G-Secs) and Treasury Bills (T-Bills) by opening a Retail Direct Gilt (RDG) account or using existing demat accounts to place bids in auctions.

Statement 2 is Correct: The Negotiated Dealing System-Order Matching (NDS-OM) is an anonymous, electronic, screen-based trading platform for government securities in India. It is owned by the Reserve Bank of India (RBI) and operated by the Clearing Corporation of India Limited (CCIL) on its behalf.

Statement 3 is Incorrect: Central Depository Services Ltd (CDSL) was promoted by the Bombay Stock Exchange (BSE) in association with leading commercial banks such as the State Bank of India, Bank of India, and HDFC Bank. The RBI is the regulator of the banking sector and does not promote CDSL.

Statement 1 is correct. Mitochondrial replacement therapy (MRT) is a reproductive technique used to prevent the transmission of mitochondrial diseases from mother to child. It involves replacing defective mitochondria in an egg or embryo with healthy mitochondria from a donor. MRT can be performed either before or after in vitro fertilization to ensure that the resulting embryo does not inherit mitochondrial diseases.

Statement 2 is correct. Mitochondrial DNA (mtDNA), which is responsible for encoding genes essential for mitochondrial function, is inherited exclusively from the mother. Therefore, mitochondrial diseases caused by mutations in mtDNA are passed down maternally, and a child cannot inherit mitochondrial diseases from the father.

Therefore, both statements are correct.

• Bisphenol A (BPA) is a key component in the manufacture of polycarbonate plastics.

• Polycarbonate plastics are a type of synthetic plastic material that is known to contain Bisphenol A (BPA) as a structural component.

• BPA is used in the production of polycarbonate plastics, which are commonly used in various consumer products such as Water bottles, Food storage containers, Household electronics, Eyeglass lenses, Compact discs (CDs) and digital versatile discs (DVDs)

• BPA has raised health concerns due to its potential to act as an endocrine disruptor, which can interfere with the body's hormonal system.

"Blue Carbon" designates carbon that is fixed via coastal ocean ecosystems , rather than traditional land ecosystems, like forests .

Although the ocean's vegetated habitats cover less than 0.5% of the seabed, they are responsible for more than 50%, and potentially up to 70%, of all carbon storage in ocean sediments.

Statement 1 is incorrect. The “Right to the City” is not a formally agreed universal human right in international law. It is a normative and political concept. UN-Habitat uses the idea in the New Urban Agenda, but: it does not legally monitor binding national commitments.

Statement 2 is correct. The Right to the City is the right of all inhabitants (present and future, permanent and temporary) to inhabit, use, occupy, produce, transform, govern, and enjoy cities, towns, and human settlements that are just, inclusive, safe, sustainable and democratic, defined as common goods for enjoying life with dignity and peace. The right to the city further implies responsibilities on governments and people to claim, defend, and promote this right.

Statement 3 is correct. “Right to the City” is interpreted as an inclusive urban citizenship right. The concept says that all city dwellers, including: migrants, slum dwellers, residents of unauthorized colonies, have a claim to urban services and dignity. It views residents not as “encroachers” but as rights-bearing urban citizens who contribute to the city economy. Hence: denial of water, sanitation, waste management, etc. merely because a settlement is “unauthorized” is seen as violating the spirit of Right to the City. Indian courts have also held that basic services cannot be denied even to illegal settlements, as they are part of Article 21 – Right to Life.

Note: UPSC usually takes welfare centric approach in questions.

The right to privacy in India is not explicitly mentioned in a single article of the Constitution. However, it is considered an intrinsic part of the fundamental right to life and liberty guaranteed under Article 21.

This recognition came about through a landmark Supreme Court judgment in 2017, K.S. Puttaswamy (Retd) vs Union of India. The court ruled that the right to privacy is an inseparable part of the right to life and personal liberty, and is protected under Article 21.

Right to Life

The vegetation of savannah consists of grassland with scattered small trees. The forest development in such areas is generally kept in check by one or more or a combination of some conditions. These conditions include fire, grazing herbivores, and seasonal rainfall.

2. Fire is a common occurrence in savannahs and it helps to maintain the grassland by burning out tree saplings.

3. Grazing herbivores also help to maintain the grassland by eating young tree saplings before they can grow into mature trees.

4. Seasonal rainfall also plays a role as it affects the growth of trees and grasses.

1. Burrowing animals and termites, while they do have an impact on the ecosystem, are not the primary factors controlling forest development.

5. Similarly, soil properties can affect the types of vegetation that can grow, but they are not the primary factors controlling forest development in savannahs.

Therefore, the correct answer is (c) 2, 3 and 4.

**Savannah Climate: **

• It is a transitional climate between equatorial rainforests and hot deserts.
• It has wet and dry seasons like the monsoon climate but with much less rainfall. Unlike the monsoon climate, it lacks a distinct rainy season.
• It has only two seasons—winter and summer, with rain occurring in summer. The savanna landscape features tall grasses and scattered short trees.
• The savanna is called the ‘big game country’ because thousands of animals are hunted or trapped annually by people worldwide.

Savannah Climate

• Cnidarians: Many cnidarian species, such as corals, develop symbiotic relationships with single-celled algae called zooxanthellae. This symbiosis is crucial for the survival and growth of coral reefs.

• Fungi: Fungi are known to form various symbiotic relationships with other organisms, including

  • Mycorrhizal associations with plant roots, where the fungus helps the plant absorb nutrients in exchange for carbohydrates.
  • Lichens are a symbiotic relationship between a fungus and an algae or cyanobacteria.

• Protozoa: Some protozoa living in the digestive tracts of termites and ruminant animals, helping them break down cellulose.

Therefore, all three groups - cnidarians, fungi, and protozoa - have species that can form symbiotic relationships with other organisms.

The correct sequence in ascending order of size for administrative divisions in medieval India is

1. Pargana
2. Sarkar
3. Suba

Pargana: The smallest unit was the Pargana, which typically comprised a group of villages. It was the most basic level of administration. Sarkar: A group of Parganas formed a Sarkar, which can be understood as a district or province. Suba: The largest administrative division was the Suba, which encompassed several Sarkars. It was equivalent to a modern-day state or province.

Statement 1 is correct: In 1221, during the reign of Iltutmish, the Mongol leader Genghis Khan reached the banks of the Indus while pursuing Jalal-ad-Din Mangubarni, the crown prince of the Khwarazmian Empire. Iltutmish diplomatically refused to grant asylum to the prince, thereby saving the Delhi Sultanate from a direct Mongol invasion.

Statement 2 is incorrect: Taimur (Timur) invaded India in 1398, which was during the reign of Sultan Nasir-ud-Din Mahmud Shah Tughlaq (the last ruler of the Tughlaq dynasty). Muhammad bin Tughluq had died much earlier, in 1351. Furthermore, while Taimur led the overall campaign, it was his grandson, Pir Muhammad, who occupied Multan before Taimur crossed the Indus to join the main force.

Statement 3 is incorrect: Vasco da Gama reached the coast of Calicut (Kerala) in 1498. At this time, the Vijayanagara Empire was ruled by Immadi Narasimha Raya of the Saluva Dynasty. Deva Raya II, of the Sangama Dynasty, ruled earlier from 1422 to 1446 and had been dead for over 50 years by the time the Portuguese arrived.

Statement 1 is Correct: The Laureus World Sports Awards were first presented in the year 2000 in Monte Carlo. American golfer Tiger Woods was the inaugural winner of the Laureus World Sportsman of the Year award.

Statement 2 is Incorrect: The award has been dominated by tennis players rather than Formula One players. By the time of the 2021 UPSC examination, tennis players had won the Sportsman of the Year award 11 times (Roger Federer-5, Rafael Nadal-2, and Novak Djokovic-4), while Formula One drivers had won it only 4 times (Michael Schumacher-2, Sebastian Vettel-1, and Lewis Hamilton-1).

Statement 3 is Correct: Roger Federer holds the record for the most wins in the Laureus World Sportsman of the Year category, having won it five times (2005, 2006, 2007, 2008, and 2018). When including his 'Comeback of the Year' award in 2018, he has a total of six Laureus statuettes, making him the most decorated individual in the history of the awards at that time.

The correct statements about the New York Declaration on Forests are:

1. It was first endorsed at the United Nations Climate Summit in 2014.
2. It does endorse a global timeline to end the loss of forests, aiming for significant reduction by 2020 and ending deforestation by 2030.
3. It is endorsed by a multi-stakeholder group, including governments, companies (big and small), and indigenous communities.

Incorrect statements: 3. The New York Declaration on Forests is not a legally binding international declaration. It's a voluntary political declaration. 5. The Declaration is currently endorsed by over 190 entities but it is not endorsed by India.

Therefore, the correct answer is A. 1, 2, and 4.

Detritivores: These are organisms that feed on dead and decaying organic matter (detritus).

Earthworms: They are classic detritivores, breaking down organic matter in soil and aiding in decomposition.

Millipedes: They feed on decaying leaves and other organic debris on the forest floor.

Woodlice: These small crustaceans are also detritivores, consuming decaying plant and animal matter.

Jellyfish: While they might incidentally ingest some detritus while filtering water for food, they are primarily carnivores, feeding on plankton and small fish.

Seahorses: These are also not detritivores. They are carnivores, feeding on small shrimp, plankton, and other invertebrates.

Therefore, 1,3 and 5 are detritivores.

• A comprehensive definition of state should include following elements:

• A community of people permanently occupying a definite territory: This establishes the physical foundation of the state - a population and a defined geographical area.

• Possessing an organized government: This highlights the presence of a central authority that governs the population within the territory.

• Independent of external control (sovereignty): This emphasizes the state's autonomy in exercising its power within its territory.

Shah Nawaz Khan, Prem Kumar Sehgal, and Gurbaksh Singh Dhillon were senior officers of the Indian National Army (INA), also known as the Azad Hind Fauj. They are famously remembered for the Red Fort Trials (INA Trials) of 1945, where they were court-martialed by the British for 'waging war against the King-Emperor'. The trials triggered widespread nationalist demonstrations, and the Indian National Congress organized an INA Defence Committee comprising legal luminaries like Bhulabhai Desai, Tej Bahadur Sapru, and Jawaharlal Nehru to defend them.

Interim Government (1946) Portfolios:

• Jawaharlal Nehru: Vice-President of the Executive Council, External Affairs and Commonwealth Relations
• Sardar Vallabhbhai Patel: Home, Information and Broadcasting
• Dr. Rajendra Prasad: Food and Agriculture
• Dr. John Mathai: Industries and Supplies
• Jagjivan Ram: Labour
• Sardar Baldev Singh: Defence
• Liaquat Ali Khan (Muslim League): Finance
• C. Rajagopalachari: Education and Arts
• Asaf Ali: Railways and Transport
• Jogendra Nath Mandal (Muslim League): Law

Drafting Committee of the Constituent Assembly: It consisted of seven members: Dr. B.R. Ambedkar (Chairman), N. Gopalaswamy Ayyangar, Alladi Krishnaswamy Ayyar, Dr. K.M. Munshi, Syed Mohammad Saadullah, N. Madhava Rau, and T.T. Krishnamachari.

Statement 1 is Incorrect: The Government had launched a scheme viz Casual Labourers (Grant of Temporary Status and Regularization) Scheme of Government of India, 1993. As per the scheme, Temporary status would be conferred on all casual labourers who were in employment and who have rendered a continuous service of at least one year, which means that they must have been engaged for at least 240 days (206 days in case of offices observing 5 days week).

Statement 2 is Correct: The Supreme Court has decreed that casual workers are also entitled to social security benefits as stipulated in the Employees Provident Funds and Miscellaneous Provisions Act. The Court's ruling stemmed from its interpretation of Section 2(f) of the EPF Act, wherein the definition of an "employee" encompasses a broad scope, including any individual engaged directly or indirectly in connection with an establishment's work and receiving wages. A bench of the Supreme Court affirmed this viewpoint.

Statement 3 is Correct: The government has the authority to specify through a notification that an establishment or industry is obligated to disburse wages exclusively via its bank account.

Statement 1 is Incorrect: Moringa oleifera (drumstick tree) is a deciduous tree, not an evergreen one. Furthermore, it belongs to the family Moringaceae and is not a leguminous plant; it does not possess root nodules for nitrogen fixation.

Statement 2 is Incorrect: The Tamarind tree (Tamarindus indica) is native to tropical Africa. While it is widely grown and naturalized in India, it is not endemic to South Asia.

Statement 3 is Correct: In India, tamarind is categorized and collected as Minor Forest Produce (MFP). It serves as a vital source of income for many tribal and forest-dwelling communities.

Statement 4 is Correct: India is a major exporter of tamarind. Similarly, moringa seeds are exported for their high oil content and medicinal properties.

Statement 5 is Correct: Seeds of both plants have biofuel potential. Moringa seeds have a high oil content (about 30-40%) that can be processed into biodiesel, and tamarind seed oil is also researched for similar applications in the energy sector.

Statement 1 is incorrect: Nizamat of Arcot was established by Aurangzeb and was the legal dependency of the Nizam of Hyderabad, it did not emerge from the Hyderabad state.

Statement 2 is correct: The Mysore Kingdom emerged out of Vijayanagara Empire. After Vijayanagar fell in 1565, the ruling dynasty of Wodeyars of Mysore asserted their independence.

Statement 3 is incorrect: The state of Rohilakhand was felled out of the Afghan migration into India which took place in the mid-18th century. Ali Muhammad Khan took advantage of the collapse of authority in north India following Nadir Shah's invasion, to set up a petty kingdom, Rohilakhand.

Statement 1 is incorrect. The 32nd Summer Olympics was held in Tokyo in 2021. The Tokyo 2020 official Games motto was United by Emotion. The Rio Olympics 2016 official slogan was A New World.

Statement 2 is correct. New IOC rules for the Tokyo Olympics allowed host cities to choose popular sports for inclusion in the Games. Tokyo Olympics added six new sports, including baseball, softball, surfing, skateboarding, karate, and sports climbing. Additionally, there were new forms of basketball and cycling and mixed-team events in traditional sports.

During an economic recession, the goal is to stimulate economic activity and consumer spending.

A. Cut in Tax Rates & Increase in Interest Rates. Cutting taxes puts more money in people's pockets, potentially increasing spending. However, raising interest rates discourages borrowing and investment, potentially hindering economic growth. This combination could have offsetting effects.

B. Increase in Expenditure on Public Projects. This injects money into the economy through government spending, creating jobs and boosting demand for goods and services. This is a typical measure during recessions.

C. Increase in Tax Rates & Reduction of Interest Rates. Increasing taxes reduces disposable income, dampening consumer spending. Lowering interest rates encourages borrowing and investment, but it might not be effective if there's low confidence in the economy.

D. Reduction of Expenditure on Public Projects. This reduces government spending, taking money out of circulation and potentially worsening the recession.

Therefore, the most likely step during an economic recession is (B) Increase in expenditure on public projects

• The term 'ACE2' is talked about in the context of the spread of viral diseases, particularly COVID-19.

• ACE2 stands for Angiotensin-Converting Enzyme 2. It's a protein found on the surface of many cell types in the human body, including those in the lungs, heart, kidneys, and intestines.

• Here's why ACE2 is significant:

  • Receptor for SARS-CoV-2: The spike protein on the surface of the SARS-CoV-2 virus, the virus that causes COVID-19, binds to the ACE2 receptor in human cells. This binding is a critical step in the process of how the virus infects cells.
  • Multiple organ infection: Since ACE2 is expressed in various organs, it provides the virus with multiple potential entry points. This can contribute to the multi-organ complications sometimes associated with COVID-19.
  • Focus of research: Understanding the interaction between the virus and ACE2 is a major area of research for scientists developing vaccines and treatments for COVID-19.

Fern:

• Ferns typically require soil and moisture to grow, as they rely on water-conducting tissues and need a substrate to anchor their roots.

Lichen:

• Lichens are a symbiotic association between a fungus and an algae or cyanobacteria.
• Lichens are well-adapted to survive on surfaces without soil, such as rocks, tree bark, and even bare ground, as they can obtain their nutrients and moisture directly from the air and precipitation.
• Lichens are sensitive to airborne pollutants, such as sulfur dioxide (SO2), nitrogen oxides (NOx), ozone (O3), and heavy metals (like lead and mercury). Sulfur dioxide, for instance, causes chlorosis (yellowing) and necrosis (cell death) in lichen thalli. This sensitivity makes lichens an effective indicator of air quality.

Moss:

• Mosses are non-vascular plants that can grow on surfaces without soil, such as rocks, tree trunks, and even roofs.
• Mosses have specialised structures that allow them to absorb water and nutrients directly from the environment.

Mushrooms:

• Mushrooms are the reproductive structures of fungi, and they typically require a substrate, such as decaying organic matter, to grow. Mushrooms are not able to directly survive on a surface without soil or a nutrient-rich medium.

Therefore, among the given options, lichens and mosses are the most likely to be found surviving on a surface without soil in the natural environment.

Statement 1 is incorrect. Parole is not an absolute right in India. There's a consideration process involved. While a prisoner can present their case for parole, the authorities have the discretion to grant or deny it.

Statement 2 is correct. State governments do have their own set of rules governing parole within the broad framework provided by the Prison Act, of 1894 and the Prisoner Act, of 1900.

Water efficiency of a crop refers to the amount of water required for its growth and development.

Among the options provided, Sugarcane requires the highest amount of water for its growth, making it the least water-efficient crop. It needs around 1800-2200 mm of water per season. On the other hand, Sunflower requires about 672.4 mm/season, Pearl Millet being a drought-tolerant crop requires around 350 mm/season, and Red gram uses about 250-400 mm/season of water.

Therefore, Sugarcane is the least water-efficient crop among the given options.

Bhavabhuti, Hastimalla, and Kshemeshvara were renowned playwrights in ancient and early medieval India.

Bhavabhuti: An 8th-century scholar and playwright in the court of King Yashovarman of Kannauj. He is famous for his Sanskrit plays Malatimadhava, Mahaviracharita, and Uttararamacharita.

Hastimalla: A 13th-century Jain playwright who lived during the Hoysala period. He is known for his Sanskrit plays such as Vikrantakaurava, Maithilikalyana, and Anjanapavananjaya.

Kshemeshvara: A 10th-century playwright who served in the court of King Mahipala of the Pala dynasty. His notable works include the plays Chandakaushika and Naishadhananda.

• Dholavira is one of the five largest Harappan sites and is located in the present-day state of Gujarat, India. It was a prominent city of the ancient Indus Valley Civilization, flourishing around 4500 years ago.

• Dholavira is renowned for its sophisticated water management system, which includes reservoirs, dams, channels, and other hydraulic structures.

• Dholavira was a well-planned city with three distinct divisions: the citadel, middle town, and lower town. The city also had a large stadium or public gathering area, suggesting community events or administrative functions. A remarkable discovery at Dholavira was the earliest known signboard, with inscriptions on a large wooden board, indicating the use of writing for communication or identification.

Harappan sites in India

Kalibangan (Rajasthan)

• First site to show ploughed field patterns.
• Fire altars, indicating ritualistic practices.
• Houses made of mud bricks instead of baked bricks.
• No large water reservoirs like Dholavira.

Rakhigarhi (Haryana)

• Largest IVC site in India.
• Evidence of multi-roomed houses, pottery, and jewelry making.
• Skeletons found suggest the continuity of Harappan genes.
• No evidence of large-scale fortifications like Dholavira.

Ropar (Punjab)

• First Harappan site excavated after India’s independence.
• Harappan culture overlapped with later Vedic culture.
• Evidence of burials with pottery and personal belongings.
• Found near the Sutlej River, showing river-based settlement.

A. Diversion to Real Estate: While this can happen, it still involves some economic activity and might generate taxes (though potentially not on the full value of the transaction if black money is used).

B. Investment in Unproductive Activities: This can hurt the economy, but the government loses tax revenue regardless of the type of investment if it's funded by black money.

C. Donations to Political Parties: This is a concern, but the lost tax revenue likely outweighs the impact of such donations.

D. Loss of Revenue: Black money, by definition, avoids taxes. This directly reduces the government's income, limiting its ability to fund public services, infrastructure, and social welfare programs.

Tax evasion through black money creation significantly hinders the government's ability to function effectively and meet the needs of its citizens. This is why it's a major concern.

Triclosan (sometimes abbreviated as TCS) is an antibacterial and antifungal agent present in some consumer products, including

• toothpaste,
• soaps,
• detergents,
• toys,
• surgical cleaning treatments.

Didwana, Kuchaman, Sargol, and Khatu are the names of saline lakes of Rajasthan.

The Ministry of Tribal Affairs (MoTA) is the designated nodal agency at the national level for the implementation of the Forest Rights Act (FRA), 2006. While the Act pertains to forest land, it is primarily a social welfare and rights-based legislation aimed at correcting historical injustices faced by forest-dwelling communities. Consequently, the responsibility for its implementation and the issuance of operational guidelines lies with MoTA to ensure the protection of tribal interests and the recognition of individual and community forest rights, rather than the Ministry of Environment, Forest and Climate Change which focuses on conservation.

Statement 1 is correct: Broach (Bharuch, Gujarat) was among the early factories of the English East India Company in the first quarter of the 17th century, soon after Surat.

Statement 2 is incorrect: Chicacole was not an English factory during this period; the Company’s early eastern base was at Masulipatnam.

Statement 3 is incorrect: Trichinopoly was not an early trading post; it gained importance only in the 18th century during the Carnatic Wars.

British Settlements in India

Statement 1 is incorrect: The national awards such as Bharat Ratna, Padma Vibhushan, Padma Bhushan, and Padma Shri do not amount to titles within the meaning of Article 18(1) of the Constitution.

Statement 2 is incorrect: Padma awards were instituted in the year 1954 and have been suspended in years 1978, 1979, 1993, and 1997.

Statement 3 is incorrect: Although there is a general guideline to limit the Bharat Ratna to three recipients per year, this rule has been exceeded twice: In 1999, four awards were conferred (Jayaprakash Narayan, Amartya Sen, Gopinath Bordoloi, and Ravi Shankar) and in 2024, Five awards were conferred (M.S. Swaminathan, P.V. Narasimha Rao, Chaudhary Charan Singh, Karpoori Thakur, and L.K. Advani).

Statement 1 is Incorrect: The Brahmani river is formed by the confluence of the Sankh and South Koel rivers near Rourkela; these headstreams originate in the Chota Nagpur Plateau of Jharkhand, not the Eastern Ghats.

Statement 2 is Correct: The Nagavali river (also known as Langulya) originates in the Eastern Ghats near Lakhbahal in the Kalahandi district of Odisha.

Statement 3 is Incorrect: The Subarnarekha river originates in the Chota Nagpur Plateau near Ranchi in Jharkhand and flows through West Bengal and Odisha before entering the Bay of Bengal.

Statement 4 is Correct: The Vamsadhara river originates in the Eastern Ghats near Lanjigarh in the Kalahandi district of Odisha and flows through Andhra Pradesh before joining the Bay of Bengal.

Statement 1 is correct. The trade winds in the tropical zone blow from east to west, causing the western sections of the oceans to be warmer than the eastern sections. This is because these winds push the warm surface waters towards the west.

Statement 2 is correct. On the other hand, in the temperate zone, the westerlies blow from west to east. These winds push the warm waters towards the eastern sections of the oceans, making them warmer than the western sections.

Therefore, both statements are correct.

Wind Systems

The Sutlej is the river that joins the Indus directly after receiving the collective drainage of the other three rivers. According to NCERT Class 11 (India: Physical Environment), the Jhelum and Ravi rivers join the Chenab, and the Chenab subsequently joins the Sutlej in Pakistan. The Sutlej then flows into the Indus a few kilometres above Mithankot. Thus, the Sutlej acts as the final conduit for the combined waters of the Jhelum, Ravi, and Chenab before their confluence with the Indus. This geographical sequence is confirmed by the official UPSC Answer Key for the 2021 Prelims, which identifies Option D as the correct answer.

Statement 1 is incorrect. The ‘lender of last resort’ (LoLR) function of the central bank primarily applies to commercial banks and financial institutions, not trade and industry bodies. Businesses and industries generally rely on commercial banks, financial institutions, and capital markets for funds. The Reserve Bank of India (RBI) does not directly lend to trade and industry bodies under its LoLR function.

Statement 2 is correct. The central bank (RBI) acts as the ‘lender of last resort’ for commercial banks facing liquidity shortages. This helps prevent bank failures and maintains financial stability. RBI provides liquidity through mechanisms like repo operations, open market operations (OMO), and special liquidity facilities.

Statement 3 is incorrect. The RBI does not directly lend to the government to cover budgetary deficits under the 'lender of last resort' function. The government primarily finances deficits through market borrowings, treasury bills, and bonds. However, RBI can indirectly support the government by purchasing government securities in the open market (OMO) or monetizing debt in special situations (historically, through ways and means advances - WMA).

Functions of RBI

• The legislation described would violate Article 14 of the Indian Constitution.

• Article 14 guarantees Equality Before Law and Equal Protection of Laws. This means that laws must be applied fairly and consistently, and everyone should be treated equally under the law.

• Legislation that gives unchecked power to the executive or administration to apply the law violates this principle.

Option B is incorrect. Article 28 is related to the right to freedom of religion.

Option C is incorrect. Article 32 confers the right to remedies for the enforcement of the fundamental rights of an aggrieved citizen. Article 32 affirms the right to move the Supreme Court if a fundamental right is violated. Under this article, the Supreme Court can issue writs for the enforcement of any of the fundamental rights of the citizens.

Option D is incorrect. Article 44 provides for one of the Directive Principles of State Policy. Article 44 says that the State shall endeavor to secure for the citizens a uniform civil code throughout the territory of India.

Statement 1 is Correct: Genetic engineering is fundamental to the development of recombinant vector vaccines. This process involves isolating the gene that codes for a specific antigen (a protein that triggers an immune response) from a pathogen and inserting it into the genetic material of a harmless carrier, known as a vector. Unlike recombinant protein vaccines (like Hepatitis B) where the antigen is produced in a lab, recombinant vector vaccines use the vector to deliver the genetic instructions directly into the human body.

Statement 2 is Correct: Both viruses and bacteria can serve as vectors in these vaccines. Viral vectors, such as Adenoviruses (used in the AstraZeneca/Covishield COVID-19 vaccine) or the Vesicular Stomatitis Virus (used in Ebola vaccines), are common. Bacterial vectors, such as attenuated strains of Salmonella or Mycobacterium bovis (BCG), are also used in research and development to deliver antigens and stimulate a robust immune response.

Mohandas Karamchand Gandhi translated a collection of ancient Indian religious lyrics from Sanskrit and other Indian languages into English during his imprisonment in Yerwada Jail in 1930. This work was published in London in 1934 under the title ‘Songs from Prison’.

• Bal Gangadhar Tilak: He is well-known for his work 'Gita Rahasya', which he wrote while imprisoned in Mandalay, and 'The Arctic Home in the Vedas'.
• Jawaharlal Nehru: His major literary contributions include 'The Discovery of India' and 'Glimpses of World History', both written during his various terms in prison.
• Sarojini Naidu: Known as the 'Nightingale of India', she was a prolific poet whose works include 'The Golden Threshold', 'The Bird of Time', and 'The Broken Wing', but she is not associated with the translation 'Songs from Prison'.

Statement 1 is Correct: Substitutes are goods that can be used in place of each other. When the price of a substitute (e.g., tea) increases, the good in question (e.g., coffee) becomes relatively cheaper, leading consumers to switch to it and increasing its market demand.

Statement 2 is Incorrect: Complementary goods are consumed together (e.g., cars and petrol). According to standard economic principles (NCERT Class 12 Microeconomics), an increase in the price of a complement leads to a decrease in the demand for the good, as the total cost of using the two together rises.

Statement 3 is Incorrect: For an inferior good, there is an inverse relationship between income and demand. As the income of consumers increases, they tend to switch to superior or normal goods, causing the demand for the inferior good to decrease.

Statement 4 is Correct: According to the Law of Demand, other things remaining equal (ceteris paribus), a fall in the price of a good leads to an increase in the quantity demanded by consumers.

Ishwar Chandra Vidyasagar

• He was associated as Secretary with Hindu Female School which later came to be known as Bethune Female School. As the secretary of the Bethune School established in 1849, Ishwar Chandra Vidyasagar did important work in the field of higher education for women in India.
• Ishwar Chandra Vidyasagar's most significant contribution was his advocacy for widow remarriage and girls' education, leading to the enactment of the Hindu Widow Remarriage Act of 1856.

Annie Besant:

• In September 1916, Annie Besant along with Bal Gangadhar Tilak established the All-India Home Rule League.
• In 1917, Annie Besant was elected the President of the Indian National Congress (INC) Calcutta session, becoming the first woman to hold this position.
• In 1898, she founded the Central Hindu College in Benares. Theosophists from abroad assisted in this effort, and the institution eventually became the foundation for Banaras Hindu University.
• She also established the Central Hindu School for Girls in Varanasi, advancing female education in India.

Debendranath Tagore:

• He founded the Tattvabodhini Sabha and Adi Brahmo Samaj.

Sarojini Naidu:

• In recognition of her service during the plague epidemic in India, the British government honored her with the ‘Kaisar-i-Hind’ Medal.
• In 1925, she became the first Indian woman to be elected president of the Indian National Congress (INC) during its Kanpur Session and held the position until 1928.
• In 1930, Mahatma Gandhi chose her to lead the Salt Satyagraha, a nonviolent protest against the British monopoly on salt production.
• She also accompanied Gandhi to London for the second session of the Round Table Conference in 1931, which ultimately remained inconclusive.

Water molecules are polar, meaning they have a positive charge on one end (the hydrogen atoms) and a negative charge on the other end (the oxygen atom). This polarity allows water molecules to attract and interact with other polar or charged molecules, facilitating the dissolution of a wide range of substances in water.

Therefore, option (a) is correct.

Statement 1 is incorrect: Hyderabad was indeed recognized as a Tree City of the World, but not by the UNCDF and Arbor Day Foundation together. The recognition comes from a joint program by the UN Food and Agriculture Organization (FAO) and the Arbor Day Foundation.

Statement 2 is correct: Hyderabad was selected as a 2020 Tree City of the World by the Arbor Day Foundation in recognition of the city's commitment to urban forestry, including growing and maintaining its urban forests.

Therefore, only the second statement is correct, and the first statement is incorrect.

A constitutional government seeks to limit and regulate the exercise of political power by the government. Constitutional government is by definition limited government. It means government is conducted according to rules and principles, which are binding on all political actors.

Therefore constitutional government helps to constrain the unfettered exercise of power by separating or dividing it. The constitutional government provides a framework in which the government can be both responsible and representative managing conflicts, Protecting the rights, promoting participation, and maintaining the security of the citizens.

Statement 1 is correct. The Climate-Smart Village (CSV) approach is an initiative under the CCAFS program, which focuses on improving climate resilience in agriculture through research and innovation. CCAFS operates in multiple countries, including India, and works on sustainable farming practices, resource efficiency, and climate adaptation strategies in rural areas.

Statement 2 is correct. CCAFS is a global research initiative under the Consultative Group on International Agricultural Research (CGIAR), which is a network of international agricultural research organizations. However, CGIAR’s global headquarters is in Montpellier, France, making the statement factually accurate.

Statement 3 is correct. ICRISAT, based in Hyderabad, India, is a major research institute focusing on improving dryland agriculture. It is indeed one of the CGIAR’s 15 global research centers, working on climate resilience, crop improvement, and food security in semi-arid regions.

The description provided is characteristic of the Tropical Rain Forest (Tropical Evergreen Forest).

• Rapid Decomposition: Tropical rain forests are characterized by high temperatures and high humidity throughout the year. These conditions facilitate intense microbial activity, causing leaf litter to decompose much faster than in any other biome. As a result, nutrients are quickly reabsorbed by plants, leaving the soil surface almost bare of organic matter.
• Vegetation and Epiphytes: Due to the dense, multi-layered canopy, very little sunlight reaches the forest floor. To survive, many plant forms have adapted by climbing trees (lianas) or growing as epiphytes (plants that grow on the branches of trees to access sunlight without being parasitic).
• Key Species: Common trees include Mahogany, Rosewood, Aini, and Ebony.
• Distribution in India: According to NCERT, these forests are found in regions with heavy rainfall (over 200 cm), specifically the Western Ghats, the Northeastern states, and the Andaman & Nicobar Islands.

In contrast, coniferous forests have slow decomposition due to cold climates; dry deciduous forests have seasonal leaf fall and less dense canopies; and mangrove forests are specialized for saline coastal environments with distinct stilt roots.

• Black soil in India is formed by the weathering of fissure volcanic rock.
• Climatic conditions along with the parent rock material are the important factors for the formation of black soil.
• Black soils are spread mostly across interior Gujarat, Maharashtra, Karnataka, and Madhya Pradesh on the Deccan lava plateau and the Malwa Plateau, where there is both moderate rainfall and underlying basaltic rock.

Soils in India

Brown Forest Soil:

• Develops in temperate forest regions with moderate rainfall.
• It is rich in organic matter, fertile, and well-drained.

Granite and Schist:

• Granite is a hard, igneous rock rich in quartz and feldspar, used in construction.
• Schist is a metamorphic rock with flaky layers, formed under heat and pressure.

Shale and Limestone

• Shale is a fine-grained sedimentary rock, often a source of oil and natural gas.
• Limestone is a sedimentary rock rich in calcium carbonate, used in cement production.

Statement A is incorrect: The distance between stellar bodies does change, but often very slowly or in predictable orbits. Planets orbit stars, stars orbit galactic centers, and galaxies orbit each other, all causing continuous changes in distance. And this statement is not related to why distance is measured in light years.

Statement B is incorrect: While the gravitational constant is fundamental, the effective gravity of stellar bodies changes due to shifts in their mass (e.g., fusion, stellar winds), changes in their radius/size (expanding into red giants, collapsing into white dwarfs/neutron stars), and changes in the distance between them as they orbit. And this statement is not related to why distance is measured in light years.

Statement C is incorrect: Though mostly light travels in a straight line, it can be bent by Gravity- phenomenon known as Gravitational Lensing.

Statement D is correct: the speed of light does not change in a vacuum. So, it is a constant that can be used for measurement.

Statement 1 is correct. Furnace oil is indeed a product of oil refineries. It is a dark viscous residual fuel obtained by blending heavier components of crude oil.

Statement 2 is correct. Furnace oil is widely used in industries like cement, steel, and textiles for power generation and heating. It is burned in boilers, furnaces, and engines to produce energy.

Statement 3 is correct. Furnace oil contains high sulfur content, and its combustion releases sulfur oxides (SOₓ), contributing to air pollution and acid rain.

Statement 1 is incorrect: Police Custody means that the police have the physical custody of the accused while Judicial Custody means an accused is in the custody of the concerned Magistrate. In Police custody, the accused is lodged in a police station lockup while in Judicial Custody, he is locked up in the jail.

Statement 2 is correct: During Judicial Custody, the police officer in charge of the case is not allowed to interrogate the suspect. However, the court may allow the interrogations to be conducted if it opines the interrogation is necessary under the facts produced before the court. However, during police custody, the police officer in charge of the case may interrogate the suspect.

Expansionary policies: Expansionary policies like increased government spending or lower interest rates can stimulate economic activity and consumer spending. This can lead to excess demand that outstrips supply, causing prices to rise.

Fiscal stimulus: Similar to expansionary policies, fiscal stimulus through government spending injections can create an inflationary gap if it's excessive.

Higher purchasing power: Higher purchasing power can contribute to demand-pull inflation. If people have more money to spend due to factors like wage increases or wealth accumulation, it can lead to increased demand for goods and services.

Inflation-indexing wages: While inflation-indexing wages can contribute to a wage-price spiral in some cases, it's not necessarily a direct cause of demand-pull inflation. It can be a consequence of inflation rather than a primary driver.

Rising interest rates: Rising interest rates generally act as a tool to cool down an economy and reduce inflation. They make borrowing more expensive and encourage saving, thereby reducing the money supply and aggregate demand.

Therefore, the correct code is 1, 2, and 4.

Types of Inflation

Statement 1 is correct: Permaculture farming indeed discourages monocultural practices, promoting biodiversity and the efficient use of available resources. On the other hand, conventional chemical farming often involves monoculture practices.

Statement 2 is correct: Conventional chemical farming can lead to an increase in soil salinity due to the heavy use of synthetic fertilizers and pesticides, while permaculture farming promotes soil health and does not contribute to soil salinity.

Statement 3 is incorrect: The statement about conventional chemical farming being easily possible in semi-arid regions but permaculture farming not being so easily possible in such regions is not necessarily true. Permaculture farming can be adapted to various climates and environments, including semi-arid regions, by using appropriate design principles and techniques.

Statement 4 is correct: The practice of mulching, which involves covering the soil with organic material to conserve moisture, suppress weeds, and improve soil health, is an important aspect of permaculture farming, but it is not necessarily a key practice in conventional chemical farming.

Statement 1 is incorrect: The oil palm tree (Elaeis guineensis) is native to West Africa, not Southeast Asia. However, Indonesia and Malaysia are now the largest producers of palm oil because the tree was introduced and widely cultivated there due to favorable tropical conditions.

Statement 2 is correct: Palm oil and its derivatives (such as palm kernel oil) are widely used in cosmetic and personal care products, including lipsticks, soaps, and perfumes. It acts as a moisturizing agent, emulsifier, and texture enhancer in these products.

Statement 3 is correct: Palm oil is a major feedstock for biodiesel production. Palm-based biodiesel (Palm Methyl Ester - PME) is used as a renewable fuel alternative in several countries, including Malaysia, Indonesia, and parts of Europe.

• The R2 Code of Practices is a tool available for promoting the adoption of environmentally responsible practices in the electronics recycling industry.

• R2 stands for Responsible Recycling. The Code of Practices outlines a set of standards that electronics recyclers should follow to ensure responsible handling of electronic waste.

Statement 1 is incorrect: Adenoviruses have double-stranded DNA genomes. Retroviruses have single-stranded RNA genomes.

Statement 2 is correct: Adenoviruses are one of the many viruses that can cause the common cold. AIDS (Acquired Immunodeficiency Syndrome) is caused by the Human Immunodeficiency Virus (HIV), which is a type of retrovirus.

Statement 1 is incorrect. When we consider the distribution of water on Earth, we find that the amount of water in rivers and lakes is actually less than the amount of groundwater. This is because groundwater is stored in the Earth's crust, in the pores and spaces between rocks and soil, and it accounts for a significant portion of the Earth's fresh water. On the other hand, rivers and lakes, while visible and important for many ecosystems, actually hold a relatively small amount of the Earth's total water.

Earth's Water Distribution

Statement 2 is correct. The amount of water in polar ice caps and glaciers is indeed more than the amount of groundwater. This is because these ice caps and glaciers, particularly those in Antarctica and Greenland, hold the majority of the Earth's fresh water.

Statement 1 is Correct: The friction and mechanical wear between brake pads and discs in motor vehicles generate iron-rich particulate matter, which can oxidize to form magnetite nanoparticles.

Statement 2 is Correct: High-temperature combustion within vehicle engines produces magnetite as a byproduct of fuel burning and engine component wear, which is then released as an environmental pollutant.

Statement 3 is Incorrect: Microwave stoves use electromagnetic radiation to heat food; they do not involve combustion or mechanical abrasion that would release magnetite particles into the environment.

Statement 4 is Correct: Power plants, especially coal-fired ones, are significant sources of magnetite. The high-temperature combustion of fossil fuels produces fly ash that contains magnetic iron oxides.

Statement 5 is Incorrect: Telephone lines carry electrical or optical signals and generate electromagnetic fields, but they do not undergo processes that emit physical magnetite particles.

Bollgard I and Bollgard II technologies are mentioned in the context of developing genetically modified (GM) cotton plants resistant to insect pests.

• Bollgard I: This was India's first commercially approved GM crop technology introduced in 2002. It incorporates a single gene (Cry1Ac) from the bacterium Bacillus thuringiensis (Bt) into cotton plants. This Bt gene produces an insecticidal protein that targets and kills certain insect pests, particularly the American Bollworm (Helicoverpa armigera).

• Bollgard II: This is a more advanced technology introduced in mid-2006. It incorporates two genes (Cry1Ac and Cry2Ab) from Bt into cotton. This provides broader resistance against a wider spectrum of insect pests, including lepidopteran caterpillars like the Spodoptera species, in addition to the American Bollworm.

Statement 1 is Correct: The key difference lies in Parliamentary Supremacy. In the British model, Parliament is considered sovereign. This means its legislative powers are supreme, and its laws cannot be challenged by any other body. In India, the Constitution is supreme. Parliament's power to legislate is limited by the Constitution. The judiciary can review laws passed by Parliament and strike them down if they violate the Constitution.

Statement 2 is also Correct: This is a specific example of the limitation on Parliament's power in India. The Constitution Bench of the Supreme Court has the authority to review amendments made to existing laws (Acts) and determine if they are constitutional. This power of judicial review ensures the Constitution remains the supreme law.

The exact constitutional status of India on 26th January 1950 was a Sovereign Democratic Republic.

• The Constitution of India was adopted on 26th November 1949, but it came into effect on 26th January 1950.
• The Preamble of the Constitution, adopted in 1949, defined India as a "Sovereign Democratic Republic."
• The terms "Socialist" and "Secular" were added to the Preamble much later, through the 42nd Amendment Act of 1976.

Therefore, on 26th January 1950, India wasn't yet classified as "Socialist" or "Secular" in its constitution.

Status of India

Statement 1 is correct: (Circular temple, Kachchhapaghata Dynasty) The Chausath Yogini Temple near Morena is a circular temple complex built during the reign of the Kachchhapaghata dynasty, estimated to be around the 11th century CE.

Statement 2 is incorrect: (Not the only circular temple) While the Chausath Yogini Temple is a well-known example, it's not the only circular temple in India. There are other circular temples across the country, such as the Shiva temple at Bhringari in Andhra Pradesh.

Statement 3 is incorrect: (Vaishnava cult) The temple is not primarily associated with the Vaishnava cult, which worships Vishnu. The specific dedication of the temple is debated, with some theories suggesting a connection to Shaktism or Tantric practices.

Statement 4 is correct: (Inspiration for Parliament building) There's a popular belief that the circular design of the Chausath Yogini Temple might have inspired the architects of the Indian Parliament building in New Delhi. However, there's no definitive historical evidence to confirm this connection.

Therefore, the correct statements are 1 and 4.

The Phosphorus Cycle is unique among major biogeochemical cycles because it does not involve a gaseous phase. Instead, phosphorus primarily moves through the lithosphere (rocks), hydrosphere (water), and biosphere (organisms).

• Weathering of Rocks: The main source of phosphorus in this cycle comes from the weathering of phosphate-rich rocks. Over time, geological processes break down these rocks, releasing phosphate ions (PO₄³⁻) into the soil and water.

• Absorption by Plants: Plants absorb phosphorus from the soil, and it moves up the food chain as herbivores and carnivores consume plants and other organisms.

• Return to the Soil: When organisms die, decomposition releases phosphorus back into the environment, where it can re-enter the cycle.

  

  Phosphorus Cycle

• Carbon Cycle: The main source of carbon is atmospheric CO₂, released by respiration, combustion, and volcanic activity.

  

  Carbon Cycle

• Nitrogen Cycle: Nitrogen is primarily cycled through the atmosphere, with nitrogen fixation (by bacteria) being a key process.

  

  Nitrogen Cycle

• Sulphur Cycle: Sulfur is mainly released from volcanic eruptions, decaying organic matter, and fossil fuel combustion, rather than rock weathering.

  

  Sulphur Cycle

Statement 1 is correct. When a country devalues its currency, it becomes cheaper for foreign buyers to purchase the country's exports. This can lead to increased demand for exports, making domestic producers more competitive in the international market.

Statement 2 is incorrect. Devaluation actually decreases the foreign value of the domestic currency. The whole point is to make the domestic currency less expensive relative to foreign currencies.

Statement 3 is also incorrect. While improved export competitiveness can lead to a better trade balance (more exports, fewer imports), it's not a guaranteed outcome. Other factors like import prices, global demand, and domestic production costs can also influence the trade balance. Devaluation can also lead to increased import costs if the country relies on imported raw materials.

Therefore, the correct code is 1 only.

Pair 1 is incorrect. Burzahom, located in the Kashmir Valley, is an archaeological site known for its Neolithic and Megalithic phases. Rock-cut shrines were not a prominent feature of the Neolithic period.

Pair 2 is correct. Chandra-Ketugarh is indeed well-known for its terracotta art. Excavations at Chandra-Ketugarh, located near Kolkata in West Bengal, have revealed a vast collection of terracotta objects dating back to the 3rd century BCE to the 3rd century CE.

Pair 3 is correct. Ganeshwar is an archaeological site located in Rajasthan, India. It is known for its Copper Hoard Culture, dating back to the Chalcolithic period (approximately 4000-2000 BCE). Ganeshwar is renowned for its large number of copper artefacts, including tools, weapons, and ornaments, providing valuable insights into ancient metallurgy and trade networks.

Therefore, pairs 2 and 3 are correct.

Statement 1 is Incorrect: Copper smelting plants are not typically associated with the release of lethal quantities of carbon monoxide into the environment; the primary gaseous pollutant of concern is sulfur dioxide. Statement 2 is Correct: Copper slag is a byproduct of the smelting process that contains heavy metals such as arsenic, lead, and cadmium. These metals can leach into the environment, potentially contaminating soil and groundwater resources. Statement 3 is Correct: Copper smelting plants are a major source of sulfur dioxide (SO2) emissions. This occurs because most copper ores are sulfide minerals (like chalcopyrite), and the sulfur within the ore is oxidized and released as SO2 gas during the roasting and smelting processes.

The Lemongrass plant is known to be an excellent mosquito repellant.

According to a study conducted in 2011, around 95% of mosquitos from a specific range of species were either killed or completely repelled due to the intense odour of lemongrass oil.

Commonly known as Citronella oil, the impact of the essential oil from Lemongrass is known to last for around two and a half hours. For some species of mosquitos, it is even more.

Statement 1 is Correct: Article 5 of the Indian Constitution explicitly mentions "domicile" in the territory of India. Furthermore, the Supreme Court in the Pradeep Jain v. Union of India case ruled that India has only one domicile—the domicile of India—and does not recognize separate state domiciles.

Statement 2 is Incorrect: Under Article 58 of the Constitution, any person who is a citizen of India is eligible for the office of the President (Head of State). Unlike the United States, where only a natural-born citizen can become President, in India, both a citizen by birth and a naturalized citizen are eligible for the post.

Statement 3 is Incorrect: According to the Citizenship Act, 1955, the Central Government can deprive a person of their citizenship (Deprivation) if it was obtained by fraud, false representation, concealment of material facts, or if the citizen has shown disloyalty to the Constitution of India.

• The Separation of Powers between the legislature, the executive, and the judiciary constitute an important safeguard of liberty in a liberal democracy.

• The doctrine of Separation of powers entails the division of the legislative, executive, and judicial functions of government among different organs. This separation minimizes the possibility of arbitrary excesses by the government since all three organs act as checks and balances on the powers of each other. Therefore, none of the three organs can usurp the essential functions of other organs.

• This demarcation prevents the concentration of excessive power by any branch of the Government. It thus helps to safeguard the liberty and rights of the people in a democracy.

Statement 1 is correct: The size of the hole in the lid regulates the amount of steam released. A larger hole permits more steam to escape, leading to reduced pressure and subsequently affecting the temperature.

Statement 2 is incorrect: Boiling water can never exceed 100 degrees Celsius, regardless of the intensity of the flame beneath the pot. However, within a pressure cooker, the temperature can elevate to as high as 121 degrees Celsius. The heightened cooking temperature serves to decrease the cooking duration rather than the temperature itself.

Statement 3 is correct: If the weight is heavier, it will require higher pressure to lift it, resulting in higher pressure inside the cooker before excess steam can escape. Higher pressure leads to a higher boiling point for the water inside the cooker, which in turn increases the cooking temperature. Conversely, if the weight is lighter, it results in a lower pressure inside the cooker and a lower boiling point for the water, leading to a lower cooking temperature.

Statement 1 is incorrect. Urban Cooperative Banks (UCBs) are not solely regulated by State Governments. They are jointly regulated by the Reserve Bank of India (RBI) and the respective State Governments. In 2020, the Banking Regulation (Amendment) Act, 2020 gave RBI more control over UCBs, bringing them largely under its regulatory framework for financial stability.

Statement 2 is correct. As per the Banking Regulation (Amendment) Act, 2020, Urban Cooperative Banks can raise funds by issuing equity shares, preference shares, and unsecured debentures with RBI approval. This allows UCBs to strengthen their capital base and improve financial health.

Statement 3 is correct. Initially, cooperative banks were regulated under state laws. In 1966, an amendment to the Banking Regulation Act, 1949, brought Urban Cooperative Banks (UCBs) under RBI's purview for banking-related functions. However, their management and administrative aspects remained under state cooperative laws.

Banking Structure

Statement A is incorrect: Increase in the Cash Reserve Ratio (CRR) in banks. CRR is the percentage of deposits banks must keep with the RBI. If CRR increases, banks have less money to lend, reducing the money multiplier.

Statement B is incorrect: Increase in the Statutory Liquidity Ratio (SLR) in banks. SLR is the percentage of deposits banks must keep in liquid assets like gold or government securities. A higher SLR means less lending capacity, reducing the money multiplier.

Statement C is correct: Increase in the banking habits of the people. If more people deposit money in banks instead of holding cash, banks get more reserves to lend, increasing the money multiplier. This expands the credit creation process, leading to a higher money supply.

Statement D is incorrect: Increase in the population of the country. A higher population does not directly impact the money multiplier unless it leads to a rise in banking habits or economic activity.

Foreign Direct Investment (FDI) refers to the investment through capital instruments by a person resident outside India in an unlisted Indian company, or in 10% or more of the post-issue paid-up equity capital of a listed Indian company.

• Statements 1 and 3 are correct: Foreign Currency Convertible Bonds (FCCBs) and Global Depository Receipts (GDRs) are instruments used by Indian companies to raise capital from foreign markets. Under the FDI policy of the Government of India, investments made through these instruments are treated as part of the FDI framework because they represent or convert into equity shares of the company.
• Statement 2 is correct: While Foreign Institutional Investment (FII) is generally categorized as Portfolio Investment, the Arvind Mayaram Committee recommended that any investment by a foreign investor/FII/FPI that exceeds 10% of the equity of an Indian company should be treated as FDI. Thus, with the condition of reaching the 10% threshold, FII is included in FDI.
• Statement 4 is incorrect: Non-Resident External (NRE) deposits are bank accounts maintained by NRIs in Indian banks. These are classified as 'Banking Capital' or 'External Debt' (if repatriable) and are not considered as Foreign Direct Investment in a productive enterprise.

Statement 1 is Incorrect: Copepods are a group of small crustaceans found in nearly every freshwater and saltwater habitat; they are zooplankton that function as consumers (secondary producers) rather than primary producers. Statement 2 is Correct: Cyanobacteria are photosynthetic bacteria that obtain energy through photosynthesis and are significant primary producers in marine environments. Statement 3 is Correct: Diatoms are a major group of microalgae (phytoplankton) found in the oceans and are among the most important primary producers in the marine food chain. Statement 4 is Incorrect: Foraminifera are single-celled amoeboid protists that primarily function as consumers (zooplankton) by catching food with their ectoplasm.

Statement 1 is Incorrect: Section 33(7) of the Representation of the People Act, 1951, was amended in 1996 to restrict a candidate from contesting from more than two constituencies in a single general election or bye-elections held simultaneously.

Statement 2 is Correct: In the 1991 Lok Sabha elections, Shri Devi Lal contested from three constituencies: Rohtak (Haryana), Sikar (Rajasthan), and Ferozepur (Punjab). This was permissible at the time as the two-constituency limit was only introduced in 1996.

Statement 3 is Incorrect: There is no provision in the Representation of the People Act or election rules that requires a candidate or their party to bear the cost of bye-elections. Currently, the expenditure for conducting bye-elections is borne by the respective State Governments and the Central Government through the Election Commission.

All the statements are correct.

Being employed in a Royal Household of the Vijayanagar empire implies that women served a variety of roles and were crucial to the workings of the palace.

It was during the zenith of the Vijayanagar empire that female artists were encouraged to contribute to literature. Krishnadevaraya, besides having dominion over peninsular India, patronised female writers and poets.

According to Portuguese writer Ferno Nuniz, the women in the Vijayanagara Empire were experts in various fields, including :

• Wrestling (skilled in martial arts)
• Astrology (predicted celestial events)
• Accounting (managed financial records)
• Soothsaying (foretold the future based on signs and omens)

So the correct answer is 1, 2, 3 and 4.

On 8th August 1942, the Quit India Resolution was adopted by the All India Congress Committee (AICC). This was a significant event in the Indian freedom struggle as it marked the launch of the Quit India Movement, led by Mahatma Gandhi, demanding an end to British Rule in India.

The other options are not related to this specific date.

• The Viceroy’s Executive council was indeed expanded to include more Indians, but this was part of the August Offer in 1940, not on 8th August 1942.
• The Congress ministries did resign in seven provinces, but this happened in 1939, not in 1942.
• Lastly, Cripps did propose an Indian Union with full Dominion Status, but this was part of the Cripps Mission, which also did not occur on 8th August 1942.

Therefore, the correct answer is that the Quit India Resolution was adopted by the AICC on this date.

Quit India Movement

Statement 1 is Correct: Under Article 128, the Chief Justice of India may, at any time, with the previous consent of the President, request a retired Judge of the Supreme Court or a duly qualified retired Judge of a High Court to sit and act as a Judge of the Supreme Court.

Statement 2 is Incorrect: The Supreme Court derives its explicit power of review from Article 137 of the Constitution. High Courts have no equivalent explicit constitutional provision granting them review powers. While High Courts, being Courts of Record under Article 215, possess certain inherent powers, their power of review is neither equivalent in source nor in scope to the Supreme Court's review power under Article 137. This distinction was the basis of the official UPSC Answer Key for Prelims 2021, which confirmed Option (A) as correct.

Option A is correct: The Ajanta Caves are a series of 29 rock-cut Buddhist cave monuments located in the Aurangabad district of Maharashtra. They are situated in the horseshoe-shaped gorge of the Waghora River.

Option B is incorrect: Sanchi Stupa is located on a hilltop at Sanchi in the Raisen District of Madhya Pradesh. It is situated near the Betwa River, not the Chambal River.

Option C is incorrect: The Pandu-Lena Caves (also known as Nasik Caves) are a group of 24 Buddhist caves carved into the Trirashmi hills near Nashik, Maharashtra. They are not located in the gorge of the Narmada River.

Option D is incorrect: The Amaravati Stupa is located on the banks of the Krishna River in the Guntur district of Andhra Pradesh, not the Godavari River.

The most inflationary method of financing a budget deficit is the creation of new money.

Option A is incorrect: Repayment of public debt involves the government transferring money back to the creditors (the public). This increases the liquidity and money supply in the hands of the public. However, it is generally less inflationary than printing new money because the funds used for repayment often come from tax revenues, which reduces the disposable income of the public elsewhere.

Option B is incorrect: Borrowing from the public involves a transfer of existing money from individuals and private institutions to the government. Since the total money supply in the economy remains the same (it just changes hands), this is considered the least inflationary way to finance a deficit.

Option C is incorrect: Borrowing from commercial banks can lead to an increase in the money supply if banks use their excess reserves to lend to the government, potentially leading to credit creation. While more inflationary than borrowing from the public, its impact is still significantly lower than the direct creation of new money.

Option D is correct: Creation of new money (often called deficit financing or monetization of debt) occurs when the central bank prints new currency to fund government expenditure. This directly increases the 'high-powered money' or monetary base in the economy. This expansion of the money supply, without a corresponding increase in the production of goods and services, leads to a sharp rise in price levels, making it the most inflationary option.

Statement 1 is correct: The Federal Reserve's monetary policy decisions, particularly regarding interest rates, can impact global capital flows. If the Fed raises interest rates, it can make US investments more attractive, potentially leading to some outflow of capital from India. This could affect demand for Indian government bonds and influence their yield.

Statement 2 is correct: The RBI's monetary policy plays a crucial role in influencing Indian government bond yields. The RBI's actions like setting repo rates, open market operations, and cash reserve ratio (CRR) can affect the overall liquidity in the banking system. Higher liquidity can lead to lower yields, and vice versa.

Statement 3 is correct: Inflation expectations and short-term interest rates are important factors for investors when considering the return on government bonds. Higher inflation expectations can lead investors to demand higher yields to compensate for the potential erosion of purchasing power. Similarly, short-term interest rates can act as a benchmark for bond yields.

Therefore, all three factors significantly influence the yields of Indian government bonds.

• Bacteria can be cultured and grown in various artificial culture media, such as nutrient broth, agar plates, or other specific media formulations. Bacteria can metabolize and utilize the nutrients provided in these synthetic culture media to grow and reproduce.

• Fungi can also be cultured in artificial media, such as potato dextrose agar, Sabouraud dextrose agar, or other specialized fungal growth media. Fungi can utilize the organic compounds and nutrients present in these synthetic media to support their growth and development.

• Viruses, on the other hand, are obligate intracellular parasites and cannot be directly cultured in artificial or synthetic media. Viruses require living host cells to replicate and propagate, as they lack the necessary machinery for autonomous growth and reproduction.

Halbi, Ho, and Kui are tribal languages spoken in different regions of India:

1. Halbi (Halabi): An Indo-Aryan language spoken primarily by the Halba tribe in Chhattisgarh, Odisha, Madhya Pradesh, and Maharashtra.
2. Ho: An Austroasiatic language (Munda group) spoken by the Ho people, mainly in Jharkhand and Odisha.
3. Kui (Kondh): A South-Central Dravidian language spoken by the Kandha (Khond) tribe, primarily in Odisha. It is closely related to Gondi and Pengo languages.

The concentration of wealth violates the Directive principles of state policy.

Under Article 39 of the Constitution of India, the State shall direct its policy towards ensuring that the operation of the economic system does not result in the concentration of wealth and means of production to the common detriment. It is a key part of ensuring economic justice for all.