UPSC Prelims 2021 Analysis

Explanation

Statement 1 is correct. Sodium lamps emit light in a 360-degree pattern, while LED lamps are directional.

Statement 2 is incorrect. LED lamps generally have a longer lifespan compared to sodium lamps.

Statement 3 is correct. Sodium lamps emit monochromatic light, whereas LED lamps offer a wider spectrum of visible light, providing significant colour advantages in street lighting.

Explanation

1. The Guptas of Magadha: The Later Gupta dynasty did indeed succeed the imperial Guptas and ruled parts of Magadha during the early 7th century.

2. The Paramaras of Malwa: The Paramara dynasty emerged much later, around the 9th century, and ruled in central India (Malwa region).

3. The Pushyabhutis of Thanesar: The Pushyabhuti dynasty, also known as Vardhana, flourished in the 6th and 7th centuries and held power in parts of North India, including Thanesar.

4. The Maukharis of Kanauj: The Maukhari dynasty rose to prominence after the Guptas and controlled Kanauj for some time.

5. The Yadavas of Devagiri: The Yadava dynasty, also known as the Seuna dynasty, established their kingdom much later, around the 12th century, in western India.

6. The Maitrakas of Valabhi: The Maitrakas were contemporaries of the Guptas and established an independent kingdom in western India (Gujarat) after being tributary chiefs for a while.

Therefore, the correct answer is 1, 3, 4 and 6.

Explanation

Out of the statements about seabed exploration and mining in international waters

1. Incorrect The Global Ocean Commission was an international initiative, not a regulatory body granting licenses. The International Seabed Authority (ISA) regulates seabed mining in international waters.

2. Correct like other countries, India can apply for and receive exploration licenses from the ISA for areas beyond national jurisdictions. Since 2014, India has obtained licences from the International Sea Bed Authority for seabed mineral exploration in international waters.

3. Correct Rare earth minerals are among the potential resources found on the seabed in international waters, although their commercial viability is still being explored.

Therefore, the correct statements are 2 and 3 only.

Explanation

Statement 1 is incorrect. Pingali Venkayya: He is the designer of the Indian National Flag. He presented the tricolour flag to Mahatma Gandhi in 1921 at the Indian National Congress session in Bezwada (now Vijayawada, Andhra Pradesh).

Statement 2 is incorrect. Pattabhi Sitaramayya: He was President of the Indian National Congress in 1948. He advocated for the linguistic reorganization of states and played a role in the demand for a separate Andhra state.

Statement 3 is correct. Madanapalle, a town in Andhra Pradesh, is known for a significant event related to the National Anthem of India. Rabindranath Tagore, during his brief stay at Theosophical College in Madanapalle in 1919, translated his Bengali poem/National Anthem Jana Gana Mana into English as Morning Song of India.

Statement 4 is incorrect. Madame Blavatsky and Colonel Olcott: Founders of the Theosophical Society (1875). The Theosophical Society was established in New York (1875) and later moved to Adyar, Chennai (1882), not Madanapalle.

Explanation

Statement 1 is incorrect Both Dayabhaga and Mitakshara are the basic to the upper castes alone. Mitakshara school is followed in most of India while Dayabhaga is followed in Bengal.

Statement 2 is correct In the Dayabhaga system, sons obtain rights to property only at the death of the father, and in the Mitakshara school, the sons and grandsons have rights over his property even while he is alive.

Statement 3 is incorrect Both Dayabhaga system and Mitakshara system deals with property held with women.

Explanation

Statement 1 is correct St. Francis Xavier was a Spanish Jesuit who lived as a Roman Catholic missionary in the 1500s. He was one of the first seven members of the Jesuit order.

Statement 2 is incorrect He did not die in Goa but at Sachian, an island off the coast of China. A church in memory of St. Xaviercalled the Church of Bom Jesus, is located in Goa with his mortal remains.

Statement 3 is correct A feast in honor of St. Xavier is celebrated annually in Goa.

Explanation

Filter feeders are a subgroup of suspension-feeding animals that feed by straining suspended matter and food particles from water, typically by passing the water over a specialised filtering structure.

Some animals that use this method of feeding are clams, krill, sponges, baleen whales, and many fish (including some sharks). Some birds, such as flamingos and certain species of duck, are also filter feeders. Filter feeders can play an important role in clarifying water, and are therefore considered ecosystem engineers. They are also important in bioaccumulation and, as a result, as indicator organisms. Oyster is one of the filter feeders.

Pearl Farming

• Pearls are the only gemstones in the world that come from a living creature. Mollusks such as oysters and mussels produce these precious jewels.
• Pearl culture practices are present in Gujarat, Maharashtra, Bihar, Odisha, Kerala, Rajasthan, Jharkhand, Goa, and Tripura.

Explanation

Option A is correct. In a federal system, power is distributed between the central government and the states. There can be disputes about the division of power or interpretation of the Constitution. An independent judiciary acts as an impartial umpire to settle these disputes and uphold the Constitution. It ensures that both the central government and the states function within their constitutional boundaries.The other options, while relevant to Indian polity, are not exclusive to federal systems

Option B is incorrect. The Union Legislature having elected representatives from constituent units This is a common feature in both federal and some unitary states with devolved power.

Option C is incorrect. The Union Cabinet having elected representatives from regional parties This is not a defining characteristic of federalism. Political party affiliation doesn't necessarily determine the federal structure.

Option D is incorrect. The Fundamental Rights being enforceable by Courts of Law While essential for a democracy, this feature exists even in some non-federal states.

Explanation

The Common Carbon Metric (CCM) is a protocol developed by the United Nations Environment Program's Sustainable Buildings & Climate Initiative (UNEP-SBCI) for measuring energy use and reporting greenhouse gas (GHG) emissions from building operations.

Its purpose is to support GHG emissions reductions through accurate measurement of energy efficiency. It is a universal method of measuring a building's carbon footprint and allows emissions from buildings around the world to be consistently assessed and compared.

Therefore, it is used for assessing the carbon footprint of building operations around the world.

Explanation

Previously a Fundamental Right

• Before 1978, the Indian Constitution guaranteed the right to property as a fundamental right under Article 19(1)(f) and Article 31.
• This meant citizens had the right to acquire, hold, and dispose of their property.
• Article 31 also ensured that the government couldn't take over private property without due compensation and for public purposes only.

Change in 1978

• The 44th Amendment Act of 1978 changed the status of the Right to Property.
• Articles 19(1)(f) and 31 were removed from the list of fundamental rights.
• A new Article, 300-A, was introduced under Part XII of the Constitution.

Current Status A legal right available to any person.

• Article 300-A states, "No person shall be deprived of his property save by authority of law."
• This means the government can still acquire private property, but only under legal authorization.
• The law should be fair and reasonable, and the government has the power to decide the quantum of compensation.

Explanation

Correct WaterCredit uses microfinance tools to help people access clean water and sanitation solutions. It provides small loans to individuals and households to invest in these facilities.

Incorrect WaterCredit is not a global initiative under WHO and World Bank. It's an initiative of Water.org, an international non-profit organization focused on water and sanitation access.

Correct WaterCredit aims to empower people by enabling them to pay for their own water and sanitation needs, reducing reliance on potentially unreliable subsidies.

Therefore, the correct answer is 1 and 3 only.

Explanation

Hedgehogs are small mammals have a unique defense mechanism where they roll up into a tight ball, using their sharp spines as a form of protection against predators.

Marmots do not roll up to protect themselves. Instead, they typically rely on burrows and their ability to give warning calls to avoid predators.

Similar to hedgehogs, pangolins also roll up into a ball when threatened. They use their tough keratin scales as armor to protect their vulnerable parts.

Explanation

Statement 1 is incorrect. Sh. N. Gopalaswamy Ayyangar, in his Report namely Reorganization of the Machinery of Central Government in 1950 recommended for the grouping of ministries, improvement in the capabilities of the personnel, and also in the working of the O&M Division. It nowhere mentions that a minister and a secretary be designated solely for pursuing the subject of administrative reform and promoting it.

Statement 2 is correct. In 1970, based on the recommendations of the Administrative Reforms Commission, the Department of Personnel was set up in the Cabinet Secretariat. It was placed under the Prime Minister's Office.

Explanation

Statement 1 is incorrect International Mother Language Day is observed on 21 February every year. It is declared by UNESCO and not UNICEF.

Statement 2 is correct The demand that Bangla has to be one of the national languages was raised in the Constituent Assembly of Pakistan.

Explanation

Statement 1 is correct. The Governor of RBI is appointed by the Central Government under the RBI Act, 1934. The Appointments Committee of the Cabinet (ACC), led by the Prime Minister, finalizes the selection. The tenure is typically four years, but the government has the authority to extend or terminate the term.

Statement 2 is incorrect. The Constitution of India does not have any direct provision allowing the Central Government to issue directions to the RBI. However, Section 7 of the RBI Act, 1934, gives the Central Government the power to issue directions to the RBI in the public interest, but this is a statutory provision, not a constitutional one.

Statement 3 is correct. The powers, functions, and responsibilities of the RBI Governor come from the Reserve Bank of India Act, 1934. The Act defines the Governor's role, monetary policy responsibilities, and overall authority over banking regulations.

Explanation

The number of matches won is not the sole deciding factor While the number of wins plays a role, the World Test Championship uses a points system based on series results. Teams receive points for winning or drawing Test matches within a series.

The ranking isn't solely based on most matches won The statement provides an incomplete picture. The ranking considers the points accumulated through the series, not just the overall number of matches won across the entire tournament.

Explanation

Statement 1 is incorrect. The Montagu-Chelmsford Reforms of 1919 did not recommend granting voting rights to all women above the age of 21. While the reforms introduced some limited electoral reforms, including the extension of the franchise to a larger section of the Indian population, they did not grant universal suffrage to women. Statement 2 is correct. The Government of India Act of 1935 introduced reserved seats for women in the legislatures at both the central and provincial levels. These reserved seats were aimed at ensuring representation for women in the political process.

Government of India, Act 1919

• Introduced limited self-government and increased Indian participation
• Introduced Dyarchy (Dual Government) in provinces:

1. Transferred subjects → Administered by Indian ministers
2. Reserved subjects → Administered by British officials

• Bicameral Legislature at the Central Level
• Separate Electorates Continued
• High Commissioner for India in London was created to represent Indian affairs in Britain.
• Subjects divided into Central and Provincial lists
• Voting rights were restricted based on property, income, and education.

Government of India, Act 1935

• Created an All-India Federation consisting of British Indian Provinces and Princely States. (Never Implemented)
• Bicameralism extended to six provinces (Bengal, Bombay, Madras, Bihar, Assam, and United Provinces)
• Abolished Dyarchy at the provincial level, Introduced Provincial Autonomy → Governors had to act on ministers' advice (except in special cases)
• Three lists introduced:

1. Federal List (Centre)
2. Provincial List (Provinces)
3. Concurrent List (Both Centre & Provinces)

• Ministers had full control over provincial subjects (except during emergencies)
• Established the Federal Court of India (precursor to the Supreme Court)
• Communal and separate electorates were retained and extended to groups such as Anglo-Indians and Indo-Christians.
• Women were given reservations in Provincial and central legislature.

Explanation

Statement 1 is correct Yes, Retail investors through demat accounts can invest in Treasury Bills and Government of India Debt Bonds in the primary market.

Statement 2 is correct The Negotiated Dealing System-Order Matching is a government securities trading platform of the Reserve Bank of India.

Statement 3 is incorrect Central Depository Services Ltd (CDSL), is the first listed Indian central securities depository based in Mumbai. CDSL is promoted by BSE Ltd. jointly with leading banks such as State Bank of India, Bank of India, Bank of Baroda, HDFC Bank, and Standard Chartered Bank.

Explanation

Mitochondrial replacement therapy (MRT) is a reproductive technique used to prevent the transmission of mitochondrial diseases from mother to child. It involves replacing defective mitochondria in an egg or embryo with healthy mitochondria from a donor. MRT can be performed either before or after in vitro fertilization to ensure that the resulting embryo does not inherit mitochondrial diseases.

Mitochondrial DNA (mtDNA), which is responsible for encoding genes essential for mitochondrial function, is inherited exclusively from the mother. Therefore, mitochondrial diseases caused by mutations in mtDNA are passed down maternally, and a child cannot inherit mitochondrial diseases from the father.

Therefore, both statements are correct.

Explanation

Bisphenol A (BPA) is a key component in the manufacture of polycarbonate plastics.

Polycarbonate plastics are a type of synthetic plastic material that is known to contain Bisphenol A (BPA) as a structural component.

BPA is used in the production of polycarbonate plastics, which are commonly used in various consumer products such as Water bottles, Food storage containers, Household electronics, Eyeglass lenses, Compact discs (CDs) and digital versatile discs (DVDs)

BPA has raised health concerns due to its potential to act as an endocrine disruptor, which can interfere with the body's hormonal system.

Explanation

"Blue Carbon" designates carbon that is fixed via coastal ocean ecosystems , rather than traditional land ecosystems, like forests .

Although the ocean's vegetated habitats cover less than 0.5% of the seabed, they are responsible for more than 50%, and potentially up to 70%, of all carbon storage in ocean sediments.

Explanation

Right to the city is a holistic approach to improving the quality of everyday life in cities.

Statement 1 is correct. The right to the city is at the heart of the New Urban Agenda agreed at Habitat III. UN-Habitat partners with national and local governments, academia, civil society, and the private sector in the implementation and monitoring of the commitment made under the New Urban Agenda and SDG 11.

The Universal Declaration of Human Rights commits to social justice through the promotion, defense, and fulfillment of all human rights related to habitat, including the Human Right to Adequate Housing, Land, and the Right to the City in every region of the world.

Statement 2 is also correct. The Right to the City is the right of all inhabitants (present and future, permanent and temporary) to inhabit, use, occupy, produce, transform, govern, and enjoy cities, towns, and human settlements that are just, inclusive, safe, sustainable and democratic, defined as common goods for enjoying life with dignity and peace. The right to the city further implies responsibilities on governments and people to claim, defend, and promote this right.

Statement 3 is incorrect. The Right to the City does not mean the guarantee of any public service or facility to the unauthorized colonies in a city. It guarantees the common goods and services which are essential for the quality of life.

Therefore, only two statements are correct.

Explanation

The right to privacy in India is not explicitly mentioned in a single article of the Constitution. However, it is considered an intrinsic part of the fundamental right to life and liberty guaranteed under Article 21.

This recognition came about through a landmark Supreme Court judgment in 2017, K.S. Puttaswamy (Retd) vs Union of India. The court ruled that the right to privacy is an inseparable part of the right to life and personal liberty, and is protected under Article 21.

Explanation

The vegetation of savannah consists of grassland with scattered small trees. The forest development in such areas is generally kept in check by one or more or a combination of some conditions. These conditions include fire, grazing herbivores, and seasonal rainfall.

Fire is a common occurrence in savannahs and it helps to maintain the grassland by burning out tree saplings.

Grazing herbivores also help to maintain the grassland by eating young tree saplings before they can grow into mature trees.

Seasonal rainfall also plays a role as it affects the growth of trees and grasses.

Burrowing animals and termites, while they do have an impact on the ecosystem, are not the primary factors controlling forest development. Similarly, soil properties can affect the types of vegetation that can grow, but they are not the primary factors controlling forest development in savannahs.

Therefore, the correct answer is (c) 2, 3 and 4.

Savannah Climate:

• It is a transitional climate between equatorial rainforests and hot deserts.
• It has wet and dry seasons like the monsoon climate but with much less rainfall. Unlike the monsoon climate, it lacks a distinct rainy season.
• It has only two seasons—winter and summer, with rain occurring in summer. The savanna landscape features tall grasses and scattered short trees.
• The savanna is called the ‘big game country’ because thousands of animals are hunted or trapped annually by people worldwide.

Explanation

Cnidarians Many cnidarian species, such as corals, develop symbiotic relationships with single-celled algae called zooxanthellae. This symbiosis is crucial for the survival and growth of coral reefs.

Fungi are known to form various symbiotic relationships with other organisms, including Mycorrhizal associations with plant roots, where the fungus helps the plant absorb nutrients in exchange for carbohydrates. Lichens are a symbiotic relationship between a fungus and an algae or cyanobacteria.

Protozoa Some protozoa living in the digestive tracts of termites and ruminant animals, helping them break down cellulose.

Therefore, all three groups - cnidarians, fungi, and protozoa - have species that can form symbiotic relationships with other organisms.

Explanation

The correct sequence in ascending order of size for administrative divisions in medieval India is

1. Pargana
2. Sarkar
3. Suba

Pargana The smallest unit was the Pargana, which typically comprised a group of villages. It was the most basic level of administration. Sarkar A group of Parganas formed a Sarkar, which can be understood as a district or province. Suba The largest administrative division was the Suba, which encompassed several Sarkars. It was equivalent to a modern-day state or province.

Explanation

During the reign of Iltutmish, the Mongol ruler Genghis Khan (Chengiz Khan) invaded the Khwarazmian Empire. While pursuing the Khwarazmian prince Jalal ad-Din, Genghis Khan's forces reached the Indus River in the early 13th century.

Taimur's invasion of Multan and crossing of the Indus occurred during the reign of Sultan Mahmud Tughlaq, not Muhammad bin Tughluq. Taimur invaded India in 1398, during the time of Sultan Mahmud Tughlaq's rule.

Vasco da Gama's arrival on the coast of Kerala occurred during the reign of Zamorin ruler of Calicut, not during the reign of Deva Raya II of Vijayanagara Empire. Vasco da Gama's historic voyage to India took place in 1498 during the reign of King Manuel I of Portugal.

Therefore, only statement 1 is correct.

Explanation

Statement 1 is correct American golfer Tiger Woods was the first winner of Laureus World Sports Award.

Statement 2 is incorrect Tennis players have received more Laureus World Sports Awards compared to other sports.

Statement 3 is correct Roger Federer received this award a maximum number of times compared to others.

Explanation

The correct statements about the New York Declaration on Forests are

It was first endorsed at the United Nations Climate Summit in 2014. It does endorse a global timeline to end the loss of forests, aiming for significant reduction by 2020 and ending deforestation by 2030. It is endorsed by a multi-stakeholder group, including governments, companies (big and small), and indigenous communities. Incorrect statements

The New York Declaration on Forests is not a legally binding international declaration. It's a voluntary political declaration. The Declaration is currently endorsed by over 190 entities but it is not endorsed by India. Therefore, the correct answer is code (1, 2, 4)

Explanation

Detritivores These are organisms that feed on dead and decaying organic matter (detritus).

Earthworms They are classic detritivores, breaking down organic matter in soil and aiding in decomposition. Millipedes They feed on decaying leaves and other organic debris on the forest floor. Woodlice These small crustaceans are also detritivores, consuming decaying plant and animal matter.

Jellyfish While they might incidentally ingest some detritus while filtering water for food, they are primarily carnivores, feeding on plankton and small fish. Seahorses These are also not detritivores. They are carnivores, feeding on small shrimp, plankton, and other invertebrates.

Therefore, 1,3 and 5 are detritivores.

Explanation

A comprehensive definition of state should include following elements

A community of people permanently occupying a definite territory This establishes the physical foundation of the state - a population and a defined geographical area.

Possessing an organized government This highlights the presence of a central authority that governs the population within the territory.

Independent of external control (sovereignty) This emphasizes the state's autonomy in exercising its power within its territory.

Explanation

Officers of the Indian Army: Shah Nawaz Khan, Prem Kumar Sehgal, and Gurbaksh Singh Dhillon were senior officers of the Indian National Army (INA), which was led by Subhas Chandra Bose.They are remembered for their significant roles in the INA and their court-martial by the British at Red Fort in 1945.

Members of the Interim Government: The Interim Government of 1946 was formed on 2nd September 1946, as a transitional government before India's independence.

Congress Members

• Jawaharlal Nehru – Vice President & External Affairs and Commonwealth Relations
• Sardar Vallabhbhai Patel – Home, Information & Broadcasting
• Dr. Rajendra Prasad – Food & Agriculture
• Maulana Abul Kalam Azad – Education
• Asaf Ali – Railways & Transport
• C. Rajagopalachari – Industry & Supplies
• Jagjivan Ram – Labour
• John Mathai – Finance
• Sarat Chandra Bose – Works, Mines & Power

Muslim League Members

• Liaquat Ali Khan – Finance
• I.I. Chundrigar – Commerce
• Abdur Rab Nishtar – Posts & Air
• Ghazanfar Ali Khan – Health
• Jogendra Nath Mandal – Law

Members of the Drafting Committee in the Constituent Assembly

• Dr. B.R. Ambedkar – Chairman (Law expert and key architect of the Indian Constitution)
• N. Gopalaswami Ayyangar
• K.M. Munshi
• Mohammad Saadullah
• N. Madhava Rao
• T.T. Krishnamachari
• Alladi Krishnaswamy Iyer

Explanation

The Government had launched a scheme viz Casual Labourers (Grant of Temporary Status and Regularization) Scheme of Government of India, 1993. As per the scheme, Temporary status would be conferred on all casual labourers who were in employment and who have rendered a continuous service of at least one year, which means that they must have been engaged for at least 240 days (206 days in case of offices observing 5 days week). Thus statement 1 is not entirely correct.

Statement 2 is correct The Supreme Court has decreed that casual workers are also entitled to social security benefits as stipulated in the Employees Provident Funds and Miscellaneous Provisions Act. The Court's ruling stemmed from its interpretation of Section 2(f) of the EPF Act, wherein the definition of an "employee" encompasses a broad scope, including any individual engaged directly or indirectly in connection with an establishment's work and receiving wages. A bench of the Supreme Court affirmed this viewpoint.

Statement 3 is correct The government has the authority to specify through a notification that an establishment or industry is obligated to disburse wages exclusively via its bank account.

Explanation

Statement 1 is incorrect. Moringa oleifera, commonly known as the drumstick tree, is a deciduous tree, not an evergreen tree. It sheds its leaves seasonally. Moringa is also a nitrogen-fixing plant, which means it can help restore nutrient balance in the soil by adding nitrogen naturally.

Statement 2 is incorrect. Tamarindus indica is not endemic to South Asia. It is native to tropical Africa and later spread to South Asia and other tropical regions. While tamarind is extensively grown in India, it is also widely cultivated in Southeast Asia, Africa, and the Americas.

Statement 3 is correct. Tamarind is widely collected as minor forest produce by local communities and forest dwellers in many parts of India, especially in states like Madhya Pradesh, Chhattisgarh, Odisha, and Jharkhand.

Statement 4 is correct. India exports tamarind to various countries, especially in Southeast Asia, the Middle East, and Europe. Moringa seeds are also exported due to their high medicinal and industrial value.

Statement 5 is correct. Moringa seeds have a high oil content, which can be processed into biodiesel. Tamarind seeds contain hydrocarbons and polysaccharides that can also be explored for biofuel production.

Explanation

Statement 1 is incorrect Nizamat of Arcot was established by Aurangzeb and was the legal dependency of the Nizam of Hyderabad, it did not emerge from the Hyderabad state.

Statement 2 is correct The Mysore Kingdomemerged out of Vijayanagara Empire. After Vijayanagar fell in 1565, the ruling dynasty of Wodeyars of Mysore asserted their independence.

Statement 3 is incorrect The state of Rohilakhand was felled out of the Afghan migration into India which took place in the mid-18th century. Ali Muhammad Khan took advantage of the collapse of authority in north India following Nadir Shah's invasion, to set up a petty kingdom, Rohilakhand.

Explanation

The 32nd Summer Olympics was held in Tokyo in 2021. The Tokyo 2020 official Games motto was United by Emotion. The Rio Olympics 2016 official slogan was A New World. Thus, statement 1 is incorrect.

New IOC rules for the Tokyo Olympics allowed host cities to choose popular sports for inclusion in the Games. Tokyo Olympics added six new sports, including baseball, softball, surfing, skateboarding, karate, and sports climbing. Additionally, there were new forms of basketball and cycling and mixed-team events in traditional sports. Thus, statement 2 is correct.

Explanation

During an economic recession, the goal is to stimulate economic activity and consumer spending.

A. Cut in Tax Rates & Increase in Interest Rates Cutting taxes puts more money in people's pockets, potentially increasing spending. However, raising interest rates discourages borrowing and investment, potentially hindering economic growth. This combination could have offsetting effects.

B. Increase in Expenditure on Public Projects This injects money into the economy through government spending, creating jobs and boosting demand for goods and services. This is a typical measure during recessions.

C. Increase in Tax Rates & Reduction of Interest Rates Increasing taxes reduces disposable income, dampening consumer spending. Lowering interest rates encourages borrowing and investment, but it might not be effective if there's low confidence in the economy.

D. Reduction of Expenditure on Public Projects This reduces government spending, taking money out of circulation and potentially worsening the recession.

Therefore, the most likely step during an economic recession is (B) Increase in expenditure on public projects

Explanation

The term 'ACE2' is talked about in the context of the spread of viral diseases, particularly COVID-19.

ACE2 stands for Angiotensin-Converting Enzyme 2. It's a protein found on the surface of many cell types in the human body, including those in the lungs, heart, kidneys, and intestines.

Here's why ACE2 is significant

Receptor for SARS-CoV-2 The spike protein on the surface of the SARS-CoV-2 virus, the virus that causes COVID-19, binds to the ACE2 receptor in human cells. This binding is a critical step in the process of how the virus infects cells. Multiple organ infection Since ACE2 is expressed in various organs, it provides the virus with multiple potential entry points. This can contribute to the multi-organ complications sometimes associated with COVID-19. Focus of research Understanding the interaction between the virus and ACE2 is a major area of research for scientists developing vaccines and treatments for COVID-19.

Explanation

Ferns typically require soil and moisture to grow, as they rely on water-conducting tissues and need a substrate to anchor their roots. Lichens are a symbiotic association between a fungus and an algae or cyanobacteria. Lichens are well-adapted to survive on surfaces without soil, such as rocks, tree bark, and even bare ground, as they can obtain their nutrients and moisture directly from the air and precipitation. Lichens are sensitive to airborne pollutants, such as sulfur dioxide (SO2), nitrogen oxides (NOx), ozone (O3), and heavy metals (like lead and mercury). Sulfur dioxide, for instance, causes chlorosis (yellowing) and necrosis (cell death) in lichen thalli. This sensitivity makes lichens an effective indicator of air quality. Mosses are non-vascular plants that can grow on surfaces without soil, such as rocks, tree trunks, and even roofs. Mosses have specialised structures that allow them to absorb water and nutrients directly from the environment. Mushrooms are the reproductive structures of fungi, and they typically require a substrate, such as decaying organic matter, to grow. Mushrooms are not able to directly survive on a surface without soil or a nutrient-rich medium. Therefore, among the given options, lichens and mosses are the most likely to be found surviving on a surface without soil in the natural environment.

Explanation

Parole is not an absolute right in India. There's a consideration process involved. While a prisoner can present their case for parole, the authorities have the discretion to grant or deny it. Hence, Statement 1 is incorrect.

State governments do have their own set of rules governing parole within the broad framework provided by the Prison Act, of 1894 and the Prisoner Act, of 1900. Hence, Statement 2 is correct.

Explanation

Water efficiency of a crop refers to the amount of water required for its growth and development.

Among the options provided, Sugarcane requires the highest amount of water for its growth, making it the least water-efficient crop. It needs around 1800-2200 mm of water per season. On the other hand, Sunflower requires about 672.4 mm/season, Pearl Millet being a drought-tolerant crop requires around 350 mm/season, and Red gram uses about 250-400 mm/season of water.

Therefore, Sugarcane is the least water-efficient crop among the given options.

Explanation

Out of the ancient Indian figures mentioned, Bhavabhuti, Hastimalla and Kshemeshvara were famous playwrights.

Bhavabhuti A celebrated playwright and poet from the 8th century CE, known for his Sanskrit plays like "Mahaviracharita," "Malatimadhava," and "Uttararamacharita."

Hastimalla A Jain poet and writer from the 13th century CE, who wrote in Kannada and is known for his work "Purvapurana."

Kshemeshvara A Sanskrit poet from Kashmir, believed to have lived between the 10th and 11th centuries CE. One of his notable works is "Dasavatar Charita."

Explanation

Dholavira is one of the five largest Harappan sites and is located in the present-day state of Gujarat, India. It was a prominent city of the ancient Indus Valley Civilization, flourishing around 4500 years ago.

Dholavira is renowned for its sophisticated water management system, which includes reservoirs, dams, channels, and other hydraulic structures.

Dholavira was a well-planned city with three distinct divisions: the citadel, middle town, and lower town. The city also had a large stadium or public gathering area, suggesting community events or administrative functions. A remarkable discovery at Dholavira was the earliest known signboard, with inscriptions on a large wooden board, indicating the use of writing for communication or identification.

Kalibangan (Rajasthan)

• First site to show ploughed field patterns.
• Fire altars, indicating ritualistic practices.
• Houses made of mud bricks instead of baked bricks.
• No large water reservoirs like Dholavira.

Rakhigarhi (Haryana)

• Largest IVC site in India.
• Evidence of multi-roomed houses, pottery, and jewelry making.
• Skeletons found suggest the continuity of Harappan genes.
• No evidence of large-scale fortifications like Dholavira.

Ropar (Punjab)

• First Harappan site excavated after India’s independence.
• Harappan culture overlapped with later Vedic culture.
• Evidence of burials with pottery and personal belongings.
• Found near the Sutlej River, showing river-based settlement.

Explanation

A. Diversion to Real Estate While this can happen, it still involves some economic activity and might generate taxes (though potentially not on the full value of the transaction if black money is used).

B. Investment in Unproductive Activities This can hurt the economy, but the government loses tax revenue regardless of the type of investment if it's funded by black money.

C. Donations to Political Parties This is a concern, but the lost tax revenue likely outweighs the impact of such donations.

D. Loss of Revenue Black money, by definition, avoids taxes. This directly reduces the government's income, limiting its ability to fund public services, infrastructure, and social welfare programs.

Tax evasion through black money creation significantly hinders the government's ability to function effectively and meet the needs of its citizens. This is why it's a major concern.

Explanation

Triclosan (sometimes abbreviated as TCS) is an antibacterial and antifungal agent present in some consumer products, including

• toothpaste,
• soaps,
• detergents,
• toys,
• surgical cleaning treatments.

Explanation

Didwana, Kuchaman, Sargol, and Khatu are the names of saline lakes of Rajasthan.

Explanation

At the national level, the Ministry of Tribal Affairs is the nodal agency to ensure effective implementation of the Scheduled Tribes and Other Traditional Forest Dwellers (Recognition of Forest Rights) Act, 2006.

Explanation

In the West coast, the English established factories at Agra, Ahmadabad, Baroda and Broach by 1619.

In the South-eastern Coast, the English established the factories at Masulipatam and Armagaon.

In Eastern India, the English established the factories at Hariharpur, Balasore, Hugli, Patna, Dacca, Kasimbazar.

There was no factory at Chicacole and Trichinopoly.

Explanation

Statement 1 is incorrect The national awards such as Bharat Ratna, Padma Vibhushan, Padma Bhushan, and Padma Shri do not amount to titles within the meaning of Article 18(1) of the Constitution.

Statement 2 is incorrect Padma awards were instituted in the year 1954 and have been suspended in years 1978, 1979, 1993, and 1997.

Statement 3 is Incorrect The number of Bharat Ratna Awards is restricted to a maximum of three in a particular year.

Explanation

1. Brahmani: This river is formed by the confluence of two rivers, Sankh and Koel, which rise from the Chota Nagpur Plateau and flow through the Eastern Ghats before merging. So, it doesn't originate from the Eastern Ghats itself.

2. Nagavali: The Nagavali River originates in the Eastern Ghats in Odisha and flows through Andhra Pradesh before joining the Bay of Bengal.

3. Subarnarekha: This river originates from the Chota Nagpur Plateau in Jharkhand and flows through Odisha before finally joining the Bay of Bengal. It does not rise from the Eastern Ghats.

4. Vamsadhara: The Vamsadhara River originates from the Eastern Ghats in Andhra Pradesh and flows through Odisha before joining the Bay of Bengal.

Hence, only 2 and 4 are correct.

Explanation

The trade winds in the tropical zone blow from east to west, causing the western sections of the oceans to be warmer than the eastern sections. This is because these winds push the warm surface waters towards the west.

On the other hand, in the temperate zone, the westerlies blow from west to east. These winds push the warm waters towards the eastern sections of the oceans, making them warmer than the western sections.

Therefore, both statements are correct.

Explanation

Option A is incorrect. The Chenab joins Satluj in Pakistan.

Option B is incorrect. The Jhelum joins the Chenab near Jhang in Pakistan.

Option C is incorrect. The Ravi joins the Chenab near Sarai Sidhu.

Option D is correct. Satluj is joined by the Chenab in Pakistan. Thus, Satluj receives the collective drainage of the Ravi, Chenab and Jhelum rivers. It joins the Indus a few kilometres above Mithankot.

Explanation

Statement 1 is incorrect. The ‘lender of last resort’ (LoLR) function of the central bank primarily applies to commercial banks and financial institutions, not trade and industry bodies. Businesses and industries generally rely on commercial banks, financial institutions, and capital markets for funds. The Reserve Bank of India (RBI) does not directly lend to trade and industry bodies under its LoLR function.

Statement 2 is correct. The central bank (RBI) acts as the ‘lender of last resort’ for commercial banks facing liquidity shortages. This helps prevent bank failures and maintains financial stability. RBI provides liquidity through mechanisms like repo operations, open market operations (OMO), and special liquidity facilities.

Statement 3 is incorrect. The RBI does not directly lend to the government to cover budgetary deficits under the 'lender of last resort' function. The government primarily finances deficits through market borrowings, treasury bills, and bonds. However, RBI can indirectly support the government by purchasing government securities in the open market (OMO) or monetizing debt in special situations (historically, through ways and means advances - WMA).

Explanation

The legislation described would violate Article 14 of the Indian Constitution.

Article 14 guarantees Equality Before Law and Equal Protection of Laws. This means that laws must be applied fairly and consistently, and everyone should be treated equally under the law.

Legislation that gives unchecked power to the executive or administration to apply the law violates this principle.

Option B is incorrect. Article 28 is related to the right to freedom of religion.

Option C is incorrect. Article 32 confers the right to remedies for the enforcement of the fundamental rights of an aggrieved citizen. Article 32 affirms the right to move the Supreme Court if a fundamental right is violated. Under this article, the Supreme Court can issue writs for the enforcement of any of the fundamental rights of the citizens.

Option D is incorrect. Article 44 provides for one of the Directive Principles of State Policy. Article 44 says that the State shall endeavor to secure for the citizens a uniform civil code throughout the territory of India.

Explanation

Statement 1 is correct. Genetic engineering in vaccine development works by modifying the genetic material of viruses, bacteria, or lab-grown cells to produce specific proteins that trigger an immune response. Scientists first identify a target protein from a pathogen that can help the immune system recognize and fight it. They then insert the gene coding for this protein into a harmless virus, bacterial cell, or a lab-grown system, which acts as a factory to produce large amounts of the antigen. The antigen is then purified and combined with other ingredients to create the final vaccine. When injected, the vaccine stimulates the immune system to recognize and attack the actual pathogen if encountered in the future. This approach is used in various vaccines, including mRNA vaccines like those for COVID-19 and recombinant protein vaccines like the Hepatitis B vaccine.

Statement 2 is correct. Bacteria and viruses are commonly used as vectors in recombinant vector vaccines. These vectors serve as delivery vehicles to transport genetic material from the target pathogen into host cells, where the antigens are produced. The host immune system then recognizes these antigens and mounts an immune response.

Explanation

Songs from Prison' is a collection of translations of ancient Indian religious lyrics from Sanskrit into English. These translations were made by Mohandas Karamchand Gandhi during his time in Yerwada Prison in 1930. Therefore, the person associated with 'Songs from Prison' is Mohandas Karamchand Gandhi. It was published in 1934.

Balgangadhar Tilak: He launched Kesari, a Marathi weekly, and Mahratta, an English weekly, to promote nationalist ideas. In 1884, he established the Deccan Education Society to improve education in India. He also initiated the public celebrations of Sarvajanik Ganeshotsav and Shivaji Jayanti to foster national unity and cultural pride. In 1916, Tilak, along with Annie Besant, founded the All India Home Rule League, advocating self-governance for India.

Jawahar Lal Nehru: He became the President of the Indian National Congress in 1929 during the Lahore Session, where he led the passage of the historic Purna Swaraj resolution, demanding complete independence from British rule. In the 1936 Lucknow Session, he urged Congress members to embrace socialism as a guiding principle. The following year, he presided over the Faizpur Session, making it the first INC session to be held in a rural area.

Explanation

Price of Substitute Increases When the price of a substitute good goes up, consumers may switch to the original good as a more affordable alternative. This increases demand for the original good.

Price of Complement Increases In some cases, an increase in the price of a complementary good can lead to a decrease in demand for the original good (e.g., bread and butter). However, this isn't always the case.

Inferior Good and Income Increase If the good is inferior (a good for which demand decreases as income rises), then an increase in income will lead to a decrease in demand for that good, not an increase.

Price Falls According to the law of demand, when the price of a good falls, consumers tend to buy more of it, assuming other factors remain constant. This is because the goods become more affordable.

Therefore, the correct code is 1 and 4 only.

Explanation

Ishwar Chandra Vidyasagar

• He was associated as Secretary with Hindu Female School which later came to be known as Bethune Female School. As the secretary of the Bethune School established in 1849, Ishwar Chandra Vidyasagar did important work in the field of higher education for women in India.
• Ishwar Chandra Vidyasagar's most significant contribution was his advocacy for widow remarriage and girls' education, leading to the enactment of the Hindu Widow Remarriage Act of 1856.

Annie Besant:

• In September 1916, Annie Besant along with Bal Gangadhar Tilak established the All-India Home Rule League.
• In 1917, Annie Besant was elected the President of the Indian National Congress (INC) Calcutta session, becoming the first woman to hold this position.
• In 1898, she founded the Central Hindu College in Benares. Theosophists from abroad assisted in this effort, and the institution eventually became the foundation for Banaras Hindu University.
• She also established the Central Hindu School for Girls in Varanasi, advancing female education in India.

Debendranath Tagore:

• He founded the Tattvabodhini Sabha and Adi Brahmo Samaj.

Sarojini Naidu:

• In recognition of her service during the plague epidemic in India, the British government honored her with the ‘Kaisar-i-Hind’ Medal.
• In 1925, she became the first Indian woman to be elected president of the Indian National Congress (INC) during its Kanpur Session and held the position until 1928.
• In 1930, Mahatma Gandhi chose her to lead the Salt Satyagraha, a nonviolent protest against the British monopoly on salt production.
• She also accompanied Gandhi to London for the second session of the Round Table Conference in 1931, which ultimately remained inconclusive.

Explanation

Water molecules are polar, meaning they have a positive charge on one end (the hydrogen atoms) and a negative charge on the other end (the oxygen atom). This polarity allows water molecules to attract and interact with other polar or charged molecules, facilitating the dissolution of a wide range of substances in water.

Therefore, option (a) is correct.

Explanation

Hyderabad was indeed recognized as a Tree City of the World, but not by the UNCDF and Arbor Day Foundation together. The recognition comes from a joint program by the UN Food and Agriculture Organization (FAO) and the Arbor Day Foundation.

Hyderabad was selected as a 2020 Tree City of the World by the Arbor Day Foundation in recognition of the city's commitment to urban forestry, including growing and maintaining its urban forests.

Therefore, only the second statement is correct, and the first statement is incorrect.

Explanation

A constitutional government seeks to limit and regulate the exercise of political power by the government. Constitutional government is by definition limited government. It means government is conducted according to rules and principles, which are binding on all political actors.

Therefore constitutional government helps to constrain the unfettered exercise of power by separating or dividing it. The constitutional government provides a framework in which the government can be both responsible and representative managing conflicts, Protecting the rights, promoting participation, and maintaining the security of the citizens.

Explanation

Statement 1 is correct. The Climate-Smart Village (CSV) approach is an initiative under the CCAFS program, which focuses on improving climate resilience in agriculture through research and innovation. CCAFS operates in multiple countries, including India, and works on sustainable farming practices, resource efficiency, and climate adaptation strategies in rural areas.

Statement 2 is correct. CCAFS is a global research initiative under the Consultative Group on International Agricultural Research (CGIAR), which is a network of international agricultural research organizations. However, CGIAR’s global headquarters is in Montpellier, France, making the statement factually accurate.

Statement 3 is correct. ICRISAT, based in Hyderabad, India, is a major research institute focusing on improving dryland agriculture. It is indeed one of the CGIAR’s 15 global research centers, working on climate resilience, crop improvement, and food security in semi-arid regions.

Explanation

Tropical Rainforest:

• Hot and moist with year-round rainfall.
• Dense canopy with multiple layers.
• Rapid decomposition due to high temperature and humidity, leaving soil bare.
• Vegetation includes climbers and epiphytes growing on tree branches.
• Different from coniferous, dry deciduous, and mangrove forests.
• Species found in these forests include rosewood, mahogony, aini, ebony, etc.
• Distribution in India: mainly found in the Western Ghats, the Northeastern states, the Andaman & Nicobar Islands, and parts of Odisha's Mahanadi Delta.

Coniferous Forest:

• Found in cold, high-altitude regions.
• Dominated by evergreen trees like pine, fir, spruce, and cedar.
• Needle-like leaves reduce water loss.
• Supports animals like snow leopards, musk deer, and Himalayan black bears.
• Distribution in India: Found in the Himalayan region (Jammu & Kashmir, Himachal Pradesh, Uttarakhand, Arunachal Pradesh, Sikkim).

Dry Deciduous Forest:

• Trees shed leaves in dry seasons to conserve water.
• Dominated by species like teak, sal, neem, and tendu.
• Soil is fertile, making it good for agriculture.
• Home to tigers, deer, elephants, and langurs.
• Distribution in India: Found in central and western India (Madhya Pradesh, Uttar Pradesh, Rajasthan, Maharashtra, Karnataka, Tamil Nadu, Telangana).

Mangrove Forest:

• Grow in coastal, saltwater regions.
• Trees have stilt roots to survive in waterlogged conditions.
• Provide breeding grounds for fish and protect coastlines from erosion.
• Home to species like the Royal Bengal Tiger, saltwater crocodiles, and various birds.
• Distribution in India: Found in coastal regions.

Explanation

• Black soil in India is formed by the weathering of fissure volcanic rock.
• Climatic conditions along with the parent rock material are the important factors for the formation of black soil.
• Black soils are spread mostly across interior Gujarat, Maharashtra, Karnataka, and Madhya Pradesh on the Deccan lava plateau and the Malwa Plateau, where there is both moderate rainfall and underlying basaltic rock.

Brown Forest Soil:

• Develops in temperate forest regions with moderate rainfall.
• It is rich in organic matter, fertile, and well-drained.

Granite and Schist:

• Granite is a hard, igneous rock rich in quartz and feldspar, used in construction.
• Schist is a metamorphic rock with flaky layers, formed under heat and pressure.

Shale and Limestone

• Shale is a fine-grained sedimentary rock, often a source of oil and natural gas.
• Limestone is a sedimentary rock rich in calcium carbonate, used in cement production.

Explanation

Statement 1 is incorrect as we know the universe is ever expanding so the distance between two stellar bodies does not change.

Statement 2 is incorrect as the Gravitational power is dependent on the mass of the object, it changes with a change in mass.

Statement 3 is incorrect Though mostly light travels in a straight line, it can be bent by Gravity.

Statement 4 is correct the speed of light does not change in a vacuum. So, it is a constant that can be used for measurement.

Explanation

Statement 1 is correct. Furnace oil is indeed a product of oil refineries. It is a dark viscous residual fuel obtained by blending heavier components of crude oil.

Statement 2 is correct. Furnace oil is widely used in industries like cement, steel, and textiles for power generation and heating. It is burned in boilers, furnaces, and engines to produce energy.

Statement 3 is correct. Furnace oil contains high sulfur content, and its combustion releases sulfur oxides (SOₓ), contributing to air pollution and acid rain.

Explanation

Statement 1 is incorrect Police Custody means that the police have the physical custody of the accused while Judicial Custody means an accused is in the custody of the concerned Magistrate. In Police custody, the accused is lodged in a police station lockup while in Judicial Custody, he is locked up in the jail.

Statement 2 is correct During Judicial Custody, the police officer in charge of the case is not allowed to interrogate the suspect. However, the court may allow the interrogations to be conducted if it opines the interrogation is necessary under the facts produced before the court. However, during police custody, the police officer in charge of the case may interrogate the suspect.

Explanation

Expansionary policies: Expansionary policies like increased government spending or lower interest rates can stimulate economic activity and consumer spending. This can lead to excess demand that outstrips supply, causing prices to rise.

Fiscal stimulus: Similar to expansionary policies, fiscal stimulus through government spending injections can create an inflationary gap if it's excessive.

Higher purchasing power: Higher purchasing power can contribute to demand-pull inflation. If people have more money to spend due to factors like wage increases or wealth accumulation, it can lead to increased demand for goods and services.

Inflation-indexing wages: While inflation-indexing wages can contribute to a wage-price spiral in some cases, it's not necessarily a direct cause of demand-pull inflation. It can be a consequence of inflation rather than a primary driver.

Rising interest rates: Rising interest rates generally act as a tool to cool down an economy and reduce inflation. They make borrowing more expensive and encourage saving, thereby reducing the money supply and aggregate demand.

Therefore, the correct code is 1, 2, and 4.

Explanation

Permaculture farming indeed discourages monocultural practices, promoting biodiversity and the efficient use of available resources. On the other hand, conventional chemical farming often involves monoculture practices.

Conventional chemical farming can lead to an increase in soil salinity due to the heavy use of synthetic fertilizers and pesticides, while permaculture farming promotes soil health and does not contribute to soil salinity.

The practice of mulching, which involves covering the soil with organic material to conserve moisture, suppress weeds, and improve soil health, is an important aspect of permaculture farming, but it is not necessarily a key practice in conventional chemical farming.

The statement about conventional chemical farming being easily possible in semi-arid regions but permaculture farming not being so easily possible in such regions is not necessarily true. Permaculture farming can be adapted to various climates and environments, including semi-arid regions, by using appropriate design principles and techniques.

Explanation

Statement 1 is incorrect. The oil palm tree (Elaeis guineensis) is native to West Africa, not Southeast Asia. However, Indonesia and Malaysia are now the largest producers of palm oil because the tree was introduced and widely cultivated there due to favorable tropical conditions. Statement 2 is correct. Palm oil and its derivatives (such as palm kernel oil) are widely used in cosmetic and personal care products, including lipsticks, soaps, and perfumes. It acts as a moisturizing agent, emulsifier, and texture enhancer in these products.

Statement 3 is correct. Palm oil is a major feedstock for biodiesel production. Palm-based biodiesel (Palm Methyl Ester - PME) is used as a renewable fuel alternative in several countries, including Malaysia, Indonesia, and parts of Europe.

Explanation

The R2 Code of Practices is a tool available for promoting the adoption of environmentally responsible practices in the electronics recycling industry.

R2 stands for Responsible Recycling. The Code of Practices outlines a set of standards that electronics recyclers should follow to ensure responsible handling of electronic waste.

Explanation

Adenoviruses have double-stranded DNA genomes. Retroviruses have single-stranded RNA genomes. **Thus, statement 1 is incorrect. **

Adenoviruses are one of the many viruses that can cause the common cold. AIDS (Acquired Immunodeficiency Syndrome) is caused by the Human Immunodeficiency Virus (HIV), which is a type of retrovirus. **Thus, statement 2 is correct. **

Explanation

Statement 1 is incorrect. When we consider the distribution of water on Earth, we find that the amount of water in rivers and lakes is actually less than the amount of groundwater. This is because groundwater is stored in the Earth's crust, in the pores and spaces between rocks and soil, and it accounts for a significant portion of the Earth's fresh water. On the other hand, rivers and lakes, while visible and important for many ecosystems, actually hold a relatively small amount of the Earth's total water.

Statement 2 is correct. The amount of water in polar ice caps and glaciers is indeed more than the amount of groundwater. This is because these ice caps and glaciers, particularly those in Antarctica and Greenland, hold the majority of the Earth's fresh water.

Explanation

Magnetite particles, which are suspected to cause potential neurodegenerative problems, are generated as environmental pollutants from the following sources

Brakes of motor vehicles - The friction between brake pads and brake discs/drums can generate magnetite particles that are released into the environment. Engines of motor vehicles - The high-temperature combustion processes in vehicle engines can also produce magnetite particles as a byproduct. Power plants - The high-temperature industrial processes involved in power generation, such as coal-fired power plants, can lead to the release of magnetite particles into the environment.

The other options (3. Microwave stoves within homes and 5. Telephone lines) are not major sources of magnetite particle pollution.

Therefore, the correct answer is the combination of options 1, 2, and 4.

Explanation

Bollgard I and Bollgard II technologies are mentioned in the context of developing genetically modified (GM) cotton plants resistant to insect pests.

Bollgard I This was India's first commercially approved GM crop technology introduced in 2002. It incorporates a single gene (Cry1Ac) from the bacterium Bacillus thuringiensis (Bt) into cotton plants. This Bt gene produces an insecticidal protein that targets and kills certain insect pests, particularly the American Bollworm (Helicoverpa armigera).

Bollgard II This is a more advanced technology introduced in mid-2006. It incorporates two genes (Cry1Ac and Cry2Ab) from Bt into cotton. This provides broader resistance against a wider spectrum of insect pests, including lepidopteran caterpillars like the Spodoptera species, in addition to the American Bollworm.

Explanation

Statement 1 is Correct The key difference lies in Parliamentary Supremacy. In the British model, Parliament is considered sovereign. This means its legislative powers are supreme, and its laws cannot be challenged by any other body. In India, the Constitution is supreme. Parliament's power to legislate is limited by the Constitution. The judiciary can review laws passed by Parliament and strike them down if they violate the Constitution.

Statement 2 is also Correct This is a specific example of the limitation on Parliament's power in India. The Constitution Bench of the Supreme Court has the authority to review amendments made to existing laws (Acts) and determine if they are constitutional. This power of judicial review ensures the Constitution remains the supreme law.

Explanation

The exact constitutional status of India on 26th January 1950 was a Sovereign Democratic Republic.

• The Constitution of India was adopted on 26th November 1949, but it came into effect on 26th January 1950.
• The Preamble of the Constitution, adopted in 1949, defined India as a "Sovereign Democratic Republic."
• The terms "Socialist" and "Secular" were added to the Preamble much later, through the 42nd Amendment Act of 1976.

Therefore, on 26th January 1950, India wasn't yet classified as "Socialist" or "Secular" in its constitution.

Explanation

Statement 1 is correct (Circular temple, Kachchhapaghata Dynasty) This statement is accurate. The Chausath Yogini Temple near Morena is a circular temple complex built during the reign of the Kachchhapaghata dynasty, estimated to be around the 11th century CE.

Statement 2 is incorrect (Not the only circular temple) While the Chausath Yogini Temple is a well-known example, it's not the only circular temple in India. There are other circular temples across the country, such as the Shiva temple at Bhringari in Andhra Pradesh.

Statement 3 is incorrect (Vaishnava cult) The temple is not primarily associated with the Vaishnava cult, which worships Vishnu. The specific dedication of the temple is debated, with some theories suggesting a connection to Shaktism or Tantric practices.

Statement 4 is correct (Inspiration for Parliament building) There's a popular belief that the circular design of the Chausath Yogini Temple might have inspired the architects of the Indian Parliament building in New Delhi. However, there's no definitive historical evidence to confirm this connection.

Therefore, the correct statements are 1 and 4.

Explanation

The Phosphorus Cycle is unique among major biogeochemical cycles because it does not involve a gaseous phase. Instead, phosphorus primarily moves through the lithosphere (rocks), hydrosphere (water), and biosphere (organisms).

• Weathering of Rocks: The main source of phosphorus in this cycle comes from the weathering of phosphate-rich rocks. Over time, geological processes break down these rocks, releasing phosphate ions (PO₄³⁻) into the soil and water.

• Absorption by Plants: Plants absorb phosphorus from the soil, and it moves up the food chain as herbivores and carnivores consume plants and other organisms.

• Return to the Soil: When organisms die, decomposition releases phosphorus back into the environment, where it can re-enter the cycle.

• Carbon Cycle: The main source of carbon is atmospheric CO₂, released by respiration, combustion, and volcanic activity.

• Nitrogen Cycle: Nitrogen is primarily cycled through the atmosphere, with nitrogen fixation (by bacteria) being a key process.

• Sulphur Cycle: Sulfur is mainly released from volcanic eruptions, decaying organic matter, and fossil fuel combustion, rather than rock weathering.

Explanation

When a country devalues its currency, it becomes cheaper for foreign buyers to purchase the country's exports. This can lead to increased demand for exports, making domestic producers more competitive in the international market. Hence, statement 1 is correct.

Devaluation actually decreases the foreign value of the domestic currency. The whole point is to make the domestic currency less expensive relative to foreign currencies. Hence, statement 2 is incorrect.

While improved export competitiveness can lead to a better trade balance (more exports, fewer imports), it's not a guaranteed outcome. Other factors like import prices, global demand, and domestic production costs can also influence the trade balance. Devaluation can also lead to increased import costs if the country relies on imported raw materials. Hence, statement 3 is also incorrect.

Therefore, the correct code is 1 only.

Explanation

Burzahom, located in the Kashmir Valley, is an archaeological site known for its Neolithic and Megalithic phases. Rock-cut shrines were not a prominent feature of the Neolithic period. Thus, statement 1 i incorrect.

Ganeshwar is an archaeological site located in Rajasthan, India. It is known for its Copper Hoard Culture, dating back to the Chalcolithic period (approximately 4000-2000 BCE). Ganeshwar is renowned for its large number of copper artefacts, including tools, weapons, and ornaments, providing valuable insights into ancient metallurgy and trade networks.

Chandra-Ketugarh is indeed well-known for its terracotta art. Excavations at Chandra-Ketugarh, located near Kolkata in West Bengal, have revealed a vast collection of terracotta objects dating back to the 3rd century BCE to the 3rd century CE.

Therefore, statements 2 and 3 are correct.

Explanation

1. Incorrect While some carbon monoxide might be produced during the smelting process, it's unlikely to be in lethal quantities with proper emission controls.

2. Correct Copper slag, a byproduct of the smelting process, can contain heavy metals like lead, arsenic, and cadmium. Rainwater or acidic runoff can leach these metals from the slag, contaminating soil and water resources.

3. Correct Sulphur dioxide (SO2) is a major pollutant released during copper smelting, primarily from the burning of sulfur-containing fossil fuels used in the process. SO2 emissions contribute to acid rain and air pollution.

Explanation

The Lemongrass plant is known to be an excellent mosquito repellant.

According to a study conducted in 2011, around 95% of mosquitos from a specific range of species were either killed or completely repelled due to the intense odour of lemongrass oil.

Commonly known as Citronella oil, the impact of the essential oil from Lemongrass is known to last for around two and a half hours. For some species of mosquitos, it is even more.

Explanation

Statement 1 is correct. India follows a single citizenship system, which means that every Indian is a citizen of India, irrespective of the place of his/her residence within the country. The concept of domicile does not exist in the Indian Constitution.

Statement 2 is incorrect. In India, the Head of State is the President, and as per Article 58 of the Indian Constitution, any person who is a citizen of India and is 35 years of age or above is eligible to become the President. It does not matter whether the person is a citizen by birth or by naturalization.

Statement 3 is also incorrect. As per the Citizenship Act 1955, the Central Government has the power to deprive a person of his/her citizenship under certain circumstances.

So, only the first statement is correct.

Explanation

The Separation of Powers between the legislature, the executive, and the judiciary constitute an important safeguard of liberty in a liberal democracy.

The doctrine of Separation of powers entails the division of the legislative, executive, and judicial functions of government among different organs. This separation minimizes the possibility of arbitrary excesses by the government since all three organs act as checks and balances on the powers of each other. Therefore, none of the three organs can usurp the essential functions of other organs.

This demarcation prevents the concentration of excessive power by any branch of the Government. It thus helps to safeguard the liberty and rights of the people in a democracy.

Explanation

Statement 1 is correct The size of the hole in the lid regulates the amount of steam released. A larger hole permits more steam to escape, leading to reduced pressure and subsequently affecting the temperature.

Statement 2 is incorrect Boiling water can never exceed 100 degrees Celsius, regardless of the intensity of the flame beneath the pot. However, within a pressure cooker, the temperature can elevate to as high as 121 degrees Celsius. The heightened cooking temperature serves to decrease the cooking duration rather than the temperature itself. Thus, statement 2 is inaccurate.

Statement 3 is correct If the weight is heavier, it will require higher pressure to lift it, resulting in higher pressure inside the cooker before excess steam can escape. Higher pressure leads to a higher boiling point for the water inside the cooker, which in turn increases the cooking temperature. Conversely, if the weight is lighter, it results in a lower pressure inside the cooker and a lower boiling point for the water, leading to a lower cooking temperature.

Explanation

Statement 1 is incorrect. Urban Cooperative Banks (UCBs) are not solely regulated by State Governments. They are jointly regulated by the Reserve Bank of India (RBI) and the respective State Governments. In 2020, the Banking Regulation (Amendment) Act, 2020 gave RBI more control over UCBs, bringing them largely under its regulatory framework for financial stability.

Statement 2 is correct. As per the Banking Regulation (Amendment) Act, 2020, Urban Cooperative Banks can raise funds by issuing equity shares, preference shares, and unsecured debentures with RBI approval. This allows UCBs to strengthen their capital base and improve financial health.

Statement 3 is correct. Initially, cooperative banks were regulated under state laws. In 1966, an amendment to the Banking Regulation Act, 1949, brought Urban Cooperative Banks (UCBs) under RBI's purview for banking-related functions. However, their management and administrative aspects remained under state cooperative laws.

Explanation

Statement 1 is incorrect: Increase in the Cash Reserve Ratio (CRR) in banks
CRR is the percentage of deposits banks must keep with the RBI. If CRR increases, banks have less money to lend, reducing the money multiplier.

Statement 2 is incorrect: Increase in the Statutory Liquidity Ratio (SLR) in banks. SLR is the percentage of deposits banks must keep in liquid assets like gold or government securities. A higher SLR means less lending capacity, reducing the money multiplier.

Statement 3 is correct: Increase in the banking habits of the people. If more people deposit money in banks instead of holding cash, banks get more reserves to lend, increasing the money multiplier. This expands the credit creation process, leading to a higher money supply.

Statement 4 is incorrect: Increase in the population of the country. A higher population does not directly impact the money multiplier unless it leads to a rise in banking habits or economic activity.

Explanation

Statements 1, 2 and 3 are correct.

Foreign Currency Convertible Bond (FCCB) is a bond issued under the Issue of Foreign Currency Convertible Bonds and Ordinary Shares (Through Depository Receipt Mechanism) Scheme, 1993.

Foreign Portfolio Investment is any investment made by a person resident outside India in capital instruments. It is the percentage which defines whether it is a direct or institutional investment.

FII made above 10 per cent of the post-issue paid-up equity capital will be considered FDI. But Once an FDI always an FDI.

Foreign investment in Indian securities has been made possible through the purchase of Global Depository Receipts, Foreign Currency Convertible Bonds and Foreign Currency Bonds issued by Indian issuers which are listed, traded and settled overseas.

A Non-Resident External (NRE) account is a rupee-dominated account opened by an NRI to facilitate the deposit of foreign currency earnings. It is not an FDI. Hence, statement 4 is incorrect.

Explanation

Statement 1 is incorrect Copepods are a group of small crustaceans found in nearly every freshwater and saltwater habitat. Copepods are major secondary producers in the World Ocean.

Statement 2 is correct Diatom refers to any member of a large group comprising several genera of algae, specifically microalgae, found in the oceans, waterways and soils of the world. They are major primary producers in the food chains of oceans.

Statement 3 is correct Cyanobacteria, also known as Cyanophyta, are a phylum of Gram-negative bacteria that obtain energy via photosynthesis. They are major primary producers in the food chains of oceans.

Statement 4 is incorrect Foraminifera are single-celled organisms, members of a phylum or class of amoeboid protists characterized by streaming granular ectoplasm for catching food and other uses; and commonly an external shell of diverse forms and materials. They are the consumer.

Explanation

The statement 1 is incorrect. As per the Representation of the People Act, 1951, a candidate can contest from up to two constituencies in a Lok Sabha or Vidhan Sabha election.

The law allowing a candidate to contest from two constituencies was introduced in 1996. Before that, a candidate could contest from any number of constituencies. Therefore, in 1991, Shri Devi Lal could have contested from three constituencies. This statement is ambiguous.

As per the existing rules, if a candidate contests from more than one constituency and wins in more than one, he/she has to vacate the seats in all but one constituency. The cost of the bye-elections to fill the vacated seats is borne by the public exchequer and not the party of the candidate. Hence, statement 3 is incorrect.

NOTE UPSC has deleted this question probably based on the error in statement 2.

Explanation

All the statements are correct.

Being employed in a Royal Household of the Vijayanagar empire implies that women served a variety of roles and were crucial to the workings of the palace.

It was during the zenith of the Vijayanagar empire that female artists were encouraged to contribute to literature. Krishnadevaraya, besides having dominion over peninsular India, patronised female writers and poets.

According to Portuguese writer Ferno Nuniz, the women in the Vijayanagara Empire were experts in various fields, including :

• Wrestling (skilled in martial arts)
• Astrology (predicted celestial events)
• Accounting (managed financial records)
• Soothsaying (foretold the future based on signs and omens)

So the correct answer is 1, 2, 3 and 4.

Explanation

On 8th August 1942, the Quit India Resolution was adopted by the All India Congress Committee (AICC). This was a significant event in the Indian freedom struggle as it marked the launch of the Quit India Movement, led by Mahatma Gandhi, demanding an end to British Rule in India.

The other options are not related to this specific date.

• The Viceroy’s Executive council was indeed expanded to include more Indians, but this was part of the August Offer in 1940, not on 8th August 1942.
• The Congress ministries did resign in seven provinces, but this happened in 1939, not in 1942.
• Lastly, Cripps did propose an Indian Union with full Dominion Status, but this was part of the Cripps Mission, which also did not occur on 8th August 1942.

Therefore, the correct answer is that the Quit India Resolution was adopted by the AICC on this date.

Explanation

Statement 1 is correct: Under Article 128 of the Constitution, the Chief Justice of India may, at any time, with the previous consent of the President, request any person who has held the office of a Judge of the Supreme Court to sit and act as a Judge of the Supreme Court.

Statement 2 is correct: The Supreme Court’s power to review its own judgments is explicitly provided under Article 137 of the Constitution.

High Courts do not have an explicit constitutional provision like Article 137 to review their own judgments — their power to review stems from statutory provisions (CPC), not the Constitution.

Explanation

Ajanta Caves lie in the gorge ofthe Waghora river.

Sanchi Stupa Sanchi Stupa is located on a hilltop in Sanchi, Madhya Pradesh, and is not situated in a gorge. Pandu-Lena Cave Shrines These caves are situated near Aurangabad, Maharashtra, and are not associated with any specific gorge. Amaravati Stupa Amaravati Stupa is located on the banks of the Krishna River in Andhra Pradesh, not in a gorge.

Explanation

Out of the given options, the most inflationary effect is likely caused by

D) Creation of new money to finance a budget deficit

Repayment of public debt (A) This actually removes money from circulation, potentially leading to deflationary pressure.

Borrowing from the public (B) or banks (C) While these options involve increasing government debt, they don't directly increase the money supply. The government essentially takes money that already exists in the economy.

Creation of new money (D) This is the most inflationary option. This can lead to an increase in the money supply, which can put upward pressure on prices (inflation) if not accompanied by a corresponding increase in goods and services.

In essence, printing new money directly expands the money supply, potentially outpacing economic growth and leading to inflation.

Explanation

Actions of the United States Federal Reserve The Federal Reserve's monetary policy decisions, particularly regarding interest rates, can impact global capital flows. If the Fed raises interest rates, it can make US investments more attractive, potentially leading to some outflow of capital from India. This could affect demand for Indian government bonds and influence their yield.

Actions of the Reserve Bank of India (RBI) The RBI's monetary policy plays a crucial role in influencing Indian government bond yields. The RBI's actions like setting repo rates, open market operations, and cash reserve ratio (CRR) can affect the overall liquidity in the banking system. Higher liquidity can lead to lower yields, and vice versa.

Inflation and Short-Term Interest Rates Inflation expectations and short-term interest rates are important factors for investors when considering the return on government bonds. Higher inflation expectations can lead investors to demand higher yields to compensate for the potential erosion of purchasing power. Similarly, short-term interest rates can act as a benchmark for bond yields.

Therefore, all three factors significantly influence the yields of Indian government bonds.

Explanation

Bacteria can be cultured and grown in various artificial culture media, such as nutrient broth, agar plates, or other specific media formulations. Bacteria can metabolize and utilize the nutrients provided in these synthetic culture media to grow and reproduce.

Fungi can also be cultured in artificial media, such as potato dextrose agar, Sabouraud dextrose agar, or other specialized fungal growth media. Fungi can utilize the organic compounds and nutrients present in these synthetic media to support their growth and development.

Viruses, on the other hand, are obligate intracellular parasites and cannot be directly cultured in artificial or synthetic media. Viruses require living host cells to replicate and propagate, as they lack the necessary machinery for autonomous growth and reproduction.

Explanation

Halbi, Ho and Kui are tribal languages.

Halabi is spoken in Maharashtra and Madhya Pradesh.

Explanation

The concentration of wealth violates the Directive principles of state policy.

Under Article 39 of the Constitution of India, the State shall direct its policy towards ensuring that the operation of the economic system does not result in the concentration of wealth and means of production to the common detriment. It is a key part of ensuring economic justice for all.