UPSC Prelims 2022 Analysis

Explanation

Statement 1 is Incorrect: Bidibidi is a large refugee settlement in northwestern Uganda, not Kenya.

Statement 2 is Correct: People fleeing the civil war in South Sudan have been hosted in the Bidibidi settlement.

Statement 3 is Correct: The Dadaab refugee complex is located in Kenya and houses refugees, including those who fled the civil war in Somalia.

Therefore, the correct statements are 2 and 3 only.

Explanation

The responsibility for maintaining price stability and controlling inflation in India lies primarily with the Reserve Bank of India (RBI).

The RBI formulates and implements monetary policy to maintain price stability and ensure adequate flow of credit to productive sectors of the economy.

As the central bank of the country, the RBI uses various tools such as repo rate, reverse repo rate, cash reserve ratio (CRR), and statutory liquidity ratio (SLR) to influence liquidity and interest rates in the economy, thereby affecting inflationary pressures.

Explanation

Statement 1 is correct. The WHO recommends that the 24-hour mean of PM2.5 should not exceed 15 g/m and the annual mean should not exceed 5 g/m. These are the current most stringent guidelines set by WHO to protect public health.

Statement 2 is incorrect. Ozone pollution typically peaks during sunny and stagnant weather conditions, not during inclement weather like rain or storms.

Statement 3 is incorrect. PM is a common proxy indicator for air pollution. It affects more people than any other pollutant. The major components of PM are sulfate, nitrates, ammonia, sodium chloride, black carbon, mineral dust and water. It consists of a complex mixture of solid and liquid particles of organic and inorganic substances suspended in the air. While particles with a diameter of 10 microns or less, (≤ PM10) can penetrate and lodge deep inside the lungs, the even more health-damaging particles are those with a diameter of 2.5 microns or less, (≤ PM2.5). PM2.5 can penetrate the lung barrier and enter the blood system. Chronic exposure to particles contributes to the risk of developing cardiovascular and respiratory diseases, as well as of lung cancer.

Statement 4 is correct. Excessive ozone exposure can trigger asthma attacks and worsen respiratory problems. Ozone irritates the respiratory tract, making it harder to breathe.

Explanation

Nizamuddin Panipati, a Persian scholar, translated the "Yogavasistha" into Persian during the reign of Emperor Akbar, who ruled the Mughal Empire from 1556 to 1605. This translation occurred as part of Akbar's efforts to promote cultural exchange and translations of various works into Persian, the administrative language of the Mughal Empire.

Explanation

The Fifth Schedule of the Constitution deals with the administration and control of Scheduled Areas as well as of Scheduled Tribes residing in any State other than the States of Assam, Meghalaya, Tripura, and Mizoram.

The governor can make regulations for the peace and good government of a scheduled area after consulting the tribes' advisory council. Such regulations may prohibit or restrict the transfer of land by tribal to non tribal members or among members of the scheduled tribes, and regulate the allotment of land to members of the scheduled tribes.

Option B is incorrect. According to the provisions of Paragraph 4, under Article 244(1) of the Fifth Schedule of the Constitution of India, the Tribes Advisory Councils (TAC) shall be established in each State having Scheduled Areas therein and, if the President so directs, also in any State having Scheduled Tribes but not Scheduled Areas. The tribal advisory council is an advisory body, not a governing body.

Option C is incorrect. Bringing any particular area under the Fifth Schedule of the Constitution of India does not convert the area into a Union Territory.

Option D is incorrect. Bringing any particular area under the Fifth Schedule of the Constitution of India does not get declared as a Special Category State.

Explanation

As per Article 88, Every minister and the Attorney-General of India shall have the right to speak in, and otherwise to take part in the proceedings of, either House, any joint sitting of the Houses and any committee of Parliament of which he may be named a member, but shall not by virtue of this article be entitled to vote. The Solicitor General does not participate in the meetings of Parliament. Hence, statement 1 is incorrect.

As per Article 76, the Attorney General shall hold office during the pleasure of the President and shall receive such remuneration as the President may determine Conduct of Government Business. There is no mention in the Indian Constitution of the need for him to submit his resignation when the Government which appointed him resigns. Hence, statement 2 is incorrect.

Explanation

Hokera Wetland - Punjab Incorrect: The Hokera Wetland is located in Jammu and Kashmir, not Punjab. It is a significant wetland in the region.

Renuka Wetland - Himachal Pradesh Correct: The Renuka Wetland is located in the Sirmaur district of Himachal Pradesh. It is a famous wetland in the region, particularly known for the Renuka Lake.

Rudrasagar Lake - Tripura Correct: The Rudrasagar Lake is located in Tripura. It is a large lake and a significant water body in the state.

Sasthamkotta Lake - Tamil Nadu Incorrect: The Sasthamkotta Lake is located in Kerala, not Tamil Nadu. It is the largest freshwater lake in Kerala.

Explanation

Tight monetary policy is an action taken by a central bank, such as the Federal Reserve, to curb overheated economic growth. Central banks employ tight monetary policy when an economy is experiencing rapid acceleration or when inflation, which pertains to overall prices, is escalating too swiftly.

Statement 1 is correct. Central banks implement monetary policies to maintain stability and positive trends in inflation, unemployment, and economic growth. In instances of economic overheating, central banks raise interest rates and implement other contractionary measures to decelerate the pace. This can discourage investments and lower asset prices. Consequently, the tight monetary policy of the US Federal Reserve might induce capital flight among investors.

Statement 2 is correct. Capital flight can elevate interest costs due to the reduction in the money supply within the system. As a result, this would contribute to an increase in the interest expenses for firms that have engaged in external commercial borrowings.

Statement 3 is incorrect. The devaluation of the domestic currency does not impact External Commercial Borrowings since they are denominated in foreign currency, rather than the domestic currency.

NOTE: The given question was dropped by UPSC from the Official Answer Key.

Explanation

Statement 1 is incorrect The United Nations Credentials Committee is a committee of the United Nations General Assembly.

Statement 2 is incorrect A Credentials Committee is appointed at the beginning of each regular session of the General Assembly. It consists of nine members, who are appointed by the General Assembly on the proposal of the President.

Statement 3 is correctThe Committee reports to the Assembly on the credentials of representatives. The Committee is mandated to examine the credentials of representatives of Member States and to report to the General Assembly thereon (Rule 28 of the Rules of Procedure of the General Assembly).

The credentials of representatives and the names of members of the delegation of each Member State are submitted to the Secretary-General and are issued either by the Head of the State or Government or by the Minister for Foreign Affairs (Rule 27 of the Rules of Procedure of the General Assembly).

Explanation

Statement 1 is incorrect Corporate Lawyers, as well as patent attorneys, are too recognized as advocate and there's no prohibition on their recognition as advocates.

Statement 2 is correct The Bar Council of India visits and inspects Universities/Law colleges in the country as part of its statutory function of promoting legal education and laying down standards in consultation with the Universities in India and the State Bar Councils. The Bar Council of India is a statutory body established under section 4 of the Advocates Act 1961 that regulates the legal practice and legal education in India.

Explanation

Urban Forests use the Miyawaki method to create urban forests. Miyawaki urban forests are fascinating complex ecosystems, in balance with today's soil and climate conditions. This technique works worldwide irrespective of soil and climatic conditions.

Over 2000 forests were successfully created using this method.

Doctor Akira Miyawaki, botanist and professor, is the inventor of the technique since 1980. He is a recipient of the 2006 Blue Planet Prize, which is the equivalent of a Nobel Prize in ecology.

Explanation

In India, the primary agency responsible for compiling information on industrial disputes, closures, retrenchments, and lay-offs in factories employing workers is the Labour Bureau

The Labour Bureau is an attached office of the Ministry of Labour and Employment, Government of India. It plays a crucial role in collecting, compiling, and disseminating labor statistics across various aspects, including industrial relations.

Explanation

Golden Mahseer is not a bird. It is a large freshwater fish also called the tiger of the water and found only in the Cauvery river basin. It known for its large size and importance in recreational fishing.

Indian Nightjar is a bird species native to India. It is a nocturnal bird that is known for its cryptic plumage and ability to camouflage in its habitat. It is typically found in forests, grasslands, and agricultural areas.

Spoonbill is a type of wader bird with a distinctive spoon-shaped bill. It belongs to the family Threskiornithidae and is found in wetlands, mudflats, and coastal habitats in various parts of the world, including India.

White Ibis is a species of wading bird found in wetlands and coastal areas. It is recognized by its long, curved bill and white plumage and is commonly seen in India, as well as in other parts of the world.

Explanation

Statement 1 is correct. Acquiring new technology - This is a capital expenditure. When a company acquires new technology (like software, machinery, or equipment), it's considered an investment that will benefit the organization for several years. The cost is added to the company's asset base and depreciated over its useful life.

Statement 2 is incorrect. Debt vs. Equity Financing - The way a company finances its expenditures (debt or equity) doesn't determine whether it's a capital or revenue expenditure. The nature of the expense itself matters more.

Explanation

The G20 Common Framework is an initiative endorsed by the G20 together with the Paris Club. It was created in November 2020 to help Low Income Countries (LICs) facing unsustainable debt burdens.

The G20 Common Framework specifically targets Low Income Countries with unsustainable debt. It provides a mechanism for these countries to restructure their debts in a coordinated manner with participation from various creditors, including official bilateral creditors, private creditors, and multilateral institutions. Hence, both statements about the G20 Common Framework are correct.

Explanation

Statement 1 is correct. Probiotics can be made from both bacteria and yeast. Some common probiotic strains include bacteria like Lactobacillus and Bifidobacterium, and yeasts like Saccharomyces boulardii.

Statement 2 is incorrect. The organisms in probiotics are naturally found in the human gut. We have a complex gut microbiome with trillions of bacteria and other microbes, some of which are beneficial. Probiotics are supposed to introduce specific strains of these beneficial microbes to improve gut health.

Statement 3 is correct. Probiotics might help with lactose digestion, but it depends. Lactose intolerance is caused by a lack of the enzyme lactase, which breaks down lactose (milk sugar) in the gut. Some probiotic strains might produce lactase, potentially aiding digestion in lactose-intolerant individuals.

Explanation

A convertible bond is a type of debt security that provides an investor with a right or an obligation to exchange the bond for a predetermined number of shares in the issuing company at certain times of a bond's lifetime. It is a hybrid security that possesses features of both debt and equity.

Statement 1 is correct Convertible bonds tend to offer a lower coupon rate or rate of return in exchange for the value of the option to convert the bond into a common stock. Investors will generally accept a lower coupon rate on a convertible bond, compared with the coupon rate on an otherwise identical regular bond, because of its conversion feature. This enables the issuer to save on interest expenses, which can be substantial in the case of a large bond issue.

Statement 2 is correct The option to convert to equity affords the bondholder a degree of indexation to rising consumer prices as equity prices can differ widely from the given interest and the difference in that can be used as a hedge for inflation.

Explanation

The Organization of Turkic States, formerly called the Turkic Council or the Cooperation Council of Turkic Speaking States, is an international organization comprising prominent independent Turkic countries

• Azerbaijan
• Kazakhstan
• Kyrgyzstan
• Turkey
• Uzbekistan

Explanation

The term "Levant" refers to the geographical region located along the eastern shores of the Mediterranean Sea. This region typically includes the countries of Cyprus, Israel, Jordan, Lebanon, Palestine, Syria and Turkey (the southern/southeastern region).

The Levant connects Anatolia, the Caucasus, Mesopotamia, and Egypt. It encompasses the eastern Mediterranean coastline and the hinterlands that stretch inland from that coast.

The Levant has faced prolonged unrest, including the Israeli-Palestinian conflict, the Syrian Civil War, and ethnic and religious tensions.

Explanation

Statement 1 is incorrect. As per the Anti-Defection Law, a nominated legislator can join a political party within six months of being appointed to the House, not after such time.

Statement 2 is correct. The Anti-Defection Law does not specify any time limit for the presiding officer to decide on a defection case.

So, only the second statement is correct.

Explanation

The Nettipakarana is a Buddhist text, specifically part of the Theravada Buddhist canon within the Khuddaka Nikaya of the Sutta Pitaka. It is not associated with Jainism.

Conversely, the Parishishtaparvan is indeed a Jaina text. Authored by the 12th-century scholar Hemachandra, it reflects the rich tradition of Jain literature.

The Avadanashataka, known for its collection of Hundred Legends, forms a part of the Sanskrit Buddhist literature and is not a Jain work.

Lastly, the Trishashtilakshana Mahapurana (or Trishashti Shalaka Purusha Charitra) is a significant Jain text by Acharya Hemachandra, detailing the lives of 63 eminent figures in Jainism.

Please note: Anytime you come across the word ‘Avadana’, just remember that it belongs to Buddhism. Hence, this was an easy elimination question.

Explanation

Methane and nitrous oxide emissions from rice farms could have the same long-term warming impact as about 600 coal plants.

Rice cultivation emits methane and nitrous oxide due to flooded fields and nitrogen-based fertilizers. Flooding creates anaerobic conditions, producing methane released through rice plants. Fertilizers poorly absorbed by rice lead to soil microbes converting nitrogen into nitrous oxide.

Explanation

Statement 1 is incorrect: BBB was set up in February 2016 as an autonomous body based on the recommendations of the RBI-appointed Nayak Committee. It was part of the Indradhanush Plan aimed at revamping public sector banks (PSBs). The Ministry of Finance takes the final decision on the appointments in consultation with the Prime Minister's Office.

Statement 2 is correct: It makes recommendations for the appointment of whole-time directors as well as non-executive chairpersons of Public Sector Banks (PSBs) and state-owned financial institutions.

Statement 3 is correct: Assisting banks with the strategies to deal with issues of bad loans or stressed assets is the agenda of BBB.

Note: The Banks Board Bureau (BBB) was abolished and replaced by the Financial Services Institutions Bureau (FSIB) in 2022. The FSIB is an autonomous body of the Government of India.

Explanation

The Government of India Act 1919 introduced the system of dyarchy in the provinces. Under this system, the provincial subjects of administration were divided into two categories 'Reserved' and 'Transferred'.

The 'Reserved' subjects were administered by the Governor of the province with the help of his executive council of bureaucrats. These subjects were considered more crucial and included areas such as law and order, finance, land revenue, and irrigation.

The 'Transferred' subjects were administered by the Governor with the help of Indian ministers. These subjects were considered less critical and included areas such as education, public health, and local self-government.

Therefore, among the options provided, Administration of Justice, Land Revenue, and Police were treated as 'Reserved' subjects, while Local Self-Government was a 'Transferred' subject.

Explanation

Statement 1 is INCORRECT Covishield, produced by the Serum Institute of India, is a viral vector vaccine. It uses a weakened chimpanzee adenovirus vector to carry genetic material from the SARS-CoV-2 virus into human cells.

Statement 2 is CORRECT Sputnik V is a vector-based vaccine, similar to Covishield. It uses two different human adenovirus vectors to deliver genetic material coding for SARS-CoV-2 spike proteins.

Statement 3 is CORRECT COVAXIN, developed by Bharat Biotech, is an inactivated virus vaccine. This means the SARS-CoV-2 virus used in the vaccine is inactivated (killed) so it cannot cause infection, but it still triggers an immune response.

Explanation

Acid rain is primarily caused by the excess presence of nitrogen oxide and sulphur dioxide in the environment.

Carbon monoxide is not a direct cause of acid rain. It is a pollutant that contributes to the formation of ground-level ozone, but it does not lead to the production of acid rain.

Nitrogen oxides , which include nitric oxide and nitrogen dioxide, are major contributors to acid rain. When these gases react with water, oxygen, and other substances in the atmosphere, they form nitric acid, a key component of acid rain.

Ozone is not a direct cause of acid rain. While ozone can have negative environmental impacts, it is not a precursor to the formation of acid rain.

Sulphur dioxide is another primary contributor to acid rain. When Sulphur dioxide combines with water, oxygen, and other substances in the atmosphere, it forms sulphuric acid, which is also a major component of acid rain.

Explanation

Out of the listed plants, the following are nitrogen-fixing plants:

1. Alfalfa
2. Chickpea
3. Clover These plants have a symbiotic relationship with bacteria called rhizobia. The bacteria colonize nodules in the plant's roots and fix atmospheric nitrogen into a usable form (nitrates) that the plant can absorb.

The other options are not nitrogen-fixing plants: 2. Amaranth 5. Purslane (Kulfa) 6. Spinach These plants require nitrogen from the soil but cannot fix it themselves. They rely on soil nitrogen content or applied fertilizers. Remember: Purslane is a weed. If you would have known this piece of information, the question could have been easily solved by simple elimination.

Therefore, the correct answer is (1, 3, 4).

Explanation

Statement 1 is incorrect. Next to the Portuguese, the Dutch set their feet in India. In 1602, the United East India Company of the Netherlands was formed and permitted by the Dutch government to trade in the East Indies including India. Gajapati Rule declined in 1541. The last ruler was Kakharua Deva.

Please note: Gajapati rulers only ruled in the Orissa region. But, the Dutch had their factories in many locations on the east coast of India. Hence, it is clear that they may have acquired lands from different rulers across the east coast.

Statement 2 is correct. Alfanso de Albuquerque captured Goa from the Bijapur sultanate king Adil Shahis with the help of the Vijayanagara Empire.

Statement 3 is correct. The English East India Company established a factory in Madras in 1639 on land leased from representatives of the Vijayanagara Empire called the Nayakas.

Explanation

UNCLOS allows coastal states to define the breadth of their territorial sea up to a limit of 12 nautical miles, measured from a baseline established according to the Convention.

UNCLOS guarantees the right of innocent passage for ships of all states, including coastal and land-locked nations, through the territorial sea of another state. Innocent passage refers to non-threatening travel that doesn't harm the coastal state's security or interests.

UNCLOS sets the limit of the Exclusive Economic Zone (EEZ) at 200 nautical miles from the baseline used to measure the territorial sea. The EEZ grants the coastal state exclusive rights to explore, exploit, conserve and manage resources (living and non-living) within the zone.

Hence, all three statements about the United Nations Convention on the Law of the Sea (UNCLOS) are correct.

Explanation

An open-source digital platform is essentially a software platform where the underlying code is freely available for anyone to see, modify, and distribute. This openness fosters collaboration, transparency, and innovation in software development.

All of the above (1. Aarogya Setu, 2. CoWIN, 3. Digi Locker, 4. DIKSHA) are built on top of open-source digital platforms.

• Aarogya Setu initially wasn't open-source, but the Indian government later made its source code available.
• CoWIN leverages open-source software for its development.
• DigiLocker utilizes an open-source platform called Digital Locker System.
• DIKSHA is built on the open-source platform Sunbird.

Explanation

Lake Faguibine in Mali is a prime example of increasing aridity . Here's how it changed over the years, as seen through false-color Landsat satellite images

• Initially, it was one of the largest lakes in West Africa, fed by the Niger River during floods.
• In 1974, it spanned approximately 590 square kilometers (230 square miles).
• A decline in precipitation from the late 1980s led to its gradual drying.
• By the late 1990s, traditional livelihoods like fishing , agriculture , and livestock herding became impractical.
• Despite the resumption of normal rainfall after 2000, the lake has remained nearly dry.

Lake Victoria is the largest lake in Africa and remains filled with water. Lake Oguta is located in Nigeria and is still a freshwater lake. Lake Volta is one of the largest artificial lake by surface area in the world and remains filled with water from the Volta River.

Explanation

Statement 1 is correct The Guchhi mushroom is a species of fungus in the Morchellaceae family of the Ascomycota. It exhibits a pale yellow colouration with large pits and ridges on the surface of the cap, which is elevated on a large white stem.

Statement 2 is correct This mushroom is cultivated in the foothills of the Himalayas, specifically in regions such as Himachal Pradesh, Uttaranchal, and Jammu and Kashmir.

Statement 3 is incorrect These mushrooms cannot be cultivated on a commercial scale and instead grow naturally in conifer forests across various temperature regions. It takes months for villagers to gather sufficient quantities of these mushrooms, dry them, and transport them to the market.

Explanation

Statement 1 is correct. One of the 12 holy Jyotirlingas of Lord Shiva is in Jyotirlinga here in Somnath.

Statement 2 is correct. Al Biruni writes that the temple was built of stone and constructed about 100 years before Mahmud’s attack (which would date it to the 10th century) and that it was set in a fortress surrounded by the sea on 3 sides.

Statement 3 is not correct. Dr. Rajendra Prasad proposed to purify Jyotirling. He said, this temple of Somnath is a symbol of victory over destruction.

Explanation

The longest day of the year in the northern hemisphere, also known as the summer solstice, typically occurs in the second half of the month of June.

This is when the sun is directly over the Tropic of Cancer, or more specifically right over 23.5-degree north latitude.

The exact date can vary slightly from year to year, but it is usually on June 20th or 21st.

Explanation

Out of the listed effects of a major solar storm, the most likely ones are

A solar storm can disrupt the Earth's ionosphere, which can affect the signal transmission of GPS and other radio-based navigation systems.

Strong currents induced by the solar storm in power grids can damage transformers and cause widespread blackouts.

Solar storms can energize particles in the Earth's magnetosphere, leading to spectacular auroras at lower latitudes than usual.

The drag from a solar storm can alter the orbits of satellites, especially those in lower Earth orbit. . Similar to GPS, radio communication can be affected by disturbances in the ionosphere.

Tsunamis are caused by underwater earthquakes or volcanic eruptions, not solar storms. While a solar storm could potentially ignite some fires through electrical sparks, this is not a widespread effect.

Therefore, codes 2 and 5 should not form the part of answer.

Explanation

Household savings and government borrowings: A portion of household financial savings in India does indeed go towards government borrowings

Government Debt Instruments: The government raises funds through various debt instruments like bonds and treasury bills. These instruments offer a return on investment to individuals who purchase them. Savings and Investments: When households save money, they might invest it in these government debt instruments through banks or other financial institutions. This provides a source of funding for the government while offering a return to the investors (savers).

Dated securities and internal debt: Dated securities are a major component of India's internal debt. These are essentially government bonds issued at market-determined interest rates through auctions. Investors, including households, banks, and financial institutions, can participate in these auctions and purchase dated securities.

Hence, both statements are correct.

Explanation

Vietnam’s open economic policy of recent years integrating into global supply chains has made the growth success story possible. Vietnam's export-led growth strategy and global integration are among the key factors behind the country's remarkable achievements in growth and poverty. Vietnam was one among the few countries to post GDP growth rate figures in 2020 when the pandemic hit. Vietnam is projected to be the fastest-growing internet economy in Southeast Asia in the next 10 years. Hence, statements 1 and 3 are correct.

Vietnam is a one-party communist state, not a multi-party parliamentary democracy. Hence, statement 2 is not correct.

Thanks to an abundance of low-wage labour, Vietnam's manufacturing sector grew at a compound annual growth in the last decade. As the rest of East Asia developed and wages there rose, global manufacturers were lured by Vietnam's low labour costs and stable exchange rate. Hence, statement 4 is correct.

According to the Asian Development Bank Report, e-services including digital financial services are at a very nascent stage in Vietnam. Hence, statement 5 is not correct.

Explanation

The nominal Effective Exchange Rate (NEER) is a measure of the value of a country's currency against a basket of other currencies weighted by their importance in trade. If NEER increases, it means that the value of the currency has increased relative to the currencies in the basket, indicating appreciation. Hence, statement 1 is correct.

The Real Effective Exchange Rate (REER) takes into account both nominal exchange rates and relative price levels (inflation) between countries. An increase in REER means that the country's currency is overvalued relative to its trading partners, which can reduce trade competitiveness. Hence, statement 2 is incorrect.

If domestic inflation is higher than inflation in other countries, the real value of the domestic currency decreases faster than the nominal value, causing a divergence between NEER and REER.

Therefore, the correct statements are 1 and 3.

Explanation

• Ants are well-known as cultivators of fungi. Certain ant species, particularly those in the tribe Attini, have evolved a symbiotic relationship with specific fungi. These ants cultivate the fungus within their nests, providing it with food and a controlled environment. In return, the fungus provides the ants with nutrients. This is a fascinating example of mutualism in nature.

• Cockroaches are omnivores and scavengers. They do not cultivate fungi.

• Crabs are primarily scavengers or predators. They are not known to cultivate fungi.

• Spiders are predators and capture their prey (insects) in webs. They do not cultivate fungi.

Explanation

Senkaku Islands are a group of uninhabited islands in the East China Sea.

Japan and China claim the uninhabited islands, known as the Senkaku in Japan and Tiaoyu in China, as their own, but Japan has administered them since 1972.

Explanation

As per the Wildlife (Protection) Act, 1972, all wild animals are the property of the government and cannot be owned by private individuals. However, in the Answer Keys released by UPSC, it has given the answer to be B.

The Wildlife (Protection) Act, 1972 provides for the protection of wild animals, whether they are found inside or outside the designated protected areas.

As per the Wildlife (Protection) Act, 1972, the capture or killing of a protected wild animal is strictly prohibited, even if it is perceived to be a danger to human life. Special permission is required from the authorities for any such action.

Therefore, the correct answer is Statements 1 and 2 are correct.

Explanation

System of Rice Intensification (SRI) includes a method called Alternate Wetting and Drying (AWD) which is a form of controlled irrigation of the rice crops. The benefits from the program include

1. Reduction in methane emissions as compared to traditional rice cultivation.
2. Reduction in water consumption .
3. Reducing fuel consumption .
4. Increase paddy yields .
5. Reduce required seeds for transplanting.
6. Reduce use of chemical fertilizers and agrichemicals .
7. Reduce irrigation demand .
8. Reduce production costs .
9. With increased output and reduced costs, farmers net income is increased .

Explanation

Afghanistan is completely landlockedthe nearest coast lies along the Arabian Sea, about 300 miles (480 km) to the southand, because of both its isolation and its volatile political history, it remains one of the most poorly surveyed areas of the world.

It is bounded to the east and south by Pakistan to the west by Iran to the north by the Central Asian states of Turkmenistan, Uzbekistan, and Tajikistan. It also has a short border with Xinjiang, China, at the end of the long, narrow (Wakhan Corridor), in the extreme northeast.

Explanation

Both Rapid Financing Instrument (RFI) and Rapid Credit Facility (RCF) are lending facilities offered by the International Monetary Fund (IMF) to member countries facing urgent balance of payments needs.

Rapid Financing Instrument (RFI) This is available to all IMF member countries.

Rapid Credit Facility (RCF) This is a concessional lending facility specifically for low-income countries (LICs) that are members of the Poverty Reduction and Growth Trust (PRGT).

Explanation

Out of the listed functions of wetlands, the one that best reflects the analogy of "kidneys" is Aquatic plants absorb heavy metals and excess nutrients.

Here's why this function aligns with the kidney comparison Kidneys These vital organs in our body function as a filtering system, removing waste products and excess fluids from the blood. Wetlands With their dense vegetation and saturated soils, wetlands act as natural filters for water. Aquatic plants and microbes in wetlands play a crucial role in

• Phytoremediation Aquatic plants can absorb and accumulate heavy metals and other pollutants from water.
• Nutrient cycling Wetlands help regulate nutrient levels in water by absorbing excess nutrients like nitrogen and phosphorus. This prevents them from flowing into rivers, lakes, and oceans and causing harmful algal blooms.

By filtering pollutants and excess nutrients, wetlands help purify water and maintain healthy aquatic ecosystems. This aligns with the concept of kidneys filtering waste from our blood.

Explanation

The Ghadar Party was a revolutionary movement organized by Indian immigrants in the United States and Canada to end British rule in India.

Rash Behari Bose, one of the most prominent leaders of the Indian National Movement, was actively associated with the Ghadar Party. He was one of the masterminds behind the Delhi conspiracy case and participated in the Ghadar movement.

However, Barindra Kumar Ghosh and Jogesh Chandra Chatterjee were not prominently associated with the Ghadar Party. Barindra Kumar Ghosh was an Indian revolutionary and journalist, and one of the founding members of the Jugantar Bengali weekly, a revolutionary outfit in Bengal. Jogesh Chandra Chatterjee was also a prominent freedom fighter but his association with the Ghadar Party is not well documented.

Therefore, only Rash Behari Bose was actively associated with the Ghadar Party among the options provided.

Explanation

The CLIMATE GROUP is an international non-profit organization founded in 2003, with offices in London, New York, New Delhi, Amsterdam, and Beijing. Its mission is to drive rapid climate action. This group builds and runs networks. Statement 1 is correct.

Statement 2 is incorrect. EP100 is a global initiative led by The Climate Group and the Alliance to Save Energy (not by the International Energy Agency).

Statement 3 is correct. The Climate Group's global EP100 initiative brings together a growing cohort of energy-smart companies committed to improving their energy productivity and reducing greenhouse gas emissions. By incorporating ambitious energy targets into their business strategies, leading companies are fostering innovation in energy efficiency, enhancing competitiveness, and achieving emissions reduction goals.

Statement 4 is correct. EP100 has a global reach, with member companies operating in over 130 markets worldwide. India's Mahindra Group is among the frontrunners in the ongoing efforts to decrease energy consumption and carbon dioxide emissions by transitioning to renewable energy sources.

Statement 5 is incorrect. The Climate Group serves as the Secretariat for the Under2 Coalition and collaborates with governments to expedite climate action through four main workstreams - Pathways, - Policy Action, - Transparency, and - Diplomacy.

Explanation

Statement 1 is incorrect. Nanoparticles can exist in nature (natural nanoparticles). Volcanic eruptions, forest fires, and natural weathering processes can all create nanoparticles.

Statement 2 is correct. Some cosmetics incorporate nanoparticles of ingredients like zinc oxide or titanium dioxide for sun protection or other purposes.

Statement 3 is also correct The safety of nanoparticles in consumer products is a complex issue and a growing area of research. Some nanoparticles might pose potential health or environmental risks depending on their specific properties and how they interact with the body or the environment.

Explanation

The Polar Code is an international maritime regulation that sets safety and environmental standards for shipping in polar waters.

International maritime regulation, the Polar Code, is adopted by the International Maritime Organization (IMO), a specialized agency of the United Nations responsible for the safety and security of shipping.

The code specifically addresses the unique challenges and risks associated with navigation in the Arctic and Antarctic regions.

The code establishes mandatory requirements for aspects like ship design, construction, equipment, operational procedures, crew training, and pollution prevention to ensure safe and environmentally sound navigation in polar waters.

Explanation

1. Namcha Barwa - Garhwal Himalaya - Incorrect. Namcha Barwa is located in the eastern Himalayas, in Arunachal Pradesh, India.

2. Nanda Devi - Kumaon Himalaya - Correct. Nanda Devi is the highest peak in the Kumaon Himalayas, located in Uttarakhand, India.

3. Nokrek - Sikkim Himalaya - Incorrect. Nokrek is a hill located in the Garo Hills of Meghalaya, India, not part of the Sikkim Himalayas.

Explanation

Statement 1 is correct The date of election of the Deputy Speaker is fixed by the Speaker. On the other hand date of election of the Speaker is fixed by the President.

Statement 2 is incorrect There is no mandatory provision that the election of a candidate, as Deputy Speaker of Lok Sabha, shall be from either the principal opposition party or the ruling party. It is only by convention that the position of Deputy Speaker is offered to the opposition party in India.

Statement 3 is correct In case of the absence of the Speaker, the Deputy Speaker presides over the sessions of the Lok Sabha and conducts the business in the house. The Deputy Speaker has the same power as the Speaker when presiding over the sitting of the House.

Statement 4 is incorrect The Deputy Speaker is also elected by the Lok Sabha from amongst its members right after the election of the Speaker has taken place. There is no provision and or established practice of moving the motion for his election by the speaker and it is seconded by the prime minister.

Explanation

The Coal Controller's Organisation (CCO) is a subordinate office of the Ministry of Coal, having its headquarters at Kolkata and field offices at Dhanbad, Ranchi, Bilaspur, Nagpur, Sambalpur, Kothagudem and Asansol. It collects and maintains coal production data of all private and public sector coal mines in the country. The information is collected every month.

Statement 1 is correct. Under the Collection of Statistics Act, 2008 Coal Controller has been made the statistical authority concerning coal and lignite statistics. Entrusted with the responsibility of carrying out the Annual Coal & Lignite survey and publishing of Provisional Coal Statistics and Coal Directory of India.

Statement 2 is correct. It is entrusted with the task of monitoring captive mines. Work such as permission for the opening and reopening of coal mines has been entrusted to the CCO.

Statement 3 is correct. Under the Coal Bearing Area (Acquisition and Development) Act, 1957- the Coal Controller is the competent authority under this act to hear any objection to the Central Government's Notification relating to the acquisition of coal-bearing land and to furnish his reports to the Central Govt.

Statement 4 is incorrect. Ensuring that coal mining companies deliver the coal to end users in the prescribed time is not the function of the Coal Controller's Organization (CCO).

Explanation

Statement 1 is incorrect. Typically, the RBI uses open market operations to sell government securities to drain money from the system and control inflation. Buying government securities would inject money into the system, potentially fueling inflation further.

Statement 2 is correct. Selling dollars in the market - If the rupee is rapidly depreciating, the RBI might intervene in the foreign exchange market by selling dollars from its reserves. This increased supply of dollars in the market can help stabilize the exchange rate and slow down the depreciation of the rupee.

Statement 3 is correct. A fall in interest rates in the USA or EU could lead to capital outflows from India as investors seek higher returns elsewhere. This outflow can put downward pressure on the rupee. To counter this, the RBI might intervene by buying dollars (absorbing some of the outflows).

Explanation

India is the member of all the Organizations. The SCO currently comprises nine Member States (China, Iran, India, Kazakhstan, Kyrgyzstan, Russia, Pakistan, Tajikistan, and Uzbekistan).

Missile Technology Control Regime On 27 June, India became a full member of the MTCR after a deal was struck with Italy. This marks the first entry into any multilateral export control regime for India.

Asian Infrastructure Investment Bank On 24 October 2014, twenty-one countries signed a Memorandum of Understanding (MOU) regarding the AIIB in Beijing, China Bangladesh, Brunei, Cambodia, India, Kazakhstan, Kuwait, Laos, Malaysia, Myanmar, Mongolia, Nepal, Oman, Pakistan, Philippines, Qatar, Singapore, Sri Lanka, Thailand, Uzbekistan, and Vietnam.

Explanation

Statement 1 is Correct: The Contempt of Courts Act, 1971 was passed following the recommendations of the H.N. Sanyal Committee. This act defines and regulates contempt of court in India.

Statement 2 is Correct: The Constitution of India under Articles 122 and 215 empowers the Supreme Court and the High Courts respectively to punish any person for contempt of itself.

Statement 3 is Incorrect: The Constitution of India does not define Civil and Criminal Contempt. These are defined in the Contempt of Courts Act, of 1971.

Statement 4 is Correct: The Parliament does have the power to make laws on Contempt of Court. The Contempt of Courts Act, of 1971 is a parliamentary law that defines and regulates the power of courts to punish contempt of court.

Therefore statements 1, 2, and 4 are correct.

Explanation

The statements given refer to the proposals of the Cripps Mission, which was a mission sent to India in 1942 by the British government during World War II to negotiate with Indian leaders regarding constitutional reforms.

The Cripps Mission proposed that the Constituent Assembly would be elected by the Provincial Legislative Assemblies, not nominated. However, it did not include representatives from the Princely States.

One of the proposals of the Cripps Mission was that provinces unwilling to join the proposed Constituent Assembly or accept the new constitution would have the option to negotiate separate agreements with Britain regarding their future status.

Therefore, the correct answer is (b) 2 only.

Explanation

Statement 1 is incorrect. High clouds are often thin and do not reflect very much. They let lots of the Sun's warmth in. They primarily transmit incoming solar radiation. At the same time, they trap some of the outgoing infrared radiation emitted by the Earth and radiate it back downward, thereby warming the surface of the Earth.

Statement 2 is incorrect. Low clouds are often quite thick and reflect lots of sunlight back to space. Low clouds are excellent reflectors. But, they don't stop the longwave energy from escaping to space. Therefore, low clouds help to cool the Earth.

Explanation

Central Ground Water Authority (CGWA) has been constituted under Section 3 (3) of the Environment (Protection) Act, 1986 to regulate and control development and management of groundwater resources in the country.

Central Water Commission (CWC) - Established in 1945, the CWC is a technical organization under the Ministry of Jal Shakti. It focuses on water resource planning, development, and management in India, but its legal basis comes from other central government acts.

Central Ground Water Board (CGWB) - While it works in close collaboration with the CGWA, the CGWB is a subordinate organization under the Ministry of Jal Shakti, established in 1970. It functions as the technical arm of the CGWA, providing hydrogeological data and technical expertise.

National Water Development Agency (NWDA) - This autonomous agency, established in 1982 under the Ministry of Jal Shakti, operates under the Societies Registration Act, 1860. It focuses on resolving interstate water resource disputes, conducting feasibility studies for water resource development projects, and planning water transfer and linking projects.

Explanation

In medieval India, the term "Fanam" referred to a unit of currency, particularly a gold coin used in South India, especially in regions like the Vijayanagara Empire, the Nayakas of Madurai, and the various states of the Deccan. The Fanam was often minted in small denominations and was widely used for trade and commerce in the region.

Explanation

Out of the listed communication technologies, all three can be considered short-range devices/technologies.

Closed-Circuit Television (CCTV): CCTV systems primarily use cables or wireless connections with a limited range, typically within a building or a designated area.

Radio Frequency Identification (RFID): RFID uses radio waves to identify objects. The reading range of RFID tags depends on the specific technology but generally falls within the short-range category, from a few centimetres to a few meters.

Wireless Local Area Network (WLAN): WLANs, commonly known as Wi-Fi networks, typically operate within a range of tens of meters indoors and up to hundreds of meters outdoors depending on factors like signal strength and frequency band. While the range might be slightly larger than the others on this list, WLANs still fall under the short-range classification compared to technologies like cellular networks or satellite communication.

Explanation

B cells and T cells are both key components of the human immune system, which defend the body against harmful invaders like viruses, bacteria, and parasites.

B cells produce antibodies that can specifically target and neutralize pathogens.

T cells help orchestrate the immune response by directly attacking infected cells or by stimulating other immune cells.

Explanation

Statement 1 is incorrect. DNA Barcoding cannot assess the age DNA barcoding primarily focuses on identifying species based on their unique genetic sequences.

Statement 2 is correct. DNA barcoding is a valuable tool for distinguishing between species that appear similar morphologically. By analyzing short, standardized DNA sequences, scientists can efficiently and accurately identify different species, even if they look very alike.

Statement 3 is correct. DNA barcoding can be used to identify the origin and composition of food products. This can help detect cases where cheaper or undesirable ingredients (food adulteration) are substituted for the ones listed on the label. For example, it can be used to identify different types of meat in processed foods.

Therefore, statements 2 and 3 are correct.

Explanation

A Constitution Amendment Bill can be introduced either by a minister or by a private member and does not require prior permission from the President. Hence, statement 1 is incorrect.

The 24th Amendment of the Indian Constitution amended Article 368 to provide expressly that Parliament has the power to amend any provision of the Constitution and the President is obliged to give his/her assent. Hence, statement 2 is correct.

A Constitution Amendment Bill must be passed by a special majority in both houses and there is no provision for a joint sitting in case of disagreement. Hence, statement 3 is also correct.

So, the second and third statements are correct.

Explanation

Pair 1 is incorrectly matched. China has not established any permanent military base in Chad.

Pair 2 is correctly matched. Guinean special forces staged a coup, captured President Alpha Conde, replaced governors with the military, and dissolved the constitution and National Assembly.

Pair 3 is correctly matched. Lebanon has been experiencing a severe and prolonged economic depression since 2019, driven by political instability, inadequate reforms, and systemic corruption. The economic crisis has affected approximately 74% of the population.

Pair 4 is correctly matched. Tunisian President Kais Saied dissolved the suspended parliament after lawmakers held an online meeting and voted to repeal presidential decrees. He called it a failed coup attempt.

Explanation

Statement 1 is incorrect. The first Mongol raid into India actually occurred in 1221 during the reign of Iltutmish of the Delhi Sultanate. Jalal-ud-din Khalji ruled much later (1296-1298 CE).

Statement 2 is correct. A major Mongol invasion led by Kadar did indeed reach Delhi and lay siege to the city during the reign of Ala-ud-din Khalji (1296-1316 CE). However, his forces successfully repelled the invaders.

Statement 3 is incorrect. Muhammad-bin-Tughlaq faced Mongol invasions during his reign, but there is no historical evidence to suggest that he temporarily lost portions of the northwest of his kingdom to the Mongols.

Therefore, the correct answer is "2 only".

Explanation

Statement 1 is correct. According to Kautilya’s Arthashastra, a person could become a slave as a result of war or debt, or as a judicial punishment.

Statement 2 is correct. If a female slave bore her master a son, she was legally free. The text prescribes freedom for both the mother and the child if the master fathered the son born to a female slave.

Statement 3 is correct. According to Kautilya's Arthashastra, if a son born to a female slave was acknowledged by the master as his own child, the son would be entitled to the legal status of the master's son and would inherit accordingly.

Explanation

Statement 1 is incorrect. The India Sanitation Coalition was launched on June 25, 2015, at FICCI, New Delhi. ISC is a multi-stakeholder platform that brings together the private sector, government, financial institutions, civil society groups, media, donors/bilateral/multilateral, experts, etc., to work in the sanitation space to drive sustainable sanitation through a partnership model. It is not funded by WHO.

Statement 2 is correct. Established in 1976, the National Institute of Urban Affairs (NIUA) is a premier Institute appointed as an apex body to support and guide the Government of India in its urban development plans.

Explanation

It is a delivery system that uses a low Earth orbit to bypass early warning systems and deliver warheads on targets very quickly.

FOBS launches a warhead into a low Earth orbit trajectory instead of a full ballistic missile arc.

These systems are typically designed to detect missiles launched on high ballistic trajectories. A FOBS warhead in a low orbit might be harder to detect until it re-enters the atmosphere for its final approach to the target.

Due to the orbital path, the time between re-entry and target impact can be shorter compared to a traditional ballistic missile attack.

Explanation

Statement 1 is correct. NFTs can be associated with digital assets like artwork, music, or videos. They act as a certificate of ownership for these digital items.

Statement 2 is correct NFTs are unique cryptographic tokens stored on a blockchain, a secure digital ledger. This ensures transparency and traceability of ownership.

Statement 3 is incorrect. NFTs are not fungible, meaning they are not interchangeable like currencies. Each NFT has unique properties and value, unlike a dollar bill where one can be replaced by another. While NFTs can be traded, their value depends on individual characteristics and market demand, making them unsuitable for everyday transactions like buying groceries.

Explanation

Pair 1 is correctly matched Dhauli is located in Odisha.

Pair 2 is correctly matched Erragudi or Yerragudi is located in Andhra Pradesh

Pair 3 is incorrectly matched Jaugada is located in Odisha.

Pair 4 is incorrectly matched Kalsi is located in Uttarakhand.

Explanation

Anatolia is the peninsula of land that today constitutes the Asian portion of Turkey. Because of its location at the point where the continents of Asia and Europe meet, Anatolia was, from the beginnings of civilization, a crossroads for numerous peoples migrating or conquering from either continent. Hence pair 1 is correctly matched.

The Amhara Region is located in the northwestern part of Ethiopia. It is the homeland of Amharapeople. Amhara is the site of the largest inland body of water in Ethiopia, Lake Tana. Amhara region is often mentioned in the news due to historical conflicts among Oromo, Amhara, and Tigrayan groups of Ethiopia. Hence pair 2 is correctly matched.

Cabo Delgado is the northernmost province of Mozambique. It was in news because Mozambique's Al-Shabab extremist group has been carrying out attacks in the country's most northern province, Cabo Delgado, since 2017. Hence pair 3 is not correctly matched.

Catalonia occupies a triangular area in the northeastern corner of Spain. It is bordered by France and Andorra to the north, the Mediterranean Sea to the east, the autonomous community of Valencia to the south, and the autonomous community of Aragon to the west. Recently, mass protests broke out across Spain's Catalonia region after its former separatist leader Carles Puigdemont was arrested. Hence pair 4 is not correctly matched.

So, only two pairs (Anatolia Turkey and Amhara Ethiopia) are correctly matched.

Explanation

Statement 1 is correct. The United Nations General Assembly may grant non-member states, international organizations, and other entities Permanent Observer Status.

Statement 2 is correct. The General Assembly decided that observer status would be confined to States and intergovernmental organizations whose activities cover matters of interest to the Assembly.

Statement 3 is correct. Permanent Observers may participate in the sessions and workings of the General Assembly and maintain missions at the UN Headquarters.

Explanation

Ayushman Bharat Digital Mission aims to provide digital health IDs for all Indian citizens to help hospitals, insurance firms, and citizens access health records electronically when required.

Statement 1 is incorrect Ayushman Bharat Digital Mission (ABDM) has not made it mandatory for adoption by private and public hospitals. Its adoption so far would be voluntary. Participation in ABDM is voluntary including for citizens. Participation of a healthcare facility or an institution is also voluntary and shall be taken by the respective management (government or private management).

Statement 2 is incorrect The aim of the Ayushman Bharat Digital Mission is to facilitate the ease of access to medical records and it is not been mandated to have every citizen as its part though the facility is available to every citizen on a consent basis.

Statement 3 is correct ABDM will have a national footprint and will enable seamless portability across the country through a Health ID Personal Health Identifier.

Explanation

The Sayyids were claimed to descend from the Prophet through his daughter Fatima. They commanded special respect in Muslim society. Even Timur protected the life of Sayyids during his invasion of India, although his policy was one of general slaughter.

The Sayyids put on a pointed cap (kulah) and they were known as KulahDaran during the Delhi Sultanate.

Explanation

Statement 1 is correct. PET fibres can be blended with cotton or wool to improve properties like wrinkle resistance and durability.

Statement 2 is incorrect. Not all PET containers are suitable for all alcoholic beverages. Some PET can leach chemicals at high temperatures or with certain types of alcohol. It's important to check for specific suitability indicators on the packaging.

Statement 3 is correct. PET bottles are one of the most commonly recycled plastics. They can be reprocessed into various products like clothing fibres, new bottles, or building materials.

Statement 4 is incorrect. Incineration of PET, like most plastics, generates greenhouse gas emissions, including carbon dioxide. While PET has a lower emission profile compared to some other plastics, it's still not a zero-emission disposal method.

Remember: Statements like store any kind of alcoholic beverages are vague & ambiguous, so they ought to be eliminated. Also, incineration of any substance cannot be environment friendly as it would definitely release GHGs. Hence the only Option left is Option A. Therefore, the correct statements are 1 and 3.

Explanation

Ghataprabha Reservoir Located in Karnataka, not Telangana. Hence pair 1 is not correctly matched.

Gandhi Sagar Reservoir Located in Madhya Pradesh (correctly matched). Hence pair 2 is correctly matched.

Indira Sagar Reservoir Located in Madhya Pradesh, not Andhra Pradesh. Hence pair 3 is not correctly matched.

Maithon Reservoir Located in Jharkhand, not Chhattisgarh. Hence pair 4 is not correctly matched.

Explanation

Indirect Transfers: This refers to a situation where a foreign company transfers ownership of assets located in India, but not directly. Instead, they might transfer shares of a subsidiary company that holds the Indian assets.

Taxation on Underlying Assets: The Indian government aims to tax the transfer of assets with substantial value in India, even if the transaction happens offshore. Indirect transfer provisions ensure that the foreign company pays capital gains tax on the underlying Indian assets.

Explanation

Sangam literature, which dates back to the Sangam period in ancient South India (c. 3rd century BCE to 3rd century CE), does indeed contain references to the social classification of Varna. The poems provide insights into the societal structure of that time, including the division of society into different social groups or Varnas. Therefore, option b is correct.

Sangam poems often contain references to material culture, including descriptions of trade, agriculture, urban life, and everyday objects.

Sangam's poems frequently depict warrior ethics, with many poems glorifying valour, bravery, and military prowess.

Sangam literature includes references to various supernatural or magical forces, but these are typically presented as part of the cultural and religious beliefs of the time rather than being explicitly labelled as irrational.

Explanation

The states commonly recognized as tea-producing states are Assam, West Bengal, Tamil Nadu, Himachal Pradesh, Tripura, Kerala and Karnataka, not Andhra Pradesh. Therefore, option D is correct.

Explanation

Statement 1 is incorrect. Aryadeva was a Buddhist philosopher, not a Jaina scholar.

Statement 2 is correct. Dignaga was a Buddhist scholar known for his contributions to logic and philosophy.

Statement 3 is correct. Nathamuni was a Vaishnava scholar who is credited with reviving the Sri Vaishnava tradition.

Explanation

The real sector of the economy includes

Farmers harvesting their crops This is a primary sector activity where raw materials are produced. Agriculture forms a crucial part of the real sector.

Textile mills converting raw cotton into fabrics This is a secondary sector activity where raw materials are processed into finished goods. Manufacturing industries are considered part of the real sector.

The other two options are part of the financial sector

Commercial bank lending money (Financial sector) Banks and other financial institutions provide financial services like lending, borrowing, and investing. These activities facilitate transactions in the real sector but don't directly produce goods or services themselves.

Issuing rupee-denominated bonds overseas (Financial sector) This is a financial instrument where a company raises funds by issuing bonds. While it can indirectly support real sector activities by providing capital, it's not directly involved in production.

Therefore, the correct code is 1 and 2 only.

Explanation

Biorock technology uses a low voltage electrical current to stimulate the growth of minerals on submerged structures. This creates a limestone-like material similar to that found in natural coral reefs.

Biorock structures can provide a stable substrate for coral polyps to attach and grow, accelerating the restoration of degraded coral reefs.

While Biorock can be used for other purposes, like creating artificial reefs for mariculture (fish farming) or promoting the growth of seacrete building materials, its application in coral reef restoration is a major area of interest.

Explanation

Inflation-indexed bonds (IIBs) typically offer a fixed real rate of return above inflation. Therefore, the coupon rates on IIBs are adjusted based on changes in inflation to maintain the real rate of return. Hence, statement 1 is correct.

Inflation-indexed bonds (IIBs) provide investors with protection against inflation because their principal and interest payments are adjusted based on changes in the inflation rate. This helps investors preserve their purchasing power. Hence, statement 2 is correct.

Tax exemption Currently, the interest income on IIBs is taxable in India. Capital gains tax treatment on IIBs might depend on the specific holding period and type of investor. Hence, statement 3 is incorrect.

Explanation

Statement 1 is incorrect. Credit Rating Agencies (CRA) analyse a debtor's ability to repay the debt and also rate their credit risk. All the credit rating agencies in India are regulated by SEBI (Credit Rating Agencies) Regulations, 1999 of the Securities and Exchange Board of India Act, 1992. There are a total of six credit agencies in India viz, CRISIL, CARE, ICRA, SMREA, Brickwork Rating, and India Rating and Research Pvt. Ltd.

Statement 2 is correct. ICRA Limited is a public limited company that was set up in 1991 in Gurugram. The company was formerly known as Investment Information and Credit Rating Agency of India Limited.

Statement 3 is correct. Brickwork Ratings is recognized as an external credit assessment agency (ECAI) by the Reserve Bank of India (RBI) to carry out credit ratings in India. Brickwork Rating was established in 2007 and is promoted by Canara Bank. It offers ratings for bank loans, SMEs, corporate governance ratings, municipal corporations, capital market instruments, and financial institutions.

Explanation

The Climate Action Tracker (CAT) is an independent scientific analysis that tracks government climate action and measures it against the globally agreed Paris Agreement aim of holding warming well below 2C, and pursuing efforts to limit warming to 1.5C.

A collaboration of two organisations, Climate Analytics and NewClimate Institute, the CAT has been providing this independent analysis to policymakers since 2009. CAT quantifies and evaluates climate change mitigation targets, policies, and actions. It also aggregates country action to the global level, determining likely temperature increases during the 21st century using the MAGICC climate model. CAT further develops sectoral analysis to illustrate the required pathways for meeting the global temperature goals.

Explanation

Monazite is a brown crystalline mineral consisting of cerium, lanthanum, other rare earth elements, and thorium. Monazite usually occurs in small, isolated crystals or grains that are resistant to weathering and become concentrated in soils.

Statements 1 and 2 are correct. Monazite is a major source of rare earths and thorium.

It yields several rare-earth elements, such as neodymium and praseodymium. Both of these are in demand internationally for making high-performance rare-earth magnets (components of power wind turbines, electric vehicles and robotics)

Statement 3 is incorrect. Though monazite is found in most coastal areas of India. It is questionable to be found along the entire coast. The main mines are found along the coasts of southern India in Kerala, Tamil Nadu and in Orissa.

Statement 4 is correct. Export of monazite without a license from AERB is a violation of the Atomic Energy (Radiation Protection) Rules 2004. Indian Rare Earths Limited (IREL), a wholly owned Public Sector Undertaking of the Government of India (GOI) under DAE, is the only entity that has been permitted to produce and process monazite and handle it for domestic use as well as for export.

Explanation

Statement 1 is correct: Mandamus is a command issued by the court to a public official asking him to perform his official duties that he has failed or refused to perform. It can also be issued against any public body, a corporation, an inferior court, a tribunal, or a government for the same purpose. It is usually not usable against a private entity unless it is entrusted with a public duty.

Statement 2 is incorrect: As explained above, Mandamus can be used against a government corporation and/or company.

Statement 3 is correct: Quo Warranto is issued by the court to inquire into the legality of the claim of a person to a public office. Hence, it prevents illegal usurpation of public office by a person. Unlike the other writs, this can be sought by any interested person and not necessarily by the aggrieved person.

Explanation

Statement 1 is incorrect: If the President is satisfied that a grave emergency exists whereby the security of India or of any part of the territory thereof is threatened, whether by war or external aggression or armed rebellion, he may, by Proclamation, make a declaration to that effect in respect of the whole of India or of such part of the territory.

Statement 2 is correct: According to Article 75 of the Indian constitution, the council of ministers shall be collectively responsible to the Lok Sabha. It means that the ministry stays in office so long as it enjoys the confidence of the majority of the members of the Lok Sabha.

Statement 3 is incorrect: When a President is to be impeached for violation of the Constitution, the charge shall be preferred by either House of Parliament.

Explanation

Statement 1 is incorrect: The Constitution of India does not classify ministers into four fixed ranks. There are broadly two categories based on parliamentary convention - Cabinet Ministers and Ministers of State (with or without independent charge). The number of ranks can vary based on the specific structure chosen by the government.

Statement 2 is correct. The 91st Amendment to the Constitution limits the size of the Council of Ministers. The total number of ministers, including the Prime Minister, cannot exceed 15% of the total strength of the Lok Sabha.

Explanation

In many cases, Software as a Service (SaaS) providers allow some degree of customization of the user interface and data fields to meet the specific needs of their customers.

One of the key benefits of SaaS is its accessibility from anywhere with an internet connection, including mobile devices such as smartphones and tablets. SaaS applications are often designed to be mobile-friendly, allowing users to access their data and perform tasks on the go.

Outlook, Hotmail, and Yahoo! Mail are examples of web-based email services that operate on the SaaS model. Users access these email services through web browsers without needing to install or maintain any software locally on their devices. The email data is stored and managed remotely on servers operated by the service providers.

Therefore, all statements are correct.

Explanation

Pair 1 is correctly matched. Nannuka was the founder of the Chandela dynasty.

Pair 2 is incorrectly matched. Jayashakti belonged to the Chandel dynasty, not the Paramara dynasty.

Pair 3 is correctly matched. Nagabhata II was indeed a ruler of the Gurjara-Pratihara dynasty.

Pair 4 is incorrectly matched. Bhoja belonged to the Paramara dynasty, not the Rashtrakuta dynasty.

Explanation

Statement 1 is correct: The Tea Board of India is a statutory body created under the Tea Act, 1953 and it was established to regulate the Indian tea industry and protect the interests of tea producers in India.

Statement 2 is incorrect: It is functioning as a statutory body of the Central Government under the Ministry of Commerce.

Statement 3 is incorrect: The Tea Board of India's Head Office is situated in Kolkata.

Statement 4 is correct: The Tea Board of India has overseas offices in Moscow, Dubai, Hamburg, London, and New York.

Explanation

Statement 1 is incorrect. India's Bhadla Solar Park in Rajasthan is the largest solar power park in the world.

Statement 2 is correct. Kerala’s Cochin International Airport Ltd (CIAL) is the first airport in the world that would be running fully on solar power.

Statement 3 is incorrect. The largest floating solar photovoltaic project in India is not in Goa but in Ramagundam, Telangana. The project is developed by NTPC (National Thermal Power Corporation Limited).

Explanation

A key aspect of Web 3.0 is the concept of decentralization, where users have more control and ownership over their personal data, rather than having it stored and controlled by centralized platforms.

Blockchain technology is a core component of Web 3.0, and it can enable the creation of decentralized, user-owned social networks and platforms.

The decentralized nature of Web 3.0 means that it is not controlled by a single corporation or entity, but rather operated and maintained collectively by the users and participants in the network.

Therefore, all three statements regarding Web 3.0 are correct.

Explanation

Biofilms are a major concern in healthcare. They can form on implanted devices like catheters, heart valves, and artificial joints within human tissues. These biofilms can harbour bacteria that are difficult to eradicate with antibiotics, leading to chronic infections and potential implant failure.

Biofilms can also form on food and food processing surfaces. This can contaminate food with bacteria and contribute to spoilage. Biofilms on these surfaces are also challenging to remove due to their protective matrix.

Bacteria within biofilms can exhibit increased resistance to antibiotics. The biofilm matrix acts as a barrier, making it harder for antibiotics to reach and kill the bacteria. Additionally, bacteria within biofilms can communicate and share genetic material, potentially promoting the spread of antibiotic resistance genes.

All three statements are correct.

Explanation

• A qubit is the fundamental unit of information in quantum computing, analogous to the bit in classical computing.

• However, unlike a bit that can only be either 0 or 1, a qubit can exist in a superposition of both states simultaneously.

• This property of qubits allows quantum computers to perform certain calculations much faster than traditional computers.

Explanation

The term "greenwashing" is best described as deceptively conveying a misleading impression that a company's products or practices are environmentally friendly.

Greenwashing is a marketing strategy where companies try to portray themselves as environmentally conscious, even if their actions don't necessarily reflect that commitment. It often involves using misleading language, imagery, or selective data to create a positive environmental image.

The goal is to gain a competitive advantage by appealing to consumers who are increasingly concerned about environmental issues.

Explanation

Foreign e-commerce companies cannot directly sell their own goods through an inventory-based model in India. This is to ensure a level playing field for domestic sellers and protect small retailers.

Marketplace model allows these companies to operate as online marketplaces, providing a platform for other sellers to list and sell their products.

There are no direct limitations on the size of sellers, the Foreign Direct Investment (FDI) rules in India restrict foreign multi-brand retailers (those selling a variety of brands) from owning inventory or controlling the sale of products on their platforms. This indirectly limits their influence on big sellers.

Therefore, both the statement are incorrect.

Explanation

Gandikota is a small village in the Kadapa district of Andhra Pradesh. The village is majorly known for housing the spectacular gorge which is famously adjudged as the “Grand Canyon of India”.

The canyon is a gorge carved out over millions of years by the Pennar River that streams from the Erramala hills.

It's known for its red-hued, layered, and jagged rock formations.

Explanation

Ramanuja believed in qualified non-dualism (Vishishtadvaita), where the individual soul (atman) and God (Brahman) coexist in a qualified oneness.

Qualified Non-dualism (Vishishtadvaita): This is the core concept in Ramanuja's philosophy. It contrasts with the strict non-dualism (Advaita) of Adi Shankara. While both acknowledge an ultimate reality, Ramanuja argues for a qualified oneness, where the individual soul (atman) and God (Brahman) exist in a dependent relationship.

God's supremacy: Ramanuja emphasized the concept of a personal God, often identified with Vishnu, who is both immanent (present within the world) and transcendent (beyond the world).

Path to salvation: Liberation (moksha) is achieved through devotion (bhakti) to God and his grace.