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UPSC Prelims 2020 Analysis

Subject-Wise MCQ Distribution

The UPSC Prelims 2020 maintained its dynamic nature, demanding strong analytical abilities across subjects.

  • Environment & Ecology: 19 questions, emphasizing its crucial role in both the Civil Services Examination (CSE) and Indian Forest Service (Ifos) prelims.
  • Economy: Emerged as the dominant subject with 21 questions, underscoring its foundational significance.
  • Indian Polity: 15 questions, reinforcing its position as one of the most essential areas for aspirants.
  • History: A well-distributed section with 3 questions from Ancient History, 2 from Medieval History, 9 from Modern History, and 5 from Art & Culture.
  • Geography: 6 questions on Indian Geography, 1 on Physical Geography, and 1 on World Geography. Some questions required maps-based knowledge.
  • Science & Technology: 13 questions, highlighting its increasing significance in the exam.
  • International Relations: 3 questions, marking a decline from previous years but still requiring awareness of global affairs and India's foreign policy.
  • Social Issues & Schemes: 2 questions, demonstrating the need for understanding government programs and their societal impact.
Prelims 2020
Subject-Wise Weightage in UPSC Prelims 2020

Difficulty Analysis

  • Easy: 30 questions, requiring fundamental knowledge.
  • Medium: 43 questions, designed to test deeper understanding and application.
  • Hard: 27 questions, focusing on conceptual depth and critical thinking.
Prelims 2020
Difficulty-Level Distribution in UPSC Prelims 2020

Variations in Question Framing

  • Multi-Statement Based: 63 questions, testing analytical abilities through comparisons and logical deductions.
  • Direct Questions: 37 questions, yielding approximately 74 marks.
  • Assertion & Reasoning: Notably, no assertion and reason-based questions were asked this year.
  • Match the Following: Several match the following type questions were present, assessing conceptual clarity across subjects.
Prelims 2020
Variations of Questions in UPSC Prelims 2020

Static vs Current Affairs Distribution

  • Static Questions: 75% of the paper, reflecting the importance of mastering NCERT fundamentals.
  • Current Affairs: 25 questions, many of which blended static concepts with contemporary relevance. Economics and Science & Technology, in particular, were influenced by recent developments, making it difficult to separate static from dynamic content.

Key Learnings for Future Preparation

The UPSC Prelims 2020 presented several challenges due to its unique question patterns and focus areas:

  • The exam was challenging and unconventional, requiring strong analytical abilities.

  • Heavy focus on Science & Technology, Environment, and Agriculture.

  • Topics like eco-friendly farming, biochar, and MSP were particularly tricky.

  • While current affairs played a role, most questions were static and application-driven, demanding a strong conceptual foundation.

  • Underrepresented areas included:

    • Key government schemes

    • COVID-19-related policies

    • International organizations

  • The unpredictability of the exam reaffirmed the need for:

    • Well-rounded preparation

    • NCERT-based conceptual clarity

    • Interdisciplinary approach was crucial, integrating multiple subjects effectively.

The Prelims 2020 paper was analytical and required strong conceptual clarity. Economy, Environment, and Polity were key focus areas. Multi-statement questions dominated, emphasizing elimination techniques. While static concepts formed the core, current affairs played a supporting role. The exam demanded an interdisciplinary approach and applied knowledge.

QUESTION 1

HardEconomyPrelims 2020

With reference to chemical fertilizers in India, consider the following statements:

  1. At present, the retail price of chemical fertilizers is market-driven and not administered by the Government.
  2. Ammonia, which is an input of urea, is produced from natural gas.
  3. Sulphur, which is a raw material for phosphoric acid fertilizer, is a by-product of oil refineries.

Select the correct answer using the code given below:

A. 1 only

B. 2 and 3 only

C. 2 only

D. 1, 2 and 3

Answer: B

Explanation

Statement 1 is not correct. The Government of India subsidizes fertilizers to ensure that fertilizers are easily available to farmers and the country remains self-sufficient in agriculture. This has been achieved largely by controlling the price of fertilizer and the amount of production. For example, as per the New Urea Policy of 2015, the government fixes the market price of urea.

Statement 2 is correct. Fertilizer production uses 1.2% of the world's total energy out of which 90% is used for ammonia production, which is a key ingredient in the production of nitrogen fertilizers. Ammonia can be produced from natural gas.

Statement 3 is correct. Sulfur is a major by-product of oil refining and gas processing. Most crude oil grades contain some sulfur, most of which must be removed during the refining process to meet strict sulfur content limits in refined products. Also, Sulphur is used in phosphoric acid fertilizer (There is a process known as 'The Wet Process' for producing the same).

Hence , option B is the correct answer.


QUESTION 2

EasyEconomyPrelims 2020

Consider the following statements:

  1. In the case of all cereals, pulses and oil-seeds, the procurement at Minimum Support Price (MSP) is unlimited in any State/UT of India.
  2. In the case of cereals and pulses, the MSP is fixed in any State/UT at a level to which the market price will never rise.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

A. 1 only

B. 2 only

C. Both 1 and 2

D. Neither 1 nor 2

Answer: D

Explanation

Statement 1 is incorrect. The procurement of cereals, pulses, and oilseeds at Minimum Support Price (MSP) is not unlimited. The government procures these crops based on pre-decided targets, storage capacity, and buffer stock norms. Additionally, procurement is not uniform across all states/UTs, as it depends on state policies and the presence of procurement agencies.

Statement 2 is incorrect. The MSP is not fixed in such a way that the market price will never rise above it. In many cases, market prices may rise above MSP due to factors like supply-demand dynamics, export demand, and production levels. MSP acts as a floor price to protect farmers but does not cap the market price.

Minimum Support Price

Hence , option D is the correct answer.


QUESTION 3

EasyEconomyPrelims 2020

Consider the following statements:

  1. The weightage of food in Consumer Price Index (CPI) is higher than that in Wholesale Price Index (WPI).
  2. The WPI does not capture changes in the prices of services, which CPI does.
  3. Reserve Bank of India has now adopted WPI as its key measure of inflation and to decide on changing the key policy rates.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

A. 1 and 2 only

B. 2 only

C. 3 only

D. 1, 2 and 3

Answer: A

Explanation

Statement 1 is correct. As per the data given in the Economic Survey 2019-2020, the weightage of food in the Consumer Price Index (CPI) Combined is 45.9% as compared to 24.4% in Wholesale Price Index (WPI).

Statement 2 is correct. The CPI measures the average change in prices over time that consumers pay for a basket of goods and services, commonly known as inflation, whereas WPI does not measure the average change in prices.

Statement 3 is incorrect. In April 2014, the RBI adopted the Consumer Price Index (CPI) as its key measure of inflation.

Types of Inflation

Hence , option A is the correct answer.


QUESTION 4

EasyEconomyPrelims 2020

If the RBI decides to adopt an expansionist monetary policy, which of the following would it not do?

  1. Cut and optimize the Statutory Liquidity Ratio
  2. Increase the Marginal Standing Facility Rate
  3. Cut the Bank Rate and Repo Rate

Select the correct answer using the code given below:

A. 1 and 2 only

B. 2 only

C. 1 and 3 only

D. 1, 2 and 3

Answer: B

Explanation

Expansionary Monetary Policy aims to stimulate economic activity by increasing the money supply and lowering interest rates.

Statement 1 is incorrect. Cut and optimize the Statutory Liquidity Ratio: This aligns with expansionary policy as it allows banks to lend more.

Statement 2 is correct. Increase the Marginal Standing Facility Rate: This goes against expansionary policy because it makes it more expensive for banks to borrow from RBI, potentially reducing liquidity.

Statement 3 is incorrect. Cut the Bank Rate and Repo Rate: This is a key tool for expansionary policy. Lowering these rates encourages banks to borrow from RBI and lend at lower rates to businesses and individuals, stimulating economic activity.

Therefore, increasing the Marginal Standing Facility Rate (MSF Rate) would contradict the goals of an expansionary monetary policy.


QUESTION 5

MediumEconomyPrelims 2020

In the context of the Indian economy, non-financial debt includes which of the following?

  1. Housing loans owed by households
  2. Amounts outstanding on credit cards
  3. Treasury bills

Select the correct answer using the code given below:

A. 1 only

B. 1 and 2 only

C. 3 only

D. 1, 2 and 3

Answer: D

Explanation

In an economy, there are two main sectors: financial and non-financial.

The financial sector consists of institutions like banks, insurance companies, and investment firms. The non-financial sector encompasses everything else, including households, businesses (except financial institutions), and the government.

Non-financial debt refers to the total amount of money owed by the non-financial sector. This includes loans, credit card balances, and other outstanding liabilities. It's a way to measure the overall indebtedness of households, businesses, and the government.

Understanding Non-Financial Debt Components

  • Household Debt: This includes various loans and credit obligations incurred by individual households.
  • Corporate Debt: This refers to the money owed by businesses (excluding financial institutions) to various creditors.
  • Government Debt: This represents the total amount of money borrowed by the government to finance its expenditures.

Therefore, all three options (1, 2, and 3) are considered non-financial debt in the Indian economy.


QUESTION 6

HardEconomyPrelims 2020

In India, under cyber insurance for individuals, which of the following benefits are generally covered, in addition to payment for the funds and other benefits?

  1. Cost of restoration of the computer system in case of malware disrupting access to one's computer
  2. Cost of a new computer if some miscreant wilfully damages it, if proved so
  3. Cost of hiring a specialized consultant to minimize the loss in case of cyber extortion.
  4. Cost of defence in the Court of Law if any third party files a suit

A. 1, 2 and 4 only

B. 1, 3 and 4 only

C. 2 and 3 only

D. 1, 2, 3 and 4

Answer: B

Explanation

In India, cyber insurance covers (generally) the following

  • Identity theft
  • Cyber-bullying and cyber-stalking
  • Cyber extortion
  • Malware intrusion
  • Financial loss due to unauthorized and fraudulent use of bank account, credit card, and mobile wallet
  • Legal expenses arising out of any covered risk
  • Social Media Cover
  • Phishing Cover
  • E-mail Spoofing
  • Media Liability Claims Cover
  • Cyber Extortion Cover
  • Privacy Breach and Data Breach by Third Party.

Cyber insurance generally focuses on damages caused by cyber threats or electronic incidents, not physical damage to devices. Hence, statement 2 is incorrect.

Hence only options 1, 3, and 4 are correct.


QUESTION 7

EasyEconomyPrelims 2020

Along with the Budget, the Finance Minister also places other documents before the Parliament which include “The Macro Economic Framework Statement”. The aforesaid document is presented because this is mandated by

A. Long standing parliamentary convention

B. Article 112 and Article 1101 of the Constitution of India

C. Article 113 of the Constitution of India

D. Provisions of the Fiscal Responsibility and Budget Management Act, 2003

Answer: D

Explanation

Fiscal Responsibility and Budget Management (FRBM) became an Act in 2003. The objective of the Act is to ensure inter-generational equity in fiscal management, long run macroeconomic stability, better coordination between fiscal and monetary policy, and transparency in fiscal operation of the Government. FRBM Act provides a legal institutional framework for fiscal consolidation.

The Act also requires the government to lay before the parliament three policy statements in each financial year namely

  1. Medium Term Fiscal Policy Statement
  2. Fiscal Policy Strategy Statement
  3. Macroeconomic Framework Policy Statement

QUESTION 8

MediumEconomyPrelims 2020

If another global financial crisis happens in the near future, which of the following actions/policies are most likely to give some immunity to India?

  1. Not depending on short-term foreign borrowings
  2. Opening up to more foreign banks
  3. Maintaining full capital account convertibility

Select the correct answer using the code given below:

A. 1 only

B. 1 and 2 only

C. 3 only

D. 1, 2 and 3

Answer: A

Explanation

Not depending on short-term foreign borrowings: This reduces exposure to capital flight. During a crisis, foreign investors may pull their money out of emerging markets like India, leading to rupee depreciation and financial instability. By limiting short-term foreign borrowings, India can lessen the impact of such capital flight.

Opening up to more foreign banks: While this might seem beneficial, it can also increase reliance on foreign capital. During a crisis, foreign banks might be more likely to restrict credit, negatively impacting the Indian economy.

Maintaining full capital account convertibility: This allows for the free movement of capital in and out of the country. While it can be beneficial in normal times, it can also exacerbate capital flight during a crisis.

Therefore, the most prudent strategy is to reduce dependence on short-term foreign borrowings to minimize the vulnerability caused by potential capital flight.

Hence, only statement 1 is correct. Hence, option A is the correct answer.


QUESTION 9

MediumEconomyPrelims 2020

Under the Kisan Credit Card scheme, short-term credit support is given to farmers for which of the following purposes?

  1. Working capital for maintenance of farm assets
  2. Purchase of combine harvesters, tractors and mini trucks.
  3. Consumption requirements of farm households
  4. Post-harvest expense
  5. Construction of family house and setting up of village cold storage facility.

Select the correct answer

A. 1, 2 and 5 only

B. 1, 3 and 4 only

C. 2, 3, 4 and 5 only

D. 1, 2, 3 4 and 5

Answer: B

Explanation

Under the Kisan Credit Card (KCC) scheme, short-term credit support is provided to farmers for purposes that directly support agricultural activities and the farm household.

Statement 1 is correct. The KCC scheme provides working capital for the maintenance of farm assets, which includes things like irrigation, fertilizers, and labor costs.

Statement 2 is incorrect. The KCC scheme does not cover the purchase of capital-intensive assets such as combine harvesters, tractors, and mini trucks. These are typically financed through long-term loans, not short-term credit.

Statement 3 is correct. The KCC scheme provides credit for consumption requirements of the farm household, like daily needs and family expenditures.

Statement 4 is correct. The KCC scheme can also be used for post-harvest expenses, including costs for storage, transportation, and marketing of produce.

Statement 5 is incorrect. The construction of a family house and setting up of village cold storage facilities are not covered under the KCC scheme, as these are typically considered long-term capital expenditures.

The list of eligible activities for KCC are

  • To meet the short term credit requirements for cultivation of crops
  • Post-harvest expenses,
  • Produce marketing loan
  • Consumption requirements of farmer household.
  • Working capital for maintenance of farm assets band activities allied to agriculture like dairy animals, inland fishery etc.
  • Investment credit requirement for agriculture and allied activities like pumpsets, sprayers, dairy animals etc.

Hence, option B is the correct answer.


QUESTION 10

EasyEconomyPrelims 2020

The term 'West Texas Intermediate', sometimes found in news, refers to a grade of

A. Crude oil

B. Bullion

C. Rare earth elements

D. Uranium

Answer: A

Explanation

The term "West Texas Intermediate" (WTI), often seen in news reports, refers to a grade of crude oil. WTI is used as a benchmark for oil pricing in North America.

Specifically, WTI is a light, sweet crude oil, meaning it has a low density and low sulfur content. This makes it easier and more desirable to refine into gasoline and other products. WTI serves as one of the main benchmarks for oil prices globally.

West Texas Intermediate (WTI) and Brent Crude are two of the most important global benchmarks for crude oil prices. Brent Index is used as a benchmark for oil pricing globally, including Europe, Asia, and Africa.


QUESTION 11

MediumEconomyPrelims 2020

Consider the following statements:

  1. In terms of short-term credit delivery to the agriculture sector, District Central Cooperative Banks (DCCBs) deliver more credit in comparison of Scheduled Commercial Banks are Regional Rural Banks
  2. One of the most important functions of DCCBs is to provide funds to the Primary Agricultural Credit Societies.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

A. 1 only

B. 2 only

C. Both 1 and 2

D. Neither 1 nor 2

Answer: B

Explanation

Statement 1 is incorrect. In terms of short-term credit delivery to the agriculture sector, Scheduled Commercial Banks (SCBs) and Regional Rural Banks (RRBs) generally deliver more credit compared to District Central Cooperative Banks (DCCBs). SCBs and RRBs have a larger network and resources to provide credit to the agriculture sector.

Statement 2 is correct. One of the primary functions of DCCBs is indeed to provide funds to the Primary Agricultural Credit Societies (PACS). DCCBs act as the intermediary between the Reserve Bank of India (RBI) and PACS, facilitating the flow of credit from the central bank to the grassroots level through cooperative credit institutions.

Cooperative Banks

Hence , option B is the correct answer.


QUESTION 12

MediumEconomyPrelims 2020

Which of the following factors/policies were affecting the price of rice in India in the recent past?

  1. Minimum Support Price
  2. Government’s trading
  3. Government’s stockpiling
  4. Consumer subsidies

Select the correct answer using the code given below:

A. 1, 2 and 4 only

B. 1, 3 and 4 only

C. 2 and 3 only

D. 1, 2, 3 and 4

Answer: D

Explanation

Minimum Support Price (MSP): The government sets an MSP to ensure a minimum income for farmers. If the market price falls below the MSP, the government procures rice from farmers at the MSP. This can lead to higher rice prices for consumers if the government releases these stocks slowly or not at all.

Government's trading: Government agencies like the Food Corporation of India (FCI) procure and sell rice in the market. Large-scale procurement by the government can affect market availability and potentially drive up prices.

Government's stockpiling: The government maintains buffer stocks of rice for food security purposes. If these stocks are depleted due to various reasons, it can lead to a shortage and price hikes.

Consumer subsidies: The government provides subsidized rice to certain sections of the population through schemes like PDS (Public Distribution System). This can influence overall demand and market dynamics. If the subsidies are substantial, it can put upward pressure on prices.

Therefore, all these factors can play a role in influencing the price of rice in India. Hence , option D is the correct answer.


QUESTION 13

HardEconomyPrelims 2020

With reference of the Indian economy after the 1991 economic liberalization, consider the following statements:

  1. Worker productivity (per worker at 2004-05 prices) increased in urban areas while it decreased in rural areas.
  2. The percentage share of rural areas in the workforce steadily increased.
  3. In rural areas, the growth in non-farm economy increased.
  4. The growth rate in rural employment decreased.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

A. 1 and 2 only

B. 3 and 4 only

C. 3 only

D. 1, 2, and 4 only

Answer: B

Explanation

Statement 1 is incorrect. After the 1991 economic liberalization, worker productivity increased both in urban and rural areas. While urban areas experienced higher growth, rural areas also saw improvements, especially with the rise in non-farm activities.

Statement 2 is incorrect. The percentage share of rural areas in the workforce has steadily decreased since the liberalization. This is because more people have moved to urban areas for employment in the industrial and service sectors, contributing to the growing urban workforce.

Statement 3 is correct. In rural areas, the growth of the non-farm economy increased significantly. With liberalization, the diversification of rural economies into sectors like manufacturing, construction, and services grew, reducing the dependency on agriculture.

Statement 4 is correct. The growth rate in rural employment decreased after 1991. While the rural economy diversified, the agricultural sector did not provide enough employment opportunities to absorb all the labor, leading to lower growth in rural employment.

Hence , option B is the correct answer.


QUESTION 14

MediumEconomyPrelims 2020

With reference to the international trade of India at present, which of the following statements is/are correct?

  1. India’s merchandise exports are less than its merchandise imports.
  2. India’s imports of iron and steel, chemicals, fertilisers and machinery have decreased in recent years.
  3. India’s exports of services are more than its imports of services.
  4. India suffers from an overall trade/current account deficit.

Select the correct answer using the code given below:

A. 1 and 2 only

B. 2 and 4 only

C. 3 only

D. 1, 3 and 4 only

Answer: D

Explanation

Statement 1 is correct. Merchandise trade deficit is the largest component of India's current account deficit. As per RBIs data, India's Merchandise exports during April-August 2019- 2020 were USD 133.14 billion, as compared to USD 210.39 billion of imports during the same period.

Statement 2 is incorrect. Commodity-wise composition of imports between 2011-12 and 2018-19 shows that imports of iron and steel, organic chemicals, industrial machinery have registered positive growth rates as % of share in imports.

Statement 3 is correct. India's net services (service exports - service imports) have been in surplus. India's Service exports during April-August 2019- 2020 were USD 67.24 billion, as compared to USD 39.25 billion of imports during the same period.

Statement 4 is correct. Current Account Deficit (CAD) or trade deficit is the shortfall between exports and imports. As per Economic Survey 2019-20, India's CAD was 2.1% in 2018-19, and 1.5% of GDP in H1 of 2019-20.

Therefore, the correct answer is (d) 1, 3 and 4 only. (Though, UPSC has not considered this question for marking.)


QUESTION 15

EasyEconomyPrelims 2020

If you withdraw Rs. 1,00,000 in cash from your Demand Deposit Account at your bank, the immediate effect on aggregate money supply in the economy will be

A. to reduce it by Rs 1,00,000

B. to increase it by Rs 1,00,000

C. to increase it by more than Rs 1,00,000

D. to leave it unchanged

Answer: D

Explanation

The immediate effect on aggregate money supply in the economy, if you withdraw Rs. 1,00,000 in cash from your Demand Deposit Account at your bank, will be “No change”.

Reason: Aggregate money supply refers to the total amount of money circulating in the economy, including both cash and deposits in commercial banks.

  • M3 = M1 + Time Deposits with Banks Where:
  • M1 = Currency in circulation + Demand deposits with banks + Other deposits with the central bank

Money Multipliers

When you withdraw cash from your demand deposit account, you are simply converting your deposit (which is part of the money supply) into currency (also part of the money supply).

The total amount of money in the system remains the same, just the composition (ratio of cash to deposits) changes.


QUESTION 16

EasyEconomyPrelims 2020

“Gold Tranche” (Reserve Tranche) refers to

A. a loan system of the World Bank

B. one of the operations of a Central Bank

C. a credit system granted by WTO to its members

D. a credit system granted by IMF to its members

Answer: D

Explanation

In the context of the International Monetary Fund (IMF), "Gold Tranche" (also referred to as "Reserve Tranche") refers to a specific portion of a member country's quota that can be accessed under specific conditions. Here's a breakdown

International Monetary Fund (IMF): An international organization that works to promote global financial stability and economic cooperation.

Quota: The amount of financial resources a member country is obligated to contribute to the IMF. This contribution is based on the country's economic size and importance in the global trade system.

Reserve Tranche: The first 25% of a member country's quota that can be accessed without needing IMF approval or paying any interest or service charges. It's essentially a readily available credit line.

Hence, option D is the correct answer.


QUESTION 17

HardEconomyPrelims 2020

What is the importance of the term “Interest Coverage Ratio” of a firm in India?

  1. It help in understanding the present risk of a firm that a bank is going to give loan to.
  2. It helps in evaluating the emerging risk of a firm that a bank is going to give loan to.
  3. The higher a borrowing firm’s level of Interest Coverage Ratio, the worse is its ability to service its debt.

Select the correct answer using the code given below:

A. 1 and 2 only

B. 2 only

C. 1 and 3 only

D. 1, 2 and 3

Answer: A

Explanation

Statement 1 is correct. The Interest Coverage Ratio (ICR) helps in understanding the present risk of a firm’s ability to pay interest on its debt. A low ICR indicates higher risk, as the firm may not have enough earnings to cover its interest obligations.

Statement 2 is correct. The ICR is also used to assess emerging risks for a firm. A declining ICR over time can signal growing difficulties in servicing debt, which can be important for banks evaluating the risk of granting new loans.

Statement 3 is incorrect. A higher Interest Coverage Ratio actually indicates better ability to service debt, not worse. A high ratio means the firm has a sufficient earnings buffer to cover its interest expenses, which is seen as a positive sign by creditors.

Hence , option A is the correct answer.


QUESTION 18

MediumEconomyPrelims 2020

In India, which of the following can be considered as public investment in agriculture?

  1. Fixing Minimum Support Price for agricultural produce of all crops
  2. Computerization of Primary Agricultural Credit Societies
  3. Social Capital development
  4. Free electricity supply to farmers
  5. Waiver of agricultural loans by the banking system
  6. Setting up of cold storage facilities by the governments

Select the correct answer using the code given below:

A. 1, 2 and 5 only

B. 1, 3, and 4 and 5 only

C. 2, 3 and 6 only

D. 1, 2, 3, 4, 5 and 6

Answer: C

Explanation

Public investment in agriculture refers to government expenditures aimed at improving the agricultural sector, including infrastructure development, technological improvements, and providing institutional support.

Statement 1 is incorrect. Fixing the Minimum Support Price (MSP) is a policy decision, not an investment. While it affects the agricultural sector, it is not a direct public investment in terms of capital expenditure.

Statement 2 is correct. The computerization of Primary Agricultural Credit Societies (PACS) is a public investment because it involves government funds directed towards modernizing agricultural credit systems, enhancing efficiency, and accessibility for farmers.

Statement 3 is correct. Social Capital development is a public investment in agriculture, as it involves building networks and community-based resources that help farmers improve productivity and access to resources.

Statement 4 is incorrect. Free electricity supply is more of a subsidy, not a direct public investment in the form of capital expenditure.

Statement 5 is incorrect. Waiver of agricultural loans is a policy measure aimed at alleviating farmer debt but does not qualify as an investment in infrastructure or capital.

Statement 6 is correct. The setting up of cold storage facilities by the government is a direct public investment aimed at improving agricultural infrastructure and reducing post-harvest losses.

Hence , option C is the correct answer.


QUESTION 19

EasyEconomyPrelims 2020

With reference to Foreign Direct Investment in India, which one of the following is considered its major characteristic?

A. It is the investment through capital instruments essentially in a listed company.

B. It is a largely non-debt creating capital flow.

C. It is the investment which involves debt-servicing.

D. It is the investment made by foreign institutional investors in the Government securities.

Answer: B

Explanation

Option A is incorrect. Foreign Direct Investment (FDI) typically involves investment in unlisted companies or companies that involve a direct ownership stake, not just investments through capital instruments in listed companies.

Option B is correct. FDI is considered a non-debt creating capital flow because it involves equity investments that do not require repayment, unlike loans or debt instruments. This type of investment brings in long-term capital and management expertise, which helps in the development of industries in the host country.

Option C is incorrect. FDI does not involve debt-servicing. Unlike loans or bonds, FDI involves ownership stakes, and thus, there is no obligation to pay interest or principal repayments.

Option D is incorrect. The investment in Government securities by foreign institutional investors (FIIs) is considered foreign portfolio investment (FPI), not FDI. FDI focuses on acquiring a substantial ownership stake in a company, whereas FPI involves short-term investments in financial assets.

Types of Foreign Investments

Hence , option B is the correct answer.


QUESTION 20

MediumEconomyPrelims 2020

With reference of the Indian economy, consider the following statements:

  1. ‘Commercial Paper’ is a short-term unsecured promissory note.
  2. ‘Certificate of Deposit’ is a long-term instrument issued by the Reserve Bank of India to a corporation.
  3. ‘Call Money’ is a short-term finance used for interbank transitions.
  4. ‘Zero-Coupon Bonds’ are the interest bearing short-term bonds issued by the Scheduled Commercial Banks to corporations.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

A. 1 and 2 only

B. 4 only

C. 1 and 3 only

D. 2, 3 and 4 only

Answer: C

Explanation

The following statements are correct concerning the Indian economy:

  • Commercial Paper is a short-term unsecured promissory note. It's a money market instrument issued by companies to raise short-term funds.
  • Call Money is a short-term finance used for interbank transactions. Banks borrow or lend money from each other for overnight periods to meet their liquidity requirements.

Incorrect statements:

  • Certificate of Deposit is not issued by the Reserve Bank of India. It's a negotiable instrument issued by commercial banks to depositors for a fixed maturity period at a predetermined interest rate.
  • Zero-Coupon Bonds can be long-term or short-term, but they are not issued by Scheduled Commercial Banks. These bonds don't pay periodic interest, but are sold at a discount to their face value. The difference between the purchase price and the maturity value represents the return on investment.

Money and Capital Market Instuments

Therefore, the correct codes are 1 and 3 only.


QUESTION 21

MediumEconomyPrelims 2020

With reference to the Trade-Related Investment Measures (TRIMS), which of the following statements is/are correct?

  1. Quantitative restrictions on imports by foreign investors are prohibited.
  2. They apply to investment measures related to trade in both goods and services.
  3. They are not concerned with the regulation of foreign investments.

Select the correct answer using the code given below:

A. 1 and 2 only

B. 2 only

C. 1 and 3 only

D. 1, 2 and 3 only

Answer: C

Explanation

Statement 1 is correct. The Trade-Related Investment Measures (TRIMS) agreement under the World Trade Organization (WTO) prohibits quantitative restrictions on imports by foreign investors. This means that countries cannot impose conditions like mandatory local sourcing or trade-balancing requirements that distort free trade.

Statement 2 is incorrect. TRIMS only applies to trade in goods, not services. The regulation of trade in services falls under the General Agreement on Trade in Services (GATS), not TRIMS.

Statement 3 is correct. TRIMS is not directly concerned with the regulation of foreign investments. Instead, it focuses on investment measures that affect trade in goods, ensuring that they do not create barriers to international trade.

Hence , option C is the correct answer.

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