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UPSC Prelims 2024 Analysis

Subject-Wise MCQ Distribution

  • Polity: High representation with 15-20 questions, focusing on constitutional articles, governance, and recent amendmentsAnalytical abilities were essential to tackle assertion-based and statement-type questions.
  • Economy: Approximately 12-15 questions, heavily tilted towards current economic developments, policies, and budget-related topics. A mix of static concepts from NCERT and dynamic updates was necessary.
  • Environment & Ecology18-20 questions, with a strong emphasis on climate change, international agreements, and conservation effortsMatch the following questions played a significant role in this section.
  • History12-14 questions, balanced between ancient, medieval, and modern, with increasing weightage on cultural aspects. Many questions required a combination of NCERT knowledge and historical maps for better context.
  • Geography10-12 questions, mostly applied concepts like map-based and environmental geography questions.
  • Science & Technology8-10 questions, leaning towards application-based knowledge on recent innovations and space technology.
  • Current Affairs15-18 questions, interwoven with other subjects, often requiring assertion-reasoning skills to connect facts.
     
Subject-Wise MCQ Distribution
Subject-Wise MCQ Distribution in UPSC Prelims 2024

Difficulty Analysis

  • Easy: ~30% of questions were straightforward and could be attempted with basic NCERT knowledge.
  • Moderate: ~50% required analytical abilities, conceptual clarity, and elimination tactics.
  • Difficult: ~20% were tricky, involving multi-layered reasoning or obscure facts.

     
Difficulty Analysis
Difficulty Analysis in UPSC Prelims 2024

Variations in Question Framing

  • Statement-based MCQs60% of questions were framed in a two-statement or three-statement format, testing comprehension, elimination skills, and analytical abilities.
  • Assertion-Reasoning13% of the questions assessed logical connections between concepts, requiring critical thinking.
  • Match the Following10% of the questions required mapping terms with their definitions, locations, or features, particularly in Geography and Environment.
  • Standalone Questions25% were direct, fact-based questions, but even these often required cross-referencing with maps or historical events.
  • Notably, in 2024, UPSC introduced three-column Match the Following MCQs, increasing question complexity and demanding better comprehension skills.
typesofques.png
Variations in Question Framing in UPSC Prelims 2024

Key Learnings for Future Preparation

  • Integrated Approach: Focus on interlinking static NCERT subjects with current affairs, as many questions have contextual relevance.
  • Master the Basics: A strong foundation in NCERTs is crucial for tackling conceptual questions, especially in Polity, History, and Geography.
  • Develop Analytical AbilitiesStatement-based and assertion-reasoning questions require critical thinking and elimination tactics.
  • Focus on Trends: Emphasize high-yield topics like Environment, Economy, and Current Affairs to maximize scoring potential.
  • Revise Maps and SchematicsGeography and Environmental questions often require map-based knowledge and spatial reasoning to answer correctly.
The Prelims 2024 paper demonstrated a balanced mix of factual recall and analytical reasoning. A strategic approach to preparation—emphasizing both breadth and depth—is critical for success.

QUESTION 1

EasyEconomyPrelims 2024

With reference to the Indian economy, "Collateral Borrowing and Lending Obligations" are the instruments of :

A. Bond market

B. Forex market

C. Money market

D. Stock market

Answer: C

Explanation

Explanation:

  • Collateral Borrowing and Lending Obligations (CBLO) are instruments of the: C. Money market

  • CBLO is a money market instrument that facilitates borrowing and lending operations on a collateralized basis. It is used by banks, financial institutions, and other entities to manage their short-term liquidity requirements.


QUESTION 2

MediumEconomyPrelims 2024

Consider the following statements:

Statement-I: If the United States of America (USA) were to default on its debt, holders of US Treasury Bonds will not be able to exercise their claims to receive payment. Statement-II : The USA Government debt is not backed by any hard assets, but only by the faith of the Government.

Which one of the following is correct in respect of the above statements?

A. Both Statement-I and Statement-II are correct and Statement-II explains Statement-I

B. Both Statement-I and Statement-II are correct, but Statement-II does not explain Statement-I

C. Statement-I is correct, but Statement-II is incorrect

D. Statement-I is incorrect, but Statement-II is correct

Answer: A

Explanation

Explanation:

Statement-I:  This statement is correct. If the United States of America (USA) were to default on its debt, holders of US Treasury Bonds would not be able to exercise their claims to receive payment. This statement is correct because, in the

  • event of a default, the government would not be able to fulfil its debt obligations, meaning bondholders would not receive the payments they are due.

  • Statement-II: This statement is correct. The US government debt is not backed by any hard assets, but only by the faith of the Government. This statement is also correct. US Government debt, such as Treasury Bonds, is backed by the full faith and credit of the US Government rather than any specific physical assets.

Statement II explains Statement I because the faith and credit of the US Government are the guarantees behind its debt. If this faith is shaken or if the government defaults, bondholders cannot claim any specific assets to recover their investment, hence they would not receive their payments.


QUESTION 3

EasyEconomyPrelims 2024

In India, which of the following can trade in Corporate Bonds and Government Securities?

  1. Insurance Companies
  2. Pension Funds
  3. Retail Investors

Select the correct answer using the code given below:

A. 1 and 2 only

B. 2 and 3 only

C. 1 and 3 only

D. 1, 2 and 3

Answer: D

Explanation

Explanation:

  • Insurance Companies: Insurance companies have large funds that they need to invest securely for long-term returns. Corporate bonds and government securities fit this investment profile. Hence, this statement is correct.

  • Pension Funds: Similar to insurance companies, pension funds manage retirement savings and need safe, long-term investment avenues like corporate bonds and government securities. Hence, this statement is correct.

  • Retail Investors: Retail investors can also invest in corporate bonds and government securities, though the process might be slightly more complex than investing in stocks. Various platforms and brokers facilitate such investments. Hence, this statement is correct.

Therefore, all three statements are correct.


QUESTION 4

MediumEconomyPrelims 2024

Consider the following statements:

Statement-I: India does not import apples from the United States of America. Statement-II : In India, the law prohibits the import of Genetically Modified food without the approval of the competent authority.

Which one of the following is correct in respect of the above statements?

A. Both Statement-I and Statement-II are correct and Statement-II explains Statement-I

B. Both Statement-I and Statement-II are correct, but Statement-II does not explain Statement-I

C. Statement-I is correct, but Statement-II is incorrect

D. Statement-I is incorrect, but Statement-II is correct

Answer: D

Explanation

Explanation:

  • Statement I is incorrect: India does import apples from the USA. In fact, the USA is one of the major sources of apple imports for India.

  • Statement II is correct: India has stringent regulations regarding the import of Genetically Modified (GM) food. The Genetic Engineering Appraisal Committee (GEAC) is the competent authority responsible for assessing the safety of GM crops and foods. Importing GM food without GEAC approval is illegal.

  • Therefore, statement 1 is incorrect, while statement 2 is correct.


QUESTION 5

HardEconomyPrelims 2024

With reference to the rule/rules imposed by the Reserve Bank of India while treating foreign banks, consider the following statements:

  1. There is no minimum capital requirement for wholly owned banking subsidiaries in India.
  2. For wholly owned banking subsidiaries in India, at least 50% of the board members should be Indian nationals.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

A. 1 only

B. 2 only

C. Both 1 and 2

D. Neither 1 nor 2

Answer: B

Explanation

Explanation:

  • The Reserve Bank of India requires foreign banks operating as wholly owned subsidiaries to maintain a minimum capital requirement. As of current regulations, the RBI mandates that these subsidiaries must have a minimum paid-up voting equity capital of ₹5 billion (₹500 crore). Hence, statement 1 is incorrect.

  • The RBI has set guidelines that require at least 50% of the board members of wholly-owned banking subsidiaries in India to be Indian nationals. This measure ensures that there is adequate local representation in the governance of these banks. Hence, statement 2 is correct.


QUESTION 6

EasyEconomyPrelims 2024

With reference to physical capital in Indian economy, consider the following pairs:

ItemsCategory
1. Farmer's ploughWorking capital
2. ComputerFixed capital
3. Yarn used by the weaverFixed capital
4. PetrolWorking capital

How many of the above pairs are correctly matched?

A. Only one

B. Only two

C. Only three

D. All four

Answer: B

Explanation

Explanation:

  • Farmer's plough - Working capital - Incorrect: A farmer's plough is a long-term asset used repeatedly over time, making it fixed capital.

  • Computer - Fixed capital - Correct: A computer is a long-term asset used over a period of time, making it fixed capital.

  • Yarn used by the weaver - Fixed capital - Incorrect: Yarn is consumed in the production process and needs to be replaced regularly, making it working capital.

  • Petrol - Working capital - Correct: Petrol is consumed in the production process and needs to be replenished regularly, making it working capital.

Therefore, only two pairs are correctly matched.


QUESTION 7

EasyEconomyPrelims 2024

Consider the following statements :

  1. India is a member of the International Grains Council.
  2. A country needs to be a member of the International Grains Council for exporting or importing rice and wheat.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

A. 1 only

B. 2 only

C. Both 1 and 2

D. Neither 1 nor 2

Answer: A

Explanation

  • Statement 1: Correct India is indeed a member of the International Grains Council (IGC). 

  • Statement 2: Incorrect Membership in the IGC is not a prerequisite for engaging in the rice and wheat trade. Countries that are not members can still export and import these grains. The IGC primarily serves as a forum for intergovernmental cooperation and policy discussion on grain trade.


QUESTION 8

EasyEconomyPrelims 2024

The total fertility rate in an economy is defined as:

A. the number of children born per 1000 people in the population in a year.

B. the number of children born to a couple in their lifetime in a given population.

C. the birth rate minus death rate.

D. the average number of live births a woman would have by the end of her child-bearing age.

Answer: D

Explanation

  • The number of children born per 1000 people in the population in a year. This describes the crude birth rate, not the total fertility rate.

  • The number of children born to a couple in their lifetime in a given population. This is close but not quite accurate. The total fertility rate is calculated for women, not couples.

  • The birth rate minus death rate. This defines the rate of natural increase, which indicates population growth, not fertility.

  • The average number of live births a woman would have by the end of her child-bearing age. This is the correct definition of Total Fertility Rate (TFR). It's a hypothetical measure assuming a woman lives through her childbearing years and experiences the age-specific fertility rates of a given period.

    • In simple terms, TFR tells us the average number of children a woman would have if current birth trends continued.

QUESTION 9

MediumEconomyPrelims 2024

With reference to the sectors of the Indian economy, consider the following pairs:

Economic activitySector
1. Storage of agricultural produceSecondary
2. Dairy farmPrimary
3. Mineral explorationTertiary
4. Weaving clothSecondary

How many of the pairs given above are correctly matched?

A. Only one

B. Only two

C. Only three

D. All four

Answer: B

Explanation

  • Storage of agricultural produce | Secondary (Incorrect) - Storage is a tertiary activity. It falls under the service sector, facilitating the smooth flow of goods from producers to consumers.

  • Dairy farm | Primary (Correct) - Dairy farming involves the direct extraction of raw materials (milk) from natural resources (animals). Hence, it's a primary activity.

  • Mineral exploration | Tertiary (Incorrect) - Mineral exploration is a primary activity. It involves extracting raw materials from the earth.

  • Weaving cloth | Secondary (Correct) - Weaving cloth transforms raw materials (cotton, silk, etc.) into a finished product (cloth). This transformation signifies a secondary activity.

Therefore, only two pairs are correctly matched.


QUESTION 10

EasyEconomyPrelims 2024

Consider the following statements in respect of the digital rupee :

  1. It is a sovereign currency issued by the Reserve Bank of India (RBI) in alignment with its monetary policy.
  2. It appears as a liability on the RBI's balance sheet.
  3. It is insured against inflation by its very design.
  4. It is freely convertible against commercial bank money and cash.

Which of the statements given above are correct?

A. 1 and 2 only

B. 1 and 3 only

C. 2 and 4 only

D. 1, 2 and 4

Answer: D

Explanation

  • Statement 1 is correct. The digital rupee, also known as the e-rupee or Central Bank Digital Currency (CBDC), is indeed a sovereign currency issued by the RBI. It's a digital representation of India's fiat currency and is part of the RBI's monetary policy toolkit.

  • Statement 2 is correct. Like physical currency, the digital rupee is a liability on the RBI's balance sheet. When you hold digital rupees, it's essentially a claim you have on the RBI, similar to holding physical banknotes.

  • Statement 3 is incorrect. The digital rupee, by itself, doesn't come with inherent inflation protection. Its value, like physical currency, is subject to inflationary pressures. The RBI manages inflation through its monetary policy measures, not through the inherent design of the digital rupee.

  • Statement 4 is correct. The digital rupee is designed to be freely convertible. This means you can easily exchange it with bank deposits (commercial bank money) and cash at a 1:1 ratio without any restrictions.

Therefore, the correct answer is (D) - 1, 2 and 4.


QUESTION 11

EasyEconomyPrelims 2024

Consider the following:

  1. Exchange-Traded Funds (ETF)
  2. Motor vehicles
  3. Currency swap

Which of the above is/are considered financial instruments?

A. 1 only

B. 2 and 3 only

C. 1, 2 and 3

D. 1 and 3 only

Answer: D

Explanation

Explanation:

  • Exchange-Traded Funds (ETFs): ETFs are baskets of securities (like stocks) that are traded on stock exchanges, similar to individual stocks. They represent a financial instrument.

  • Motor vehicles: Motor vehicles are tangible assets, not financial instruments. Financial instruments represent claims to assets or cash flows.

  • Currency swap: A currency swap is a derivative contract where two parties exchange principal and interest payments in different currencies. It is a type of financial instrument.

Therefore, only ETFs and currency swaps are considered financial instruments.


QUESTION 12

MediumEconomyPrelims 2024

Consider the following statements :

Statement-I: Syndicated lending spreads the risk of borrower default across multiple lenders. Statement-II: The syndicated loan can be a fixed amount/lump sum of funds, but cannot be a credit line.

Which one of the following is correct in respect of the above statements?

A. Both Statement-I and Statement-II are correct and Statement-II explains Statement-I

B. Both Statement-I and Statement-II are correct, but Statement-II does not explain Statement-I

C. Statement-I is correct, but Statement-II is incorrect

D. Statement-I is incorrect, but Statement-II is correct

Answer: C

Explanation

  • Statement-I: This statement is correct. Syndicated lending, by definition, involves multiple lenders pooling resources to provide a loan to a single borrower. This inherently distributes the risk of default, as no single lender bears the entire burden if the borrower fails to repay.

  • Statement II: This statement is incorrect. Syndicated loans can take various forms, including both fixed-amount term loans (lump sum) and revolving credit facilities (credit lines). 

Therefore, the correct option is C: Statement I is correct, but Statement II is incorrect.


QUESTION 13

HardEconomyPrelims 2024

Consider the following statements:

  1. In India, Non-Banking Financial Companies can access the Liquidity Adjustment Facility window of the Reserve Bank of India.
  2. In India, Foreign Institutional Investors can hold the Government Securities (G-Secs).
  3. In India, Stock Exchanges can offer separate trading platforms for debts.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

A. 1 and 2 only

B. 3 only

C. 1, 2 and 3

D. 2 and 3 only

Answer: D

Explanation

Explanation:

  • Statement 1 is incorrect: Non-Banking Financial Companies (NBFCs) in India do not have direct access to the Liquidity Adjustment Facility (LAF) window of the Reserve Bank of India (RBI). The LAF is a tool used by RBI to manage short-term liquidity in the banking system. 

  • Statement 2 is correct: Foreign Institutional Investors (FIIs) are permitted to invest in Government Securities (G-Secs) in India, subject to certain regulations and limits set by the Securities and Exchange Board of India (SEBI) and RBI. 

  • Statement 3 is correct: Stock exchanges in India can offer separate trading platforms for debt securities. For instance, the National Stock Exchange (NSE) and the Bombay Stock Exchange (BSE) have dedicated platforms for trading in corporate bonds and government securities.

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