UPSC Prelims 2018 Analysis
Subject wise MCQ distribution
- Economy (20 Questions): The highest weightage in the paper, covering macroeconomic indicators, policies, and economic development themes. Analytical abilities were essential to interpret trends.
- Environment & Ecology (15 Questions): A significant presence, likely reflecting UPSC’s increasing focus on climate change, biodiversity, and sustainable development. Maps were useful in location-based questions.
- Indian Polity (15 Questions): A core subject, testing governance, constitutional provisions, and landmark judgments. Many questions followed an assertion-reasoning pattern.
- Modern History (13 Questions): A relatively high emphasis on the freedom struggle, key personalities, and movements.
- Science & Technology (12 Questions): Covered advancements in AI, biotechnology, and space technology, requiring both static and current knowledge.
- Art & Culture (7 Questions): More weightage than in some later years, indicating an expectation for deeper knowledge of cultural heritage.
- International Relations (7 Questions): Focused on global organizations, treaties, and India's foreign policy.
- Medieval History (1 Question): Minimal representation, following the usual trend of fewer medieval history questions.
- Geography (Indian Geography: 4, Physical Geography: 2, World Geography: 0): The focus was on Indian geography, with limited physical geography and no direct world geography questions.

Difficulty analysis
- Medium Difficulty (50 Questions): The largest segment, requiring a balance of factual knowledge and application skills.
- Hard Questions (29 Questions): A significant portion of the paper, making elimination techniques and conceptual clarity essential.
- Easy Questions (21 Questions): Fewer than in later years, indicating a relatively tougher paper.
The 2018 Prelims had tougher questions than before, which made them hard to solve. This is reflected in the final cut-off, which was only 98 marks.
Variations in Question framing
Multi-Statement Questions (58%):
- The most common type, requiring elimination techniques and conceptual clarity.
- Particularly prevalent in Polity, Economy, and Environment sections.
- Many followed match the following and assertion-reasoning formats.
Direct Questions (42%):
- Straightforward factual questions, especially in History and Geography.
- Easier to score but required precise knowledge.
Current Affairs vs. Static Questions
- Current Affairs-Based (44 Questions): UPSC maintained a strong current affairs focus, particularly in Economy, Science & Technology, and International Relations.
- Static (56 Questions): A balanced approach, with a considerable portion testing foundational knowledge, often derived from NCERT books.
Key learning for Future Preparation
- Strengthen Economy and Polity: These subjects consistently hold high weightage and require an in-depth understanding of fundamental concepts.
- Master Multi-Statement Questions: Since a majority of questions require elimination skills, practice structured reasoning techniques.
- Balance Static and Current Affairs: While static knowledge remains crucial, integrating dynamic current developments is essential for scoring well.
- Prepare for Moderate to Hard Questions: The paper had a higher proportion of challenging questions, so aspirants should refine their approach to conceptual application and strategic guessing.
- History and Culture Awareness: Despite variations in different years, Art & Culture and Modern History continue to hold importance, making them key focus areas.
Subject-Wise Answer Key
QUESTION 1
With reference to the Parliament of India, which of the following Parliamentary Committees scrutinizes and reports to the House whether the powers to make regulations, rules, sub-rules, by-laws, etc. conferred by the Constitution or delegated by the Parliament are being properly exercised by the Executive within the scope of such delegation?
A. Committee on Government Assurances
B. Committee on Subordinate Legislation
C. Rules Committee
D. Business Advisory Committee
QUESTION 2
Consider the following statements :
- As per the Right to Education (RTE) Act, to be eligible for appointment as a teacher in a State, a person would be required to possess the minimum qualifications laid down by the concerned State Council of Teacher Education.
- As per the RTE Act, for teaching primary classes, a candidate is required to pass a Teacher Eligibility Test conducted in accordance with the National Council of Teacher Education guidelines.
- In India, more than 90% of teacher education institutions are directly under the State Governments.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
A. 1 and 2
B. 2 only
C. 1 and 3
D. 3 only
QUESTION 3
With reference to the election of the President of India, consider the following statements:
- The value of the vote of each MLA varies from State to State.
- The value of the vote of MPs of the Lok Sabha is more than the value of the vote of MPs of the Rajya Sabha.
Which of the following statements given above is/are Correct?
A. 1 and 2
B. 2 only
C. 1 only
D. Neither 1 nor 2
QUESTION 4
Consider the following statements :
- Aadhaar card can be used as a proof of citizenship or domicile.
- Once issued, the Aadhaar number cannot be deactivated or omitted by the Issuing Authority.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
A. 1 only
B. 2 Only
C. 1 and 2
D. None of the above
QUESTION 5
Right to Privacy is protected as an intrinsic part of Right to Life and Personal Liberty. Which of the following in the Constitution of India correctly and appropriately imply the above statement?
A. Article 14 and the provisions under the 42nd Amendment to the Constitution
B. Article 17 and the Directive Principles of State Policy in Part IV
C. Article 21 and the freedoms guaranteed in Part III
D. Article 24 and the provisions under the 44th Amendment to the Constitution
QUESTION 6
If the President of India exercises his power as provided under Article 356 of the Constitution in respect of a particular State, then -
A. the Assembly of the State is automatically dissolved.
B. the powers of the Legislature of that State shall be exercisable by or under the authority of the Parliament.
C. Article 19 is suspended in that State.
D. the President can make laws relating to that State.
QUESTION 7
Consider the following statements :
- The Parliament of India can place a particular law in the Ninth Schedule of the Constitution of India.
- The validity of a law placed in the Ninth Schedule cannot be examined by any court and no judgement can be made on it.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
A. 1 only
B. 2 only
C. Both 1 and 2
D. Neither 1 nor 2
QUESTION 8
Consider the following statements :
- In the first Lok Sabha, the single largest party in the opposition was the Swatantra Party.
- In the Lok Sabha, a "Leader of the Opposition" was recognised for the first time in 1969.
- In the Lok Sabha, if a party does not have a minimum of 75 members, its leader cannot be recognised as the Leader of the Opposition.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
A. 1 and 3 only
B. 2 only
C. 2 and 3 only
D. 1, 2 and 3
QUESTION 9
Which one of the following reflects the most appropriate relationship between law and liberty?
A. if there are more laws, there is less liberty.
B. If there are no laws, there is no liberty.
C. If there is liberty, laws have to be made by the people.
D. If laws are changed too often, liberty is in danger.
QUESTION 10
Consider the following statements:
- The Speaker of the Legislative Assembly shall vacate his/her office if he/she ceases to be a member of the Assembly.
- Whenever the Legislative Assembly is dissolved, the Speaker shall vacate his/her immediately.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
A. 1 only
B. 2only
C. Both 1 and 2
D. Neither 1 nor 2
QUESTION 11
Consider the following statements:
- No criminal proceedings shall be instituted against the Governor of a State in any court during his term of office.
- The emoluments and allowances of the Governor of a State shall not be diminished during his term of office.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
A. 1 only
B. 2 only
C. Both 1 and 2
D. Neither 1 nor 2
QUESTION 12
"Rule of Law Index" is released by which of the following?
A. Amnesty International
B. International Court of Justice
C. The Office of UN Commissioner for Human Rights
D. World Justice Project
QUESTION 13
Which of the following are regarded as the main features of the "Rule of Law"?
- Limitation of powers
- Equality before law
- People's responsibility to the Government
- Liberty and civil rights
Select the correct answer using the code given below :
A. 1 and 3 only
B. 2 and 4 only
C. 1, 2 and 4 only
D. 1, 2, 3 and 4
QUESTION 14
Regarding Money Bill, which of the following statements is not correct?
A. A bill shall be deemed to be a Money Bill if it contains only provisions relating to imposition, abolition, remission, alteration or regulation of any tax.
B. A Money Bill has provisions for the custody of the Consolidated Fund of India or the Contingency Fund of India.
C. A Money Bill is concerned with the appropriation of money out of the Contingency Fund of India.
D. A Money Bill deals with the regulation of borrowing of money or the giving of any guarantee by the Government of India.
QUESTION 15
Consider the following statements
- The Food Safety and Standards Act, 2006 replaced the Prevention of Food Adulteration Act, 1954.
- The Food Safety and Standards Authority of India (FSSAI) is under the charge of Director General of Health Services in the Union Ministry of Health and Family Welfare.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
A. 1 only
B. 2 only
C. Both 1 and 2
D. Neither 1 nor 2