UPSC Prelims 2018 Analysis

Subject wise MCQ distribution

  • Economy (20 Questions): The highest weightage in the paper, covering macroeconomic indicators, policies, and economic development themes. Analytical abilities were essential to interpret trends.
  • Environment & Ecology (15 Questions): A significant presence, likely reflecting UPSC’s increasing focus on climate change, biodiversity, and sustainable development. Maps were useful in location-based questions.
  • Indian Polity (15 Questions): A core subject, testing governance, constitutional provisions, and landmark judgments. Many questions followed an assertion-reasoning pattern.
  • Modern History (13 Questions): A relatively high emphasis on the freedom struggle, key personalities, and movements.
  • Science & Technology (12 Questions): Covered advancements in AI, biotechnology, and space technology, requiring both static and current knowledge.
  • Art & Culture (7 Questions): More weightage than in some later years, indicating an expectation for deeper knowledge of cultural heritage.
  • International Relations (7 Questions): Focused on global organizations, treaties, and India's foreign policy.
  • Medieval History (1 Question): Minimal representation, following the usual trend of fewer medieval history questions.
  • Geography (Indian Geography: 4, Physical Geography: 2, World Geography: 0): The focus was on Indian geography, with limited physical geography and no direct world geography questions.
Prelims 2018
Subject-Wise Weightage in UPSC Prelims 2018

Difficulty analysis

  • Medium Difficulty (50 Questions): The largest segment, requiring a balance of factual knowledge and application skills.
  • Hard Questions (29 Questions): A significant portion of the paper, making elimination techniques and conceptual clarity essential.
  • Easy Questions (21 Questions): Fewer than in later years, indicating a relatively tougher paper.

The 2018 Prelims had tougher questions than before, which made them hard to solve. This is reflected in the final cut-off, which was only 98 marks.

Prelims 2018
Difficulty-Level Distribution in UPSC Prelims 2021

Variations in Question framing

Multi-Statement Questions (58%):

  • The most common type, requiring elimination techniques and conceptual clarity.
  • Particularly prevalent in Polity, Economy, and Environment sections.
  • Many followed match the following and assertion-reasoning formats.

Direct Questions (42%):

  • Straightforward factual questions, especially in History and Geography.
  • Easier to score but required precise knowledge.
12.PNG
Variations of Questions in UPSC Prelims 2021

Current Affairs vs. Static Questions

  • Current Affairs-Based (44 Questions): UPSC maintained a strong current affairs focus, particularly in Economy, Science & Technology, and International Relations.
  • Static (56 Questions): A balanced approach, with a considerable portion testing foundational knowledge, often derived from NCERT books.

Key learning for Future Preparation

  • Strengthen Economy and Polity: These subjects consistently hold high weightage and require an in-depth understanding of fundamental concepts.
  • Master Multi-Statement Questions: Since a majority of questions require elimination skills, practice structured reasoning techniques.
  • Balance Static and Current Affairs: While static knowledge remains crucial, integrating dynamic current developments is essential for scoring well.
  • Prepare for Moderate to Hard Questions: The paper had a higher proportion of challenging questions, so aspirants should refine their approach to conceptual application and strategic guessing.
  • History and Culture Awareness: Despite variations in different years, Art & Culture and Modern History continue to hold importance, making them key focus areas.
The Prelims 2018 paper had a strong focus on Economy, Environment, and Polity, with a majority of multi-statement questions requiring elimination techniques. A mix of current affairs and static knowledge highlighted the need for an integrated approach. The moderate-to-hard difficulty level and a low cutoff of 98 marks reflected the paper’s complexity.

QUESTION 1

HardEconomyPrelims 2018

Consider the following events:

  1. The first democratically elected communist party government formed in a State in India.
  2. India's then largest bank, 'Imperial Bank of India', was renamed 'State Bank of India'.
  3. Air India was nationalised and became the national carrier.
  4. Goa became a part of independent India.

Which of the following is the correct chronological sequence of the above events?

A. 4 - 1 - 2 - 3

B. 3 - 2 - 1 - 4

C. 4 - 2 - 1 - 3

D. 3 - 1 -2 -4

Answer: B

Explanation

Air India was nationalised in 1953. The Government of India passed the Air Corporation Act in 1953 and purchased a majority stake in the carrier from Tata Sons.

Imperial Bank of India was nationalised in 1955, with RBI taking a 60 per cent stake, and its name was changed to SBI.

The first democratically elected communist party government was formed in a state in India in 1957. In the first general election held to the Kerala state legislative assembly in 1957, the Communist Party of India won 60 seats out of 126.

Goa became an independent state of India on 18 Dec 1961, and Goa was freed from the Portuguese. On Dec 18 1961, Operation Vijay was launched by the Indian Government to bring back Goa into India.

Therefore correct chronological sequence is 3-2-1-4


QUESTION 2

MediumEconomyPrelims 2018

With reference to the provisions made under the National Food Security Act, 2013 consider the following statements:

  1. The families coming under the category of 'below poverty line (BPL)' only are eligible to receive subsidised grains.
  2. The eldest woman in a household, of age 18 years or above, shall be the head of the household for the purpose of issuance of a ration card.
  3. Pregnant women and lactating mothers are entitled to a take-home ration' of 1600 calories per day during pregnancy and for six months thereafter.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

A. 1 and 2

B. 2 only

C. 1 and 3

D. 3 only

Answer: B

Explanation

Statement 1 is incorrect In 2013, NFSA was enacted to provide food security to 67% of the population in the form of highly subsidized food grains at Rs. 2 and 3 per Kg for wheat and rice respectively. Beneficiaries are identified using Socio-economic Caste Census (SECC) methodology so even non-BPL will also benefit.

Statement 2 is correct Under the NFSA, to issue ration cards the eldest woman of a household aged 18 years or above would be considered as head. Hence, this statement is correct.

Statement 3 is incorrect The Act does provide for pregnant women and lactating mothers to receive a take-home ration. However, it does not specify the calorie content should be 1600 calories per day. This makes the given statement incorrect.


QUESTION 3

MediumEconomyPrelims 2018

Consider the following items:

  1. Cereal grains hulled
  2. Chicken eggs cooked
  3. Fish processed and canned
  4. Newspapers containing advertising material

Which of the above items is/are exempted under GST (Goods and Services Tax)?

A. 1 only

B. 2 and 3 only

C. 1, 2, 3 and 4

D. 1, 2 and 4 only

Answer: D

Explanation

List of Tax-exempted Goods are;

  • Several food items have been exempted from any of the tax slabs. Fresh meat, fish, chicken, eggs, milk, buttermilk, curd, natural honey, fresh fruits and vegetables, flour, besan, bread, all kinds of salt, jaggery and hulled cereal grains have been kept out of the taxation system.

  • Bindi, sindoor, kajal, Palmyra, human hair and bangles also do not attract any tax under GST.

  • Drawing or colouring books alongside stamps, judicial papers, printed books, newspapers also fall under this category.


QUESTION 4

EasyEconomyPrelims 2018

In spite of being a high saving economy, capital formation may not result in a significant increase in output due to -

A. weak administrative machinery

B. illiteracy

C. high population density

D. high capital-output ratio

Answer: D

Explanation

Capital formation This refers to the net increase in the capital stock of a country, which includes physical capital (machinery, buildings) and human capital (skills, education).

High savings A high savings economy implies people are saving a significant portion of their income. Ideally, these savings are then invested to create new capital.

Capital-output ratio (COR) This ratio measures the amount of additional capital needed to produce one unit of additional output (GDP). A high COR indicates that even with high savings and investment, the increase in output might be low.


QUESTION 5

HardEconomyPrelims 2018

Consider the following statements: Human capital formation as a concept is better explained in terms of a process, which enables

  1. individuals of a country to accumulate more capital.
  2. increasing the knowledge, skill levels and capacities of the people of the country.
  3. accumulation of tangible wealth.
  4. accumulation of intangible wealth.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

A. 1 and 2

B. 2 and 4 only

C. 2 only

D. 1, 3 and 4

Answer: B

Explanation

Human capital formation refers to the process of increasing the stock of knowledge, skills, and experiences that people in a country possess. This intangible wealth is what makes a workforce productive and adaptable. Therefore, statement 2 and 4 are correct.


QUESTION 6

MediumEconomyPrelims 2018

Which one of the following links all the ATMs in India?

A. Indian banks' Association

B. National Securities Depository Limited

C. National Payments Corporation of India

D. Reserve Bank of India

Answer: C

Explanation

The National Payments Corporation of India (NPCI)

The NPCI operates the National Financial Switch (NFS), which is the largest network connecting ATMs across various banks in India. This network facilitates inter-bank transactions and allows users to withdraw cash from ATMs even if they don't belong to the bank that owns the ATM.


QUESTION 7

MediumEconomyPrelims 2018

Consider the following:

  1. Areca nut
  2. Barley
  3. Coffee
  4. Finger millet
  5. Groundnut
  6. Sesamum
  7. Turmeric

The Cabinet Committee on Economic Affair, has announced the Minimum Support Price for which of the above?

A. 1, 2, 3 and 7 only

B. 2, 4, 5 and 6 only

C. 1, 3, 4, 5 and 6 only

D. 1, 2, 3, 4, 5, 6 and 7

Answer: B

Explanation

The Cabinet Committee on Economic Affairs (CCEA) announces the Minimum Support Price (MSP) for certain staple crops and some key commercial crops.

Barley, Finger millet, Groundnut, and Sesamum are crops for which MSP is typically announced by the government. These are important food or oilseed crops and support farmer income.

Areca nut and Coffee are considered cash crops and MSP is generally not announced for them. Turmeric can be classified as a spice crop, and MSP announcements for spices is not very common,

Therefore, the most options for which CCEA announces MSP are 2, 4, 5 and 6.


QUESTION 8

EasyEconomyPrelims 2018

Consider the following statements:

  1. Capital Adequacy Ratio (CAR) is the amount that banks have to maintain in the form of their own funds to offset any loss that banks incur if the account-holders fail to repay dues.
  2. CAR is decided by each individual bank.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

A. 1 only

B. 2 only

C. Both 1 and 2

D. Neither 1 nor 2

Answer: A

Explanation

Capital Adequacy Ratio (CAR) This is a crucial regulatory tool used by central banks to ensure banks have sufficient capital reserves to absorb potential financial losses. It acts as a buffer to protect depositors' funds in case of loan defaults or other financial risks.

CAR is not decided by individual banks The CAR is mandated and regulated by the central bank of a country, in India's case, the Reserve Bank of India (RBI). The RBI sets a minimum CAR that all banks operating in the country must adhere to. This ensures a level playing field and safeguards the financial system's stability.


QUESTION 9

MediumEconomyPrelims 2018

Consider the following statements

  1. The quantity of imported edible oils is more than the domestic production of edible oils in the last five years.
  2. The Government does not impose any customs duty on all the imported edible oils as a special case.

Which of the two statements given above is/are correct

A. 1 only

B. 2 only

C. Both 1 and 2

D. Neither 1 nor 2

Answer: A

Explanation

Domestic production of edible oil in 2018 was around 100 Lakh Metric tons (LMT) while import was around 150 LMT. Hence, statement 1 is correct

The Government of India does impose customs duties on imported edible oils. The rates of these duties may vary depending on various factors, including the type of edible oil, international market conditions, and government policies aimed at promoting domestic production or protecting domestic producers. Hence, statement 2 is incorrect.


QUESTION 10

MediumEconomyPrelims 2018

With reference to digital payments, consider the following statements:

  1. BHIM app allows the user to transfer money to anyone with a UPI-enabled bank account.
  2. While a chip-pin debit card has four factors of authentication, BHIM app has only two factors of authentication.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

A. 1 only

B. 2 only

C. Both 1 and 2

D. Neither 1 nor 2

Answer: A

Explanation

Statement 1 is correct Bharat Interface for Money (BHIM) is a payment app that lets you make simple, easy, and quick transactions using Unified Payments Interface (UPI). You can make direct bank payments to anyone on UPI using their UPI ID or scanning their QR with the BHIM app. You can also request money through the app from a UPI ID.

Statement 2 is not correct From a consumer point of view, three levels of authentication are required in this app.

  1. The device ID and mobile number,
  2. The bank account which you are linking to this app, and
  3. The UPI Pin which is needed to complete the transaction.

There are three factors of authentication versus a normal net banking app or a chip-in debit card which will only have two factors of authentication.


QUESTION 11

HardEconomyPrelims 2018

Consider the following statements

  1. The Fiscal Responsibility and Budget Management (FRBM) Review Committee Report has recommended a debt to GDP ratio of 60% for the general (combined) government by 2023, comprising 40% for the Central Government and 20% for the State Governments.
  2. The Central Government has domestic liabilities of 21% of GDP as compared to that of war of GDP of the State Governments.
  3. As per the Constitution of India, it is mandatory for a State to take the Central Government’s consent for raising any loan if the former owes any outstanding liabilities to the latter.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

A. 1 only

B. 2 and 3 only

C. 1 and 3 only

D. 1, 2 and 3

Answer: C

Explanation

The Fiscal Responsibility and Budget Management (FRBM) Review Committee Report indeed recommended a debt-to-GDP ratio of 60% for the general (combined) government by 2023, with 40% for the Central Government and 20% for the State Governments. This recommendation aimed to ensure fiscal discipline and sustainability. Hence, statement 1 is correct.

The Central Government has domestic liabilities of 46.1% of GDP (2016-17) and as a percentage of GDP, States liabilities increased to 23.2 per cent at end-March 2016. Hence, statement 2 is not correct.

The Constitution of India empowers State Governments to borrow only from domestic sources (Article 293(1)). Further, as long as a State has outstanding borrowings from the Central Government, it is required to obtain the Central Government's prior approval before incurring debt (Article 293 (3)). Hence, statement 3 is correct.


QUESTION 12

EasyEconomyPrelims 2018

India enacted the Geographical Indications of Goods (Registration and Protection) Act, 1999 in order to comply with the obligations to

A. ILO

B. IMF

C. UNCTAD

D. WTO

Answer: D

Explanation

The World Trade Organization (WTO) has an agreement called the Agreement on Trade-Related Aspects of Intellectual Property Rights (TRIPS).

TRIPS requires member countries to protect Geographical Indications (GIs). GIs identify a product as originating from a specific geographical location where its qualities or reputation are essentially due to that origin.

India enacted the Geographical Indications of Goods (Registration and Protection) Act, 1999 to comply with its obligations under the TRIPS agreement of the WTO.


QUESTION 13

HardEconomyPrelims 2018

If a commodity is provided free to the public by the Government, then

A. the opportunity cost is zero.

B. the opportunity cost is ignored.

C. the opportunity cost is transferred from the consumers of the product to the Government.

D. the opportunity cost is transferred from the consumers of the product to the tax-paying public.

Answer: D

Explanation

Opportunity cost It refers to the potential benefit an individual or entity gives up when choosing one option over another. In simpler terms, it's what you miss out on by making a specific choice.

Free commodity and government When the government provides a good or service for free, it doesn't eliminate the opportunity cost. The resources used to provide that free good could have been used for something else.

Taxpayers bear the burden The resources for "free" public goods come from somewhere, usually taxpayer money. So, the opportunity cost isn't eliminated, it's simply shifted. Taxpayers give up the potential use of those resources in exchange for a free good or service.

In essence, while the individual consumer might not directly pay for the good, the cost is still there and borne by the tax-paying public.


QUESTION 14

EasyEconomyPrelims 2018

Which one of the following statements correctly describes the meaning of legal tender money?

A. The money which is tendered in courts of law to defray the fee of legal cases

B. The money which a creditor is under compulsion to accept in settlement of his claims

C. The bank money in the form of cheques, drafts, bills of exchange, etc.

D. The metallic money in circulation in a country

Answer: B

Explanation

Legal tender refers to money that is legally recognized for the payment of debts. This means that if a creditor offers you legal tender to settle a debt, you are legally obligated to accept it. Hence, option 'B' is the correct answer.


QUESTION 15

MediumEconomyPrelims 2018

With reference to the governance of public sector banking in India, consider the following statements

  1. Capital infusion into public sector banks by the Government of India has steadily increased in the last decade.
  2. To put the public sector banks in order, the merger of associate banks with the parent State Bank of India has been affected.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

A. 1 only

B. 1 and 2

C. 2 only

D. Neither 1 nor 2

Answer: C

Explanation

The govt has been infusing large amounts in seven public sector banks through recapitalisation bonds but this not has been steady as statement 1 says, so, statement 1 is incorrect.

Statement 2 is correct. To put the public sector banks in order, the merger of associate banks with the parent State Bank of India has been affected. For example, the merger of SBI associate banks will result in the creation of a stronger merger entity.


QUESTION 16

HardEconomyPrelims 2018

With reference to India's decision to levy an equalization tax of 6% on online advertisement services offered by non-resident entities, which of the following statements is/are correct?

  1. It is introduced as a part of the Income Tax Act.
  2. Non-resident entities that offer advertisement services in India can claim a tax credit in their home country under the "Double Taxation Avoidance Agreements".

Select the correct answer using the code given below:

A. None

B. 2 only

C. Both 1 and 2

D. 1 only

Answer: A

Explanation

The equalization levy on online advertisement services offered by non-resident entities is introduced as a separate tax under the Finance Act, not as a part of the Income Tax Act.

Non-resident entities cannot claim a tax credit in their home country under the "Double Taxation Avoidance Agreements" because the equalization levy is not an income tax. It is a separate tax levied on specified services provided by non-residents to residents.


QUESTION 17

HardEconomyPrelims 2018

With reference to organic farming in India, consider the following statements:

  1. The National Programme for Organic Production' (NPOP) is operated under the guidelines and directions of the Union Ministry of Rural Development.
  2. The Agricultural and Processed Food Products Export Development Authority' (APEDA) functions as the Secretariat for the implementation of NPOP.
  3. Sikkim has become India's first fully organic State.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

A. 1 and 2 only

B. 2 and 3 only

C. 3 only

D. 1, 2 and 3

Answer: B

Explanation

  1. Incorrect The National Programme for Organic Production (NPOP) is operated under the guidelines and directions of the Ministry of Agriculture and Farmers Welfare (MoA&FW), not the Ministry of Rural Development.

  2. Correct The Agricultural and Processed Food Products Export Development Authority (APEDA) does function as the Secretariat for the implementation of NPOP. APEDA plays a crucial role in promoting and certifying organic products in India.

  3. Correct Sikkim has indeed become India's first fully organic State. This achievement signifies India's efforts to promote sustainable agricultural practices.

Therefore, the correct answer is 2 and 3 only


QUESTION 18

MediumEconomyPrelims 2018

Increase in absolute and per capita real GNP do not connote a higher level of economic development, if -

A. industrial output fails to keep pace with agricultural output.

B. agricultural output fails to keep pace with industrial output.

C. poverty and unemployment increase.

D. imports grow faster than exports.

Answer: C

Explanation

Economic Growth vs. Economic Development An increase in absolute and per capita real GNP signifies economic growth, which means the overall production of goods and services in a country is expanding.

Economic development is a broader concept that goes beyond just increasing production. It encompasses factors like

  1. Improved living standards for citizens
  2. Reduction in poverty and unemployment
  3. Increased literacy and education levels
  4. Improved healthcare and infrastructure

If poverty and unemployment are increasing even with economic growth (GNP increase), it suggests the benefits of growth are not being shared widely. This indicates a lack of true economic development.


QUESTION 19

MediumEconomyPrelims 2018

Consider the following statements:

  1. The Reserve Bank of India manages and services Government of India Securities but not any State Government Securities.
  2. Treasury bills are issued by the Government of India and there are no treasury bills issued by the State Governments.
  3. Treasury bills offer are issued at a discount from the par value.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

A. 1 and 2 only

B. 3 Only

C. 2 and 3 only

D. 1, 2 and 3

Answer: C

Explanation

The Reserve Bank of India manages public debt and issues Indian currency-denominated loans on behalf of the central and state governments under the powers derived from the Reserve Bank of India Act. The RBI is the debt manager for both the Central Government and the State Governments. RBI manages the debt of state governments based on separate agreements. Hence, statement 1 is incorrect.

Treasury bills or T-bills, which are money market instruments, are short-term debt instruments issued by the Government of India and are presently issued in three tenors, namely, 91-day, 182-day and 364 days.

Treasury bills are zero coupon securities and pay no interest. They are issued at a discount and redeemed at the face value at maturity.

Therefore, statements 2 and 3 are correct.


QUESTION 20

MediumEconomyPrelims 2018

Which one of the following best describes the term "Merchant Discount Rate" sometimes seen in the news?

A. The incentive is given by a bank to a merchant for accepting payments through debit cards pertaining to that bank.

B. The amount paid back by banks to their customers when they use debit cards for financial transactions for purchasing goods or services.

C. The charge to a merchant by a bank for accepting payments from his customers through the bank's debit cards.

D. The incentive given by the Government, to merchants for promoting digital payments by their customers through Point of Sale PoS machines and debit cards.

Answer: C

Explanation

The Merchant Discount Rate (MDR) is a fee levied on merchants by payment processors for accepting debit and credit card transactions. It's typically a percentage of the transaction value. So, when a customer uses a debit card at a store, the store pays a fee to the bank that processes the transaction.

Share