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UPSC Prelims 2023 Analysis

Subject-Wise MCQ Distribution

  • Environment & Ecology had the highest weight (17 questions), as expected due to the combined exam of CSE and IFS. Many questions required analytical abilities and knowledge of maps to answer correctly.
  • Economy (16 questions) and Polity (15 questions) remained major focus areas. A combination of static NCERT concepts and current economic updates like the budget was essential.
  • History questions predominantly focused on Art and Culture, while the remaining topics were evenly distributed among Ancient, Medieval, and Modern History. Many required knowledge of historical maps to contextualize answers.
  • International Relations (10 questions) was a major surprise, emphasizing geopolitical events. Reading newspapers and investing time in Atlas and maps was helpful for tackling these questions.
     
Subject-Wise Weightage
Subject-Wise Weightage in UPSC Prelims 2023

Difficulty Analysis

  • Easy Questions (20): Required basic NCERT knowledge.
  • Medium-Level Questions (45): Demanded strong analytical abilities and multi-concept integration (e.g., linking budget policies with economic fundamentals).
  • Hard Questions (35): Designed to test deep conceptual clarity and the ability to tackle match the following and assertion-based formats.
Difficulty-Level Distribution
Difficulty-Level Distribution in UPSC Prelims 2023

Variations in Question Framing

  • The largest portion of the paper (47 questions) comprised multi-statement, non-eliminable questions, requiring candidates to determine how many statements were correct (e.g., "Only one," "Only two"). This tested analytical abilities and assertion-reasoning skills.
  • UPSC deliberately reduced reliance on elimination techniques, making conceptual clarity even more crucial.
  • 18 Assertion-Reason-based questions added further complexity.
  • The impact of this difficulty was reflected in the cut-off marks—the general category cut-off was just 75.41, the lowest in UPSC history.
Variations of Questions
Variations of Questions in UPSC Prelims 2023

Static vs Current Affairs Distribution

  • Static Questions (63%): Covered core UPSC Prelims test paper themes, such as constitutional articles, historical events, and core geography topics.
  • Current Affairs (37%): Focused heavily on global events, including wars, regime changes, and resource distribution (e.g., cobalt production). These often required analyzing maps and integrating static knowledge with recent developments.
     

Key Learnings for Future Preparation

  • The UPSC Prelims 2023 exam tested a mix of conceptual clarity, analytical abilities, and current affairs awareness.
  • High-weightage subjects like Environment, Economy, and Polity should be prioritized.
  • Strengthening NCERT basics is crucial, especially for Polity, History, and Geography.
  • Developing analytical abilities will help tackle assertion-reason and match the following questions effectively.
  • Maps are essential for Geography, International Relations, and Environment topics.
  • Aspirants must prepare for diverse question formats, including multi-statement, assertion-based, and budget-related economic questions.
The UPSC Prelims 2023 paper balanced factual recall with analytical reasoning, focusing on Environment, Economy, and Polity. The exam emphasized conceptual clarity and current affairs integration. A strategic preparation approach, covering both static and dynamic topics, is key for success.

QUESTION 1

MediumSocial Issues & SchemesPrelims 2023

Consider the following statements in relation to Janani Suraksha Yojana:

  1. It is safe motherhood intervention of the State Health Departments.
  2. Its objective is to reduce maternal and neonatal mortality among poor pregnant women.
  3. It aims to promote institutional delivery among poor pregnant women.
  4. Its objective includes providing public health facilities to sick infants up to one year of age.

How many of the statements given above are correct?

A. Only one

B. Only two

C. All three

D. None

Answer: B

Explanation

  • Janani Suraksha Yojana (JSY) is a safe motherhood intervention under the National Rural Health Mission (NRHM). JSY is a 100% centrally sponsored scheme. So, statement 1 is not correct. 

  • It is being implemented with the objective of reducing maternal and neonatal mortality by promoting institutional delivery among poor pregnant women. So, statements 2 and 3 are correct. 

  • Under the Janani Shishu Suraksha Karyakram scheme (and not under JSY), all pregnant women and infants will get free treatment benefits at public health institutions including zero expenses delivery. So, statement 4 is not correct.


QUESTION 2

HardSocial Issues & SchemesPrelims 2023

Consider the following statements : Statement-I :India's public sector health care system largely focuses on curative care with limited preventive, promotive and rehabilitative care. Statement-II: Under India's decentralized approach to health care delivery, the States are primarily responsible for organizing health services.

Which one of the following is correct in respect of the above statements?

A. Both Statement-I and Statement-II are correct and Statement-II is the correct explanation for Statement-I

B. Both Statement-I and Statement-II are correct and Statement-II is not the correct explanation for Statement-I

C. Statement-I is correct but Statement-II is incorrect

D. Statement-I is incorrect but Statement-II is correct

Answer: B

Explanation

  • Statement I India's public healthcare system prioritises curative care, which focuses on treating existing illnesses. Preventive, promotive, and rehabilitative care, which aims to prevent diseases, promote good health, and help people recover from illness, receive less emphasis.

  • Statement II India's healthcare system follows a decentralised approach. The central government sets policies and provides financial assistance, but individual states are responsible for organising and delivering health services to their populations. This allows for flexibility based on local needs and contexts. Therefore, the answer is Both Statement I and Statement II are correct.


QUESTION 3

MediumSocial Issues & SchemesPrelims 2023

Consider the following statements in the context of interventions being undertaken under Anaemia Mukt Bharat Strategy:

  1. It provides prophylactic calcium supplementation for pre-school children, adolescents and pregnant women.
  2. It runs a campaign for delayed cord clamping at the time of child-birth.
  3. It provides for periodic deworming to children and adolescents.
  4. It addresses non-nutritional causes of anaemia in endemic pockets with special focus on malaria, hemoglobinopathies and fluorosis.

How many of the statements given above are correct?

A. Only one

B. Only two

C. Only three

D. All four

Answer: C

Explanation

  • Statement 1 is incorrect: Prophylactic Iron Folic Acid supplementation (not Prophylactic calcium) given to children, adolescents, women of reproductive age and pregnant women, irrespective of anaemia is a key continued intervention.

  • Statement 2 is correct: Promotion and monitoring of delayed clamping of the umbilical cord for at least 3 minutes (or until cord pulsations cease) for newborns across all health facilities will be carried out for improving the infants iron reserves up to 6 months after birth. Simultaneously, all birth attendants should make an effort to ensure early initiation of breastfeeding within 1 hour of birth.

  • Statement 3 is correct: The Anaemia Mukt Bharat, also integrates deworming of women of reproductive age and for pregnant women as part of the NDD strategy. Bi-annual mass deworming for children in the age groups between 1-19 years is carried out on designated dates 10th February and 10th August every year under National Deworming Day (NDD) programme.

  • Statement 4 is correct: The Anaemia Mukt Bharat strategy attempts to intensify awareness and integrate screening and treatment for non-nutritional causes of anaemia with special focus on malaria, haemoglobinopathies and fluorosis.

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