UPSC Prelims 2023 Analysis
Subject-Wise MCQ Distribution
- Environment & Ecology had the highest weight (17 questions), as expected due to the combined exam of CSE and IFS. Many questions required analytical abilities and knowledge of maps to answer correctly.
- Economy (16 questions) and Polity (15 questions) remained major focus areas. A combination of static NCERT concepts and current economic updates like the budget was essential.
- History questions predominantly focused on Art and Culture, while the remaining topics were evenly distributed among Ancient, Medieval, and Modern History. Many required knowledge of historical maps to contextualize answers.
- International Relations (10 questions) was a major surprise, emphasizing geopolitical events. Reading newspapers and investing time in Atlas and maps was helpful for tackling these questions.

Difficulty Analysis
- Easy Questions (20): Required basic NCERT knowledge.
- Medium-Level Questions (45): Demanded strong analytical abilities and multi-concept integration (e.g., linking budget policies with economic fundamentals).
- Hard Questions (35): Designed to test deep conceptual clarity and the ability to tackle match the following and assertion-based formats.

Variations in Question Framing
- The largest portion of the paper (47 questions) comprised multi-statement, non-eliminable questions, requiring candidates to determine how many statements were correct (e.g., "Only one," "Only two"). This tested analytical abilities and assertion-reasoning skills.
- UPSC deliberately reduced reliance on elimination techniques, making conceptual clarity even more crucial.
- 18 Assertion-Reason-based questions added further complexity.
- The impact of this difficulty was reflected in the cut-off marks—the general category cut-off was just 75.41, the lowest in UPSC history.

Static vs Current Affairs Distribution
- Static Questions (63%): Covered core UPSC Prelims test paper themes, such as constitutional articles, historical events, and core geography topics.
- Current Affairs (37%): Focused heavily on global events, including wars, regime changes, and resource distribution (e.g., cobalt production). These often required analyzing maps and integrating static knowledge with recent developments.
Key Learnings for Future Preparation
- The UPSC Prelims 2023 exam tested a mix of conceptual clarity, analytical abilities, and current affairs awareness.
- High-weightage subjects like Environment, Economy, and Polity should be prioritized.
- Strengthening NCERT basics is crucial, especially for Polity, History, and Geography.
- Developing analytical abilities will help tackle assertion-reason and match the following questions effectively.
- Maps are essential for Geography, International Relations, and Environment topics.
- Aspirants must prepare for diverse question formats, including multi-statement, assertion-based, and budget-related economic questions.
Subject-Wise Answer Key
QUESTION 1
Which of the following organisms perform waggle dance for others of their kin to indicate the direction and the distance to a source of their food?
A. Butterflies
B. Dragonflies
C. Honeybees
D. Wasps
QUESTION 2
Consider the following statements :
- In India, the Biodiversity Management committees are key to the realization of the objectives of Nagoya Protocol.
- The Biodiversity Management committees have important functions in determining access and benefit sharing, including the power to levy collection fees on the access of biological resources within its jurisdiction.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
A. 1 only
B. 2 only
C. Both 1 and 2
D. Neither 1 nor 2
QUESTION 3
Consider the following statements: Statement-I: Carbon markets are likely to be one of the most widespread tools in the fight against climate change. Statement-II: Carbon markets transfer resources from the private sector to the State.
Which one of the following is correct in respect of the above statements?
A. Both Statement-I and Statement-II are correct and Statement-II is the correct explanation for Statement-I
B. Both Statement-I and Statement-II are correct and Statement-II is not the correct explanation for Statement-I
C. Statement-I is correct but Statement-II is incorrect
D. Statement-I is incorrect but Statement-II is correct.
QUESTION 4
Consider the following:
- Aerosols
- Foam agents
- Fire retardants
- Lubricants
In the making of how many of the above are hydrofluorocarbons used?
A. Only one
B. Only two
C. Only three
D. All four
QUESTION 5
Consider the following activities :
- Spreading finely ground basalt rock on farmlands extensively
- Increasing the alkalinity of oceans by adding lime
- Capturing carbon dioxide released by various industries and pumping it into abandoned subterranean mines in the form of carbonated waters
How many of the above activities are often considered and discussed for carbon capture and sequestration?
A. Only one
B. Only two
C. All three
D. None
QUESTION 6
Consider the following statements :
Statement-I : According to the United Nation's 'World Water Development Report, 2022', India extracts more than a quarter of the world's groundwater withdrawal each year.
Statement-II :India needs to extract more than a quarter of the world's groundwater each year to satisfy the drinking water and sanitation needs of almost 18% of world's population living in its territory.
Which one of the following is correct in respect of the above statements?
A. Both Statement-I and Statement-II are correct and Statement-II is the correct explanation for Statement-I
B. Both Statement-I and Statement-II are correct and Statement-II is not the correct explanation for Statement-I
C. Statement-I is correct but Statement-II is incorrect
D. Statement-I is incorrect but Statement-II is correct
QUESTION 7
With reference to the role of biofilters in Recirculating Aquaculture System, consider the following statements:
- Biofilters provide waste treatment by removing uneaten fish feed.
- Biofilters convert ammonia present in fish waste to nitrate.
- Biofilters increase phosphorus as nutrient for fish in water.
How many of the statements given above are correct?
A. Only one
B. Only two
C. All three
D. None
QUESTION 8
Consider the following fauna:
- Lion-tailed Macaque
- Malabar Civet
- Sambar Deer
How many of the above are generally nocturnal or most active after sunset?
A. Only one
B. Only two
C. All three
D. None
QUESTION 9
Consider the following statements:
Once the Central Government notifies an area as a 'Community Reserve'
- The Chief Wildlife Warden of the State becomes the governing authority of such forest
- hunting is not allowed in such area
- people of such area are allowed to collect non-timber forest produce
- people of such area are allowed traditional agricultural practices
How many of the above statements are correct?
A. Only one
B. Only two
C. Only three
D. All four
QUESTION 10
Consider the following statements:
- Some mushrooms have medicinal properties.
- Some mushrooms have psychoactive properties.
- Some mushrooms have insecticidal properties.
- Some mushrooms have bioluminescent properties.
How many of the above statements are correct?
A. Only one
B. Only two
C. Only three
D. All four
QUESTION 11
Consider the following statements:
Statement I: Marsupials are not naturally found in India.
Statement II: Marsupials can thrive only in montane grasslands with no predators.
Which one of the following is correct in respect of the above statements?
A. Both Statement-I and Statement-II are correct and Statement-II is the correct explanation for Statement-I
B. Both Statement-I and Statement-II are correct and StatementII is not the correct explanation for Statement-I
C. Statement-I is correct but Statement-II is incorrect
D. Statement-I is incorrect but Statement-II is correct
QUESTION 12
Consider the following statements regarding the Indian squirrels:
- They build nests by making burrows in the ground.
- They store their food materials like nuts and seeds in the ground.
- They are omnivorous.
How many of the above statements are correct?
A. Only one
B. Only two
C. All three
D. None
QUESTION 13
Invasive species Specialist Group' (that develops Global Invasive Species Database) belongs to which one of the following organizations?
A. The International Union for Conservation of Nature
B. The United Nations Environment Programme
C. The United Nations World Commission for Environment and Development.
D. The World Wide Fund for Nature
QUESTION 14
With reference to green hydrogen, Consider the following statements :
- It can be used directly as a fuel for internal combustion.
- It can be blended with natural gas and used as fuel for heat or power generation.
- It can be used in the hydrogen fuel cell to run vehicles.
How many of the above statements are correct?
A. Only one
B. Only two
C. All three
D. None
QUESTION 15
Which one of the following makes a tool with a stick to scrap insects from a hole in a tree or a log of wood?
A. Fishing cat
B. Orangutan
C. Otter
D. Sloth bear
QUESTION 16
Consider the following heavy industries :
- Fertilizer plants
- Oil refineries
- Steel plants
Green hydrogen is expected to play a significant role in decarbonizing how many of the above industries?
A. Only one
B. Only two
C. All three
D. None
QUESTION 17
Consider the following statements regarding mercury pollution :
- Gold mining activity is a source of mercury pollution in the world.
- Coal-based thermal power plants cause mercury pollution.
- There is no known safe level of exposure to mercury
How many of the above statements are correct?
A. Only one
B. Only two
C. All three
D. None