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UPSC Prelims 2023 Analysis

Subject-Wise MCQ Distribution

  • Environment & Ecology had the highest weight (17 questions), as expected due to the combined exam of CSE and IFS. Many questions required analytical abilities and knowledge of maps to answer correctly.
  • Economy (16 questions) and Polity (15 questions) remained major focus areas. A combination of static NCERT concepts and current economic updates like the budget was essential.
  • History questions predominantly focused on Art and Culture, while the remaining topics were evenly distributed among Ancient, Medieval, and Modern History. Many required knowledge of historical maps to contextualize answers.
  • International Relations (10 questions) was a major surprise, emphasizing geopolitical events. Reading newspapers and investing time in Atlas and maps was helpful for tackling these questions.
     
Subject-Wise Weightage
Subject-Wise Weightage in UPSC Prelims 2023

Difficulty Analysis

  • Easy Questions (20): Required basic NCERT knowledge.
  • Medium-Level Questions (45): Demanded strong analytical abilities and multi-concept integration (e.g., linking budget policies with economic fundamentals).
  • Hard Questions (35): Designed to test deep conceptual clarity and the ability to tackle match the following and assertion-based formats.
Difficulty-Level Distribution
Difficulty-Level Distribution in UPSC Prelims 2023

Variations in Question Framing

  • The largest portion of the paper (47 questions) comprised multi-statement, non-eliminable questions, requiring candidates to determine how many statements were correct (e.g., "Only one," "Only two"). This tested analytical abilities and assertion-reasoning skills.
  • UPSC deliberately reduced reliance on elimination techniques, making conceptual clarity even more crucial.
  • 18 Assertion-Reason-based questions added further complexity.
  • The impact of this difficulty was reflected in the cut-off marks—the general category cut-off was just 75.41, the lowest in UPSC history.
Variations of Questions
Variations of Questions in UPSC Prelims 2023

Static vs Current Affairs Distribution

  • Static Questions (63%): Covered core UPSC Prelims test paper themes, such as constitutional articles, historical events, and core geography topics.
  • Current Affairs (37%): Focused heavily on global events, including wars, regime changes, and resource distribution (e.g., cobalt production). These often required analyzing maps and integrating static knowledge with recent developments.
     

Key Learnings for Future Preparation

  • The UPSC Prelims 2023 exam tested a mix of conceptual clarity, analytical abilities, and current affairs awareness.
  • High-weightage subjects like Environment, Economy, and Polity should be prioritized.
  • Strengthening NCERT basics is crucial, especially for Polity, History, and Geography.
  • Developing analytical abilities will help tackle assertion-reason and match the following questions effectively.
  • Maps are essential for Geography, International Relations, and Environment topics.
  • Aspirants must prepare for diverse question formats, including multi-statement, assertion-based, and budget-related economic questions.
The UPSC Prelims 2023 paper balanced factual recall with analytical reasoning, focusing on Environment, Economy, and Polity. The exam emphasized conceptual clarity and current affairs integration. A strategic preparation approach, covering both static and dynamic topics, is key for success.

QUESTION 1

MediumEnvironment & EcologyPrelims 2023

Which of the following organisms perform waggle dance for others of their kin to indicate the direction and the distance to a source of their food?

A. Butterflies

B. Dragonflies

C. Honeybees

D. Wasps

Answer: C

Explanation

 

  • The honey bee dance, also known as the waggle dance, is a form of communication performed by worker honey bees to other members of the honey bee colony. The waggle dance was famously decoded by Austrian scientist, Karl von Frisch.

  • The direction the bee moves in relation to the hive indicates direction; if it moves vertically, the direction to the source is directly towards the Sun. 

  • The duration of the waggle part of the dance signifies the distance.Hence, option (C) is the correct answer.


QUESTION 2

EasyEnvironment & EcologyPrelims 2023

Consider the following statements : 

  1. In India, the Biodiversity Management committees are key to the realization of the objectives of Nagoya Protocol.
  2. The Biodiversity Management committees have important functions in determining access and benefit sharing, including the power to levy collection fees on the access of biological resources within its jurisdiction.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

A. 1 only

B. 2 only

C. Both 1 and 2

D. Neither 1 nor 2

Answer: C

Explanation

  • The Nagoya Protocol is an international agreement that addresses the fair and equitable sharing of benefits arising from the utilisation of genetic resources. It is a supplementary agreement to the Convention on Biological Diversity (CBD) and specifically focuses on access to genetic resources and the fair and equitable sharing of benefits derived from their utilisation.

  • In India, the Biodiversity Management Committees (BMCs) are indeed key to the realisation of the objectives of the Nagoya Protocol. The Nagoya Protocol aims at sharing the benefits arising from the utilisation of genetic resources in a fair and equitable way. BMCs play a crucial role in this by ensuring that local communities have a say in the access to and use of these resources.

  • The Biodiversity Management Committees also have important functions in determining access and benefit sharing. They have the power to levy collection fees on the access of biological resources within their jurisdiction. This is part of their role in managing and conserving biodiversity, and ensuring that the benefits derived from the use of these resources are shared equitably.Therefore, both statements are correct.


QUESTION 3

HardEnvironment & EcologyPrelims 2023

Consider the following statements: Statement-I: Carbon markets are likely to be one of the most widespread tools in the fight against climate change. Statement-II: Carbon markets transfer resources from the private sector to the State.

Which one of the following is correct in respect of the above statements?

A. Both Statement-I and Statement-II are correct and Statement-II is the correct explanation for Statement-I

B. Both Statement-I and Statement-II are correct and Statement-II is not the correct explanation for Statement-I

C. Statement-I is correct but Statement-II is incorrect

D. Statement-I is incorrect but Statement-II is correct.

Answer: B

Explanation

  • Carbon markets, which include mechanisms like cap-and-trade systems and carbon offsets, are increasingly being used as a tool to incentivize emissions reductions and help in the fight against climate change. So, statement 1 is true.

  • Carbon markets typically work by transferring resources from emitters (usually in the private sector) to entities that can reduce or remove greenhouse gas emissions, which can be either private entities or the government. So, statement 2 can also be true.

Carbon Market


QUESTION 4

HardEnvironment & EcologyPrelims 2023

Consider the following:

  1. Aerosols
  2. Foam agents
  3. Fire retardants
  4. Lubricants

In the making of how many of the above are hydrofluorocarbons used?

A. Only one

B. Only two

C. Only three

D. All four

Answer: C

Explanation

Out of the above substances, hydrofluorocarbons (HFCs) are used in the making of: 

  1. Aerosols HFCs were historically used as propellants in aerosol cans, but their use is being phased out due to environmental concerns.

  2. Foam agents Some types of fire-fighting foam agents use HFCs.

  3. Fire retardant HFCs can be a component in some fire retardant formulations.

  4. Lubricants typically do not contain HFCs. They use different chemical formulations to achieve lubricating properties.


QUESTION 5

HardEnvironment & EcologyPrelims 2023

Consider the following activities :

  1. Spreading finely ground basalt rock on farmlands extensively
  2. Increasing the alkalinity of oceans by adding lime
  3. Capturing carbon dioxide released by various industries and pumping it into abandoned subterranean mines in the form of carbonated waters

How many of the above activities are often considered and discussed for carbon capture and sequestration?

A. Only one

B. Only two

C. All three

D. None

Answer: C

Explanation

All three activities mentioned are indeed methods often considered and discussed for carbon capture and sequestration.

  • Spreading finely ground basalt rock on farmlands extensively is known as enhanced weathering. The basalt reacts with carbon dioxide in the atmosphere and forms stable carbonates, effectively storing the carbon dioxide and preventing it from contributing to global warming.

  • Increasing the alkalinity of oceans by adding lime can help absorb more carbon dioxide from the atmosphere. The increased alkalinity enhances the ocean's capacity to act as a carbon sink.

  • Capturing carbon dioxide released by various industries and pumping it into abandoned subterranean mines in the form of carbonated waters is a direct method of carbon capture and sequestration where carbon dioxide is captured at its source and then stored in a way that prevents it from being released into the atmosphere.


QUESTION 6

MediumEnvironment & EcologyPrelims 2023

Consider the following statements : 

Statement-I : According to the United Nation's 'World Water Development Report, 2022', India extracts more than a quarter of the world's groundwater withdrawal each year. 

Statement-II :India needs to extract more than a quarter of the world's groundwater each year to satisfy the drinking water and sanitation needs of almost 18% of world's population living in its territory.

Which one of the following is correct in respect of the above statements?

A. Both Statement-I and Statement-II are correct and Statement-II is the correct explanation for Statement-I

B. Both Statement-I and Statement-II are correct and Statement-II is not the correct explanation for Statement-I

C. Statement-I is correct but Statement-II is incorrect

D. Statement-I is incorrect but Statement-II is correct

Answer: C

Explanation

 

  • Statement 1 is correct. According to the United Nations World Water Development Report 2022, with an estimated 251 km3 annual withdrawal from an estimated 20 million wells and tube wells, India is the world's greatest groundwater user. This accounts for more than a quarter of the total groundwater extracted internationally.

  • Statement 2 is incorrect. India uses about 89% of this groundwater for irrigation. Major share of total groundwater extracted by India is utilised for irrigation purposes and not for drinking and sanitation purposes.


QUESTION 7

MediumEnvironment & EcologyPrelims 2023

With reference to the role of biofilters in Recirculating Aquaculture System, consider the following statements:

  1. Biofilters provide waste treatment by removing uneaten fish feed.
  2. Biofilters convert ammonia present in fish waste to nitrate.
  3. Biofilters increase phosphorus as nutrient for fish in water.

How many of the statements given above are correct?

A. Only one

B. Only two

C. All three

D. None

Answer: B

Explanation

  • Role of Biofilters in Recirculating Aquaculture System (RAS): Biofilters provide waste treatment by removing uneaten fish feed. Biofilters in a RAS help in waste treatment by removing uneaten fish feed and other organic matter from the water. The biofilter media provide a surface for beneficial bacteria to grow, which help in breaking down and removing these wastes. So, statement 1 is correct.

  • Biofilters convert ammonia present in fish waste to nitrate. One of the primary functions of biofilters in a RAS is to convert toxic ammonia (produced from fish waste) into less harmful nitrate. Beneficial bacteria in the biofilter media perform nitrification, a process where ammonia is first converted to nitrite and then further converted to nitrate.  So, statement 2 is correct.

  • Biofilters do not increase phosphorus as a nutrient for fish in the water. Their primary role is to remove wastes and convert ammonia to nitrate. Phosphorus levels in the water are managed through other means, such as fish feed formulation and water quality management. **So, statement 3 is not correct.**Therefore, option (b) is the correct answer.


QUESTION 8

HardEnvironment & EcologyPrelims 2023

Consider the following fauna:

  1. Lion-tailed Macaque
  2. Malabar Civet
  3. Sambar Deer

How many of the above are generally nocturnal or most active after sunset?

A. Only one

B. Only two

C. All three

D. None

Answer: A

Explanation

  • Lion-tailed Macaque: This is a diurnal animal, meaning it's active during the day.

  • Malabar Civet: This is a nocturnal animal, primarily active at night.

  • Sambar Deer: These are crepuscular animals, most active during dawn and dusk.

Therefore, only one (1) of the fauna is generally nocturnal or most active after sunset (Malabar Civet).

Lion Tailed Macaque


QUESTION 9

MediumEnvironment & EcologyPrelims 2023

Consider the following statements:

Once the Central Government notifies an area as a 'Community Reserve'

  1. The Chief Wildlife Warden of the State becomes the governing authority of such forest
  2. hunting is not allowed in such area
  3. people of such area are allowed to collect non-timber forest produce
  4. people of such area are allowed traditional agricultural practices

How many of the above statements are correct?

A. Only one

B. Only two

C. Only three

D. All four

Answer: B

Explanation

  • Community reserves in India are terms denoting protected areas of India which typically act as buffer zones to or connectors and migration corridors between established national parks, wildlife sanctuaries and reserved and protected forests of India.

  • Statement 1 is incorrect: As per the Section 36 D of the WildLife Protection Act (WLPA): The State Government shall constitute a Community Reserve management committee, which shall be the authority responsible for conserving, maintaining and managing the community reserve. The committee shall elect a Chairman who shall also be the Honorary WildLife Warden on the community reserve.

  • Statement 2 is correct: After a forest has been made into a community reserve, people are not allowed to hunt there, thus hunting is prohibited in community reserves.

  • Statement 3 is correct: People of such areas are allowed to collect non-timber forest produce.

  • Statement 4 is incorrect: After a forest has been made into a community reserve, people are also not allowed to use it for agricultural practices such as shifting (jhum) cultivation.


QUESTION 10

EasyEnvironment & EcologyPrelims 2023

Consider the following statements:

  1. Some mushrooms have medicinal properties.
  2. Some mushrooms have psychoactive properties.
  3. Some mushrooms have insecticidal properties.
  4. Some mushrooms have bioluminescent properties.

How many of the above statements are correct?

A. Only one

B. Only two

C. Only three

D. All four

Answer: D

Explanation

 All four statements are correct. 

  • Medicinal mushrooms: Certain mushroom species have been used in traditional medicine for centuries and are still being studied for their potential health benefits. Examples include reishi mushrooms (Ganoderma lucidum) for immune system support and lion's mane mushrooms (Hericium erinaceus) for cognitive function.

  • Psychoactive mushrooms: Some mushrooms contain psilocybin, a naturally occurring psychoactive compound that can induce hallucinations. These are commonly referred to as "magic mushrooms" or psilocybin mushrooms.

  • Insecticidal mushrooms: Some mushroom species produce natural compounds that can repel or even kill insects. These compounds act as a defence mechanism for the mushrooms against insect pests.

  • Bioluminescent mushrooms: A less common but fascinating property, bioluminescence, is found in some mushroom species. These mushrooms can produce and emit light, creating a glowing effect.


QUESTION 11

MediumEnvironment & EcologyPrelims 2023

Consider the following statements: 

Statement I: Marsupials are not naturally found in India. 

Statement II: Marsupials can thrive only in montane grasslands with no predators.

Which one of the following is correct in respect of the above statements?

A. Both Statement-I and Statement-II are correct and Statement-II is the correct explanation for Statement-I

B. Both Statement-I and Statement-II are correct and StatementII is not the correct explanation for Statement-I

C. Statement-I is correct but Statement-II is incorrect

D. Statement-I is incorrect but Statement-II is correct

Answer: C

Explanation

 

  • Marsupials, which are a type of mammal characterised by the presence of a pouch (marsupium) for carrying their young, are not naturally found in India. Marsupials are primarily native to the Americas and Australia. 

  • Marsupials can thrive in a variety of habitats, not just montane grasslands without predators. Many marsupial species are found in a wide range of ecosystems, including forests, savannas, and even urban areas, and can coexist with a variety of predators. Therefore, the correct answer is Statement-I is correct, and Statement II is incorrect.


QUESTION 12

HardEnvironment & EcologyPrelims 2023

Consider the following statements regarding the Indian squirrels:

  1. They build nests by making burrows in the ground.
  2. They store their food materials like nuts and seeds in the ground.
  3. They are omnivorous.

How many of the above statements are correct?

A. Only one

B. Only two

C. All three

D. None

Answer: B

Explanation

 

  • Squirrels are generally small to medium-size rodents, but there are a few species

  • that are giant in size like the Malabar giant squirrel and Malayan giant squirrel. Giant tree squirrels are the members of the squirrel family. They are arboreal species and live mostly on trees in the forest, but now also have adapted to human environments. Hence, statement 1 is not correct. 

  • To prepare for colder months, squirrels cactch food during the spring and summer by gathering extra nuts. They bury the surplus in the area surrounding their nests, splitting it into different underground pantries to save for later. Hence, statement 2 is correct. 

  • While nuts and fruits make up a majority of its diet, the Indian sun squirrel will also eat insects, other smaller mammals, and reptiles. Hence, statement 3 is correct.


QUESTION 13

MediumEnvironment & EcologyPrelims 2023

Invasive species Specialist Group' (that develops Global Invasive Species Database) belongs to which one of the following organizations?

A. The International Union for Conservation of Nature

B. The United Nations Environment Programme

C. The United Nations World Commission for Environment and Development.

D. The World Wide Fund for Nature

Answer: A

Explanation

  • The Invasive Species Specialist Group (ISSG) is a global network of scientific and policy experts on invasive species, organised under the auspices of the Species Survival Commission (SSC) of the International Union for Conservation of Nature (IUCN). Hence option (a) is the correct answer.

QUESTION 14

HardEnvironment & EcologyPrelims 2023

With reference to green hydrogen, Consider the following statements :

  1. It can be used directly as a fuel for internal combustion.
  2. It can be blended with natural gas and used as fuel for heat or power generation.
  3. It can be used in the hydrogen fuel cell to run vehicles.

How many of the above statements are correct?

A. Only one

B. Only two

C. All three

D. None

Answer: C

Explanation

 

  • Green hydrogen is any hydrogen that is produced from renewable energy. 

  • Green hydrogen can be used as a direct fuel for internal combustion engines, replacing conventional fuels like gasoline or diesel.

  • Green hydrogen can be blended with natural gas and used as a fuel for various applications like heating, power generation, and industrial processes.

  • Green hydrogen can be used in hydrogen fuel cells to power electric vehicles, providing a clean and efficient alternative to traditional fossil fuel-powered vehicles.Therefore, all three statements regarding the uses of green hydrogen are correct.


QUESTION 15

HardEnvironment & EcologyPrelims 2023

Which one of the following makes a tool with a stick to scrap insects from a hole in a tree or a log of wood?

A. Fishing cat

B. Orangutan

C. Otter

D. Sloth bear

Answer: B

Explanation

  • Orangutans are known for their intelligence and tool-use capabilities. They have been observed using sticks in various ways, including scraping insects from holes in trees and logs, extracting honey from beehives, and even using leaves as utensils.

QUESTION 16

MediumEnvironment & EcologyPrelims 2023

Consider the following heavy industries :

  1. Fertilizer plants
  2. Oil refineries
  3. Steel plants

Green hydrogen is expected to play a significant role in decarbonizing how many of the above industries?

A. Only one

B. Only two

C. All three

D. None

Answer: C

Explanation

  • Green hydrogen is the hydrogen produced through electrolysis of water using electricity from renewable sources.

  • Green hydrogen is expected to play a significant role in decarbonizing all three of the mentioned heavy industries.

  • Green hydrogen can be used in the production of ammonia, which is a key component for many fertilizers. Fertilizer production is energy-intensive and often relies on fossil fuels, particularly natural gas. By using green hydrogen as a clean energy source, the carbon emissions from this industry can be significantly reduced

  • Green hydrogen can be used in oil refineries to process crude oil into various products, including gasoline, diesel, and jet fuel. This can help to reduce the carbon emissions from the refining process.

  • The steel industry is one of the largest industrial emitters of carbon dioxide. Green hydrogen can be used in place of coal in the steelmaking process, significantly reducing the industry's carbon emissions.

Green Hydrogen


QUESTION 17

MediumEnvironment & EcologyPrelims 2023

Consider the following statements regarding mercury pollution :

  1. Gold mining activity is a source of mercury pollution in the world.
  2. Coal-based thermal power plants cause mercury pollution.
  3. There is no known safe level of exposure to mercury

How many of the above statements are correct?

A. Only one

B. Only two

C. All three

D. None

Answer: B

Explanation

  • Statement 1 is correct: Gold mining is poisoning Amazon forests with mercury. To separate the gold, miners mix liquid mercury into the sediment, which forms a coating around the gold.

  • Statement 2 is correct: Fly ash generated by TPPs is one of the ways mercury is released into the environment. Fly ash is usually disposed of in ash ponds in the form of ash slurry, forming an aquatic ecosystem of its own. Coal-based TPPs are the major source of mercury – the ninth most toxic element found on earth — emissions into the environment. Mercury contributed over 80 percent of emissions released by the TPPs, according to 2016 estimates by the Delhi-based think-tank Centre for Science and Environment.

  • Statement 3 is incorrect: While high levels of mercury exposure can be harmful, there are established safe levels of exposure to mercury for various scenarios. As per different reports currently, mercury vapour concentrations greater than 0.01 mg/m3 are considered unsafe.

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