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UPSC Prelims 2023 Analysis

Subject-Wise MCQ Distribution

  • Environment & Ecology had the highest weight (17 questions), as expected due to the combined exam of CSE and IFS. Many questions required analytical abilities and knowledge of maps to answer correctly.
  • Economy (16 questions) and Polity (15 questions) remained major focus areas. A combination of static NCERT concepts and current economic updates like the budget was essential.
  • History questions predominantly focused on Art and Culture, while the remaining topics were evenly distributed among Ancient, Medieval, and Modern History. Many required knowledge of historical maps to contextualize answers.
  • International Relations (10 questions) was a major surprise, emphasizing geopolitical events. Reading newspapers and investing time in Atlas and maps was helpful for tackling these questions.
     
Subject-Wise Weightage
Subject-Wise Weightage in UPSC Prelims 2023

Difficulty Analysis

  • Easy Questions (20): Required basic NCERT knowledge.
  • Medium-Level Questions (45): Demanded strong analytical abilities and multi-concept integration (e.g., linking budget policies with economic fundamentals).
  • Hard Questions (35): Designed to test deep conceptual clarity and the ability to tackle match the following and assertion-based formats.
Difficulty-Level Distribution
Difficulty-Level Distribution in UPSC Prelims 2023

Variations in Question Framing

  • The largest portion of the paper (47 questions) comprised multi-statement, non-eliminable questions, requiring candidates to determine how many statements were correct (e.g., "Only one," "Only two"). This tested analytical abilities and assertion-reasoning skills.
  • UPSC deliberately reduced reliance on elimination techniques, making conceptual clarity even more crucial.
  • 18 Assertion-Reason-based questions added further complexity.
  • The impact of this difficulty was reflected in the cut-off marks—the general category cut-off was just 75.41, the lowest in UPSC history.
Variations of Questions
Variations of Questions in UPSC Prelims 2023

Static vs Current Affairs Distribution

  • Static Questions (63%): Covered core UPSC Prelims test paper themes, such as constitutional articles, historical events, and core geography topics.
  • Current Affairs (37%): Focused heavily on global events, including wars, regime changes, and resource distribution (e.g., cobalt production). These often required analyzing maps and integrating static knowledge with recent developments.
     

Key Learnings for Future Preparation

  • The UPSC Prelims 2023 exam tested a mix of conceptual clarity, analytical abilities, and current affairs awareness.
  • High-weightage subjects like Environment, Economy, and Polity should be prioritized.
  • Strengthening NCERT basics is crucial, especially for Polity, History, and Geography.
  • Developing analytical abilities will help tackle assertion-reason and match the following questions effectively.
  • Maps are essential for Geography, International Relations, and Environment topics.
  • Aspirants must prepare for diverse question formats, including multi-statement, assertion-based, and budget-related economic questions.
The UPSC Prelims 2023 paper balanced factual recall with analytical reasoning, focusing on Environment, Economy, and Polity. The exam emphasized conceptual clarity and current affairs integration. A strategic preparation approach, covering both static and dynamic topics, is key for success.

QUESTION 1

MediumEconomyPrelims 2023

Consider the investments in the following assets:

  1. Brand recognition
  2. Inventory
  3. Intellectual property
  4. Mailing list of clients

How many of the above are considered intangible investments?

A. Only one

B. Only two

C. Only three

D. All four

Answer: C

Explanation

Out of the four listed assets, three are considered intangible investments

  • Brand recognition (Intangible) This is an intangible asset as it's not a physical good but represents the value associated with a brand's reputation and customer recognition.

  • Intellectual property (Intangible) This encompasses intangible assets like patents, copyrights, trademarks, and trade secrets. It represents intellectual creations that provide a competitive advantage.

  • Mailing list of clients (Intangible) This is a customer relationship asset that holds value because it allows you to connect with potential and existing customers.

  • Inventory (Tangible) Inventory refers to the stock of physical goods that a company holds for sale. It's a tangible asset with a physical form.


QUESTION 2

EasyEconomyPrelims 2023

Consider the following statements :

  1. The Self-Help Group (SHG) programme was originally initiated by the State Bank of India by providing microcredit to the financially deprived.
  2. In an SHG, all members of a group take responsibility for a loan that an individual member takes.
  3. The Regional Rural Banks and Scheduled Commercial banks support SHGs.

How many of the above statements are correct?

A. Only one

B. Only two

C. All three

D. None

Answer: B

Explanation

  • Statement 1 is incorrect NABARD began promoting self-help groups in 1991-1992. And it served as the actual launch pad for the SHG movement. The Reserve Bank of India additionally permitted SHGs to open savings bank accounts in 1993. 

  • Statement 2 is correct The Banks provide the loan to the Self-Help Group as a whole and it is the collective responsibility of the SHG to repay that loan. Hence all members of a group take responsibility for a loan that an individual member takes. Further, the SHG may decide to not provide any share in further loans to the defaulter member. 

Statement 3 is correct. The Financial Inclusion Fund scheme to support Scheduled Commercial Banks (SCBs) and Regional Rural Banks (RRBs) for enabling Dual Authentication options in the micro ATMs for SHG transactions is being launched to provide an enabling eco-system for the SHGs to seamlessly operate at Business Correspondent points with the proposed Dual Authentication feature. Thus, it can be said that SCBs and RRBs support the SHGs in availing the credits as per their needs.


QUESTION 3

MediumEconomyPrelims 2023

Consider the following statements: Statement-I: Interest income from the deposits in Infrastructure Investment Trusts (InvITs) distributed to their investors is exempted from tax, but the dividend is taxable. Statement-II: InvITs are recognized as borrowers under the 'Securitization and Reconstruction of Financial Assets and Enforcement of Security Interest Act, 2002'.

Which one of the following is correct in respect of the above statements?

A. Both Statement-I and Statement-II are correct and Statement-II is the correct explanation for Statement-I

B. Both Statement-I and Statement-II are correct and Statement-II is not the correct explanation for Statement-I

C. Statement-I is correct but Statement-II is incorrect

D. Statement-I is incorrect but Statement-II is correct

Answer: D

Explanation

  • Statement I Incorrect : Earlier, InvITs offered some tax benefits to investors. However, the budget in 2023 changed the taxation structure. Currently, all income distributed by InvITs, including interest income, dividend income, and rental income, is taxable in the hands of the unitholders according to their income tax slab.

Statement II Correct : InvITs are indeed recognized as borrowers under the Securitization and Reconstruction of Financial Assets and Enforcement of Security Interest Act, 2002 (SARFAESI Act). This Act allows InvITs to access various financing options and enforce security interests in case of defaults.


QUESTION 4

HardEconomyPrelims 2023

In the context of finance, the term 'beta' refers to the

A. process of simultaneous buying and selling of an asset from difference platforms.

B. an investment strategy of a portfolio manager to balance risk versus reward.

C. a type of systemic risk that arises where perfect hedging is not possible.

D. a numeric value that measures the fluctuations of a stock to changes in the overall stock market

Answer: D

Explanation

  • The beta value of a stock measures how much its price moves compared to the overall market:

  • Beta > 1: Stock is more volatile than the market (moves more).

  • Beta < 1: Stock is less volatile than the market (moves less).

  • Beta = 1: Stock moves in line with the market.


QUESTION 5

MediumEconomyPrelims 2023

Which one of the following best describes the concept of 'Small Farmer Large Field'?

A. Resettlement of a large number of people, uprooted from their them a large cultivable land which they cultivable land which they cultivate collectively and share the produce

B. Many marginal farmers in an area organize themselves into groups and synchronize and harmonize selected agricultural operations

C. Many marginal farmers in an area together make a contract with a corporate body and surrender their land to the corporate body for a fixed term for which the corporate body makes payment of agreed amount to the farmers

D. A company extends loans, technical knowledge and material inputs to a number of small farmers in an area so that they produce the agricultural commodity required by the company for its manufacturing process and commercial production

Answer: B

Explanation

  • The concept of 'Small Farmer Large Field' is a participatory collective action model that aims to improve the livelihood of small and marginal farmers in India by achieving economies of scale and bargaining power in the supply chain. 

  • It was adapted from the Large Field Model of Vietnam and was piloted to address the key challenges faced by millions of small and marginal farmers in India. The model allows small farmers to benefit from achieving economies of scale by organizing themselves into groups. 

  • Option (b) Small Farmers Large Field (SFLF) is an agri model to overcome the disadvantages faced by millions of small and marginal farmers due to diseconomies of scale and lack of bargaining power in the supply chain.


QUESTION 6

EasyEconomyPrelims 2023

Correct the following statements: Statement-I: In the post-pandemic recent past, many Central Banks worldwide had carried out interest rate hikes. Statement-II: Central Banks generally assume that they have the ability to counteract the rising consumer prices via monetary policy means.

Which one of the following is correct in respect of the above statements?

A. Both Statement-I and Statement-II are correct and Statement-II is the correct explanation for Statement-I

B. Both Statement-I and Statement-II are correct and Statement-II is not the correct explanation for Statement-I

C. Statement-I is correct but Statement-II is incorrect

D. Statement-I is incorrect but Statement-II is correct

Answer: A

Explanation

  • Statement I- correct In the aftermath of the COVID-19 pandemic, many central banks around the world observed rising inflation. To combat this inflation, they resorted to raising interest rates. This is a well-established monetary policy tool to curb inflation by making borrowing more expensive and encouraging saving, thereby reducing the money supply in circulation. 

  • Statement II- correct Central banks are entrusted with maintaining price stability and managing inflation. Raising interest rates is one of the primary instruments they use to achieve this objective. While other factors can influence inflation, central banks do have the ability to significantly impact it through monetary policy measures. 

  • Therefore, both statements accurately reflect the role of central banks and their use of interest rates to manage inflation and statement 2 is the correct explanation for statement 1.


QUESTION 7

MediumEconomyPrelims 2023

Consider the following pairs: Port : Well known as

  1. Kamarajar Port : First major port in India registered as a company
  2. Mundra Port : Largest privately owned port in India
  3. Visakhapatnam : Largest container port in India

How many of the above pairs are correctly matched?

A. Only one pair

B. Only two pairs

C. All three pairs

D. None of the pairs

Answer: B

Explanation

  • Pair 1 is correct Kamarajar Port, located on the Coromandel Coast about 24 km north of Chennai Port, Chennai, is the 12th major port of India, and the first port in India which is a public company. The Kamarajar Port is the only corporatized major port and is registered as a company. Today, the landlord port is the dominant port model in larger and medium-sized ports. 

  • Pair 2 is correct Mundra Port is the largest private port in India. The port of Mundra is located on the north shores of the Gulf of Kutch near Mundra, Kutch district, in the state of Gujarat. Mundra is a major hub for containers and bulk cargo. It is run by Adani Ports and SEZ Limited (APSEZ) and began operations in 2001. Mundra Airport is undergoing major developments to convert it into an international airport for air cargo. 

  • Pair 3 is incorrect Jawaharlal Nehru Port Trust Nhava Sheva (JNPT) is the largest container port in India and one of the most essential subcontinent harbours on the Western coast.

ports


QUESTION 8

MediumEconomyPrelims 2023

With reference to Central Bank digital currencies, consider the following statements :

  1. It is possible to make payments in a digital currency without using US dollar or SWIFT system.
  2. A digital currency can be distributed with a condition programmed into it such as a time-fame for spending it.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

A. 1 Only

B. 2 Only

C. Both 1 and 2

D. Neither 1 nor 2

Answer: C

Explanation

  • Transactions without US Dollar or SWIFT : Traditional digital payments often rely on the US dollar as a reserve currency and might involve the SWIFT system for international settlements.

  • A central bank digital currency (CBDC) is the digital form of a country's fiat currency. CBDCs have the potential to bypass these traditional channels. Transactions between countries using their own CBDCs could happen directly, reducing reliance on the US dollar and potentially making cross-border payments faster and cheaper.

  • Programmable Money with CBDCs : CBDCs can be programmed with certain features.  A central bank could issue a CBDC with a built-in spending time frame, for example, vouchers for specific purposes like public transport subsidies. These would expire after a certain period, ensuring the funds are used for the intended purpose. 

  • Therefore, CBDCs offer unique functionalities compared to traditional digital currencies. They can potentially streamline international payments and introduce programmable features for targeted uses.


QUESTION 9

EasyEconomyPrelims 2023

Consider the following:

  1. Demographic performance
  2. Forest and ecology
  3. Governance reforms
  4. Stable government
  5. Tax and fiscal efforts

For the horizontal tax devolution, the Fifteenth Finance Commission used how many of the above as criteria other than population area and income distance?

A. Only two

B. Only three

C. Only four

D. All five

Answer: B

Explanation

Based on principles of need, equity and performance, overall devolution formula is as given in the chart:

Finance Commission


QUESTION 10

EasyEconomyPrelims 2023

Consider the following markets:

  1. Government Bond Market
  2. Call Money Market
  3. Treasury Bill Market
  4. Stock Market

How many of the above are included in capital markets?

A. Only one

B. Only two

C. Only three

D. All four

Answer: B

Explanation

Capital markets are financial markets where long-term securities, such as stocks and bonds, are traded. They provide a platform for raising capital for businesses and governments. 

On the other hand, Money markets are financial markets where short-term securities such as T-Bill, C-Paper, Cash Management Bills, Ways and Means advances, etc are traded. 

  • Statement 1 is correct- Government bonds are long-term debt securities issued by governments to finance their activities. The government bond market is a part of the capital market as it involves the trading of long-term debt securities. 

  • Statement 2 is incorrect- The call money market is a short-term market where funds are borrowed and lent for very short durations, usually overnight. It deals with short-term funds, and its transactions are not classified as part of the capital market.

  • Statement 3 is incorrect- Treasury bills are short-term debt instruments issued by governments to finance their short-term cash flow requirements. The treasury bill market, similar to the call money market, deals with short-term instruments and is not considered part of the capital market. 

  • Statement 4 is correct- The stock market, also known as the equity market or share market, is where shares or stocks of publicly listed companies are bought and sold. The stock market is a part of the capital market as it involves the trading of ownership interests (equity securities) in companies.


QUESTION 11

MediumEconomyPrelims 2023

Consider the following statements with reference to India:

  1. According to the 'Micro Small and Medium enterprises Development (MSMED) Act, 2006, the 'medium enterprises' are those with investments in plant and machinery between Rs. 15 crore and Rs. 25 crore.
  2. All bank loans to the Micro, Small and Medium Enterprises qualify under the Priority sector.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

A. 1 Only

B. 2 Only

C. Both 1 and 2

D. Neither 1 nor 2

Answer: B

Explanation

  • Statement 1 is incorrect: As per the Micro, Small and Medium Enterprises Development (MSMED) Act, 2006, Medium Enterprises are those for which the investments in Plant and Machinery are not more than Rs. 50 crore of and turnover not more than Rs. 250 crore.

  • Statement 2 is correct: All bank loans to MSMEs that meet the criteria outlined in the Master Direction on “Priority Sector Lending (PSL) – Targets and Classification” dated September 4, 2020 are eligible to be classified as priority sector lending.


QUESTION 12

MediumEconomyPrelims 2023

Consider the following Statements : Statement-I: Switzerland is one of the leading exporters of gold in terms of value. Statement-II: Switzerland has the second largest gold reserves in the world.

Which one of the following is correct in respect of the above statements?

A. Both Statement-I and Statement-II are correct and Statement-II is the correct explanation for Statement-I

B. Both Statement-I and Statement-II are correct and Statement-II is not the correct explanation for Statement-I

C. Statement-I is correct but Statement-II is incorrect

D. Statement-I is incorrect but Statement-II is correct

Answer: C

Explanation

  • Statement I is correct In 2021, Switzerland exported $86.7B in Gold, making it the 1st largest exporter of Gold in the world. Switzerland is consistently the world's leading gold-exporting country based on value. (Please note: The list is dynamic & keeps varying yearly)

  • Statement II is not correct. The United States is way out in front as the country with the largest gold reserves in the world at 8,000 tonnes (as of 2024).

  • In India, the largest resources of gold ore (primary) are located in Bihar (44%) followed by Rajasthan (25%), Karnataka (21%), West Bengal (3%), Andhra Pradesh (3% ), Jharkhand (2 %). The remaining 2% resources of ore are located in Chhattisgarh, Madhya Pradesh, Kerala, Maharashtra and Tamil Nadu. (PIB 2021)

  • India is one of the largest gold importers, sourcing 800-1,000 tons annually, mainly from Switzerland, the UAE, and South Africa. Imports are driven by high domestic demand for jewelry and investment. Gold exports, primarily in jewelry, target the US, UAE, and Hong Kong, supporting India's trade through its jewelry manufacturing sector.


QUESTION 13

HardEconomyPrelims 2023

Consider the following statements:

  1. India has more arable area than China.
  2. The proportion of irrigated area is more in India as compared to China.
  3. The average productivity per hectare in Indian agriculture is higher than that in China.

How many of the above statements are correct?

A. Only one

B. Only two

C. All three

D. None

Answer: A

Explanation

  • According to data from the Food and Agriculture Organization (FAO) and other agricultural databases, India does have more arable land than China. As of recent data, India's arable land is approximately 157 million hectares, whereas China's arable land is around 119 million hectares. Hence, Statement 1 is correct.

  • While India has a substantial amount of irrigated land, China has implemented extensive irrigation projects and has a higher proportion of its arable land irrigated. As a percentage of arable land, China's irrigated land is higher than that of India.Therefore, statement 2 is incorrect.

  • China has a higher average agricultural productivity per hectare compared to India. This is due to several factors, including technological advancements, better infrastructure, and more effective agricultural practices in China. Hence, statement 3 is also incorrect.


QUESTION 14

EasyEconomyPrelims 2023

Which one of the following activities of the Reserve Bank of India is considered to be part of 'sterilization'?

A. Conducting 'Open Market Operations'

B. Oversight of settlement and payment systems

C. Debt and cash management for the Central and State Governments

D. Regulating the functions of Nonbanking Financial Institutions

Answer: A

Explanation

  • Sterilisation refers to the actions taken by a central bank to offset the impact of its foreign exchange operations on the domestic money supply. 

  • When a central bank intervenes in the foreign exchange market by buying or selling foreign currencies, it affects the domestic money supply. 

  • Open Market Operations (OMO) is one of the primary tools used by central banks, including the Reserve Bank of India (RBI), to conduct monetary policy. 

  • In OMO, the central bank buys or sells government securities (bonds) in the open market to influence the liquidity in the economy. When the RBI conducts OMO, it impacts the money supply in the economy. If the RBI buys government securities, it injects money into the system, increasing the money supply. To prevent this injection of money from creating inflationary pressures, the RBI engages in sterilisation. 

  • Sterilisation involves the simultaneous sale or purchase of other securities, typically treasury bills, to offset the impact of the initial open market operation.


QUESTION 15

MediumEconomyPrelims 2023

Consider the following statements:

  1. The Government of India provides Minimum Support Price for niger (Guizotia abyssinicia) seeds.
  2. Niger is cultivated as a Kharif crop.
  3. Some tribal people in India use niger seed oil for cooking.

How many of the above statements are correct?

A. Only one

B. Only two

C. All three

D. None

Answer: C

Explanation

  • The Government of India provides Minimum Support Price (MSP) for niger seeds to support farmers and ensure a baseline return on their crops. This is especially important for crops like niger which might have volatile market prices. 

  • Niger is primarily cultivated as a Kharif crop in India. Kharif refers to the monsoon season in India, typically from June to September. Niger thrives in these rainy conditions. 

  • Niger seed oil has various uses, and some tribal communities in India traditionally use it for cooking purposes. The oil has a nutty flavour and can be used as a substitute for other cooking oils.

Crops in India


QUESTION 16

MediumEconomyPrelims 2023

Consider the following statements : Statement-I : India accounts for 3.2% of global export of goods. Statement-II :Many local companies and some foreign companies operating in India have taken advantage of India's 'Production-linked Incentive' scheme.

Which one of the following is correct in respect of the above statements?

A. Both Statement-I and Statement-II are correct and StatementII is the correct explanation for Statement-I

B. Both Statement-I and Statement-II are correct and StatementII is not the correct explanation for Statement-I

C. Statement-I is correct but StatementII is incorrect

D. Statement-I is incorrect but Statement-II is correct

Answer: D

Explanation

Statement I is incorrect India�s share in global merchandise trade is only 1.8% and 4% in global services. India plans to increase its export share in global trade from 2.1% to 3% by 2027 and 10% by 2047.

Statement II is correct The PLI scheme is open to both domestic and international manufacturers. Samsung as well as Indian firms such as Dixon Technologies, UTL, Neolyncs, Lava International, Optiemus Electronics and Micromax are also expanding their factories to take advantage of the PLI scheme.

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