UPSC Prelims 2023 Analysis
Subject-Wise MCQ Distribution
- Environment & Ecology had the highest weight (17 questions), as expected due to the combined exam of CSE and IFS. Many questions required analytical abilities and knowledge of maps to answer correctly.
- Economy (16 questions) and Polity (15 questions) remained major focus areas. A combination of static NCERT concepts and current economic updates like the budget was essential.
- History questions predominantly focused on Art and Culture, while the remaining topics were evenly distributed among Ancient, Medieval, and Modern History. Many required knowledge of historical maps to contextualize answers.
- International Relations (10 questions) was a major surprise, emphasizing geopolitical events. Reading newspapers and investing time in Atlas and maps was helpful for tackling these questions.

Difficulty Analysis
- Easy Questions (20): Required basic NCERT knowledge.
- Medium-Level Questions (45): Demanded strong analytical abilities and multi-concept integration (e.g., linking budget policies with economic fundamentals).
- Hard Questions (35): Designed to test deep conceptual clarity and the ability to tackle match the following and assertion-based formats.

Variations in Question Framing
- The largest portion of the paper (47 questions) comprised multi-statement, non-eliminable questions, requiring candidates to determine how many statements were correct (e.g., "Only one," "Only two"). This tested analytical abilities and assertion-reasoning skills.
- UPSC deliberately reduced reliance on elimination techniques, making conceptual clarity even more crucial.
- 18 Assertion-Reason-based questions added further complexity.
- The impact of this difficulty was reflected in the cut-off marks—the general category cut-off was just 75.41, the lowest in UPSC history.

Static vs Current Affairs Distribution
- Static Questions (63%): Covered core UPSC Prelims test paper themes, such as constitutional articles, historical events, and core geography topics.
- Current Affairs (37%): Focused heavily on global events, including wars, regime changes, and resource distribution (e.g., cobalt production). These often required analyzing maps and integrating static knowledge with recent developments.
Key Learnings for Future Preparation
- The UPSC Prelims 2023 exam tested a mix of conceptual clarity, analytical abilities, and current affairs awareness.
- High-weightage subjects like Environment, Economy, and Polity should be prioritized.
- Strengthening NCERT basics is crucial, especially for Polity, History, and Geography.
- Developing analytical abilities will help tackle assertion-reason and match the following questions effectively.
- Maps are essential for Geography, International Relations, and Environment topics.
- Aspirants must prepare for diverse question formats, including multi-statement, assertion-based, and budget-related economic questions.
Subject-Wise Answer Key
QUESTION 1
Consider the investments in the following assets:
- Brand recognition
- Inventory
- Intellectual property
- Mailing list of clients
How many of the above are considered intangible investments?
A. Only one
B. Only two
C. Only three
D. All four
QUESTION 2
Consider the following statements :
- The Self-Help Group (SHG) programme was originally initiated by the State Bank of India by providing microcredit to the financially deprived.
- In an SHG, all members of a group take responsibility for a loan that an individual member takes.
- The Regional Rural Banks and Scheduled Commercial banks support SHGs.
How many of the above statements are correct?
A. Only one
B. Only two
C. All three
D. None
QUESTION 3
Consider the following statements: Statement-I: Interest income from the deposits in Infrastructure Investment Trusts (InvITs) distributed to their investors is exempted from tax, but the dividend is taxable. Statement-II: InvITs are recognized as borrowers under the 'Securitization and Reconstruction of Financial Assets and Enforcement of Security Interest Act, 2002'.
Which one of the following is correct in respect of the above statements?
A. Both Statement-I and Statement-II are correct and Statement-II is the correct explanation for Statement-I
B. Both Statement-I and Statement-II are correct and Statement-II is not the correct explanation for Statement-I
C. Statement-I is correct but Statement-II is incorrect
D. Statement-I is incorrect but Statement-II is correct
QUESTION 4
In the context of finance, the term 'beta' refers to the
A. process of simultaneous buying and selling of an asset from difference platforms.
B. an investment strategy of a portfolio manager to balance risk versus reward.
C. a type of systemic risk that arises where perfect hedging is not possible.
D. a numeric value that measures the fluctuations of a stock to changes in the overall stock market
QUESTION 5
Which one of the following best describes the concept of 'Small Farmer Large Field'?
A. Resettlement of a large number of people, uprooted from their them a large cultivable land which they cultivable land which they cultivate collectively and share the produce
B. Many marginal farmers in an area organize themselves into groups and synchronize and harmonize selected agricultural operations
C. Many marginal farmers in an area together make a contract with a corporate body and surrender their land to the corporate body for a fixed term for which the corporate body makes payment of agreed amount to the farmers
D. A company extends loans, technical knowledge and material inputs to a number of small farmers in an area so that they produce the agricultural commodity required by the company for its manufacturing process and commercial production
QUESTION 6
Correct the following statements: Statement-I: In the post-pandemic recent past, many Central Banks worldwide had carried out interest rate hikes. Statement-II: Central Banks generally assume that they have the ability to counteract the rising consumer prices via monetary policy means.
Which one of the following is correct in respect of the above statements?
A. Both Statement-I and Statement-II are correct and Statement-II is the correct explanation for Statement-I
B. Both Statement-I and Statement-II are correct and Statement-II is not the correct explanation for Statement-I
C. Statement-I is correct but Statement-II is incorrect
D. Statement-I is incorrect but Statement-II is correct
QUESTION 7
Consider the following pairs: Port : Well known as
- Kamarajar Port : First major port in India registered as a company
- Mundra Port : Largest privately owned port in India
- Visakhapatnam : Largest container port in India
How many of the above pairs are correctly matched?
A. Only one pair
B. Only two pairs
C. All three pairs
D. None of the pairs
QUESTION 8
With reference to Central Bank digital currencies, consider the following statements :
- It is possible to make payments in a digital currency without using US dollar or SWIFT system.
- A digital currency can be distributed with a condition programmed into it such as a time-fame for spending it.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
A. 1 Only
B. 2 Only
C. Both 1 and 2
D. Neither 1 nor 2
QUESTION 9
Consider the following:
- Demographic performance
- Forest and ecology
- Governance reforms
- Stable government
- Tax and fiscal efforts
For the horizontal tax devolution, the Fifteenth Finance Commission used how many of the above as criteria other than population area and income distance?
A. Only two
B. Only three
C. Only four
D. All five
QUESTION 10
Consider the following markets:
- Government Bond Market
- Call Money Market
- Treasury Bill Market
- Stock Market
How many of the above are included in capital markets?
A. Only one
B. Only two
C. Only three
D. All four
QUESTION 11
Consider the following statements with reference to India:
- According to the 'Micro Small and Medium enterprises Development (MSMED) Act, 2006, the 'medium enterprises' are those with investments in plant and machinery between Rs. 15 crore and Rs. 25 crore.
- All bank loans to the Micro, Small and Medium Enterprises qualify under the Priority sector.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
A. 1 Only
B. 2 Only
C. Both 1 and 2
D. Neither 1 nor 2
QUESTION 12
Consider the following Statements : Statement-I: Switzerland is one of the leading exporters of gold in terms of value. Statement-II: Switzerland has the second largest gold reserves in the world.
Which one of the following is correct in respect of the above statements?
A. Both Statement-I and Statement-II are correct and Statement-II is the correct explanation for Statement-I
B. Both Statement-I and Statement-II are correct and Statement-II is not the correct explanation for Statement-I
C. Statement-I is correct but Statement-II is incorrect
D. Statement-I is incorrect but Statement-II is correct
QUESTION 13
Consider the following statements:
- India has more arable area than China.
- The proportion of irrigated area is more in India as compared to China.
- The average productivity per hectare in Indian agriculture is higher than that in China.
How many of the above statements are correct?
A. Only one
B. Only two
C. All three
D. None
QUESTION 14
Which one of the following activities of the Reserve Bank of India is considered to be part of 'sterilization'?
A. Conducting 'Open Market Operations'
B. Oversight of settlement and payment systems
C. Debt and cash management for the Central and State Governments
D. Regulating the functions of Nonbanking Financial Institutions
QUESTION 15
Consider the following statements:
- The Government of India provides Minimum Support Price for niger (Guizotia abyssinicia) seeds.
- Niger is cultivated as a Kharif crop.
- Some tribal people in India use niger seed oil for cooking.
How many of the above statements are correct?
A. Only one
B. Only two
C. All three
D. None
QUESTION 16
Consider the following statements : Statement-I : India accounts for 3.2% of global export of goods. Statement-II :Many local companies and some foreign companies operating in India have taken advantage of India's 'Production-linked Incentive' scheme.
Which one of the following is correct in respect of the above statements?
A. Both Statement-I and Statement-II are correct and StatementII is the correct explanation for Statement-I
B. Both Statement-I and Statement-II are correct and StatementII is not the correct explanation for Statement-I
C. Statement-I is correct but StatementII is incorrect
D. Statement-I is incorrect but Statement-II is correct