UPSC Prelims 2023 Analysis
Subject-Wise MCQ Distribution
- Environment & Ecology had the highest weight (17 questions), as expected due to the combined exam of CSE and IFS. Many questions required analytical abilities and knowledge of maps to answer correctly.
- Economy (16 questions) and Polity (15 questions) remained major focus areas. A combination of static NCERT concepts and current economic updates like the budget was essential.
- History questions predominantly focused on Art and Culture, while the remaining topics were evenly distributed among Ancient, Medieval, and Modern History. Many required knowledge of historical maps to contextualize answers.
- International Relations (10 questions) was a major surprise, emphasizing geopolitical events. Reading newspapers and investing time in Atlas and maps was helpful for tackling these questions.

Difficulty Analysis
- Easy Questions (20): Required basic NCERT knowledge.
- Medium-Level Questions (45): Demanded strong analytical abilities and multi-concept integration (e.g., linking budget policies with economic fundamentals).
- Hard Questions (35): Designed to test deep conceptual clarity and the ability to tackle match the following and assertion-based formats.

Variations in Question Framing
- The largest portion of the paper (47 questions) comprised multi-statement, non-eliminable questions, requiring candidates to determine how many statements were correct (e.g., "Only one," "Only two"). This tested analytical abilities and assertion-reasoning skills.
- UPSC deliberately reduced reliance on elimination techniques, making conceptual clarity even more crucial.
- 18 Assertion-Reason-based questions added further complexity.
- The impact of this difficulty was reflected in the cut-off marks—the general category cut-off was just 75.41, the lowest in UPSC history.

Static vs Current Affairs Distribution
- Static Questions (63%): Covered core UPSC Prelims test paper themes, such as constitutional articles, historical events, and core geography topics.
- Current Affairs (37%): Focused heavily on global events, including wars, regime changes, and resource distribution (e.g., cobalt production). These often required analyzing maps and integrating static knowledge with recent developments.
Key Learnings for Future Preparation
- The UPSC Prelims 2023 exam tested a mix of conceptual clarity, analytical abilities, and current affairs awareness.
- High-weightage subjects like Environment, Economy, and Polity should be prioritized.
- Strengthening NCERT basics is crucial, especially for Polity, History, and Geography.
- Developing analytical abilities will help tackle assertion-reason and match the following questions effectively.
- Maps are essential for Geography, International Relations, and Environment topics.
- Aspirants must prepare for diverse question formats, including multi-statement, assertion-based, and budget-related economic questions.
Subject-Wise Answer Key
QUESTION 1
With reference to the Earth's atmosphere, which one of the following statements is correct?
A. The total amount of insolation received at the equator is roughly about 10 times of that received at the poles.
B. Infrared rays constitute roughly twothirds of insolation.
C. Infrared waves are largely absorbed by water vapour that is concentrated in the lower atmosphere.
D. Infrared waves are a part of visible spectrum of electromagnetic waves of solar radiation.
QUESTION 2
With reference to India's projects on connectivity, consider the following statements:
- East-West Corridor under Golden Quadrilateral Project connects Dibrugarh and Surat.
- Trilateral Highway connects Moreh in Manipur and Chiang Mai in Thailand via Myanmar.
- Bangladesh-China- India-Myanmar Economic Corridor connects Varanasi in Uttar Pradesh with Kunming in China.
How many of the above statements are correct?
A. Only one
B. Only two
C. All three
D. None
QUESTION 3
Consider the following statements: Statement-I : The soil in tropical rain forests is rich in nutrients. Statement-II : The high temperature and moisture of tropical rain forests cause dead organic matter in the soil to decompose quickly.
Which one of the following is correct in respect of the above statements?
A. Both Statement I and Statement II are correct and Statement II is the correct explanation for Statement I
B. Both Statement I and Statement II are correct and Statement II is not the correct explanation for Statement I
C. Statement I is correct but Statement II is incorrect
D. Statement I is incorrect but Statement II is correct
QUESTION 4
Consider the following statements :
Statement-I: The temperature contrast between continents and oceans is greater during summer than in winter.
Statement-II: The specific heat of water is more than that of land surface.
Which one of the following is correct in respect of the above statements?
A. Both Statement-I and Statement-II are correct and StatementII is the correct explanation for Statement-I
B. Both Statement-I and Statement-II are correct and StatementII is not the correct explanation for Statement-I
C. Statement-I is correct but StatementII is incorrect
D. Statement-I is incorrect but Statement-II is correct
QUESTION 5
Which one of the following is the best example of repeated falls in sea level, giving rise to present-day extensive marshland?
A. Bhitarkanika Mangroves
B. Marakkanam Salt Pans
C. Naupada Swamp
D. Rann of Kutch
QUESTION 6
Which one of the following is a part of the Congo Basin?
A. Cameroon
B. Nigeria
C. South Sudan
D. Uganda
QUESTION 7
Consider the following trees:
- Jackfruit (Artocarpus heterophyllus)
- Mahua (Madhuca indica)
- Teak (Tectona grandis)
How many of the above are deciduous trees?
A. Only one
B. Only two
C. All three
D. None
QUESTION 8
About three-fourths of world's cobalt, a metal required for the manufacture of batteries for electric motor vehicles, is produced by
A. Argentina
B. Botswana
C. The Democratic Republic of the Congo
D. Kazakhstan
QUESTION 9
Ilmenite and rutile, abundantly available in certain coastal tracts of India, are rich sources of which one of the following?
A. Aluminium
B. Copper
C. Iron
D. Titanium
QUESTION 10
Consider the following statements:
- Jhelum River passes through Wular Lake.
- Krishna River directly feeds Kolleru Lake
- Meandering of Gandak River formed Kanwar Lake.
How many of the statements given above are correct?
A. Only one
B. Only two
C. All three
D. None
QUESTION 11
Consider the following statements: Statement-I: India, despite having uranium deposits, depends on coal for most of its electricity production. Statement-II: Uranium, enriched to the extent of at least 60% is required for the production of electricity.
Which one of the following is correct in respect of the above statements?
A. Both Statement-I and Statement-II are correct and Statement-II is the correct explanation for Statement-I
B. Both Statement-I and Statement-II are correct and Statement-II is not the correct explanation for Statement-I
C. Statement-I is correct but Statement-II is incorrect
D. Statement-I is incorrect but Statement-II is correct
QUESTION 12
Consider the following statements:
- Amarkantak Hills are at the confluence of Vindhya and Sahyadri Ranges.
- Biligirirangan Hills constitute the easternmost part of Satpura Range.
- Seshachalam Hills Constitute the southernmost part of Western Ghats.
How many of the statements given above the correct?
A. Only one
B. Only two
C. All three
D. None
QUESTION 13
Consider the following countries:
- Bulgaria
- Czech Republic
- Hungary
- Latvia
- Lithuania
- Romania
How many of the above-mentioned countries share a land border with Ukraine?
A. Only two
B. Only three
C. Only four
D. Only five
QUESTION 14
With reference to coal-based thermal power plants in India, consider the following statements :
- None of them uses seawater.
- None of them is set up in water-stressed district.
- None of them is privately owned.
How many of the above statements are correct?
A. Only one
B. Only two
C. All three
D. None
QUESTION 15
Consider the following statements:
- In a seismograph, P waves are recorded earlier than S waves.
- In P waves, the individual particles vibrate to and fro in the direction of wave propagation whereas in S waves, the particles vibrate up and down at right angles to the direction of wave propagation.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
A. 1 only
B. 2 only
C. Both 1 and 2
D. Neither 1 nor 2