UPSC Prelims 2023 Analysis
Subject-Wise MCQ Distribution
- Environment & Ecology had the highest weight (17 questions), as expected due to the combined exam of CSE and IFS. Many questions required analytical abilities and knowledge of maps to answer correctly.
- Economy (16 questions) and Polity (15 questions) remained major focus areas. A combination of static NCERT concepts and current economic updates like the budget was essential.
- History questions predominantly focused on Art and Culture, while the remaining topics were evenly distributed among Ancient, Medieval, and Modern History. Many required knowledge of historical maps to contextualize answers.
- International Relations (10 questions) was a major surprise, emphasizing geopolitical events. Reading newspapers and investing time in Atlas and maps was helpful for tackling these questions.

Difficulty Analysis
- Easy Questions (20): Required basic NCERT knowledge.
- Medium-Level Questions (45): Demanded strong analytical abilities and multi-concept integration (e.g., linking budget policies with economic fundamentals).
- Hard Questions (35): Designed to test deep conceptual clarity and the ability to tackle match the following and assertion-based formats.

Variations in Question Framing
- The largest portion of the paper (47 questions) comprised multi-statement, non-eliminable questions, requiring candidates to determine how many statements were correct (e.g., "Only one," "Only two"). This tested analytical abilities and assertion-reasoning skills.
- UPSC deliberately reduced reliance on elimination techniques, making conceptual clarity even more crucial.
- 18 Assertion-Reason-based questions added further complexity.
- The impact of this difficulty was reflected in the cut-off marks—the general category cut-off was just 75.41, the lowest in UPSC history.

Static vs Current Affairs Distribution
- Static Questions (63%): Covered core UPSC Prelims test paper themes, such as constitutional articles, historical events, and core geography topics.
- Current Affairs (37%): Focused heavily on global events, including wars, regime changes, and resource distribution (e.g., cobalt production). These often required analyzing maps and integrating static knowledge with recent developments.
Key Learnings for Future Preparation
- The UPSC Prelims 2023 exam tested a mix of conceptual clarity, analytical abilities, and current affairs awareness.
- High-weightage subjects like Environment, Economy, and Polity should be prioritized.
- Strengthening NCERT basics is crucial, especially for Polity, History, and Geography.
- Developing analytical abilities will help tackle assertion-reason and match the following questions effectively.
- Maps are essential for Geography, International Relations, and Environment topics.
- Aspirants must prepare for diverse question formats, including multi-statement, assertion-based, and budget-related economic questions.
Subject-Wise Answer Key
QUESTION 1
Wolbachia method' is sometimes talked about with reference to which one of the following?
A. Controlling the viral diseases spread by mosquitoes
B. Converting crop residues into packing material
C. Producing biodegradable plastics
D. Producing biochar from thermochemical conversion of biomass
QUESTION 2
Consider the following statements:
- Carbon fibres are used in the manufacture of components used in automobiles and aircrafts.
- Carbon fibres once used cannot be recycled.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
A. 1 only
B. 2 only
C. Both 1 and 2
D. Neither 1 nor 2
QUESTION 3
Which one the following countries has its own Satellite Navigation System?
A. Australia
B. Canada
C. Israel
D. Japan
QUESTION 4
Consider the following statements:
- Some microorganisms can grow in environments with temperature above the boiling point of water.
- Some microorganisms can grow in environments with temperature below the freezing point of water.
- Some microorganisms can grow in highly acidic environment with a pH below 3.
How many of the above statements are correct?
A. Only one
B. Only two
C. All three
D. None
QUESTION 5
Consider the following statements:
- Ballistic missiles are jet-propelled at subsonic speeds throughout their flights, while cruise missiles are rocket- powered only in the initial phase of flight.
- Agni-V is a medium- range supersonic cruise missile, while BrahMos is a solid- fuelled intercontinental ballistic missile.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
A. 1 Only
B. 2 Only
C. Both 1 and 2
D. Neither 1 nor 2
QUESTION 6
Aerial metagenomics' best refers to which one of the following situations?
A. Collecting DNA samples from air in a habitat at one go
B. Understanding the genetic makeup of avian species of a habitat
C. Using air-borne devices to collect blood samples from moving animals
D. Sending drones to inaccessible areas to collect plant and animal samples from land surfaces and water bodies
QUESTION 7
'Microsatellite DNA' is used in the case of which one of the following?
A. Studying the evolutionary relationships among various species of fauna
B. Stimulating 'stem cells' to transform into diverse functional tissues
C. Promoting clonal propagation of horticultural plants
D. Assessing the efficacy of drugs by conducting series of drug trials in a population
QUESTION 8
Consider the following pairs : Objects in space: Description
- Cepheids: Giant clouds of dust and gas in space
- Nebulae: Stars which brighten and dim periodically
- Pulsars: Neutron stars that are formed when massive stars run out of fuel and collapse
How many of the above pairs are correctly matched?
A. Only one
B. Only two
C. All three
D. None
QUESTION 9
Consider the following actions:
- Detection of car crash/collision which results in the deployment of airbags almost instantaneously
- Detection of accidental free fall of a laptop towards the ground which results in the immediate turning off of the hard drive
- Detection of the tilt of the smartphone which results in the rotation of display between portrait and landscape mode
In how many of the above actions is the function of accelerometer required?
A. Only one
B. Only two
C. All three
D. None