UPSC Prelims 2023 Analysis

Subject-Wise MCQ Distribution

  • Environment & Ecology had the highest weight (17 questions), as expected due to the combined exam of CSE and IFS. Many questions required analytical abilities and knowledge of maps to answer correctly.
  • Economy (16 questions) and Polity (15 questions) remained major focus areas. A combination of static NCERT concepts and current economic updates like the budget was essential.
  • History questions predominantly focused on Art and Culture, while the remaining topics were evenly distributed among Ancient, Medieval, and Modern History. Many required knowledge of historical maps to contextualize answers.
  • International Relations (10 questions) was a major surprise, emphasizing geopolitical events. Reading newspapers and investing time in Atlas and maps was helpful for tackling these questions.
     
Subject-Wise Weightage
Subject-Wise Weightage in UPSC Prelims 2023

Difficulty Analysis

  • Easy Questions (20): Required basic NCERT knowledge.
  • Medium-Level Questions (45): Demanded strong analytical abilities and multi-concept integration (e.g., linking budget policies with economic fundamentals).
  • Hard Questions (35): Designed to test deep conceptual clarity and the ability to tackle match the following and assertion-based formats.
Difficulty-Level Distribution
Difficulty-Level Distribution in UPSC Prelims 2023

Variations in Question Framing

  • The largest portion of the paper (47 questions) comprised multi-statement, non-eliminable questions, requiring candidates to determine how many statements were correct (e.g., "Only one," "Only two"). This tested analytical abilities and assertion-reasoning skills.
  • UPSC deliberately reduced reliance on elimination techniques, making conceptual clarity even more crucial.
  • 18 Assertion-Reason-based questions added further complexity.
  • The impact of this difficulty was reflected in the cut-off marks—the general category cut-off was just 75.41, the lowest in UPSC history.
Variations of Questions
Variations of Questions in UPSC Prelims 2023

Static vs Current Affairs Distribution

  • Static Questions (63%): Covered core UPSC Prelims test paper themes, such as constitutional articles, historical events, and core geography topics.
  • Current Affairs (37%): Focused heavily on global events, including wars, regime changes, and resource distribution (e.g., cobalt production). These often required analyzing maps and integrating static knowledge with recent developments.
     

Key Learnings for Future Preparation

  • The UPSC Prelims 2023 exam tested a mix of conceptual clarity, analytical abilities, and current affairs awareness.
  • High-weightage subjects like Environment, Economy, and Polity should be prioritized.
  • Strengthening NCERT basics is crucial, especially for Polity, History, and Geography.
  • Developing analytical abilities will help tackle assertion-reason and match the following questions effectively.
  • Maps are essential for Geography, International Relations, and Environment topics.
  • Aspirants must prepare for diverse question formats, including multi-statement, assertion-based, and budget-related economic questions.
The UPSC Prelims 2023 paper balanced factual recall with analytical reasoning, focusing on Environment, Economy, and Polity. The exam emphasized conceptual clarity and current affairs integration. A strategic preparation approach, covering both static and dynamic topics, is key for success.

QUESTION 1

HardScience & TechnologyPrelims 2023

Wolbachia method' is sometimes talked about with reference to which one of the following?

A. Controlling the viral diseases spread by mosquitoes

B. Converting crop residues into packing material

C. Producing biodegradable plastics

D. Producing biochar from thermochemical conversion of biomass

Answer: A

Explanation

 

The Wolbachia method is a biological method that utilises the Wolbachia bacteria to control the spread of mosquito-borne diseases, particularly dengue fever. Method

  • Wolbachia naturally infects some insect species, but not Aedes aegypti mosquitoes, the primary vector for dengue fever transmission. Scientists introduce Wolbachia into Aedes aegypti populations.  Wolbachia reduces the ability of these mosquitoes to transmit dengue virus. 

  • As Wolbachia spreads through the mosquito population, it can significantly reduce the incidence of dengue fever. 

  • This method offers a natural and sustainable approach to controlling dengue fever, a major public health concern in tropical and subtropical regions.


QUESTION 2

MediumScience & TechnologyPrelims 2023

Consider the following statements:

  1. Carbon fibres are used in the manufacture of components used in automobiles and aircrafts.
  2. Carbon fibres once used cannot be recycled.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

A. 1 only

B. 2 only

C. Both 1 and 2

D. Neither 1 nor 2

Answer: A

Explanation

 

  • Carbon fibres are highly valued for their unique properties like strength, lightness, and stiffness. They are widely used in the manufacturing of various components in automobiles and aircraft to reduce weight and improve performance. 

  • Carbon Fiber Recycling: While traditional carbon fibre recycling methods were limited, advancements are being made in this field. Here are some possibilities 

  1. Mechanical recycling - This process breaks down carbon fibres into smaller pieces for use in applications where their original form is not necessary. 

  2. Chemical recycling -This method dissolves the resin holding the fibres together, potentially allowing the extraction of reusable carbon fibres. 

  3. Thermal recycling- High temperatures are used to convert the resin into usable materials while recovering the carbon fibres. 

  • These recycling technologies are still evolving, but they offer a more sustainable approach to using carbon fibres. Hence, statement 2 is incorrect.

QUESTION 3

EasyScience & TechnologyPrelims 2023

Which one the following countries has its own Satellite Navigation System?

A. Australia

B. Canada

C. Israel

D. Japan

Answer: D

Explanation

 * Satellite navigation is based on the use of range measurements between navigational satellites and the user. Information about the satellite's coordinates is given to the user through a navigation signal. Range measurements are based on the calculation of the receiving signal time delay compared with the signals generated by the user equipment.

  • Currently, there are four global systems viz., GPS from the USA, GLONASS from Russia, Galileo from the European Union, and BeiDou from China. In addition, there are two regional systems viz., NavIC from India and QZSS from Japan.

  • Global navigation system caters to the users in the entire world, whereas the regional navigation system caters to the users in the limited service area.

Hence option (d) is the correct answer.


QUESTION 4

EasyScience & TechnologyPrelims 2023

Consider the following statements:

  1. Some microorganisms can grow in environments with temperature above the boiling point of water.
  2. Some microorganisms can grow in environments with temperature below the freezing point of water.
  3. Some microorganisms can grow in highly acidic environment with a pH below 3.

How many of the above statements are correct?

A. Only one

B. Only two

C. All three

D. None

Answer: C

Explanation

 

  • Statement 1 is correct: Pyrolobus fumarii, an archaeon living at 113 C in Atlantic hydrothermal vents.Pyrococcus furiosus, an archaeon which thrives at 100C, first discovered in Italy near a volcanic vent. 

  • Statement 2 is correct: Psychrophiles or cryophiles (adj. psychrophilic or cryophilic) are extremophilic organisms that are capable of growth and reproduction in low temperatures, ranging from 20 C to 20 C. 

  • Statement 3 is correct: Acidophiles are microorganisms that show optimal growth in highly acidic environments. These are of two types. The extreme acidophiles dwell in environments with a pH value < 3, and moderate acidophiles grow optimally in conditions having pH values ranging between 3 and 5.


QUESTION 5

EasyScience & TechnologyPrelims 2023

Consider the following statements:

  1. Ballistic missiles are jet-propelled at subsonic speeds throughout their flights, while cruise missiles are rocket- powered only in the initial phase of flight.
  2. Agni-V is a medium- range supersonic cruise missile, while BrahMos is a solid- fuelled intercontinental ballistic missile.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

A. 1 Only

B. 2 Only

C. Both 1 and 2

D. Neither 1 nor 2

Answer: D

Explanation

 

  • Neither of the statements about ballistic missiles and cruise missiles is accurate.

  • Ballistic missiles: These are rocket-powered weapons that follow a high, arcing trajectory after a brief powered ascent. They travel at supersonic speeds throughout most of their flight due to inertia.

  • Cruise missiles: These are jet-propelled weapons that fly at relatively low altitudes and can manoeuvre throughout their flight path. They can be subsonic, supersonic, or hypersonic depending on the design.

  • Agni-V: This is a long-range intercontinental ballistic missile (ICBM) developed by India. It is not a medium-range cruise missile.

  • BrahMos: This is a supersonic cruise missile jointly developed by India and Russia. It is not a solid-fueled ICBM. BrahMos uses a ramjet engine for sustained supersonic flight after a booster rocket launch.

missile


QUESTION 6

MediumScience & TechnologyPrelims 2023

Aerial metagenomics' best refers to which one of the following situations?

A. Collecting DNA samples from air in a habitat at one go

B. Understanding the genetic makeup of avian species of a habitat

C. Using air-borne devices to collect blood samples from moving animals

D. Sending drones to inaccessible areas to collect plant and animal samples from land surfaces and water bodies

Answer: A

Explanation

 

  • Metagenomics (also referred to as environmental and community genomics) is the genomic analysis of microorganisms by direct extraction and cloning of DNA from an assemblage of microorganisms. It involves:  

    • Isolating DNA from an environmental sample, 

    • Cloning the DNA into a suitable vector, 

    • Transforming the clones into a host bacterium, 

    • And screening the resulting transformants.

  • Such an approach helps in sampling an entire habitat at one go. Researchers have shown that environmental DNA (e-DNA) can potentially identify and monitor terrestrial animals. Animals shed DNA through their breath, saliva, fur, or faeces into the environment. These samples are called e-DNA.

Hence, Statement A is correct.


QUESTION 7

HardScience & TechnologyPrelims 2023

'Microsatellite DNA' is used in the case of which one of the following?

A. Studying the evolutionary relationships among various species of fauna

B. Stimulating 'stem cells' to transform into diverse functional tissues

C. Promoting clonal propagation of horticultural plants

D. Assessing the efficacy of drugs by conducting series of drug trials in a population

Answer: A

Explanation

 

  • Microsatellite DNA, also known as short tandem repeats (STRs), are highly polymorphic DNA sequences that are widely used in the case of studying the evolutionary relationships among various species of fauna. 

  • Microsatellite DNA analysis is a powerful tool for studying genetic diversity, population structure, and evolutionary relationships among different species of animals. 

  • The variations in the number of repeated DNA sequences in microsatellites can provide insights into the genetic similarities and differences between species, which can be used to infer their evolutionary relationships.


QUESTION 8

MediumScience & TechnologyPrelims 2023

Consider the following pairs : Objects in space: Description

  1. Cepheids: Giant clouds of dust and gas in space
  2. Nebulae: Stars which brighten and dim periodically
  3. Pulsars: Neutron stars that are formed when massive stars run out of fuel and collapse

How many of the above pairs are correctly matched?

A. Only one

B. Only two

C. All three

D. None

Answer: A

Explanation

 

  • Cepheids are actually stars that brighten and dim periodically, not giant clouds of dust and gas. 

  • Nebulae are giant clouds of dust and gas in space, not stars that brighten and dim periodically.Thus, the first two pairs are reversed. 

  • Pulsars are rapidly rotating neutron stars that are formed when massive stars exhaust their fuel and collapse. 

  • So out of the 3 pairs given, only 1 pair (pair 3) is correctly matched.


QUESTION 9

HardScience & TechnologyPrelims 2023

Consider the following actions:

  1. Detection of car crash/collision which results in the deployment of airbags almost instantaneously
  2. Detection of accidental free fall of a laptop towards the ground which results in the immediate turning off of the hard drive
  3. Detection of the tilt of the smartphone which results in the rotation of display between portrait and landscape mode

In how many of the above actions is the function of accelerometer required?

A. Only one

B. Only two

C. All three

D. None

Answer: C

Explanation

  • Car Crash Detection and Airbag Deployment: Modern cars use accelerometers as part of a complex system to detect rapid deceleration that can indicate a crash. The accelerometer data, along with other sensors, triggers the airbag deployment almost instantaneously. 

  • Laptop Fall Detection and Hard Drive Shut Off: Some laptops use accelerometers to detect a sudden fall or impact. This can trigger the hard drive heads to retract or park, protecting the drive from potential damage. 

  • Smartphone Tilt Detection and Display Rotation: Accelerometers are widely used in smartphones to detect orientation changes (tilt). This allows the device to automatically switch the display between portrait and landscape mode depending on how you hold the phone. 

  • In all these scenarios, the accelerometer detects changes in acceleration or tilt, which is then used by the system to perform the specific action.

Therefore, all three statements are correct.

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