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UPSC Prelims 2025 Analysis

UPSC Prelims Answer Key

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UPSC Prelims 2025 Analysis

Subject-wise weightage

subjectNumber of questions
Ancient History6
Art & Culture2
Economy18
Environment & Ecology15
Indian Geography1
Indian Polity14
International Relations8
Modern History8
Physical Geography7
Science & Technology13
Social Issues & Schemes3
World Geography5
Grand Total100

Polity: High representation with 14 questions, focusing on constitutional articles, governance, and recent amendments. Analytical abilities were essential to tackle assertion-based and statement-type questions.

Economy: Approximately 18 questions, focusing on conceptual clarity and application based questions and policies. A mix of static concepts from NCERT and dynamic updates was necessary.

Environment & Ecology: 15 questions, with a strong emphasis on climate change, international agreements, international bodies and conservation efforts. Match the following questions played a significant role in this section.

History: 16 questions, balanced between ancient, medieval, and modern. Many questions required a combination of NCERT knowledge and historical maps for better context. Modern history was doable if student is clear with standard resources and timeline.

Geography: 10-13 questions, mostly applied concepts like map-based and environmental geography questions.

Science & Technology: 13 questions, leaning towards application-based knowledge on recent innovations and space technology. Current affairs played vital role.

Current Affairs: 15-18 questions, interwoven with other subjects, often requiring assertion-reasoning skills to connect facts.

Question Count (1).png
Subject-Wise MCQ Distribution in UPSC Prelims 2025

Difficulty-wise breakdown

  • Easy: ~33% of questions were straightforward and could be attempted with basic NCERT knowledge.
  • Moderate: ~35% required analytical abilities, conceptual clarity, and elimination tactics.
  • Difficult: ~32% were tricky, involving multi-layered reasoning or obscure facts.
Difficulty Analysis in UPSC Prelims 2025
Difficulty Analysis in UPSC Prelims 2025

 

Type of questions

Question typeNumber of questions
Direct26
Assertion12
Multi-statement62

 

Youtubz Poster

QUESTION 1

MediumEnvironment & EcologyPrelims 2025

With reference to the planet Earth, consider the following statements:

I. Rain forests produce more oxygen than that produced by oceans. II. Marine phytoplankton and photosynthetic bacteria produce about 50% of world's oxygen. III. Well-oxygenated surface water contains several folds higher oxygen than that in atmospheric air.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

A. I and II

B. II only

C. I and III

D. None of the above statements is correct

Answer: B

Explanation

Oxygen on Earth mainly comes from photosynthesis, especially by phytoplankton (marine organisms), and oxygen levels differ between air and water.

Statement I is incorrect:

  • Oceans (phytoplankton) produce more oxygen than rainforests.

Statement II is correct:

  • Marine phytoplankton and photosynthetic bacteria produce about 50% of the world’s oxygen.

Statement III is incorrect:

  • Atmospheric air has much more oxygen than surface water; water does not contain several folds higher oxygen than air.

So, the correct answer is: B


QUESTION 2

HardEnvironment & EcologyPrelims 2025

Consider the following statements:

Statement I: Article 6 of the Paris Agreement on climate change is frequently discussed in global discussions on sustainable development and climate change.

Statement II: Article 6 of the Paris Agreement on climate change sets out the principles of carbon markets.

Statement III: Article 6 of the Paris Agreement on climate change intends to promote inter-country non-market strategies to reach their climate targets.

Which one of the following is correct in respect of the above statements?

A. Both Statement II and Statement III are correct and both of them explain Statement I

B. Both Statement II and Statement III are correct but only one of them explains Statement I

C. Only one of the Statements II and III is correct and that explains Statement I

D. Neither Statement II nor Statement III is correct

Answer: A

Explanation

Article 6 of the Paris Agreement is crucial as it outlines international cooperation through both carbon markets and non-market approaches to help countries meet climate goals.

Statement I is correct:

  • Article 6 is widely discussed because it enables cooperation through market and non-market means to fight climate change.

Statement II is correct:

  • It defines rules for carbon markets, including carbon trading and credit mechanisms.

Statement III is correct:

  • It also promotes non-market tools like technology transfer and capacity building to reach climate targets.

So, the correct answer is: A


QUESTION 3

HardEnvironment & EcologyPrelims 2025

Consider the following statements:

Statement I: At the 28th United Nations Climate Change Conference (COP28), India refrained from signing the “Declaration on Climate and Health”.

Statement II: The COP28 Declaration on Climate and Health is a binding declaration; and if signed, it becomes mandatory to decarbonize health sector.

Statement III: If India’s health sector is decarbonized, the resilience of its health-care system may be compromised.

Which one of the following is correct in respect of the above statements?

A. Both Statement II and Statement III are correct and both of them explain Statement I

B. Both Statement II and Statement III are correct but only one of them explains Statement I

C. Only one of the Statements II and III is correct and that explains Statement I

D. Neither Statement II nor Statement III is correct

Answer: C

Explanation

At COP28, India chose not to sign the “Declaration on Climate and Health,” and this decision can be understood by analyzing the nature of the declaration and India’s concerns.

Statement I: Correct. India did not sign the COP28 Declaration on Climate and Health, unlike over 120 other countries.

Statement II: Incorrect. The declaration is not legally binding; it is a voluntary political commitment. Signing it does not legally mandate countries to decarbonize their health sectors immediately.

Statement III: Correct. India’s concern is that rapid decarbonization of its health sector could compromise the resilience and accessibility of healthcare services, given current developmental challenges and resource constraints.

Therefore, only Statement III correctly explains Statement I, while Statement II is factually wrong about the binding nature of the declaration.


QUESTION 4

HardEnvironment & EcologyPrelims 2025

Regarding Peacock tarantula (Gooty tarantula), consider the following statements:

I. It is an omnivorous crustacean. II. Its natural habitat in India is only limited to some forest areas. III. In its natural habitat, it is an arboreal species.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

A. I only

B. I and III

C. II only

D. II and III

Answer: D

Explanation

The Peacock tarantula (Gooty tarantula) is a rare, tree-dwelling spider found in limited forest areas in India.

Statement I is incorrect:

  • It is a spider (arachnid), not an omnivorous crustacean.

Statement II is correct:

  • Its habitat is restricted to some forest areas in the Eastern Ghats.

Statement III is correct:

  • It is arboreal, living in trees and tree crevices.

So, the correct answer is: D


QUESTION 5

MediumEnvironment & EcologyPrelims 2025

Which one of the following launched the 'Nature Solutions Finance Hub for Asia and the Pacific'?

A. The Asian Development Bank (ADB)

B. The Asian Infrastructure Investment Bank (AIIB)

C. The New Development Bank (NDB)

D. The International Bank for Reconstruction and Development (IBRD)

Answer: A

Explanation

Nature-based solutions involve using natural processes to tackle climate change and biodiversity loss, often needing dedicated financial support.n ADB launched the Nature Solutions Finance Hub for Asia and the Pacific to fund nature-based solutions for climate and environmental challenges in the region.


QUESTION 6

EasyEnvironment & EcologyPrelims 2025

Artificial way of causing rainfall to reduce air pollution makes use of

A. silver iodide and potassium iodide

B. silver nitrate and potassium iodide

C. silver iodide and potassium nitrate

D. silver nitrate and potassium chloride

Answer: A

Explanation

A. silver iodide and potassium iodide: True Both are used in cloud seeding because their crystalline structures help form ice nuclei, inducing rainfall.

B. silver nitrate and potassium iodide: False Silver nitrate is not used for artificial rainmaking.

C. silver iodide and potassium nitrate: False Potassium nitrate is not used in cloud seeding.

D. silver nitrate and potassium chloride: False Neither chemical is used in artificial rainmaking.

Therefore, option A is correct.


QUESTION 7

HardEnvironment & EcologyPrelims 2025

Consider the following statements:

Statement I: Activated carbon is a good and an attractive tool to remove pollutants from effluent streams and to remediate contaminants from various industries.

Statement II: Activated carbon exhibits a large surface area and a strong potential for adsorbing heavy metals.

Statement III: Activated carbon can be easily synthesized from environmental wastes with high carbon content.

Which one of the following is correct in respect of the above statements?

A. Both Statement II and Statement III are correct and both of them explain Statement I

B. Both Statement II and Statement III are correct but only one of them explains Statement I

C. Only one of the Statements II and III is correct and that explains Statement I

D. Neither Statement II nor Statement III is correct

Answer: A

Explanation

Activated carbon is widely used to clean pollutants because of its unique properties and sustainable production methods.

Statement I: Correct. Activated carbon effectively removes pollutants from industrial effluents due to its high adsorption capacity. It’s commonly used in water treatment and pollution control. ✅Statement II: Correct. This is because activated carbon has an extremely large surface area, created by its porous structure, allowing it to trap heavy metals and other contaminants efficiently. ✅ Statement III: Correct. Moreover, activated carbon can be produced easily and cost-effectively from carbon-rich wastes like coconut shells, rice husks, and other agricultural residues, making it an eco-friendly option.

Thus, both Statement II and Statement III are correct, and together they explain why Statement I is true.


QUESTION 8

HardEnvironment & EcologyPrelims 2025

Consider the following statements:

I. Carbon dioxide (CO₂) emissions in India are less than 0.5 t CO₂/capita. II. In terms of CO₂ emissions from fuel combustion, India ranks second in Asia-Pacific region. III. Electricity and heat producers are the largest sources of CO₂ emissions in India.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

A. I and III only

B. II only

C. II and III only

D. I, II and III

Answer: C

Explanation

India’s CO₂ emissions come mainly from fuel combustion, especially electricity generation, and per capita emissions are higher than 0.5 tonnes.

Statement I is incorrect:

  • India’s per capita CO₂ emissions are around 1.9-2.0 tonnes, higher than 0.5 t CO₂/capita.

Statement II is correct:

  • India ranks second in the Asia-Pacific for total CO₂ emissions from fuel combustion, after China.

Statement III is correct:

  • Electricity and heat production (mainly coal-based) is the largest source of India’s CO₂ emissions.

So, the correct answer is: C


QUESTION 9

EasyEnvironment & EcologyPrelims 2025

Which organization has enacted the Nature Restoration Law (NRL) to tackle climate change and biodiversity loss?

A. The European Union

B. The World Bank

C. The Organization for Economic Cooperation and Development

D. The Food and Agriculture Organization

Answer: A

Explanation

A. The European Union: The Nature Restoration Law (NRL) is an EU legislative initiative adopted in 2024. It sets binding targets to restore ecosystems, fight climate change, and protect biodiversity across EU member states.

B. The World Bank: An international financial institution providing loans and grants; it does not enact laws like the NRL.

C. OECD: An organization promoting economic cooperation and policy coordination; it does not enact binding environmental laws such as the NRL.

D. FAO: A UN agency focused on hunger and agriculture; it does not enact regional laws like the NRL.


QUESTION 10

MediumEnvironment & EcologyPrelims 2025

The World Bank warned that India could become one of the first places where wet-bulb temperatures routinely exceed 35 °C. Which of the following statements best reflect(s) the implication of the above‐said report?

I. Peninsular India will most likely suffer from flooding, tropical cyclones and droughts. II. The survival of animals including humans will be affected as shedding of their body heat through perspiration becomes difficult.

Select the correct answer using the code given below.

A. I only

B. II only

C. Both I and II

D. Neither I nor II

Answer: B

Explanation

Wet-bulb temperature combines heat and humidity. When it exceeds 35°C, the human body can no longer cool itself through sweating, posing a serious threat to survival.

Statement I: Incorrect

  • Though flooding, cyclones, and droughts are valid climate threats, they are not directly related to the World Bank's warning about wet-bulb temperatures.

Statement II: Correct

  • When wet-bulb temperatures cross 35°C, the body cannot release heat, making it fatal for humans and animals.

QUESTION 11

MediumEnvironment & EcologyPrelims 2025

Consider the following:

I. Cigarette butts II. Eyeglass lenses III. Car tyres

How many of them contain plastic?

A. Only one

B. Only two

C. All the three

D. None

Answer: C

Explanation

Many everyday items contain hidden plastics, even if they don’t look like typical plastic products.

  • I. Cigarette butts – Filters are made of cellulose acetate, a form of plastic.
  • II. Eyeglass lenses – Usually made from polycarbonate or CR-39 plastic, not glass.
  • III. Car tyres – Contain synthetic rubber, which includes plastic-based polymers.

All three items contain plastic.


QUESTION 12

EasyEnvironment & EcologyPrelims 2025

Consider the following statements:

Statement I: Circular economy reduces the emissions of greenhouse gases.

Statement II: Circular economy reduces the use of raw materials as inputs.

Statement III: Circular economy reduces wastage in the production process.

Which one of the following is correct in respect of the above statements?

A. Both Statement II and Statement III are correct and both of them explain Statement I

B. Both Statement II and Statement III are correct but only one of them explains Statement I

C. Only one of the Statements II and III is correct and that explains Statement I

D. Neither Statement II nor Statement III is correct

Answer: A

Explanation

A circular economy focuses on minimizing waste, reusing resources, and improving efficiency, all of which help lower greenhouse gas emissions and conserve raw materials.

Statement I: Correct By reducing waste and energy use, the circular economy helps cut greenhouse gas emissions.

Statement II: Correct It reduces the need for raw materials through reuse, recycling, and product life extension.

Statement III: Correct It also lowers production waste using efficient and sustainable design and processes.


QUESTION 13

HardEnvironment & EcologyPrelims 2025

Consider the following statements:

Statement I: Studies indicate that carbon dioxide emissions from cement industry account for more than 5% of global carbon emissions.

Statement II: Silica-bearing clay is mixed with limestone while manufacturing cement.

Statement III: Limestone is converted into lime during clinker production for cement manufacturing.

Which one of the following is correct in respect of the above statements?

A. Both Statement II and Statement III are correct and both of them explain Statement I

B. Both Statement II and Statement III are correct but only one of them explains Statement I

C. Only one of the Statements II and III is correct and that explains Statement I

D. Neither Statement II nor Statement III is correct

Answer: B

Explanation

Cement manufacturing contributes significantly to global carbon emissions, mainly due to the chemical process involved in producing clinker.

Statement I: Cement industry emissions are estimated to be around 5-8% of global CO₂ emissions, making it a major source of greenhouse gases. ✅Statement II: Silica-bearing clay is indeed mixed with limestone during cement making to provide essential minerals like silicon, aluminum, and iron needed for the final product. ✅Statement III: During clinker production, limestone (calcium carbonate) is heated and converted into lime (calcium oxide), releasing CO₂ in the process. This calcination is the main source of carbon emissions in cement manufacturing.

Both Statements II and III are correct, but only Statement III directly explains the source of carbon emissions mentioned in Statement I.


QUESTION 14

HardEnvironment & EcologyPrelims 2025

Consider the following pairs:

Plant – Description I. Cassava : Woody shrub II. Ginger : Herb with pseudostem III. Malabar spinach : Herbaceous climber IV. Mint : Annual shrub V. Papaya : Woody shrub

How many of the above pairs are correctly matched?

A. Only two

B. Only three

C. Only four

D. All the five

Answer: B

Explanation

Plants can be classified based on their growth form — woody shrubs, herbs with pseudostems, climbers, etc.

I. Cassava : Woody shrub — Correct

  • Cassava is a perennial woody shrub.

II. Ginger : Herb with pseudostem — Correct

  • Ginger has a pseudostem made from leaf bases.

III. Malabar spinach : Herbaceous climber — Correct

  • It is a soft-stemmed climbing herb.

IV. Mint : Annual shrub — Incorrect

  • Mint is a perennial herb, not a shrub.

V. Papaya : Woody shrub — Incorrect

  • Papaya is a large herbaceous plant, not woody.

So, the correct answer is: B (Only three)


QUESTION 15

EasyEnvironment & EcologyPrelims 2025

With reference to Direct Air Capture, an emerging technology, which of the following statements is/are correct?

I. It can be used as a way of carbon sequestration. II. It can be a valuable approach for plastic production and in food processing. III. In aviation, it can be a source of carbon for combining with hydrogen to create synthetic low-carbon fuel.

Select the correct answer using the code given below.

A. I and II only

B. III only

C. I, II and III

D. None of the above statements is correct

Answer: C

Explanation

Direct Air Capture (DAC) is a technology that removes CO₂ directly from the air for storage or use in various industries.

Statement I is correct:

  • DAC captures CO₂ for carbon sequestration, reducing greenhouse gases.

Statement II is correct:

  • Captured CO₂ can be used to make plastics and in food processing.

Statement III is correct:

  • DAC provides carbon to make synthetic low-carbon aviation fuels by combining with hydrogen.

So, the correct answer is: C

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