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UPSC Prelims 2025 Analysis

UPSC Prelims Answer Key

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UPSC Prelims 2025 Analysis

Subject-wise weightage

subjectNumber of questions
Ancient History6
Art & Culture2
Economy18
Environment & Ecology15
Indian Geography1
Indian Polity14
International Relations8
Modern History8
Physical Geography7
Science & Technology13
Social Issues & Schemes3
World Geography5
Grand Total100

Polity: High representation with 14 questions, focusing on constitutional articles, governance, and recent amendments. Analytical abilities were essential to tackle assertion-based and statement-type questions.

Economy: Approximately 18 questions, focusing on conceptual clarity and application based questions and policies. A mix of static concepts from NCERT and dynamic updates was necessary.

Environment & Ecology: 15 questions, with a strong emphasis on climate change, international agreements, international bodies and conservation efforts. Match the following questions played a significant role in this section.

History: 16 questions, balanced between ancient, medieval, and modern. Many questions required a combination of NCERT knowledge and historical maps for better context. Modern history was doable if student is clear with standard resources and timeline.

Geography: 10-13 questions, mostly applied concepts like map-based and environmental geography questions.

Science & Technology: 13 questions, leaning towards application-based knowledge on recent innovations and space technology. Current affairs played vital role.

Current Affairs: 15-18 questions, interwoven with other subjects, often requiring assertion-reasoning skills to connect facts.

Question Count (1).png
Subject-Wise MCQ Distribution in UPSC Prelims 2025

Difficulty-wise breakdown

  • Easy: ~33% of questions were straightforward and could be attempted with basic NCERT knowledge.
  • Moderate: ~35% required analytical abilities, conceptual clarity, and elimination tactics.
  • Difficult: ~32% were tricky, involving multi-layered reasoning or obscure facts.
Difficulty Analysis in UPSC Prelims 2025
Difficulty Analysis in UPSC Prelims 2025

 

Type of questions

Question typeNumber of questions
Direct26
Assertion12
Multi-statement62

 

Youtubz Poster

QUESTION 1

EasyEconomyPrelims 2025

Consider the following statements:

I. The Reserve Bank of India mandates all the listed companies in India to submit a Business Responsibility and Sustainability Report (BRSR). II. In India, a company submitting a BRSR makes disclosures in the report that are largely non-financial in nature.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

A. I only

B. II only

C. Both I and II

D. Neither I nor II

Answer: B

Explanation

The Business Responsibility and Sustainability Report (BRSR) is a disclosure framework introduced by SEBI to promote transparency in a company’s non-financial performance, particularly in Environmental, Social, and Governance (ESG) areas.

Statement I: Incorrect

  • SEBI, not the RBI, mandates the submission of BRSR.
  • It applies to the top 1,000 listed companies by market capitalization.

Statement II: Correct

  • BRSR disclosures are mostly non-financial and focus on areas like environment, social responsibility, and governance.

QUESTION 2

HardEconomyPrelims 2025

Consider the following statements:

Statement I: Of the two major ethanol producers in the world, i.e., Brazil and the United States of America, the former produces more ethanol than the latter.

Statement II: Unlike in the United States of America where corn is the principal feedstock for ethanol production, sugarcane is the principal feedstock for ethanol production in Brazil.

Which of the statements given above are correct?

A. Both Statement I and Statement II are correct and Statement II explains Statement I

B. Both Statement I and Statement II are correct but Statement II does not explain Statement I

C. Statement I is correct but Statement II is not correct

D. Statement I is not correct but Statement II is correct

Answer: D

Explanation

Ethanol is a biofuel produced mainly by fermenting sugars found in crops like corn and sugarcane, with the USA and Brazil being the top global producers—each using a different primary feedstock.

Statement I: Incorrect

  • The United States is the largest ethanol producer, not Brazil.

Statement II: Correct

  • USA uses corn; Brazil uses sugarcane as the primary feedstock for ethanol.

QUESTION 3

EasyEconomyPrelims 2025

Consider the following statements:

I. Capital receipts create a liability or cause a reduction in the assets of the Government. II. Borrowings and disinvestment are capital receipts. III. Interest received on loans creates a liability of the Government.

Which of the statements given above are correct?

A. I and II only

B. II and III only

C. I and III only

D. I, II and III

Answer: A

Explanation

Capital receipts involve transactions that either increase liabilities or reduce assets for the government. Revenue receipts, on the other hand, are routine incomes like interest or taxes that don’t affect assets or liabilities.

Statement I: Correct

  • Capital receipts create liabilities (like borrowings) or reduce assets (like disinvestment).

Statement II: Correct

  • Borrowings and disinvestment are both capital receipts.

Statement III: Incorrect

  • Interest received is a revenue receipt, not a capital receipt—it’s income, not a liability.

QUESTION 4

MediumEconomyPrelims 2025

Consider the following statements:

I. India accounts for a very large portion of all equity option contracts traded globally thus exhibiting a great boom. II. India’s stock market has grown rapidly in the recent past even overtaking Hong Kong’s at some point of time. III. There is no regulatory body either to warn the small investors about the risks of options trading or to act on unregistered financial advisors in this regard.

Which of the statements given above are correct?

A. I and II only

B. II and III only

C. I and III only

D. I, II and III

Answer: A

Explanation

India has seen a massive rise in equity options trading and stock market capitalization, but investor protection is actively overseen by SEBI.

Statement I: Correct India leads globally in equity options trading volume, reflecting a major boom in the derivatives market.

Statement II: Correct In early 2024, India's stock market temporarily overtook Hong Kong’s, becoming the 4th largest by market cap.

Statement III: Incorrect India has a regulatory body—SEBI—which issues warnings and acts against unregistered advisors.


QUESTION 5

MediumEconomyPrelims 2025

Consider the following statements:

Statement I: As regards returns from an investment in a company, generally, bondholders are considered to be relatively at lower risk than stockholders.

Statement II: Bondholders are lenders to a company whereas stockholders are its owners.

Statement III: For repayment purpose, bondholders are prioritized over stockholders by a company.

Which one of the following is correct in respect of the above statements?

A. Both Statement II and Statement III are correct and both of them explain Statement I

B. Both Statement I and Statement II are correct and Statement I explains Statement II

C. Only one of the Statements II and III is correct and that explains Statement I

D. Neither Statement II nor Statement III is correct

Answer: A

Explanation

Bonds are debt instruments, while stocks represent ownership. Bondholders earn fixed interest and are repaid before stockholders, making them relatively less risky investors.

Statement I: Correct Bondholders face lower risk as they receive fixed returns and are prioritized during repayment over stockholders.

Statement II: Correct Bondholders are lenders to the company; stockholders are owners.

Statement III: Correct In case of liquidation, companies repay bondholders before stockholders.


QUESTION 6

MediumEconomyPrelims 2025

Consider the following statements:

I. India has joined the Minerals Security Partnership as a member. II. India is a resource-rich country in all the 30 critical minerals that it has identified. III. The Parliament in 2023 has amended the Mines and Minerals (Development and Regulation) Act, 1957 empowering the Central Government to exclusively auction mining lease and composite license for certain critical minerals.

Which of the statements given above are correct?

A. I and II only

B. II and III only

C. I and III only

D. I, II and III

Answer: C

Explanation

Critical minerals are essential for modern technologies and clean energy, but many countries, including India, depend on imports for several of them. To strengthen supply chains, India has joined international partnerships and reformed mining laws.

Statement I: Correct India joined the Minerals Security Partnership (MSP) in 2023 to ensure reliable access to critical minerals.

Statement II: Incorrect India is not resource-rich in all 30 critical minerals it has identified and remains import-dependent for several, like cobalt and nickel.

Statement III: Correct In 2023, Parliament amended the Mines and Minerals Act, giving the Central Government power to auction leases for critical minerals.


QUESTION 7

HardEconomyPrelims 2025

Which of the following statements with regard to recommendations of the 15th Finance Commission of India are correct?

I. It has recommended grants of ₹4,800 crores from the year 2022–23 to the year 2025–26 for incentivizing States to enhance educational outcomes. II. 45% of the net proceeds of Union taxes are to be shared with States. III. ₹45,000 crores are to be kept as performance-based incentive for all States for carrying out agricultural reforms. IV. It reintroduced tax effort criteria to reward fiscal performance.

Select the correct answer using the code given below.

A. I, II and III

B. I, II and IV

C. I, III and IV

D. II, III and IV

Answer: C

Explanation

The 15th Finance Commission made recommendations to promote better fiscal discipline, education, and agriculture reforms, while adjusting tax devolution among states.

Statement I: Correct 4,800 crores were recommended (2022–23 to 2025–26) to incentivize states for improving educational outcomes.

Statement II: Incorrect The Commission recommended 41% of Union taxes to be shared with states, not 45%.

Statement III: Correct

  • It proposed a ₹45,000 crore performance-based incentive for states to implement agricultural reforms.

Statement IV: Correct It reintroduced the 'tax effort' criterion, rewarding states that better mobilize revenue in relation to their GSDP.


QUESTION 8

MediumEconomyPrelims 2025

Which of the following are the sources of income for the Reserve Bank of India?

I. Buying and selling Government bonds II. Buying and selling foreign currency III. Pension fund management IV. Lending to private companies V. Printing and distributing currency notes

Select the correct answer using the code given below.

A. I and II only

B. II, III and IV

C. I, III, IV and V

D. I, II and V

Answer: D

Explanation

The Reserve Bank of India earns income through financial operations such as managing government securities, foreign exchange, and issuing currency. It does not operate like a commercial bank or a pension fund manager.

Statement I: Correct Buying and selling Government bonds through Open Market Operations earns the RBI interest and trading profits.

Statement II: Correct Forex operations and investment of foreign exchange reserves generate income for the RBI.

Statement III: Incorrect RBI does not manage pension funds; that is done by entities like PFRDA.

Statement IV: Incorrect RBI does not lend directly to private companies; it lends to banks, which in turn lend to companies.

Statement V: Correct

  • Printing and distributing currency notes* yields income through seigniorage—the profit from face value minus production cost.

QUESTION 9

HardEconomyPrelims 2025

A country’s fiscal deficit stands at ₹50,000 crores. It is receiving ₹10,000 crores through non-debt creating capital receipts. The country’s interest liabilities are ₹1,500 crores. What is the gross primary deficit?

A. ₹48,500 crores

B. ₹51,500 crores

C. ₹58,500 crores

D. None of the above

Answer: A

Explanation

Fiscal Deficit represents the government's total borrowing requirement, while the Primary Deficit shows how much the government is borrowing excluding interest payments on past debt.

Formula: Primary Deficit = Fiscal Deficit − Interest Payments

Given:

  • Fiscal Deficit = ₹50,000 crores
  • Interest Liabilities = ₹1,500 crores
  • Non-debt capital receipts are already factored into the fiscal deficit, so no need to adjust further.

Calculation: Primary Deficit = ₹50,000 − ₹1,500 = ₹48,500 crores


QUESTION 10

HardEconomyPrelims 2025

Consider the following statements about turmeric during the year 2022–23:

I. India is the largest producer and exporter of turmeric in the world. II. More than 30 varieties of turmeric are grown in India. III. Maharashtra, Telangana, Karnataka and Tamil Nadu are major turmeric producing States in India.

Which of the statements given above are correct?

A. I and II only

B. II and III only

C. I and III only

D. I, II and III

Answer: D

Explanation

Statement I: Correct India produces about 80% of the world’s turmeric and exports around 65% globally.

Statement II: Correct India grows over 30 turmeric varieties like Alleppey Finger, Erode, Sangli, Salem, Nizamabad, and Rajapore.

Statement III: Correct Major producing states include Telangana (largest), Maharashtra, Tamil Nadu, and Karnataka.

Correct Answer: (D) All statements are correct.


QUESTION 11

MediumEconomyPrelims 2025

Consider the following statements:

Statement I: In India, income from allied agricultural activities like poultry farming and wool rearing in rural areas is exempted from any tax.

Statement II: In India, rural agricultural land is not considered a capital asset under the provisions of the Income-tax Act, 1961.

Which one of the following is correct in respect of the above statements?

A. Both Statement I and Statement II are correct and Statement II explains Statement I

B. Both Statement I and Statement II are correct but Statement II does not explain Statement I

C. Statement I is correct but Statement II is not correct

D. Statement I is not correct but Statement II is correct

Answer: D

Explanation

Income from agriculture is tax-exempt in India, but only core agricultural activities like cultivation qualify. Allied activities such as poultry or dairy are taxable. Also, certain types of land are excluded from capital asset classification under tax law.

Statement I: Incorrect Allied agricultural activities like poultry farming and wool rearing are not tax-exempt under the Income-tax Act, 1961.

Statement II: Correct Rural agricultural land is not treated as a capital asset under Section 2(14), so capital gains tax does not apply on its sale.


QUESTION 12

HardEconomyPrelims 2025

With reference to India, consider the following pairs:

Organization                              Union Ministry                                  
I. The National Automotive Board            Ministry of Commerce and Industry               
II. The Coir Board                            Ministry of Heavy Industries                    
III. The National Centre for Trade InformationMinistry of Micro, Small and Medium Enterprises

How many of the above pairs are correctly matched?

A. Only one

B. Only two

C. All the three

D. None

Answer: D

Explanation

Pair I: The National Automotive Board – Ministry of Commerce and Industry

  • Incorrect. It functions under the Ministry of Heavy Industries, not Commerce and Industry.

Pair II: The Coir Board – Ministry of Heavy Industries

  • Incorrect. The Coir Board is under the Ministry of Micro, Small and Medium Enterprises.

Pair III: National Centre for Trade Information – Ministry of MSME

  • Incorrect. NCTI is linked to the Ministry of Commerce and Industry, not MSME.

QUESTION 13

HardEconomyPrelims 2025

Consider the following activities:

I. Production of crude oil II. Refining, storage and distribution of petroleum products III. Marketing and sale of petroleum products IV. Production of natural gas

How many of the above activities are regulated by the Petroleum and Natural Gas Regulatory Board in our country?

A. Only one

B. Only two

C. Only three

D. All the four

Answer: B

Explanation

The Petroleum and Natural Gas Regulatory Board (PNGRB) regulates downstream activities like storage, distribution, and marketing—not upstream activities like production.

I. Production of crude oil – Not regulated

  • This is an upstream activity regulated by the Ministry of Petroleum & Natural Gas and Directorate General of Hydrocarbons (DGH), not PNGRB.

II. Refining, storage and distribution – Partially regulated

  • Storage and distribution are regulated by PNGRB.
  • Refining is generally not directly regulated, though PNGRB may set standards affecting it.

III. Marketing and sale of petroleum products – Regulated

  • PNGRB authorizes entities to market notified petroleum products and natural gas.

IV. Production of natural gas – Not regulated

  • Like crude oil, it’s an upstream activity, not under PNGRB.

QUESTION 14

HardEconomyPrelims 2025

Suppose the revenue expenditure is ₹80,000 crores and the revenue receipts of the Government are ₹60,000 crores. The Government budget also shows borrowings of ₹10,000 crores and interest payments of ₹6,000 crores. Which of the following statements are correct?

I. Revenue deficit is ₹20,000 crores. II. Fiscal deficit is ₹10,000 crores. III. Primary deficit is ₹4,000 crores.

Select the correct answer using the code given below.

A. I and II only

B. II and III only

C. I and III only

D. I, II and III

Answer: D

Explanation

Revenue Deficit, Fiscal Deficit, and Primary Deficit are key indicators used to assess a government's financial health.

I. Revenue Deficit = ₹20,000 crores – Correct

  • Definition: Revenue Deficit = Revenue Expenditure − Revenue Receipts
  • Calculation: ₹80,000 crores − ₹60,000 crores = ₹20,000 crores

II. Fiscal Deficit = ₹10,000 crores – Correct

  • Definition: Fiscal Deficit = Total Expenditure − Total Receipts (excluding borrowings)
  • Alternatively, it reflects total borrowings needed to meet the gap
  • Given: Borrowings = ₹10,000 crores ⇒ Fiscal Deficit = ₹10,000 crores

III. Primary Deficit = ₹4,000 crores – Correct

  • Definition: Primary Deficit = Fiscal Deficit − Interest Payments
  • Calculation: ₹10,000 crores − ₹6,000 crores = ₹4,000 crores

QUESTION 15

MediumEconomyPrelims 2025

Consider the following countries:

I. United Arab Emirates II. France III. Germany IV. Singapore V. Bangladesh

How many countries amongst the above are there other than India where international merchant payments are accepted under UPI?

A. Only two

B. Only three

C. Only four

D. All the five

Answer: B

Explanation

Unified Payments Interface (UPI) is expanding internationally, but only a few countries currently support international merchant payments under UPI.

I. United Arab Emirates – Correct

  • UPI is accepted at select merchants in the UAE via NPCI partnerships.

II. France – Correct

  • France allows UPI merchant payments at select tourist locations, like the Eiffel Tower.

III. Germany – Incorrect

  • No official rollout of UPI for merchant payments in Germany as of now.

IV. Singapore – Correct

  • UPI is live for both P2P remittances and merchant payments in Singapore.

V. Bangladesh – Incorrect

  • UPI is not yet operational for merchant payments in Bangladesh.

International merchant payments are accepted under UPI in seven countries outside of India: Bhutan, France, Mauritius, Nepal, Singapore, Sri Lanka, and the UAE.


QUESTION 16

MediumEconomyPrelims 2025

Consider the following statements in respect of the International Bank for Reconstruction and Development (IBRD):

I. It provides loans and guarantees to middle income countries. II. It works single-handedly to help developing countries to reduce poverty. III. It was established to help Europe rebuild after the World War II.

Which of the statements given above are correct?

A. I and II only

B. II and III only

C. I and III only

D. I, II and III

Answer: C

Explanation

The International Bank for Reconstruction and Development (IBRD) is a key arm of the World Bank Group, originally created for post-war reconstruction and now focused on development in middle-income nations.

Statement I: Correct The IBRD provides loans and guarantees to middle-income and creditworthy low-income countries.

Statement II: Incorrect The IBRD does not work single-handedly; it collaborates with other arms of the World Bank Group like IDA, IFC, etc.

Statement III: Correct It was established in 1944 to help Europe rebuild after World War II.


QUESTION 17

HardEconomyPrelims 2025

With reference to investments, consider the following:

I. Bonds II. Hedge Funds III. Stocks IV. Venture Capital

How many of the above are treated as Alternative Investment Funds?

A. Only one

B. Only two

C. Only three

D. All the four

Answer: B

Explanation

Alternative Investment Funds (AIFs) are privately pooled investment vehicles that invest in assets beyond traditional options like stocks and bonds. In India, SEBI classifies AIFs into three categories, including hedge funds and venture capital funds.

Statement I: Incorrect

  • Bonds are traditional debt instruments and not classified as AIFs.

Statement II: Correct

  • Hedge Funds fall under Category III AIFs as per SEBI regulations.

Statement III: Incorrect

  • Stocks are conventional equity investments, not treated as AIFs.

Statement IV: Correct

  • Venture Capital is a form of Category I AIF in India.

QUESTION 18

MediumEconomyPrelims 2025

Consider the following statements in respect of RTGS and NEFT:

I. In RTGS, the settlement time is instantaneous while in case of NEFT, it takes some time to settle payments. II. In RTGS, the customer is charged for inward transactions while that is not the case for NEFT. III. Operating hours for RTGS are restricted on certain days while this is not true for NEFT.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

A. I only

B. I and II

C. I and III

D. III only

Answer: A

Explanation

RTGS (Real Time Gross Settlement) and NEFT (National Electronic Funds Transfer) are two major electronic payment systems in India, differing mainly in settlement speed and mechanism.

Statement I: Correct RTGS processes transactions instantly in real time, while NEFT settles in hourly batches, causing a time lag.

Statement II: Incorrect Inward transactions (receiving money) are not charged in either RTGS or NEFT as per RBI guidelines.

Statement III: Incorrect Both RTGS and NEFT are available 24x7x365, including on holidays.

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