UPSC Prelims 2025 Analysis

Explanation

❌ Statement I: Incorrect Lokpal’s jurisdiction includes all Indian public servants, even those posted abroad.

❌ Statement II: Incorrect Chairperson need not be only the CJI; former judges or eminent persons with 25+ years’ expertise can also be appointed.

✅ Statement III: Correct Minimum age to be Chairperson or Member is 45 years.

❌ Statement IV: Incorrect Lokpal can inquire against a sitting PM, but with safeguards and restrictions in sensitive areas.

Therefore, only Statement III is correct.

Explanation

Among the listed bodies, only the Inter-State Council is established by the Constitution of India. The others are based on statutory or executive provisions.

✅ I. Inter-State Council – Correct

• Established under Article 263 of the Constitution to facilitate Centre-State coordination.

❌ II. National Security Council – Incorrect

• Formed in 1998 by an executive order, not mentioned in the Constitution.

❌ III. Zonal Councils – Incorrect

• Established under the States Reorganisation Act, 1956, a statutory but non-constitutional body.

Explanation

An Ordinance is a temporary law issued by the President (Article 123) or Governor (Article 213) when the legislature is not in session. It holds the same force as a regular law, but must adhere to constitutional limits.

✅ Statement I: Correct

• An Ordinance can amend any Central Act, just like a Parliamentary law, subject to constitutional provisions.

❌ Statement II: Incorrect

• Ordinances cannot abridge Fundamental Rights as per Article 13(2) of the Constitution. Any such provision is void.

✅ Statement III: Correct

• Ordinances can be given retrospective effect, i.e., they can be enforced from a past date.

Explanation

The Indian Constitution provides legal immunities and privileges to ensure the independent functioning of constitutional offices and legislative bodies.

✅ Statement I: Correct

• As per Article 361(1), the Governor is not answerable to any court for actions taken in the course of their official duties.

✅ Statement II: Correct

• Article 361(2) states that no criminal proceedings can be initiated or continued against a Governor during their term.

✅ Statement III: Correct

• Article 194(2) grants immunity to State Legislators for anything said or any vote given within the House or its committees.

Explanation

❌ Statement I: Incorrect The decision on disqualification under the Tenth Schedule is made by the Speaker or Chairman, not the President or the Union Council of Ministers.

❌ Statement II: Incorrect The word ‘political party’ is explicitly mentioned in the Tenth Schedule of the Constitution.

Therefore, neither statement is correct.

Explanation

❌ Statement I: Incorrect Regulation of minor minerals is mainly a State subject under the MMDR Act, 1957. States have the authority to make rules for extraction concessions.

✅ Statement II: Correct The Central Government notifies which minerals are classified as 'minor minerals' under the MMDR Act.

Therefore, Statement I is incorrect, and Statement II is correct.

Explanation

✅ Statement I: Correct The Speaker of Lok Sabha continues in office even after dissolution until just before the new House meets, ensuring continuity (Article 94).

❌ Statement II: Incorrect No constitutional mandate requires the Speaker to resign from their political party; this is only a convention for impartiality.

✅ Statement III: Correct The Speaker can be removed by a majority resolution with at least 14 days' prior notice (Article 94).

Therefore, statements I and III are correct.

Explanation

Each of these constitutional provisions is accurately linked to its correct part within the Constitution of India.

✅ Pair I: Directive Principles of State Policy – Correct

• Article 50 mandates the separation of the judiciary from the executive in the public services of the State.

✅ Pair II: Fundamental Duties – Correct

• Article 51A(f) states that citizens must value and preserve the rich heritage of our composite culture.

✅ Pair III: Fundamental Rights – Correct

• Article 24 prohibits the employment of children below 14 years in hazardous work such as factories or mines.

Explanation

The question relates to the correct mapping of key investigative and analytical bodies under the Government of India and their parent ministries or departments.

❌ Row I: Incorrect The Directorate of Enforcement does implement the Fugitive Economic Offenders Act, 2018, but it functions under the Department of Revenue, Ministry of Finance, not the Ministry of Home Affairs.

✅ Row II: Correct The Directorate of Revenue Intelligence (DRI) enforces the Customs Act, 1962 and works under the Department of Revenue, Ministry of Finance.

✅ Row III: Correct The Directorate General of Systems and Data Management aids in big data analytics for tax enforcement and operates under the Department of Revenue, Ministry of Finance.

Explanation

❌ Statement I: Incorrect Intermediate-level Panchayats are not mandatory in all states; states with population under 20 lakhs may skip this tier.

❌ Statement II: Incorrect Minimum age to be a Panchayat member is 21 years, not 30.

❌ Statement III: Incorrect State Finance Commission is constituted by the Governor, not the Chief Minister.

Correct Answer: All three statements are incorrect.

Explanation

The Constitution outlines specific roles where the Governor can act at his/her own discretion, but it does not allow the President to unilaterally intervene in State legislation without the Governor's involvement.

✅ Statement I: Correct

• The Governor can act in discretion in certain cases (e.g., reserving a bill for the President under Article 200, or appointing a CM in a hung assembly).
• Article 163(2) makes the Governor’s discretion final in such matters.

❌ Statement II: Incorrect

• The President cannot suo motu reserve a State bill. Only the Governor can do this under Article 200.

Explanation

Under Article 368(2) of the Constitution, certain amendments require ratification by at least half of the State Legislatures, particularly those affecting the federal structure.

✅ I. Union List in the Seventh Schedule – Correct

• Any change to the Union List alters the federal balance and requires State ratification.

✅ II. Extent of executive power of a State – Correct

• This impacts the distribution of power between Centre and States, so it also requires ratification.

❌ III. Conditions of the Governor’s office – Incorrect

• Changes to the Governor’s conditions of service do not require ratification by States.

Explanation

When an area is declared a Scheduled Area under the Fifth Schedule of the Constitution, it continues to be administered by the State Government, but with special powers granted to the Governor for tribal welfare.

❌ Statement I: Incorrect The State Government does not lose its executive powers. There is no provision for a local body to take over full administration.

❌ Statement II: Incorrect The Union Government cannot take over total administration of Scheduled Areas under the Fifth Schedule, even on the Governor’s recommendation.

Explanation

✅ Statement I: Correct The President’s pardoning power can be judicially reviewed on limited grounds like mala fide or arbitrariness, so it’s not absolute.

❌ Statement II: Incorrect The President must act on the advice of the Council of Ministers and cannot exercise the pardoning power independently.

Therefore, only Statement I is correct.