UPSC Prelims 2025 Analysis
UPSC Prelims Answer Key
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UPSC Prelims 2025 Analysis
Subject-wise weightage
subject | Number of questions |
---|---|
Ancient History | 6 |
Art & Culture | 2 |
Economy | 18 |
Environment & Ecology | 15 |
Indian Geography | 1 |
Indian Polity | 14 |
International Relations | 8 |
Modern History | 8 |
Physical Geography | 7 |
Science & Technology | 13 |
Social Issues & Schemes | 3 |
World Geography | 5 |
Grand Total | 100 |
Polity: High representation with 14 questions, focusing on constitutional articles, governance, and recent amendments. Analytical abilities were essential to tackle assertion-based and statement-type questions.
Economy: Approximately 18 questions, focusing on conceptual clarity and application based questions and policies. A mix of static concepts from NCERT and dynamic updates was necessary.
Environment & Ecology: 15 questions, with a strong emphasis on climate change, international agreements, international bodies and conservation efforts. Match the following questions played a significant role in this section.
History: 16 questions, balanced between ancient, medieval, and modern. Many questions required a combination of NCERT knowledge and historical maps for better context. Modern history was doable if student is clear with standard resources and timeline.
Geography: 10-13 questions, mostly applied concepts like map-based and environmental geography questions.
Science & Technology: 13 questions, leaning towards application-based knowledge on recent innovations and space technology. Current affairs played vital role.
Current Affairs: 15-18 questions, interwoven with other subjects, often requiring assertion-reasoning skills to connect facts.

Difficulty-wise breakdown
- Easy: ~33% of questions were straightforward and could be attempted with basic NCERT knowledge.
- Moderate: ~35% required analytical abilities, conceptual clarity, and elimination tactics.
- Difficult: ~32% were tricky, involving multi-layered reasoning or obscure facts.

Type of questions
Question type | Number of questions |
---|---|
Direct | 26 |
Assertion | 12 |
Multi-statement | 62 |

Subject-Wise Answer Key
QUESTION 1
Consider the following statements:
I. Without the atmosphere, temperature would be well below freezing point everywhere on the Earth's surface. II. Heat absorbed and trapped by the atmosphere maintains our planet's average temperature. III. Atmosphere's gases, like carbon dioxide, are particularly good at absorbing and trapping radiation.
Which of the statements given above are correct?
A. I and III only
B. I and II only
C. I, II and III
D. II and III only
QUESTION 2
Consider the following pairs:
State – Description I. Arunachal Pradesh : The capital is named after a fort, and the State has two National Parks. II. Nagaland : The State came into existence on the basis of a Constitutional Amendment Act. III. Tripura : Initially a Part 'C' State, it became a centrally administered territory with the reorganization of States in 1956 and later attained the status of a full-fledged State.
How many of the above pairs are correctly matched?
A. Only one
B. Only two
C. All the three
D. None
QUESTION 3
Which of the following are the evidences of the phenomenon of continental drift?
I. The belt of ancient rocks from Brazil coast matches with those from Western Africa. II. The gold deposits of Ghana are derived from the Brazil plateau when the two continents lay side by side. III. The Gondwana system of sediments from India is known to have its counterparts in six different landmasses of the Southern Hemisphere.
Select the correct answer using the code given below.
A. I and III only
B. I and II only
C. I, II and III
D. II and III only
QUESTION 4
Consider the following water bodies:
I. Lake Tanganyika II. Lake Tonlé Sap III. Patos Lagoon
Through how many of them does the equator pass?
A. Only one
B. Only two
C. All the three
D. None
QUESTION 5
Consider the following statements:
Statement I: Scientific studies suggest that a shift is taking place in the Earth’s rotation and axis.
Statement II: Solar flares and associated coronal mass ejections bombarded the Earth’s outermost atmosphere with tremendous amount of energy.
Statement III: As the Earth’s polar ice melts, the water tends to move towards the equator.
Which one of the following is correct in respect of the above statements?
A. Both Statement II and Statement III are correct and both of them explain Statement I
B. Both Statement II and Statement III are correct but only one of them explains Statement I
C. Only one of the Statements II and III is correct and that explains Statement I
D. Neither Statement II nor Statement III is correct
QUESTION 6
Consider the following pairs:
Country – Resource-rich in I. Botswana : Diamond II. Chile : Lithium III. Indonesia : Nickel
In how many of the above rows is the given information correctly matched?
A. Only one
B. Only two
C. All the three
D. None
QUESTION 7
Consider the following pairs:
Region – Country I. Mallorca : Italy II. Normandy : Spain III. Sardinia : France
In how many of the above rows is the given information correctly matched?
A. Only one
B. Only two
C. All the three
D. None
QUESTION 8
Consider the following statements:
I. Anadyr in Siberia and Nome in Alaska are a few kilometers from each other, but when people are waking up and getting set for breakfast in these cities, it would be different days. II. When it is Monday in Anadyr, it is Tuesday in Nome.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
A. I only
B. II only
C. Both I and II
D. Neither I nor II
QUESTION 9
Consider the following statements:
Statement I: In the context of effect of water on rocks, chalk is known as a very permeable rock whereas clay is known as quite an impermeable or least permeable rock.
Statement II: Chalk is porous and hence can absorb water.
Statement III: Clay is not at all porous.
Which one of the following is correct in respect of the above statements?
A. Both Statement II and Statement III are correct and both of them explain Statement I
B. Both Statement II and Statement III are correct but only one of them explains Statement I
C. Only one of the Statements II and III is correct and that explains Statement I
D. Neither Statement II nor Statement III is correct
QUESTION 10
Consider the following countries:
I. United Kingdom II. Denmark III. New Zealand IV. Australia V. Brazil
How many of the above countries have more than four time zones?
A. All the five
B. Only four
C. Only three
D. Only two
QUESTION 11
Consider the following statements:
Statement I: In January, in the Northern Hemisphere, the isotherms bend equatorward while crossing the landmasses, and poleward while crossing the oceans.
Statement II: In January, the air over the oceans is warmer than that over the landmasses in the Northern Hemisphere.
Which one of the following is correct in respect of the above statements?
A. Both Statement I and Statement II are correct and Statement II explains Statement I
B. Both Statement I and Statement II are correct but Statement II does not explain Statement I
C. Statement I is correct but Statement II is not correct
D. Statement I is not correct but Statement II is correct
QUESTION 12
Consider the following statements:
Statement I: The amount of dust particles in the atmosphere is more in subtropical and temperate areas than in equatorial and polar regions.
Statement II: Subtropical and temperate areas have less dry winds.
Which one of the following is correct in respect of the above statements?
A. Both Statement I and Statement II are correct and Statement II explains Statement I
B. Both Statement I and Statement II are correct but Statement II does not explain Statement I
C. Statement I is correct but Statement II is not correct
D. Statement I is not correct but Statement II is correct
QUESTION 13
Consider the following countries:
I. Bolivia II. Brazil III. Colombia IV. Ecuador V. Paraguay VI. Venezuela
Andes mountains pass through how many of the above countries?
A. Only two
B. Only three
C. Only four
D. Only five