UPSC Prelims 2026 · GS PaperSet A Answer Key

Correct options and explanations for GS Paper Set A, organized by subject for fast review.

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Q3Ancient History

Consider the following statements :

I. Pali texts contain the first definite references to coins, e.g., kahapana, nikkha, kamsa, and kakanika. II. The literary evidence from Pali texts is corroborated by archaeological evidence of punch-marked coins from many sites, most of them made of silver.

The above statements have been associated with which of the following ?

  1. Emergence of urban life
  2. Transition to money economy

Select the answer using the code given below :

A

1 only

B

2 only

C

Both 1 and 2

D

Neither 1 nor 2

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Explanation

The introduction of coinage in ancient India, as evidenced by Pali texts and archaeological finds of punch-marked coins, is a hallmark of the 6th century BCE. This period is associated with two major socio-economic developments:

1. Emergence of urban life: The widespread use of metallic money is a defining feature of the Second Urbanization in the Gangetic valley. The rise of the Mahajanapadas was accompanied by the growth of fortified cities (nagaras), organized artisan guilds, and long-distance trade along routes like the Uttarapatha, all of which were facilitated by the use of coins.

2. Transition to money economy: The introduction of specific coin denominations like kahapana, nikkha, kamsa, and kakanika marked a definitive shift from a purely barter-based system to a money economy. This transition allowed for standardized pricing, wage payments, and the emergence of complex economic practices such as money-lending (usury), which are extensively documented in early Buddhist literature.

Therefore, the given statements are associated with both the emergence of urban life and the transition to a money economy.

Therefore, the correct option is C.

Q4Art & Culture

Which of the following temples has/have a Nagara-style shikhara ?

  1. Malegitti Shivalaya, Badami
  2. Huchimalligudi Temple, Aihole
  3. Dashavatara Temple, Deogarh
  4. Virupaksha Temple, Pattadakal

Select the answer using the code given below :

A

1 and 2

B

2 and 3

C

3 only

D

3 and 4

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Explanation

Statement 1 is Incorrect: The Malegitti Shivalaya in Badami, built by the Early Chalukyas in the late 7th century CE, is a classic Dravida-style temple. Its shikhara is octagonal and features typical southern architectural elements (such as kutas and shalas), rather than a Nagara spire.

Statement 2 is Correct: The Huchimalligudi Temple in Aihole is an Early Chalukyan structure that demonstrates early architectural experimentation. It features a distinct curvilinear Nagara-style shikhara (Rekha-prasada type) over its square sanctum.

Statement 3 is Correct: The Dashavatara Temple in Deogarh is a Gupta-period monument (approx. 6th century CE) built in the Panchayatana layout. It is widely recognized as one of the earliest surviving structural temples in North India to feature a Nagara-style pyramidal shikhara.

Statement 4 is Incorrect: The Virupaksha Temple in Pattadakal was built around 740 CE by Queen Lokamahadevi to commemorate a victory over the Pallavas. It is the grandest temple at the Pattadakal UNESCO site and is built strictly in the Dravida style. It features a tiered, pyramidal southern vimana (shikhara), heavily influenced by the Kailasanatha temple in Kanchipuram.

Therefore, option B is the correct answer.

Q5Art & Culture

Among the four main forms of existence of life recognized in Jainism, which one of the following is not included ?

A

Deva (gods)

B

Yaksha (demi-gods)

C

Manushya (humans)

D

Tiryancha (animals and plants)

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Explanation

In Jainism, the soul transmigrates through the cycle of birth and death (Samsara) based on its karmas. Upon death, a soul is reborn into one of four main destinies or states of existence, known as the Four Gatis. These four forms of existence are:

  1. Manushya Gati (Humans): The most desirable state, as it is the only form of existence from which a soul can practice the necessary spiritual discipline to attain ultimate liberation (Moksha).
  2. Deva Gati (Heavenly beings / Gods): A state of immense pleasure and bliss resulting from good karmas, though it is not permanent.
  3. Tiryancha Gati (Animals, plants, and micro-organisms): A lower form of life resulting from moderate negative karmas, characterized by limited ability to practice spirituality.
  4. Naraki Gati (Infernal / Hell beings): A state of immense suffering in hellish realms due to heavy negative karmas.

Yaksha (male demi-gods) and Yakshinis (female demi-gods) are prominent in Jain cosmology, typically serving as attendant guardian deities (Shasan Devatas) to the Tirthankaras. However, they do not constitute one of the four primary Gatis. Instead, they are classified as Vyantar Devas (intermediary or wandering celestial beings), which makes them a sub-category within the broader Deva Gati.

Therefore, Yaksha is not included among the four main forms of existence of life recognized in Jainism.

Q8Ancient History

Consider the following statements about the archaeological findings in Harappan towns :

I. There is wide occurrence of spindle-whorls in the houses but absence of spinning wheels. II. Weights and measurement scales, complete with graduations have been discovered. III. There are houses built in large part with baked bricks, around relatively spacious courtyards, with their own wells, bathing platforms, and large rooms.

Which of the following inferences can be drawn from the above statements ?

  1. Statement I suggests that spinning was a laborious activity done at home.
  2. Statement II suggests the extent of the scientific knowledge that the Harappans possessed.
  3. Statement III suggests the emergence of a common property system.

Select the answer using the code given below :

A

1 and 2 only

B

2 and 3 only

C

1 and 3 only

D

1, 2 and 3

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Explanation

Inference 1 is Correct: The wide occurrence of spindle-whorls in Harappan households indicates that spinning was a common domestic activity. The absence of the spinning wheel (which was introduced to India much later during the medieval period) meant that Harappans relied on hand-spinning using drop spindles, which is a highly manual and laborious process.

Inference 2 is Correct: The discovery of highly standardized cubical chert weights and graduated measurement scales (such as the ivory scale at Lothal and shell scale at Mohenjo-Daro) reflects the advanced mathematical, metrological, and scientific knowledge possessed by the Harappans for trade, architecture, and construction.

Inference 3 is Incorrect: The presence of distinct, self-contained houses built with baked bricks, featuring their own private wells, bathing platforms, and large rooms, points toward a private property system and social stratification. A common property system would instead be characterized by shared, communal living spaces and collective ownership of resources.

Therefore, option A is the correct answer.

Q9Modern History

Which one of the following statements about the Eka Movement and Bardoli Satyagraha is correct ?

A

The Eka Movement was throughout supported and organized by the Congress while Bardoli Satyagraha was initially independent of Congress influence and was only in the last stages supported by the Congress.

B

The Eka Movement was provided leadership by the taluqdars of Awadh, whereas the Bardoli Satyagraha was a movement of the landless labourers.

C

The Bardoli Satyagraha was a campaign against the enhancement of land revenue, while the Eka Movement was a protest against excessive extraction of rents.

D

The Eka Movement was located in the Varanasi and Mirzapur districts of the present-day U.P., while the Bardoli Satyagraha took place in Saurashtra.

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Explanation

Option A is Incorrect: The Eka Movement was initially supported by Congress and Khilafat leaders, but the Congress withdrew its support when the movement adopted militant tactics under the leadership of Madari Pasi. Conversely, the Bardoli Satyagraha was deeply integrated with Congress leadership from its inception and was spearheaded by Sardar Vallabhbhai Patel.

Option B is Incorrect: The Eka Movement was a grassroots peasant movement directed against oppressive taluqdars and zamindars, led by Madari Pasi, a low-caste peasant leader. The Bardoli Satyagraha was primarily a movement of landowning peasants (such as the Patidars) facing economic hardship, rather than a movement of landless labourers.

Option C is Correct: The Bardoli Satyagraha (1928) was a direct campaign against an arbitrary 22% enhancement of land revenue by the British Bombay Presidency government. The Eka Movement (1921–1922) was primarily a protest against the excessive and illegal extraction of rents (often exceeding 50% of the recorded rent) and the oppression by thekedars (contractors) and landlords.

Option D is Incorrect: The Eka Movement took place in the Awadh region of the United Provinces, specifically in districts like Hardoi, Bahraich, Barabanki, Sitapur, and Lucknow, not Varanasi or Mirzapur. The Bardoli Satyagraha occurred in the Bardoli taluka of the Surat district in Gujarat, not Saurashtra.

Therefore, Option C is the correct answer.

Q10Ancient History

Consider the following statements about the Rigvedic period :

I. Irrigation from wells allowed agriculture to expand away from flood plains and strips on river margins into the present Punjab and Haryana plains having underground water levels reasonably close to the surface. II. Draught-animal power was employed to draw up water out of the wells.

Which of the following information support/supports the above statements ?

  1. There is evidence in the Rigveda of the use of ashma chakra (stone pulley wheel) and ahava (strapped wooden pails) to draw up water.
  2. Mention has been made in the Rigveda of the use of implements like parashu / kulisha (axe) and datra / sreni (sickle).
  3. There is a history of the use of ox, even before the Rigveda, for ploughing the land and pulling the carts.

Select the answer using the code given below :

A

1 and 2 only

B

1, 2 and 3

C

1 and 3 only

D

3 only

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Explanation

Statement 1 is Correct: The Rigveda contains references to the use of an ashma chakra (stone pulley wheel) and ahava (strapped wooden pails) to draw water from wells. This supports the idea that irrigation from wells allowed agriculture to expand away from flood plains into areas like Punjab and Haryana, where groundwater was accessible.

Statement 2 is Correct: The use of draught-animal power, specifically oxen, to draw water from wells is supported by historical evidence. Oxen were domesticated and used for ploughing and pulling carts even before the Rigvedic period, as evidenced by archaeological finds from the Indus Valley Civilization. This supports the statement that draught-animal power was employed to draw water from wells.

Statement 3 is Incorrect: While the Rigveda mentions agricultural implements like parashu (axe) and datra (sickle), these references do not directly support the statements about irrigation and draught-animal power. They are more related to the tools used for clearing land and harvesting crops.

Therefore, the correct option is C, as statements 1 and 3 support the given statements about the Rigvedic period.

Q12Art & Culture

What does an empty seat represent in early Buddhist iconography ?

A

The meditation of the Buddha

B

The Buddha's First Sermon

C

The Buddha's Mahaparinibbana

D

The Buddha's Mahabhinishkramana

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Explanation

In early Buddhist art (such as at Sanchi, Bharhut, and Amaravati), the Buddha was not depicted in human form. Instead, sculptors used specific physical symbols to represent his presence and the major events of his life. This is known as the aniconic phase of Buddhist iconography.

  • The meditation of the Buddha is represented by the Empty Seat (Vajrasana or Bodhimanda). It is often depicted under a parasol or the Bodhi tree, signifying the exact spot at Bodh Gaya where he sat in deep meditation to attain awakening.
  • The Buddha's First Sermon (Dharmachakrapravartana) is symbolized by the Wheel (Dharmachakra), representing the "turning of the wheel of law" at Sarnath.
  • The Buddha's Mahaparinibbana (his physical death and final liberation) is represented by the Stupa.
  • The Buddha's Mahabhinishkramana (the Great Departure or Renunciation) is represented by a Riderless Horse (Kanthaka), symbolizing Prince Siddhartha leaving his royal palace to seek truth.

Therefore, option A is the correct answer.

Q13Ancient History

Which of the following pairs of ancient and modern names of rivers is/are correctly matched ?

  1. Vitasta : Chenab
  2. Asikni : Jhelum
  3. Parushni : Ravi
  4. Yavyavati : Beas

Select the answer using the code given below :

A

1 and 2

B

3 and 4

C

3 only

D

4 only

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Explanation

Pair 1 is incorrectly matched: The ancient Rigvedic name for the modern Jhelum river is Vitasta, not Chenab.

Pair 2 is incorrectly matched: The ancient Rigvedic name for the modern Chenab river is Asikni, which translates to "dark-colored waters."

Pair 3 is correctly matched: The ancient Rigvedic name for the modern Ravi river is Parushni. It is historically significant as the site of the "Battle of the Ten Kings" (Dasarajna) fought by King Sudas, as mentioned in the Rigveda.

Pair 4 is incorrectly matched: The ancient Rigvedic name for the modern Beas river is Vipasha. Yavyavati is another ancient river mentioned in the Rigveda, often associated by historians with the Zhob river in Balochistan or the ancient Drishadvati river, but it is definitively not the Beas.

Therefore, only pair 3 is correctly matched, making the correct option C.

Q14Art & Culture

Which of the following statements on the Amaravati Stupa and its relief sculpture is/are correct ?

  1. It was located in the lower Krishna valley.
  2. In India, it was next only to the Sanchi Stupa in size.
  3. The Amaravati school of sculpture made a lasting impact on the later South Indian sculpture, and its products were carried to Sri Lanka and South-east Asia.

Select the answer using the code given below :

A

1 only

B

1 and 3 only

C

2 and 3 only

D

1, 2 and 3

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Explanation

Statement 1 is Correct: The Amaravati Stupa, historically known as the Maha Chaitya, is located in the lower Krishna River valley in the Guntur district of modern-day Andhra Pradesh.

Statement 2 is Incorrect: The Amaravati Stupa was actually larger than the Great Stupa at Sanchi. At its peak, the Amaravati Stupa had a diameter of approximately 50 meters and a height of about 27 meters, making it the largest stupa in India. In contrast, the Sanchi Stupa has a diameter of roughly 36.5 meters. Therefore, it was not "next only to Sanchi" in size.

Statement 3 is Correct: The Amaravati school of art (also known as the Vengi or Andhra school) had a profound and lasting impact on later South Indian sculpture, including Pallava and Chola art. Facilitated by robust maritime trade networks along the eastern coast of India, the Amaravati style and its sculpted products were widely exported. Its influence is prominently visible in Sri Lanka (especially the Buddha images at Anuradhapura) and across various parts of Southeast Asia (such as Thailand and Java).

Therefore, option B is the correct answer.

Q15Ancient History

Which of the following pairs of the king and his dynasty in early historical Tamilakam is/are not correctly matched ?

  1. Senguttuvan : Chera
  2. Udiyanjeral : Chola
  3. Nedunjeliyan : Pandya

Select the answer using the code given below :

A

1 and 2

B

2 only

C

1 and 3

D

3 only

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Explanation

Pair 1 is correctly matched: Senguttuvan (also known as Cheran Senguttuvan or the Red Chera) was a prominent ruler of the Chera dynasty. He is celebrated in the Tamil epic Silappadikaram and is credited with establishing the Pattini (Kannagi) cult.

Pair 2 is incorrectly matched: Udiyanjeral (Uthiyan Cheralathan) belonged to the Chera dynasty, not the Chola dynasty. He is considered the first historically recorded Chera ruler of the Sangam period and is famous in Sangam literature for the legend of feeding the rival armies during the Mahabharata war.

Pair 3 is correctly matched: Nedunjeliyan was a famous king of the Pandya dynasty. Sangam literature mentions prominent Pandyan kings by this name, such as Nedunjeliyan II, who is renowned for his decisive victory at the Battle of Talaiyalanganam against a combined Chera and Chola force.

Since the question asks for the pair(s) that are not correctly matched, only Pair 2 fits this criterion. Therefore, the correct option is B.

Q16Modern History

Which of the following factors contributed to the formation of the Forward Bloc by Subhas Chandra Bose in 1939 ?

  1. Bose failed to win the confidence of Mahatma Gandhi.
  2. The Congress Left was disunited and failed to support Bose.
  3. The Communists did not support Bose in his endeavours.
  4. The supporters of M.N. Roy and socialist leaders like Jayaprakash Narayan preferred Congress unity to supporting Bose.

Select the answer using the code given below :

A

1, 2 and 3

B

1, 2 and 4

C

1, 3 and 4

D

2 and 4 only

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Explanation

Statement 1 is Correct: Subhas Chandra Bose failed to win the confidence of Mahatma Gandhi. After Bose's re-election as INC President in 1939, Gandhi declared the defeat of his candidate, Pattabhi Sitaramayya, as his own defeat, indicating a lack of confidence in Bose.

Statement 2 is Correct: The Congress Left was disunited and failed to support Bose. The Congress Socialist Party, Communists, and Royists were fragmented and did not present a united front behind Bose during the Tripuri Crisis.

Statement 3 is Incorrect: While the Communists did not support Bose's radical approach, this was not a direct factor in the formation of the Forward Bloc. Their stance was more about maintaining unity under Gandhi rather than directly opposing Bose's endeavors.

Statement 4 is Correct: Supporters of M.N. Roy and socialist leaders like Jayaprakash Narayan preferred Congress unity over supporting Bose. They abstained from voting on the Govind Ballabh Pant resolution, which effectively withdrew their support from Bose to prevent a split in the Congress.

Therefore, the correct option is B, which includes statements 1, 2, and 4.

Q21Environment & Ecology

Consider the following statements with reference to India's response to climate change :

I. India's Long-Term Low Emission Development Strategy (LT-LEDS) is a crucial tool for achieving net-zero emissions by 2070. II. India's 4th Biennial Update Report (BUR-4) submitted in December, 2024 recorded around 8% decrease in Greenhouse gas emissions in 2020 over 2019. III. Climate-resilient development necessarily depends on quick and short-term achievement of emission reduction targets.

Which of the following relationships among the above statements is/are correct ?

  1. Statement I is empirically supported by statement II.
  2. Statement III contradicts the approach implicit in statement I.
  3. Statement I and statement III together establish the premise of long-term sustainability.

Select the answer using the code given below :

A

1 only

B

1 and 2

C

2 and 3

D

3 only

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Explanation

Statement I is Correct: India's Long-Term Low Emission Development Strategy (LT-LEDS) is indeed a crucial tool for achieving net-zero emissions by 2070. It outlines the strategic framework necessary for sectoral transitions in energy, transport, industry, and forestry to meet this long-term goal.

Statement II is Incorrect: While India's 4th Biennial Update Report (BUR-4) does record an approximately 8% decrease in greenhouse gas emissions in 2020 compared to 2019, this decrease is attributed to the economic slowdown and lockdowns during the COVID-19 pandemic, not to structural or strategic efforts towards long-term emission reductions. Therefore, it does not empirically support the strategic framework of LT-LEDS.

Statement III is Correct: The IPCC emphasizes that climate-resilient development depends on rapid, deep, and immediate emission reductions in the short term. This approach can be seen as contradicting the long-term focus of strategies like LT-LEDS if they do not also incorporate aggressive short-term actions.

Therefore, the correct relationship is that Statement III contradicts the approach implicit in Statement I, making option B correct.

Q22Environment & Ecology

With respect to the Western Hoolock Gibbons, which of the following statements is/are correct?

  1. A Sanctuary in North-east India is home to this ape species listed as Endangered in the International Union for Conservation of Nature (IUCN) Red List.
  2. They have specialized brachiation and can easily swing between trees.
  3. They possess a strong and heavy build like gorillas, yet are remarkably agile tree climbers.

Select the answer using the code given below:

A

1 only

B

1 and 2

C

2 and 3

D

3 only

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Explanation

Statement 1 is Correct: The Western Hoolock Gibbon is native to North-east India, and the Hollongapar Gibbon Sanctuary in Assam is a prominent protected area specifically dedicated to this species. Furthermore, the Western Hoolock Gibbon is classified as Endangered on the IUCN Red List.

Statement 2 is Correct: They are highly arboreal canopy-dwellers. They move primarily through brachiation—a specialized mode of locomotion where they use their exceptionally long arms to swing swiftly and effortlessly from tree branch to tree branch.

Statement 3 is Incorrect: Gibbons are classified as "lesser apes" (family Hylobatidae). Unlike "great apes" such as gorillas which possess massive, heavy builds, Hoolock gibbons are small, slender, and lightweight. Adults typically weigh only 6 to 9 kg, a physical adaptation that is essential for their remarkable aerial agility in the forest canopy.

Therefore, option B is the correct answer.

Q23Environment & Ecology

Which of the following best explain(s) the rationale for protecting mangrove ecosystems in the context of climate resilience?

  1. Mangroves reduce tidal energy and store freshwater, making them ideal sites for paddy cultivation in saline estuarine belts.
  2. Their salt-sensitive roots filter seawater, making mangroves key to converting coastal land into freshwater aquaculture zones.
  3. By withstanding tidal surges and offering biomass resources, mangroves function both as natural bio-shields and livelihood bases for rural communities.

Select the answer using the code given below:

A

1 only

B

1 and 2

C

2 and 3

D

3 only

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Explanation

Statement 1 is Incorrect: Mangroves do not store freshwater, nor are they naturally suited for paddy cultivation. In fact, the clearing of mangrove forests to create agricultural land (like paddy fields) has historically been a primary driver of their destruction, rather than a reason for their protection.

Statement 2 is Incorrect: Mangroves are halophytes, meaning they are highly salt-tolerant, not salt-sensitive. While their specialized root systems have ultrafiltration mechanisms to exclude salt, they do not convert coastal lands into freshwater zones. Furthermore, clearing mangroves for shrimp and aquaculture farms is a major threat to these ecosystems, not a conservation rationale.

Statement 3 is Correct: In the context of climate resilience, mangroves act as natural bio-shields. Their dense root networks (such as stilt roots and pneumatophores) stabilize coastal soils and dissipate tidal energy, protecting coasts from storm surges and cyclones. Additionally, they are highly productive ecosystems that provide sustainable biomass resources (like timber, honey, and fish breeding grounds), forming a crucial livelihood base for rural coastal communities.

Therefore, option D is the correct answer.

Q24Economy

In what way(s) does the Vizhinjam International Seaport represent a structural shift in India's maritime trade and logistics policy?

  1. By functioning exclusively as a domestic cargo hub to reduce reliance on coastal shipping and eliminate the need for foreign collaborations.
  2. By focusing primarily on passenger cruise tourism and heritage shipping to increase Kerala's profile as a maritime heritage destination.
  3. By leveraging its natural deep draft and strategic location to reduce dependence on foreign trans-shipment ports, enhance revenue retention, and reposition India in regional maritime trade.

Select the answer using the code given below:

A

1 only

B

1 and 2

C

2 and 3

D

3 only

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Explanation

Statement 1 is Incorrect: The Vizhinjam International Seaport is designed as an international container transshipment hub, not an exclusively domestic cargo hub. Rather than reducing reliance on coastal shipping, a transshipment hub relies heavily on a "hub-and-spoke" model, where large mother ships offload cargo that is then distributed to other Indian ports via smaller coastal feeder vessels. Furthermore, it actively seeks to attract foreign shipping lines and global integration, rather than eliminating foreign collaborations.

Statement 2 is Incorrect: While the port has provisions for a cruise terminal, its primary focus is handling international container transshipment and multi-purpose cargo. It is not primarily focused on passenger cruise tourism or heritage shipping.

Statement 3 is Correct: Vizhinjam leverages its natural deep draft of 18 to 24 meters, allowing it to berth Ultra Large Container Ships (ULCS) that previously bypassed Indian ports. Situated just 10 nautical miles from the busy East-West international shipping corridor, it aims to reclaim transshipment cargo historically handled by foreign hubs like Colombo, Singapore, and Jebel Ali. This structural shift reduces dependence on foreign ports, retains an estimated 200to200 to 400 million annually in transshipment revenues, and repositions India in regional maritime trade.

Therefore, option D is the correct answer.

Q25Indian Geography

Identify the river of the Indian sub-continent on the basis of the following information:

  1. It has an antecedent drainage system.
  2. It flows through three countries.
  3. It originates in the Tibetan Plateau and is an important river for irrigation.
  4. It does not form distributaries.

Select the answer from the following:

A

Brahmaputra

B

Indus

C

Sutlej

D

Teesta

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Explanation

The Sutlej perfectly matches all the given criteria.

  • Antecedent drainage system: Rivers like the Indus, Brahmaputra, and Sutlej are classic examples of antecedent drainage, as they existed before the Himalayan upliftment and maintained their courses by cutting deep gorges.
  • Flows through three countries: The Sutlej flows through China (Tibet), India, and Pakistan. The Indus (China, India, Pakistan) and Brahmaputra (China, India, Bangladesh) also flow through three countries. The Teesta flows through only two (India and Bangladesh), making it incorrect.
  • Originates in the Tibetan Plateau: The Sutlej originates from Rakshastal near Mansarovar in the Tibetan Plateau. It is a crucial source of irrigation, feeding major projects like the Bhakra-Nangal Dam and the Indira Gandhi Canal.
  • Does not form distributaries: This is the defining characteristic that eliminates the other options. Both the Brahmaputra and the Indus form large deltas with multiple distributaries before emptying into the Bay of Bengal and the Arabian Sea, respectively. The Sutlej, on the other hand, is a tributary that merges with the Chenab River to form the Panjnad, which subsequently flows into the Indus River. It does not form distributaries.

Therefore, the correct option is C.

Q27Environment & Ecology

Which of the following statements with regard to the arrival of Amur Falcons at Doyang Lake in Nagaland each year from Mongolia is/are correct?

  1. It showcases how sustained local conservation efforts can contribute to the arrival and protection of international migratory birds.
  2. It reflects the global success of advanced tracking technologies that guide migratory birds back to their stopover sites.
  3. It confirms that Amur Falcons have adapted to permanent residency in India due to favourable habitat changes.

Select the answer using the code given below:

A

1 only

B

1 and 2

C

2 and 3

D

3 only

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Explanation

Statement 1 is Correct: Doyang Lake in Nagaland represents a major community-led conservation victory. Previously, hundreds of thousands of Amur Falcons were trapped and hunted annually. Following sustained interventions by conservationists, NGOs, and the Nagaland Forest Department, local communities completely stopped the hunting, turning into protectors. This safe passage earned Nagaland the title "Falcon Capital of the World."

Statement 2 is Incorrect: Scientists use advanced tracking technologies (like lightweight solar-powered satellite transmitters) to monitor and study the falcons' migration routes, stopover durations, and flight speeds. These devices collect data for researchers; they do not guide the birds. The falcons rely entirely on natural navigation and environmental cues to find their way back to stopover sites.

Statement 3 is Incorrect: Amur Falcons are long-distance migratory raptors, not permanent residents of India. They breed in Siberia and Northern China and migrate annually to their wintering grounds in Southern Africa. During their approximately 22,000 km journey, they use Northeast India—specifically Doyang Lake in Nagaland—as a temporary stopover for a few weeks (October–November) to build fat reserves before undertaking a massive non-stop flight across the Arabian Sea.

Therefore, option A is the correct answer.

Q30World Geography

Ships from which of the following countries have to cross the Strait of Hormuz to reach out to the Indian Ocean?

  1. Bahrain
  2. Syria
  3. Qatar
  4. Egypt

Select the answer using the code given below:

A

1 and 2

B

1 and 3

C

2 and 3

D

3 and 4

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Explanation

Statement 1 is Correct: Bahrain is an island nation situated entirely within the Persian Gulf. The Strait of Hormuz is the only sea passage connecting the Persian Gulf to the Gulf of Oman and the open ocean. Therefore, for a ship departing from Bahrain to reach the Indian Ocean, it must exit the Persian Gulf by passing through this strait.

Statement 2 is Incorrect: Syria is located on the eastern coast of the Mediterranean Sea and has no coastline on the Persian Gulf. Ships departing from Syria would reach the Indian Ocean by traveling through the Suez Canal, down the Red Sea, and out through the Bab el-Mandeb Strait, completely bypassing the Strait of Hormuz.

Statement 3 is Correct: Qatar is a peninsular country located on the northeastern coast of the Arabian Peninsula, surrounded by the waters of the Persian Gulf. Like Bahrain, its ships must cross the Strait of Hormuz to access the Indian Ocean.

Statement 4 is Incorrect: Egypt borders the Mediterranean Sea to the north and the Red Sea to the east. Ships from Egypt can access the Indian Ocean directly by sailing south through the Red Sea and the Bab el-Mandeb Strait, without entering the Persian Gulf or crossing the Strait of Hormuz.

Therefore, the correct option is B.

Q32Environment & Ecology

With reference to Madhav National Park, which of the following statements is/are correct ?

  1. It was declared a Tiger Reserve in India in 2025.
  2. Sakhya Sagar, which is designated as a Ramsar Site, is situated within this National Park.
  3. Its area is shared between Madhya Pradesh and Rajasthan.

Select the answer using the code given below :

A

1 only

B

1 and 2

C

2 and 3

D

3 only

SuperKalam

Solvable from 3 SuperKalam resources

This question is connected to lessons, current affairs, and practice on SuperKalam.

Explanation

Statement 1 is Correct: Madhav National Park was officially declared as India's 58th Tiger Reserve (and the 9th in Madhya Pradesh) by the Union Environment Ministry in March 2025, following a successful tiger reintroduction program that began in 2023.

Statement 2 is Correct: Sakhya Sagar, a human-made reservoir created in 1918, is situated inside Madhav National Park. It was officially designated as a Ramsar Wetland of International Importance in 2022 and is known for its abundant marsh crocodile population and migratory waterfowl.

Statement 3 is Incorrect: Madhav National Park is located entirely within the Shivpuri district of Madhya Pradesh, situated on the northern fringe of the Central Highlands. It does not share its area with Rajasthan.

Therefore, option B is the correct answer.

Q33Indian Geography

With reference to the climate of Andaman and Nicobar Islands, which of the following statements is/are correct ?

  1. The climate can be defined as a humid, tropical coastal climate.
  2. It receives rainfall from both South-west monsoon and North-east monsoon.
  3. Maximum precipitation is between December and May.

Select the answer using the code given below :

A

1 only

B

1 and 2

C

2 and 3

D

3 only

SuperKalam

Solvable from 1 SuperKalam resource

This question is connected to lessons, current affairs, and practice on SuperKalam.

Explanation

Statement 1 is Correct: The Andaman and Nicobar Islands feature a humid, tropical coastal climate. Due to their equatorial proximity and oceanic surroundings, they experience uniform warm temperatures (averaging 23°C to 31°C) and high relative humidity (approximately 80%) year-round.

Statement 2 is Correct: The archipelago is unique in its rainfall pattern, as it receives substantial precipitation from both the South-West Monsoon and the North-East Monsoon.

Statement 3 is Incorrect: The maximum precipitation occurs during the South-West monsoon season, specifically between May and September (peaking heavily in July and August). The period between December and May is actually the driest part of the year, making it the peak tourist season. It does not receive the maximum precipitation during this time.

Therefore, the correct option is B.

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