Question
GSMediumPrelims 2011Economy

Why is the Government of India disinvesting its equity in the Central Public Sector Enterprises (CPSEs)?

  1. The Government intends to use the revenue earned from the disinvestment mainly to pay back the external debt.
  2. The Government no longer intends to retain the management control of the CPSEs.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

Explanation

Statement 1 is incorrect: The revenue earned from disinvestment is not "mainly" used to pay back external debt. Historically, these proceeds were funneled into the National Investment Fund (NIF), where 75% was used for social sector schemes (like health and education) and 25% for the capital requirements of CPSEs. In recent years, disinvestment proceeds have been used to bridge the fiscal deficit and fund large-scale Capital Expenditure (Capex) in infrastructure. India's external debt is relatively small compared to its internal debt, and specific earmarking for external debt repayment is not a policy objective of disinvestment.

Statement 2 is incorrect: This is a broad generalization that ignores the distinction between types of disinvestment. In Minority Disinvestment, the government sells a portion of its shares but retains at least 51% equity and full management control.

Under the New PSE Policy (2021), CPSEs are divided into Strategic and Non-Strategic sectors. In strategic sectors (like Atomic Energy, Space, and Defense), the government intends to maintain a "bare minimum" presence, meaning it does intend to retain control in certain key areas. Management control is only transferred in cases of Strategic Disinvestment or privatization.

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